O&G Flashcards

1
Q

Components of a gynae hx

A

Personal details

PC

Specific gynaecological questions

Past obstetric hx

Past medical hx

Systems r/v

DHx: allergies, penicillin and latex

FHx

Personal/Social hx

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2
Q

PC in G

A

SOCRATES

NOTEPAD

Impact on QoL

Previous consultations

Order multiple PCs in order of severity/impact on life

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3
Q

Menstrual questions in G Hx

A

FMP

How often, how many days from the first day of bleeding to the next first day?

How long does it last? (/28)

Is it regular or irregular

Heavy (number of pads, flooding, presence of clots)

Is it or the days leading up to it painful

IMB?

PCB?

Vaginal discharge- characterise

Does she experience premenstrual tension?

When was her LMP?

If post-menopausal, has there been PMB?

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4
Q

Sexual/contraceptive questiosn in G

A

Sexually active?

Painful- penetration (superficial dyspareunia) or deep inside (deep), during and or after (delayed)

What contraceptive does she use and has she used in the past?

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5
Q

Cervical smear questions in G

A

When was her last smear

Ever had an abnormal smear?

What was done?

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6
Q

Cervical screening

A

Every 3 years between 25 and 49

Every 5 years between 50 and 64

Not performed after 64 unless never screened or hx of recent abnormal tests

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7
Q

Urinary/prolapse questions in G

A

Frequency (normal is 4-7pd)

Nocturia

Urgency

Leak urine, including when asleep (nocturnal enuresis), if so how severe is it and with what is it associated (e.g. coughing, lifting/straining, urgency)

Dysuria?

Haematuria

Dragging sensation or feel a mass in or at the vagina?

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8
Q

Past obstetric hx in G

A

Have you ever been pregnant?

If yes ask about previous pregnancies in chronological order

Ask how infant was born, weight and how the infant is now. Name

Any major complications in pregnancy or labour?

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9
Q

PMHx in G

A

Previous gynaecological operations

Ask about DVT, DM, lung and CHD, HTN, jaundice etc as in other medical histories

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10
Q

Systems R/V in G

A

CV, Resp, Neuro.

Specifically ask about urinary and GI symptoms

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11
Q

FHx in G

A

FHx of breast, ovarian carcinoma?

DM?

VTE

CHD

HTN

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12
Q

Personal/social history in G

A

Smoke

ETOH

MarriedStable relationship

Support at home?

Where does she live and what sort of accomodation

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13
Q

Allergies in G

A

Ask specifically about penicllin and latex

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14
Q

Abdo exam in G

A

General examination: seek the systemic effects of gynaecological problems and assess general health.

Appearance and weight. T. BP. Pulse and possible anaemia, jaundice or lymphadenopathy.

Comfortably on back with head on pillow. Exposed from xiphisternum to pubic symphysis.

EMPTY BLADDER

Inspect: scars, body hair distribution, irregularities, striae and hernias

Palpate: tenderness, palpate the abdomen generally looking for masses. Then palpate specifically looking for masses from above the umbilicus down to the pubic symphysis. If masses are present, do they arise from the pelvis (can you get below them)

Percuss: look for shifting dullness

Auscultate: BS

Vaginal Examination

Rectal examination

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15
Q

Vaginal examination in G

A

Privacy, explain, use bathroom. Chaperone- name documented in the notes. Use lubricating jelly.

Inspect: vulva and vaginal orifices

Digital bimanual examination

Cusco’s speculum examination

Sim’s speculum examination

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16
Q

Digital bimanual exmaination

A

Assesses pelvic organs

Left hand on aboomen above the pubic symphysis and pushed down so the organs are palpated

Two fingers inserted into the vagina

Uterus: normally the size and shape of a small pear. Size, consistency, regularity, mobility, anteversion/retroversion and tenderness

Cervix: hard or irregular?

Adnexa: lateral to the uterus on either side. Tenderness and size and consistency of any amss assessed. Separate from the uterus

Pouch of Douglas: uterosacral ligaments should be palpable: even, irregular or tender, mass?

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17
Q

Cusco’s speculum

A

Allows inspection of the cervix and vaginal walls.

NB anteverted uterus.

Look for ulceration, spontaneous bleeding or irregularities.

Cervical smear

Slowly withdraw partly closing speculum to allow inspection of the vaginal walls to the introitus and rotate as retract

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18
Q

Sim’s speculum

A

Allows better inspection of the vaginal walls and te prolapse.

Patient in left lateral position.

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19
Q

Rectal examination

A

Appropriate if posterior wall prolapse, to distingusih between an enterocoele and a rectocoele and in assessing malignant cervical disease

May be necessary if a woman complains of cyclical rectal bleeding- ?rectovaginal endometriosis

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20
Q

What is thelarche and when does it begin?

Adrenarche?

Menarche

What controls secondary sexual characteristics?

A

Beginning of breast development: 9-11 y

Growth of pubic hair (11-12)

13y

Oestrogen

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21
Q

D1-4 mensturation

A

Endometrium is shed as hormonal support is withdrawn, myometrial contraction also occurs

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22
Q

D5-13 proliferative phase

A

GnRH stimulate LH and FSH which induce follicular growth

Follicle produces oestradiol and inhibin which suppress FSH.

As oestradiol level rise and reach their maximum they cause a +ve feedback on the hypothalamus/pit and cause LH surge.

Ovulation occurs 36 hours after the LH surge

Oestradiol also promotes endometrial proliferation

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23
Q

D14-28 Luteal/secretory phase

A

Follicle becomes corpus luteum, produces oestradiol but relatively more progesterone, which peaks d21-28

This induces secretory changes in hte endometrium.

Towards the end of the luteal phase, the corpus luteum starts to fail if the egg hasn’t been fertilised and oestradiol/progesterone levels fall.

This decline in hormonal support causes the endometrium to break down, leading to menstruation and the restart of the cycle

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24
Q

What can be used to delay menstruation and why?

A

Continuous administration of exogenous progesterone as it maintains the secretory endometrium

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25
Q

Normal mensturation cut offs

A

Menarche <16y

Menopause >45y

Mensturation <8d

Blood loss <80ml

Cycle length 23-25

No IMB

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26
Q

Menorrhagia

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

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27
Q

IMB

A

Bleeding between periods

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28
Q

Irregular periods

A

Periods outside of the range of 23-35d with a variability of >7d between the shortest and longest cycle

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29
Q

Secondary amenorrhoea

A

Periods stop for 6m or more.

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30
Q

Oligomenorrhoea

A

Irregular periods, >35d-6m

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31
Q

PMB

A

Bleeding 1 year after the menopause

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32
Q

Dysmenorrhoea

A

Painful periods

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33
Q

Premenstrual syndrome

A

Psychological and physical symptoms worse during the luteal phase

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34
Q

Menorrhagia def

A

Excessive bleeding in otherwise normal menstrual cycle

Excessive menstrual blood loss that interferes with the woman’s physical, emotional, social and material QoL +/- other smyptoms

>80mL (corresponds to the maximum amount that a woman on a normal diet can lose without becoming Fe deficient)

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35
Q

Aetiology and epidemiology HMB (menorrhagia)

Rare causes of HMB

A

1/3rd women complain of HMB

Fibroids= 30% HMB

Polyps= 10% HMB

Thyroid disease, haemostatic disorders and anticoagulant therapy.

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36
Q

What differentiates bleeding in malignancy from HMB?

A

Bleeding in malignancy tends to be irregular

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37
Q

Hx in menorrhagia

Ex in menorrhagia

A

Menstrual calendar. Flooding and passage of large clots. Contraception.

Anemia. Pelvic signs often absent. Irregular enlargement of the uterus suggests fibroids.

Tenderness without enlargement suggests adenomyosis.

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38
Q

Ix in menorrhagia

A

FBC: to check patient’s Hb

TFTs/Coagulation: to exclude systemic causes (if there are factors indicating this may be the case)

Transvaginal USS of hte pelvis: to exclude local organic causes (endometiral thickness, exclude fibroid, mass and detect larger intrauterine polyps (+/- biopsy or hysterectomy if USS is inconclusive)

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39
Q

Indications for USS biopsy in HMB

A

Endometrial thickness >10mm

?Polyp

Woman >40 with recent onset menorrhagia

Treatment failure/ineffective treatment

Before insertion of IUS if cycle not regular

Prior to endometiral ablation/diathermy as tissue will not be available for pathology

If abnormal uterine bleeding has resulted in acute admission

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40
Q

Mx of HMB

Rx

Sx

A

Exclude pathology

Depends on woman’s contraceptive needs.

1st line= intrauterine system- not option for woman who wishes to conceive . 90% reduction in blood loss.

2nd line: antifibrinolytics (tranexamic acid) taken during menstruation only. 50% reduction in blood loss

NSAIDs (mefanamic acid) inhibit prostaglandin synthesis reducing blood loss by around 30%. NB also useful for dysmenorrhoea.

Combined OCP- lighter mesntruation but less effective if pelvic pathology is present.

3rd line: progestogens, high dose orally or by IM will cuase amenorrhoea but bleeding follows withdrawl.

GnRH agonists: produces amenorrhoea. Duration is limited to 6 months unless add-back HRT used.

Sx

Hysterposcopic:

Polyp removal (if caused by local abnormalities)

Endometrial ablation technique

Transcervical resection of fibroid (TCRF).

More radical:

Myomectomy

Hysterectomy:

Uterine artery ambolisation

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41
Q

Features of IUS

A

Progestogen impregnated IUD is a coil that reduces menstural flow with fewer Ses.

Highly effective alternative to medical and surgical treatment.

It is contraceptive and also provides the progestogen component of HRT.

Distinguish from Cu IUDs that may increase menstrual loss

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42
Q

Sx approaches to HMB

Hysteroscopic

More radical

A

Hysterposcopic:

Polyp removal (if caused by local abnormalities)

Endometrial ablation technique: removal/destruction of endometrium- satisfcation is less than with hysterectomy. Most appropriate in older women with pure menorrhagia. Non sterilising.

Transcervical resection of fibroid (TCRF).

More radical:

Myomectomy: removal of fibroids from the myometrium: open or laparoscopic (<4fibroids, <8cm diameter). Used if fibroids causing symptoms but fertility is still required. GnRH agonists can be used to reduce size of fibroids first.

Hysterectomy: last resort.

Uterine artery ambolisation: treats menorrhagia for women who want to retain their uterus.

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43
Q

Rx management of HMB

A

1st line: IUS

2nd line: antifibrinolytics, NSAIDs, OCP

3rd line: progestogens, GnRH analogues

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44
Q

When are anovulatory cycles common

A

Just after menarche and before the menopause

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45
Q

What are some causes of IMB/oligomenorrhoea

A

Anovulatory

Pathological:

Non malignant

Fibroids, uterine and cervical polyps, adenomyosis, ovarian cysts and chronic pelvic infection.

Malignant:

Overain, cervical and most particulalry endometrial

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46
Q

Ix in IMB/oligomenorrhoea

A

FBC: to asssess the effect of blood loss

Ix to exclude malignancy:

Cerbical smear

USS of the cavity for women >35 with irregular/IMB and in younger women if treatment has failed, will also detect uterine fibroid or ovarian mass.

Endometrial biopsy

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47
Q

Mx of Oligomenorrhoea/IMB

Rx

A

Rx where no anatomical cause is detected

1st line: IUS or OCP.

2nd line: 2nd line Rx for menorrhagia

Sx:

Cervicaly polyp can be excised.

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48
Q

Definition of Amenorrhoea

A

Absence of menstruation

1o= hasn’t started by 16, may be manifestation of delayed puberty in which secondary sexual characteristics are not present by age 14. If 2o sexual characteristics are present, problem of menstrual outflow is more likely.

2o= 6m without menstruation in previosly normal mensturation

Oligomenorrhoea: >35d-6m

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49
Q

Classification of causes of amenorrhoea

A

Physiological

Pathological

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50
Q

Physiological causes of amenorrheoa

A

Pregnancy, after the menopause, during lactation, constitutional dleay

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51
Q

Pathological amenorrhoea

Hypothalamus

Pituitary

Adrenals

Ovary

Uterus

Outflow Tract

Drugs

A

Hypothalamus: Hypothalamic hypogonadism.

Pituitary: hyperprolactinaemia; rarer= other pituitary tumours, Sheehan’s syndrome

Adrenal/Thyroid; hypo/hyperthyroid. CAH/virilising tumours

Ovary:

  • Acquired: PCOS, premature menopause, rare virilizing tumours*
  • Congnetial: Turner’s (most common), other forms of gonadal dysgenesis*

Outflow problems:

  • Congenital: Primary amenorrhoea with normal secondary sexual characteristics. Imperforate hymen and transverse vaginal septum. Rokitansky’s syndrome*
  • Acquired: Usually secodary. Cervical stenosis, Asherman’s syndrome, endometrial resection or ablation*

Drugs: e.g. antipsychotics, GnRH analgoues, progestogens

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52
Q

Hypothalamic hypogonadism

Mx

A

Common, usually due to psychologica, lowe weight or excessive exercise

Tumours are a rare cause and may be excluded by MRI.

GnRH and FSH/LH and oestradiol are reduced.

Bone density may be reduced if there has been prolonged hypo-oestrogenism.

Oestrogen replacement (+progesterone for endometrial protection) i.e. OCP/HRT

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53
Q

Hyperprolactinaemia

Mx

A

Usually caused by pituitary hyperplasia or adenomas

Rx: bromocriptine, carbegoline or Sx

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54
Q

Affect of hypothyroidism on prolactin levels

A

Hyperprolactinaemia leading to amenorrhoea

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55
Q

Turners Syndrome

A

45 XO

Short stature, poor secondary sexual characteritsics, normal intelligence.

Most common congenital ovarian cause of amenorrhoea

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56
Q

Haematoclpos

Haematometra

A

Accumulation of menstrual flow in the vagina

or uterus

To outflow tract obstruction by either imperforate hymen or transverser vaginal septum

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57
Q

Rokitansky’s syndrome

A

Mullerian agenesis

Congential malformation characterised by failures of Mullerian duct development resulting in a missing uterus and variable degrees of vaginal hypoplasia.

Mullerian agenesis is the aetiology in 15% of cases of primary amenorrhoea

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58
Q

Asherman’s syndrome

A

Consequence of excessive curettage in ERPC performed following miscarriage or delivery.

Asherman’s syndrome, also known as intrauterine adhesions, is a condition where the cavity of the uterus develops scar tissue (adhesions).

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59
Q

Mx of osteoporotic risk in primary amenorrhoea

A

Treat underlying cause

Asses # risk. Correct any VitDD and ensure adequate Ca intake.

Consider HRT.OCP if amenorrhoea persists for more than 12m

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60
Q

What blood results suggests premature ovarian failure?

A

Persistently elevated FSH and LH in woman younger than 40y/o

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61
Q

What factors are suggestive of Asherman’s syndrome

A

Recent Hx of uterine or cervical Sx or severe pelvic infection (endometritis)

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62
Q

Definition of PCB

A

Vaginal bleeding following intercourse that is not menstrual loss

Except for first intercourse, this is always abnormal and cervical carcinoma must be excluded.

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63
Q

Aetiology of PCB

A

When the cervix is not covered in health suqamous epithelium it is more likely to bleed after mild trauma.

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64
Q

What are the most common causes of PCB

A

Cervical ectropions

Benign polyps

Invasive cervical cancer

(cervicitis, vaginitis (atrophic)

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65
Q

Mx of PCB

A

Cervical inspection + smear.

Polyp- avulsed and sent to histology.

Ectropion can be frozen with cryotherapy.

Abnormal smear-> colposcopy

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66
Q

Def dysmenorrhoea

A

Painful menstruation. Associated with high PG levels in the endometrium and is due to contraction and uterine ischaemia.

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67
Q

Causes of dysmenorrhoea

A

Primary: when no orgnaic cause is found.

Secondary: when pain is due to pelvic pathology. Fibroids, adenomyosis, endometriosis, PID, ovariant tumours,

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68
Q

What differentiates between primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

Primary usually coincides with the start of mensturaiton and is very common, particularly in adolescents. Responds to NSAIDs and ovulation suppresions e.g. OCP. Pelvic pathology more likely if medical treatment fails.

Secondary: pain often precedes and is relieved by onset of menstruation. Deep dyspareunia and menorrhoagia or irregular mensturation are common. P USS and laparoscopy useful.

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69
Q

Def precocious puberty

A

When menstruation occurs before the age of 10 and/secondary sexual characteristics are evident before age of 8.

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70
Q

Causes of precocious puberty

Central

Ovarian/adrenal

A

In 80% no pathological cause is found.

Central causes: increased GnRH secretion: meningitis, encephalitis, CNS tumours, hydrocephaly and hypothyroieism may prevent normal prepuberatl inhibition of hypothalamic GnRH release. Rx:

Ovarian/adrenal causes: increased oestrogen secretion: hormone producing tumours of the ovary/adrenal glands. Regression occurs after removal. McCune-Allbright syndrome.

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71
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Bone and ovarian cysts

Cafe au lait sports

Precocious puberty

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72
Q

Mx of precocious puberty

A

GnRH agonists used to inhibit sex hormone secretion causing regression of secondary sexual health characteristics

For increased oestrogen secretion cypropterone acetate (antiandrogenic progestogen) can be used

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73
Q

CAH in genetic female

Aetiology

Features

Rx

A

Recessive inheritance.

Defective cortisol production usually as a result of 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

ACTH exess causes incresed androgen production.

Presents at birth with ambiguous genitalia. GC deficiency may cause Addisonian crisis.

May present at puberty with enlarged clitoris and amenorrhoea.

Cortisol and MC replacemant.

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74
Q

AIS in genetic male

A

Occurs when male has cell receptor insensitvity to androgen which are peripherally converted to oestrogens.

Individual appears to be female.

Presentation is with amenorrhoea.

Uterus absent, rudimentary testes present which are removed due to possible malginant change.

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75
Q

Premenstrual syndrome

A

Psychological, behavioural and physical symptoms that are experienced on a regular basis during te luteal phase of te mesntrual cycle and often resolve by the end of menstruation.

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76
Q

Hx in PMS

A

Cyclical nature rather than symptoms themselves that enable diagnosis.

Tnesion, irritability, aggressoin, depression, loss of control.

Bloatedness, GI upset, Breast pain

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77
Q

Ex in PMS

A

Menstrual diaries.

Psychological evaluation as depression and neurosis may present at PMS

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78
Q

Mx of PMS

A

SSRIs either continuously or intermittently in the second half of the cycle.

OCP.

GnRH agonists and add back oestrogens.

Supplements: evening primrose oil is good for breast tenderness. Pyridoxine 50mg BD can help but may cause neuropathy in excess

Vitex agnus-castus extract.

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79
Q

Anatomy of the uterus

A

Superiorly: fundus

Laterally to fundus= cornu which is the communication with the fallopiam tubes

Supported at the inferior end by the uterosacral and cardinal ligaments.

Anteverted in 80%

Wall is made of smooth muscle which is lined by endometrium (glandular epithelium)

Serosa= peritoneum posteriorly. Also covers the uterus down to the bladder. Laterally the peritoneum is continuouous with the broad ligaments that run between the uterus and pelvic side wall. These are continuous with the fallopian tubest and round ligaements suepriorly and inferiroly contain the uterine blood supply, ureturs and parametrium

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80
Q

Uterine blood supply

Lymph drainage?

A

From uterine arteries

Pass over the ureturs laterally to the cervix. Pass inferiroly and superiorly supplying the myometrium and endometrium.

Anastamose at the cornu with the ovarian blood supply.

Inferiorly anastamose with the blood supply to the upper vagina.

Lymph to EI Nodes.

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81
Q

Blood supply of the dnometrium

A

Spiral and basal arterioles.

Spiral= important in mensturation and nourishment of growing fetus.

After ovulation under the influence of progesterone during the luteal phase the glands swell and blood uspply increases.

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82
Q

Fibroids definition

A

Leiomyomata, bening tumours of the myometrium

25% of wmeon.

More common near menopause, Afrocaribbean and in FHx.

Less common in parous women and those who have taken OCP or injectable progestogens

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83
Q

Fibroid sites

A

Subsersal

Intramural

Submucosal may form intracavity polyps

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84
Q

Aetiology of fibroids

A

Oestrogen and progesterone dependant

Fbiroids regress after menopause

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85
Q

Hx in fibroids

A

50% asymptomatic and discovered at pelvic/abdo exams. Symptoms relate to site rather than size

Menstrual problems (30%): menorrhagia, unchanged timing of menses. IMB may occur if fibroid is submucosal or polypoid.

Erratic bleeding

Pain: dysmenorrhoea, seldom cause pain unless torsion, red degeneration or sarcomatous chnage occur

Pressure effects: large fibroids pressing on bladder can cause frequency/urinary retnetion.

Hydronephrosis due to ureteric compressoin.

Fertility impairment due to obstruction of the tubal ostia or submucous fibroids preventing implamantation. Intramural fibroids that aren’t distorting the cavity can also reduce fertility through an unknown mechanism.

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86
Q

Ex in Fibroids

A

Solid mass palpable on pelvic/abdo examination which arises from pelvis and is continuous with the uterus.

Multiple small fibroids cause irregular knobbly enlargement of the uterus.

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87
Q

Cx of fibroids

A

Enlargement: can be very slow. Often stop and calcify after menopause although HRT may stimulate further growth. Enlarge in pregnancy. Pedunculated fibroids may undergo torsion

Degenerations: result of inadequate blood supply.

Red degeneration (more common in pregnancy): pain + uterine tenderness, haemorrhage and necrosis

Hyaline/cystic degeneration the fibroid is soft and partly liquefied.

Malignancy: 0.1% are leiomyosarcomata. may be malignant change or de novo transformation of myometrium

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88
Q

Fibroids in pregnancy

A

Premature labour

Malpresentations

Transverse lie

Obstructed labour

PPH

Red degeneration

Pedunculated fibroids may tort in post partum period

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89
Q

Ix in Fibroids

A

Dx: USS bu MRI/Laparoscopy may be required to distinguish from ovarian mass

Adenomyosis can exist as a fibroid like mass (MRI ddx)

Hysteroscopy/hysterosalpingogram to assess distortion of the uterine cavity- if fertility is an issue.

To establish fitness: Hb may be low due to vaginal bleeding, may also be high

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90
Q

Why may Hb be high in fibroids

A

They can secrete EPO

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91
Q

Mx of fibroids

A

Asymptomatic with small/slow-growing: no treatment

Large fibroids that are not removed should be serially measured by examination or USS.

Menorrhagia associated fibroids:

<3cm without distortion of uterine cavity, determine whether woman wants to conceive and use treatment options for menorrhagia: LNG-IUS. Tranexamic, NSAID or OCPs

Norethisterone/Depoprovera (Progestetone)

>3cm: refer: Sx intervention. In interim can try NSAIDs/Tranexamic acid.

Compressive symptoms: refer

Fertility/obstetric symptoms: refer

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92
Q

Sx treatment of fibroid

A

Hysteroscopic: fibroid polyp or small submucous fibroid can be resected. Pretreatment with GnRH agonist for 1-2m can shrink the fibroid, reduce vasculairy and thin the endometirum making resection easier and safer

Myomectomy: open or laparoscopic. NB heavy blood loss and small fibroids may be missed. Myomectomy performed if medical treatment has failed but preservation of reproductive function is required. Preceded by 2-3m of GnRH agonist. Perioperative injection of vasopressin into the myometrium reduces blood loss.

Adhesions can form at site of myomectomy which can reduce fertility if affecting the endometrial cavity or fallopian tubes. if the endometrial cavity is opened during myomectomy, C-section is indicated in future pregnancy due to risk of rupture.

Radical hysterectomy: Pretreatment with GnRH, common indication. Laparoscopic, vaginal or open.

Other treatmnents:

UAE

Ablation

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93
Q

Def adenomyosis

A

Prsece of endometirum and its underlying stroma in the myometrium.

Found in 40% of hysterectomy specimens.

Associated with endometriosis and fibroids. Symptoms subside postmenopausally.

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94
Q

NB in anedomyosis

A

Endometrial tissues grows into the myometrium. Occassionally may show varying degrees of atypia or invasion

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95
Q

Hx of adenomyosis

Ex of adenomyosis

A

Symptoms may be absent but painful, regular, heavy menstruation is common.

Uterus is mildly enlarged and tender

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96
Q

Dx of adenomyosis

A

Not easily diagnosed on USS but can be diagnosed on MRI

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97
Q

Mx of adenomyosis

A

IUS

OCP +/- NSAIDs may control the menorrhagia or dysmenorrhoea but hysterectomy often required.

Oestrogen dependant.

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98
Q

Endometritis

A

Secondary to STI, as a complication of surgery (C-section and intrauterine procedure) or because of foreign tissue e.g. IUD and RPC.

Infection in the postmenopausal uterus is commonly due to malginancy

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99
Q

Hx and Ex in enodemtritis

A

Tender uterus with pelvic and systemic infection

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100
Q

Pyometra

A

Pus accumulates in uterus and is unable to escape

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101
Q

Mx of endometritis

A

Antibiotics

ERPC

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102
Q

Intrauterine polyps

A

Small bening tumours that grow in to the uterine cavity. Most are endometrial although some come from submucous fibroid.

Often found in patients on tamoxifen for breast Ca.

Occassionally contian endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma.

Dx at USS/hysteroscopy

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103
Q
A
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104
Q

What is the most common genital tract cancer?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

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105
Q

Epidemiology or endometrial carcinoma

A

Highest prevalence >60

15% occur premenopausally.

<1% <35y/o

Usually presents early.

Adenocarcinoma of columnar gland cells >90%. Rest is adenosquamous carcinoma- poorer prognosis

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106
Q

What increases the risk of endometrial carcinoa?

A

high oestrogen: progesterone

When oestrogen therapy is used unopposed by progestogens

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107
Q

Risk factors for endometrial carcinoma

Protective

A

Exogenous:

oestrogens without a progestogen

Tamoxifen (acts as an agonist in the postmenopausal uterus)

Endogenous:

Obesity

PCOS as it is associated with prolonged amenorrhoea.

Nulliparity

Late menopause

Ovarian granulosa cell tumours (oestrogen secreting)

Misc: DM, HTN. Lynch Type 2 syndrome: familal non-polyposis colonic, ovarian and endometrial carcinoma.

OCP and pregnancy

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108
Q

Premalignant disease in endoemtrial carcinoma

A

Cystic hyperplasia-> Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia

May cause menstrual abnormalities or PMB

Often coexists (40%) with carcinoma elsewhere in the uterine cavity

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109
Q

Hx in endoemtrial carcinoma

Ex in endometrial carcinoma

A

PMB: 10% risk of carcinoma. Likelihood that PMB is due to cancer rather than unknown or benign causes increases with age. Premenopausal patients have irregular or IMB or occasionally recent-onset menorrhagia. Cervical semar may contain abnormal columnar cells.

Ex: pelvis often appears normal. Atrophic vaginitis may coexist

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110
Q

Spread of endometrial carcinoma

A

Through the moymetrium to the cervix and upper vagina. May be ovarian involvement.

Lymphatic spread to pelvci then para-aortic nodes.

Staging is surgical and histological and includes LN involvement

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111
Q

Endometrial carcinoma staging

A

Only possible post hysterectomy

1: lesions confined to uterus

A: <0.5 myometrial invasion.

B: >0.5 myometrial invasion

Stage 2: as above but in cervix too

Stage 3: Tumour invades through the uterus.

A: invades serosa or adnexae

B: vaginal/parametrial involvement

Ci: pelvic node involvement

Cii: para-aortic involvement

Stage 4: further spread

A: bowel or bladder

B: distant mets

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112
Q

Dx of endometrial carcinoma

A

USS/hysteroscopy- biopsy required to make diagnosis

MRI performe din all patients or if spread is suspected due to other symptoms.

CXR to exclude extrapulmonary sprad

FBC, RFT, glucose testing.

ECG

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113
Q

Treatment of endometrial carcinoma

A

Sx: 75% present with Stage 1. Hysterectomy and bilatreal salpingooophorectomy (BSO) is performed either open or laparoscopically.

Routine lymphadenectomy is not beneficial in early stage disase.

RTx: External beam radiography used following hysterectomy for those at high risk of LN involvement but not in those with early stage disease. RFs: deep myometrial spread, poor hisotlogy or grade, cerbical stromal involvement.

Vaginal vault therapy.

Other: Progestogens seldom used. CTx may have a role in high risk early stage and advanced disease.

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114
Q

Px for endometrial carcinoma

Poor pxic factors

A

Recurrency common at the vaginal vault.

Older age

Advanced stage

Deep myometrial invasion in Stage 1 and 2

High tumour grade

Adenosquamous hisotlogy

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115
Q

Uterine sarcomas

3 categories

A

Rare

Leiomyosarcomas: malignant fibroid

Endometrial stromal tumours: most common in perimenopausal woman

Mixed mullerian tumours: derived from the embryological elements of the uterus and more common in old age.

Usually present with irregular/PMB or rapid painful enlargement of a fiborid

Treatment with hysterectomy.

RTx/CTx can be used adjuvantly but 5 year survival is 30%

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116
Q

Px for Endometrial Ca by stage

1

2

3

4

A

1: 85
2: 70

3-4: 50

4:25

Overall 75

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117
Q

First line treatment for dysmenorrhoea?

A

NSAIDs as they will inhibit PG synthesis, one of the main cuauses of dysmenorrhoea pains.

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118
Q

First line treatment in urinary incontinence

Urge

Stress

A

Urge: bladder retrianing

Stress: pelvic floor muscle training

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119
Q

Causes of urinary incontinence

A

Overactive bladder/urge incontinence: due to detrusor overactivity

Stress incontinence: leaking small amounts when coughing or laughing

Mixed incontinence

Overflow incontinence: due to bladder outlet obstruction e.g. prostate englargement

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120
Q

Ix of urinary incontinence

A

Bladder diaries (>3d)

Vaginal examination to exclude cystocele

Urine dipstick and culture

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121
Q

Mx of urge incontinence

A

Conservative: bladder rtraining (lasts for minimum of 6w, idea is to gradually increase the intervals between voiding)

Rx: Bladder stabilising drugs: antimuscarinic is first line.

Sx: sacral nerve

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122
Q

Mx of stress incontinence

A

Pelvic floor muscle training (minimum of 3 months)

Srugical procedures e.g. retropubic mid-uretthral tape procedures

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123
Q

Common causes of vaginal d/c

Less common causes

A

Physiological

TV

BV

Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia (rarely PC), ectropion, foreign body, Cervical Ca

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124
Q

Features of Candida d/c

A

Cottage cheese

Vulvitis

Pruritis

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125
Q

Features of TV d/c

A

Offesnive, yellow/green, frothy d/c

Vulvovaginitis

Strawberry cervix

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126
Q

Features of BV d/c

A

Offesnive, thin, white/grey, fishy d/c

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127
Q

What differentiates between ectopic and threatened miscarriage

Ix

A

Mild suprapubic pain at 10w

USS

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128
Q

What is the typical symptom of urogenital prolapse

A

Bearing down, heaviness, dragging sensation

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129
Q

Cervical excitation is seen in?

A

PID and ectopic pregnancy

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130
Q

What is the classical history of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Amenorrhoea

Abdo pain

Vaginal bleeding

In combination with shoulder tip pain- peritoneal bleed

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131
Q

What are the types of miscarriage?

A

Threatened

Missed (delayed)

Inevitabel

incomplete

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132
Q

Features of threatened miscarriage

A

Painless vaginal bleeding before 24w (typically 6-9w)

Bleeding often less than mensturation

Cervical os is closed

Complicates 25% of pregnancies

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133
Q

Features of missed (delayed) miscarriage

A

A gestational sac which contains a dead fetus before 20w without symptoms of expulsion

Mother may have light vaginal bleeding/discharge and symptoms of pregnancy which disappear

Typically painless

Cervical os is closed

When the gestational sac is >25mm and no embryonic/foetal part can be seen it is sometimes described as a blighted ovum or anembryonic pregnancy

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134
Q

Features of inevitable miscarriage

A

Heavy bleeding with clots and pain

Cervical os open

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135
Q

Features of incomplete miscarriage

A

Not all products of conception have been expelled

Pain and vaginal bleeding

Cervical os open

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136
Q

Features of complete miscarriage

A

Spontaenous abortion with expulsion of the entire foetus through the cervice

Pain and uterine contractions stop after the foetus has been expelled

Dx: USS shows an empty uterus

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137
Q

In a female with PMB what is the diagnosis

A 72-year-old nulliparous female presents with post menopausal bleeding. She reports that her last cervical screening was 14 years ago. On examination she is found to be obese and hypertensive. What is the most important diagnosis to rule out?

Vaginal squamous cell carcinoma

Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

Endometrial adenocarcinoma

Atrophic vaginitis

Leiomyosarcoma

A

In a female with postmenopausal bleeding (PMB), the diagnosis is endometrial cancer until proven otherwise.

Although all the options can result in PMB, the question states the most important one to rule out, which in this case would be endometrial adenocarcinoma due to its strong association with PMB and the importance of an early diagnosis prognostically.

In addition, the patient in this question has two risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma - hypertension and obesity. Other risk factors include diabetes mellitus, polycystic ovarian syndrome, tamoxifen use, late menopause and high levels of oestrogen.

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138
Q

Ix of amenorrhoea

A

Exclud pregnancy

Gonadotrophins: low levels indicate hypothalamic cause whereas high levels suggest an ovarian problem (e.g. premature ovarian failure)

Prolactin

Androgen levels: raised may be seen in PCOS

Oestradiol

TFTs

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139
Q

What are the key signs and symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Cyclical abdo pain and deep dyspareunia, may be associated with fertility problems

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140
Q

What are the classifications of ovarian cysts?

A

Physiological: follicular, corpus luteum cyst

Benign germ cell tumours: dermoid cyst

Benign epithelial tumours: serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma

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141
Q

Featrues of follicular cysts

A

Commonest type of ovarian cyst

Due to non-rupture of the dominant follicle or failure of atresia in a non-dominant follicle

Commonly regress after several menstrual cycles

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142
Q

Features of corpus luteum cyst

A

If pregnancy doesn’t occur corpus luteum cyst usually breaks down and disappears, if this doesnt occur the corpus luteum may fill with blood or fluid and form a cyst.

More likely to present with intraperitoneal bleed than physiological cysts.

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143
Q

Features of dermoid cysts

A

Mature cystic teratomas: lined with epithelial tissue

Most comon benign ovarian tumour in woman under 30 years.

Bilateral in 10-20%

Usually asymptomatic

Torsion is more likely than with other ovarian tumours

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144
Q

Serous cystadenoma

A

Most common benign epithelial tumour which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer

Bilateral in around 20%

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145
Q

Mucinous cystadenoma

A

Second most common benign epithelial tumour

Large and amy become massive

If ruptures may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei

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146
Q

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

Pseudomyxoma peritonei (PMP) is a clinical condition caused by cancerous cells (mucinous adenocarcinoma) that produce abundant mucin or gelatinous ascites.[1] The tumors cause fibrosis of tissues and impede digestion or organ function, and if left untreated, the tumors and mucin they produce will fill the abdominal cavity. This will result in compression of organs and will destroy the function of colon, small intestine, stomach, or other organs. Prognosis with treatment in many cases optimistic,[2] but the disease is lethal if untreated, with death by cachexia, bowel obstruction, or other types of complications.

Disease most commonly caused by appendiceal primary cancer

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147
Q

A 22 year-old woman and her male partner present to their GP as they been unsuccessfully trying to conceive for 4 months. Her periods have been regular and there is no obvious cause in her history. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

Refer the patient for a laparoscopy and dye test

Address how the couple are having sexual intercourse and reassure the patient

Refer the patient for a basal temperature test

Refer the patient for a luteal phase progesterone test

Refer the patient’s partner for semen analysis

A

A healthy couple can expect to take up to one year to conceive. Investigations are therefore usually performed after one year of regular attempts to conceive. It may however be prudent to address any mechanical reasons that are preventing the couple from conceiving, hence the sexual intercourse history.

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148
Q

Epidemiology of infertility

A

Infertility affects around 1 in 7 couples. Around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years

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149
Q

What are the main causes of infertility?

Basic Ix

A

Male factor (30%)

Unexplained (20%)

Ovulation failure (20%)

Tubal damage (15%)

Other causes (15%)

Semen analysis

Serum progesterone 7d prior to expected next period

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150
Q

<16nmol/l serum progerstogen

A

Repeat, if consistently low refer to specialist

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151
Q

16-30nmol/l serum progestogen

A

Repeat

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152
Q

>30mnol/l serum progestogen

A

Indicates ovulation

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153
Q

Key counselling points to couples trying to conceive

A

Folic acid

BMI 20-25

Advise regular sexual intercourse very 2-3d

Smoking/drinking advice

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154
Q

Mx of abnormal cervical smears (around 5% of smears)

Moderate dyskaryosis

Severe dyskaryosis

Suspected invasive cancer

Inadequate

A

Moderate dyskaryosis: consistent with CINII, refer to colposcopy

Severe dyskaryosis: Consistent with CINIII refer to colposcopy

Suspected Invasive Ca: refer for urgent colposcopy

Inadequate: repeat smear, if 3 inadequate samples-> colposcopy

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155
Q

High risk HPV subtypes

A

16, 18 & 33

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156
Q

What are the causative organisms of PID?

A

Chlamydia- most common

N. Gonorrhoeae

Mycoplasma genitalium

Mycoplasma hominis

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157
Q

What are the features of PID?

A

Lower abdo pain

Fever

Deep dsypareunia

Dyuria and menstrual irregularities may occur

Vaginal or cervical discharge

Cervical excitation

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158
Q

Ix of PID

A

Screen for chlamydia and Dx

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159
Q

Mx of PID

A

Rx: oral ofloxacin + metronidazole

or

IM ceftriaxome and oral doxy and oral metronidazole

In mild cases of PID, IUD may be left in, however more recent guidelines suggest that removal of IUD may be assocaiteed with better ST outcomes

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160
Q

Cx of PID

A

Infertility

Chronic pelvic pain

ectopic pregnancy

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161
Q

Def of PID

A

Inflammation/infection of the female pelvic organs including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surroudning peritoneum. Usually as a result of ascending infection from the endocervix.

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162
Q

What is the action if a cervical smear shows borderline or low grade dyskaryosis?

A

If a cervical smear shows borderline or mild (low grade) dyskaryosis, the laboratory will also test the cytology sample for human papillomavirus (HPV). If HPV is found, the woman will be referred for colposcopy within 8 weeks. If HPV is not found, the woman will be returned to the routine screening programme

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163
Q

What are the USS features of adenomyosis

A

Imaging reveals a “boggy” uterus with subendometrial linear striations

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164
Q

What is Amsel’s criteria for the Dx of BV?

A

3/4 of:

thin, white homogenous d/c

clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells

Vaginal pH >4.5

Positive whiff test

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165
Q

A 53-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Two weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt ‘dry’ during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:

Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 5 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal

What is the most appropriate next step?

Refer for urodynamics

Pelvic floor muscle training

Trial topical oestrogen

Urgent referral to gynaecology

Refer for bladder retraining

A

Any ovarian mass in a post-menopausal woman needs to be investigated.- refer to gynae

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166
Q

Initial management for ovarian enlargement

What are the possible reports

A

USS

Unilocular- more likely to be physiological or benign

Complex- multilocular- more likely to be malignant

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167
Q

Mx of ovarian enlargement.

A

Depends on age and symptoms.

Premenopausal: conservative approach esp <35 as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (<5cm) and reported as simple- likely to be benign. Repeat USS in 8-12 w

Postmenopausal: physiological cysts are unlikely

any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst regardless of nature or size should be referred to gynaecology for assessment

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168
Q

How can the risk of ovarian malignancy be calculated?

A

Serum Ca125

USS

Menopausal findigns

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169
Q

Definition of premature ovarian failure

A

Premature menopausal symptoms

Elevated gonadtrophin levels

<40y/o

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170
Q

Causes of premature ovarian failure

A

Idiopathic

Chemotherapy

Autoimmune

Radiation

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171
Q

Symptoms of premature ovarian failure

A

Climacteric symptoms: hot flushes, night sweats

Infertility

Secondary amenorrhoea

Raised FSH, LH

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172
Q

What is HRT?

A

Small dose of oestrogen combined with progestogen (in women with a uterus)

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173
Q

Side effects of HRT

A

Nausea

Breast tenderness

Fluid retention and weight gain

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174
Q

Potential Cx of HRT

A

Increaed risk of breast Ca (increased by addition of a progestogen)

Incresed risk of endometrial reduced by addition of a progestogen. Additional risk eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously.

Increased risk of VTE, increased by addition of a progestogen

Increased risk of stroke

Increased risk of IHD if taken more than 10 years after menopause

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175
Q

When does the risk of breast cancer in those taken HRT normalise?

A

After HRT has been stopped for 5 years

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176
Q

What are the features of chlamydia infection?

A

Asymptomatic in ~70% of women and 50% of men

Women: cervicitis (discharge, bleeding), dysuria

Men: urethral d/c, dysuria

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177
Q

Potential complications of chlamydia infection

A

Epididymitis

PID

Endometritis
Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies

Infertility

Reactive arthritis

Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome)

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178
Q

Dx of Chlamydia

A

NAAT

Urine: first void urine sample, vulvovaginal or cervical swab

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179
Q

Mx chalmydia

A

Doxycycline (7d) or azithromycin (1d)

If pregnant than erythromycin or amoxicillin

For women and asymptomatic men: all partners from 6 months should be contacted

For men: all partners from the 4 weeks prior to symptoms

Contacts should be treated presumptively

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180
Q

Anatomy of the cervix

A

2-3cm long made up predominantly of elastic connective tissue.

Attached posteriorly to the sacrum by the uterosacral ligaments and laterally to the pelvic wall by the cardinal ligaments.

Lateral to the cervix is the parametrium which contains conective tissue, uterine vessels and the ureturs

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181
Q

Lining of the endovervix

Lining of the ectocervix

What is the junction between these two types of cell?

A

Columnar (glandular) epithelium

Continuous with the vagina, covered in squamous epithelium

Squamocolumnar junction

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182
Q

What is the transformation zone

Clinical signficance?

A

Durign puberty and pregnancy, partial eversion of the cervix occurs.

The lower pH of the vagina causes the exposed area of clumnar epithelium to undergo metaplasia to squamous epithelium

Cells undergoing metaplasia are vulnerable to agents that induce neoplastic change and cervical carcinoma typically originates from this area.

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183
Q

Blood supply of the cervix

Lymph drainage

A

Upper vaginal branches of the uterine artery

Obturator and itnernal and external iliac nodes, then to common iliac and para-aortic nodes

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184
Q

What is the characteristic spread of cervical carcinoma?

A

Lymph and locally by direct invasion into the uterus, vagina, bladder and rectum

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185
Q

Features of cervical ectropion

In which people is it common?

Symptoms?

A

When the columnar epithelium of the endocervix is visible as a red area around the os on the surface of the cervix.

Due to eversion and is a normal finding in younger women

Those who are pregnant/taking the pill

Aysmtpomatic, may cause post-coital bleeding.

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186
Q

Mx of cervical ectropion

A

Cryotherapy following colposcopy to exclude carcinoma.

Exposed columnar epithelium is also prone to infection

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187
Q

Features of acute cervicitis

A

Rare

Results from STD

Ulceration and infection occasionally found in severe degrees of prolapse when the cervix protrudes

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188
Q

Features of chronic cervicitis

A

Chronic inflamamtion/infection, often of an ectropion

Causes vaginal discharge and may cause inflammatory smears

Cryotherapy +/- antibiotics dependant on culture

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189
Q

Features of cervical poylps

Age group

Smyptoms

Mx

A

Benign tumours of the endocervical epithelium

More common in women >40

May be asymptomatic or cause IMB/PCB

Small polyps are aveulsed and examined.

Still need to Ix bleedign abnormalities.

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190
Q

Features of Nabothian follicles

A

Occur where squamous epitelium has formed by metaplasia over endocevical cells.

The columnar cell secreaions are trappped and form retention cysts whcih appear as white/opaque swellings on the ectocervix.

Treatment not required unles symptomatic

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191
Q
A

Nabothian follicle

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192
Q
A

Cervical ectropion

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193
Q

What is CIN?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

Presence of aytpical cells within the squamous epithlium

Dyskaryotic exchibiting larger nuclei with frequent mitosis

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194
Q

What is the grading of CIN?

A

CIN-I: mild dysplasia, atypical cells found in the lower third of the epithelium

CIN-II: moderate dysplasia, atypical cells foudn in the lower 2/3rds of the epithelium

CIN-III: Severe dysplasia, abnormal cells occupy the full thickness of the epithelium= Carcinoma in situ. Malginancy ensures if these abnromal cells invade through the BM

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195
Q

Px CINII/III

A

1/3rd will develop cervical cancer over the next 10 years.

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196
Q

Px of CIN-I

A

Least malignant potential, can progress but commonly regresses spontaneously.

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197
Q

When is the peak incidence of CINIII?

A

<45, 25-29 years old

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198
Q

Which strains of HPV are most frquently associated with cervical cancer? How many are considered high risk?

A

Types 16, 18, 31 and 33

13/130 different strains, are considered high risk

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199
Q

What strains are included in the UK HPV vaccination programme?

A

Types 16 and 18 as they are responsible for 75 of cervical cancer cases.

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200
Q

What other factors increase risk of CIN?

A

OCP

Smoking

Immunocompromised

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201
Q

Features of UK cervical screening programme

A

Every 3 years 25-49

Every 5 years 50-64

>65: offer if they have not had a cervical screenign test since 50 years old or a recent cervical cytology sample is abnormal

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202
Q

What is CGIN?

What must then be excluded

A

Cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia

Adenocarcinoma of the cervix of endometrium should be excluded using both colposcopy and endocervcal curettage or with cone biopsy. Hysteroscopy can be used.

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203
Q

Mx of abnromal smear

A

Normal: continue with normal screening

Borderline/mild dyskaryosis: HPV triage: if negative, back to routine recall. If +ve-> colposcopy

Moderate dyskaryosis: colposcopy

Severe dyskaryosis: urgen colposcopy

CGIN: colposcopy, if abnormality not found-> hysteroscopy

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204
Q

Mx of CINII/III

A

LLETZ (large loop excision of transformation zone) aka diatheyrmy loop excision.

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205
Q

What are the major common complications of LLETZ?

A

Postoperative haemorrhage- uncommon

Risk of subsequent preterm delivery is increased

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206
Q

Discussion of abnormal smear with patient

A

Assume they have cancer- reassure about early warning cells.

CINIII- without treatment she has a 30% chance of developing cancer over 8-15 years.

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207
Q

Which type of cervical malignancy has a worse prognosis?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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208
Q

What is occult cervical carcinoma?

A

When there are no symtposm but the diagnosis is made by biopsy or LLETZ

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209
Q

Hx in clinical cervical carcinoma?

Ex?

A

PCB, IMB, PMB, an offensive vaginal discharge. Pain is not an early features but later disease which involves ureturs, bladder, rectum and nerves can cause: uraemia, haematuria, rectal bleeding an pain. Smears have usually been missed.

Ulcer or mass may be vissible or palpable on the cervix

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210
Q

Spread of cervical cancer

A

Locally: parametrium and vagina and then to the pelvic side wall. Lymphatic spread to the pelvic nodes is an early feature. Ovarian spread is rare with squamous. Haematological spread is later.

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211
Q

Staging of cervical carcinoma

NB limited due to lack of inclusion of LNs as prognostic consideration

A

Stage 1: confined to cervix

Stage 2: Invasion into the vagina but not the pelvic side wall

Stage 3: invasion of the lower vagina or pelvic wall or causing ureteric obstruction

Stage 4: invasion of blddder or rectal mucosa or beyond the true pelvis

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212
Q

Ix in cervical carcinoma

A

Dx: Tumour biopsy

Vaginal and rectal ecam to assess teh size of the lesion and local invasion. Examination under anaesthetic is performed

Cystoscopy for bladder involvement.

MRI detects size, spread and LN involvement.

To assess patient’s fitness for sx: CXR, FBC and U&Es.

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213
Q

Treatment of Stage 1aicervical malignancies

A

Stage 1ai with cone biopsy.: postoperative haemorrhage and preterm labour are the main complications. Simple hysterectomy preferred in older women.

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214
Q

Treatment of Stage 1 and 2 cervical malignancy that isn’t stage 1ai

A

Sx or CTx

CTx or RTx if: +ve LNs on MRI or after lymphadenectomy.

If LNs -ve as an alternative to hysterectomy

Surgical resection margins not clear

Palliation for bone bain/haemmorrhage.

Sx: Wertheim’s hysterectomy if LNs not involved. Ovarias left in young monan with squamous carcinoma. Cx: haemorrhage, ureteric and bladder damage, lymphocyst

Radical trachedectomy is less invasive procedure for women who wish to conserve fertility. (LNs negatvie|)

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215
Q

Wertheim’s hysterectomy

A

Radical abdominal hysterectomy

Involves node clearance, hysterectomy and removal of parametrium and upper 1/3rd of vagina

Younger women with squamous carcinom are left with ovaries

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216
Q

Radical trachedectomy

A

Removal of 80% of cervix and upper vagina

To preserve fertility

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217
Q

Stage 2b and worse or +ve LNs

A

RTx and CTx with platinum agents

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218
Q

Mx Recurrent cervix tumours

A

CTx/RTx

Pelvic exenteration can be considered if the disease is central.

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219
Q

Pelvic exenteration

A

Removal of the vagina, the uterus and cervix, the bladder and or the rectum

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220
Q

Px for cervical Ca

1a

1b

2

3-4

LNs involved

LN-ve

Overall

A

95

80

60

10-30

+ve 40

-ve 80

Overall 65

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221
Q

Poor pxic indicators in cervical malignancy

A

LN +ve

Advanced stage

Large priamry

Poorly differentiated tumour

Early recurrence

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222
Q

What is usually the cause of death in cervical carcinoma?

A

uraemia due to ureteric obstruction

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223
Q

Stage 1ai/1aii/b in cervical cancer

A

ai <3mm depth, <7mm across

aii <5mm depth, <7mm across

bi clnically visible lesion, greater than ai <4cm in greatest dimension

bii clinically visible lesin, <4cm

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224
Q

Stage 2ai/aii/b in cervical cancer

A

ai Involvement of upper 2/3rds of vagina without parametrial invasion <4cm

aii <4cm

b Invasion of parametrium

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225
Q

Componenets of an obstetric history

A

Pesronal details

PC/HPC

Hx of present pregnancy

Past obstetric Hx

Other Hx: past gynaecological hx, PMH, ROS, DHx, FHx, Social Hx, Allergies, VTE risk

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226
Q

PC in ObHx

A

Why is she in hospital?

Common reasons: HTN, pain, antepartum haemorrhage, unstable lie, possible ROM.

If the pregnancy has hitherto been uncomplicated, mention this

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227
Q

Hx of present pregnancy

A

Dates: What was the first day of her LMP

What was the length of her menstrual cycle, regular?

How many weeks gestation (38w= 36w since conception)

EDD: Nagle’s rule

Complications of pregnancy: bleeding, HTN, DM, anaemia, urinary infections, conern about fetal growth, other problems. Ask about hospital admissions during the pregnancy

Tests: what tests have been performed e.g. USS, blood tests, prenatal Dx tests

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228
Q

Nagle’s rule

A

Subtrate 3m from the date of the LMP, add 7d anjd one year.

NB if a cycle <28d, the EDD will be later and needs to be adjusted (add the number of days >28 to the date calculated using Nagle’s rule.

Same applies if shorter.

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229
Q

When is the USS dating performed?

A

11-13w+6

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230
Q

USS measurments to date pregnancy

A

Measurement of crown-rump length between w9 + 14

Head circumference between 14-20w if no early scan and LMP unknown.

NB of little use after 20w.

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231
Q

What is a consideration re EDD and women recently stopping OCP

A

Her cycles can be anovulatory and LMP is less useful

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232
Q

Past ObHx

A

Details of past pregnancies in chronological order.

Mode and gestation of delivery, if operative, why?

Birth weight and sex of the baby

Mother/baby had any Cxs?

Parity

Gravidity

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233
Q

Parity

A

Number of times a woman has delivered potentially viable babies (>24w)

Suffix denotes number of pregnaniecs that have miscarried or been terminated prior to 24w.

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234
Q

Nulliparous

A

Never delivered a potentially live baby, she may have had miscarriages or abortions

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235
Q

Muktiparous

A

Delivered at least one baby at 24w or more

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236
Q

Gravidity

A

Describes the number of times a woman has been pregnant.

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237
Q

PGHx in OBHx

A

Last cervical smear

Treated for an abnormal smear

Prior contraception

Difficulty conceiving

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238
Q

PMHx in ObJx

A

Surgeries

CHD

HTN

DM

Psychiatric disease

Epilepsy

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239
Q

FHx in OBHx

A

FHx of twins?

DM

HTN

Pre-eclampsia

Auto-immune disease

VTE or thrombophilia

Any inherited disorders

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240
Q

SHx in ObHx

A

Smoke

Drink

Drugs

Stable relationship? Social support

Domestic abuse

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241
Q

Palpation of the abdomen and what it tells you at

<24w

>24w

>36w

A

Dates, twins

Well-being by assessing size and liquor

To check lie, presentation and engagement

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242
Q

Ob Ex

A

General examination

Abodminal Examination

Consider examination of fundi, reflexes, T, epigastrium, legs, chest etc.

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243
Q

General examination in obstetrics

A

Appearance, T, oedema, anaemia

Height and weight

Chest, breasts, CVS examined

BP and urinalysis

Diastolic BP is recorded at as Korotkoff V: when the sound disappears

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244
Q

Abdominal examination in pregnancy

When is the uterus palpable?

Where is it found?

A

Semi-prone. Exposed from below the breasts to the symphysis pubis. Later pregnancy can include left lateral tilt to avoid aortocaval compression

Uterus normally palpable at 12-14w.

20w: umbilicus

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245
Q

What may be the cause if a uterus is larger than expected before 20w?

A

Incorrect dates, full bladder, multiple pregnancy, uterine fibroids, pelvic mass

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246
Q

Ob Ex

I

P

P

A

A

I: size of pregnant uterus, look for striae, linea nigra and scars in the suprapubic area. Fetal movements often visible in later pregnancy

Palpation: us the fetus adequately grown, is liquor volume normal? what is the lie? What is the presentation?

Ausculation: listening over the anterior shoulder the fetal heart should be heard with a Pinard’s stethoscope, should be 110-160bpm

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247
Q

Steps in palpation

A
  1. Find the funduse using the fingers and the ulnar border of the left hand. Measure the distance to the pubic symphysis with a tape measure. (after 24w this corresponds to the gestation +/- 2cm. Best for small for dates but only 70% sensitive. Look for tenderness or uterine irritability
  2. Use both hands to palpate down the fetus towards the pelvis using dipping movements to palpate the fetal parts and liquor volume. Polyhydramnios: bag will be tense and will need to dip far to feel anything. Head can be balloted, breech is softer and cannot be balloted. Lie: longitudinal, transverse, oblique (head/buttocks palpable in one of the iliac fossae)
  3. Turn to face the pelvis and press both hands firmly down to assess the presentation. Engagement of the head occurs when the widest diameter descends into the pelvis and is describe as fifths palpable.
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248
Q

Fifths palpable

A

2/5ths= engaged

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249
Q

Pawlik’s grip

A

Grasp the presenting fetal part between the thumb and index finger of the examining hand. Uncomfortable and seldom necessary

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250
Q

Findings in Ob Ex

A

Uterine Size: fundus palpable at 12-14w. Umbilicus at 20w. Xiphoid sternum at 36w. Fundal height increases 1cm/week after 24w

Presentation: Breech in 20% at 28w. 3% after 37

Engagement: usual in nulliparoius after 37w. Multiparous often not engaged

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251
Q

Presnting Ob Ex

A
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252
Q

Gynae Ex presentaiton

A
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253
Q

Definition of preterm delivery?

Whenare risks greatest?

A

24-37w

<34w

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254
Q

What are the complications of preterm delivery for the neonate?

A

Prematurity accounts for 80% of NICU occupancy

20% of perinatal mortality

up to 50% of cerebal palsy

Chronic lung disease

Blindness

Minor disability

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255
Q

What are the risks at 24w to neonate of preterm delivery?

A

1/3rd handicapped

1/3rd will die

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256
Q

What are the complications of preterm delivery to the mother?

A

Infection

Endometritis

C-section

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257
Q

Risk factors for spontaneous preterm labour

Complications of pregnancy

Maternal medical disease

Maternal demographs

A

Previous Hx

Lower socioeconomic class

Extremes of materanl age

Short inter-pregnancy interval

Maternal medical disease: renal failure, diabetes, thyroid disease

Pregnancy complications: pre-eclampsia, IUGR, male fetal gender, raised Hb, STIs and vaginal infection (BV), previous cerbical surgery, multiple pregnancy, uterine abnormalities, fibroids, UTIs, polyhydramnios, congenital fetal abnormalities, APH

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258
Q

Mechanisms of spontaneous preterm labour

Multiple pregnancy

A

Delivery before 34w occurs in 20% of twins and is the mean delivery of triplets

Excess liquor, polyhydramnious has the same effect, probably largely mediated by increased stretch

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259
Q

Mechanisms of preterm labour

Fetal survival response

A

More common when fetus is at risk: pre-eclampsia and IUGR or there is infection

Placental abruption often followed by labour

Iatrogenic preterm delivery aims to improve upon this mechanism

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260
Q

Mechanisms of preterm labour relating to the reproductive system

A

Uterine abnormalities e.g. fibroids or congenital abnormalities

Cervical incompetence: some follows previous surgery for CIN or multiple dilatations of the cervix, but in others cause is unknown

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261
Q

What are the manifestations of infection in pregnancy?

A

Chorioamnionitis, offensive liquor, neonatal sepsis and endometritis

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262
Q

What infective pathogens are risk factors for preterm delivery?

What is often seen in preterm delivery caused by infection?

A

BV, GBS, Trichomonas, Chlamdyia, (commensals)

Coexisting cervical component

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263
Q

Hx for predicting preterm labour

A

Those at increased risk

Particulalry those with previous Hx of late miscarriage or preterm labour

Most women are not identified as high risk on Hx alone

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264
Q

Ix for predicting preterm labour

A

Cervical length on transvaginal sonography is sensitive and specific

Defined as from the external to the internal os

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265
Q

Prevention of preterm labour

A

Cervical cerclage (vaginal or abdominal route) usually preprgancny. Ca be used as prophylaxis, prevention or as a “rescue suture” when an incompetent cervix is dilated

or

Transvaginal progesterone suppositaries

or

?antibiotics

or

fetal reduction

or

treatment of polyhydramnios through needle aspiration or NSAIDs (if fetal surveillance is intensive) as they reduce fetal urine output

or

treatment of medical disease

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266
Q

NICE guidlines prophylaxis of preterm

A

Vaginal progesterone or prophylactic cerclage to women:

with Hx of spontaneous preterm birth or midtrimester loss between 16 and 34w and in whome a TVUS has been carried out between 16 and 24w of pregnancy and has revealed a cervical length <25mm

Prophylactic vaginal progesterone to women with no Hx of spontaenous preterm bith or miscarriage in whom a TVUS has been performed and reveals a cervical length of <25mm

Consider cerclage in women who have had a TVUS which reveals a cervical length <25mm and who have had P-PROM or Hx of cervical trauma

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267
Q

When is shortened cervical length picked up on TVUS?

What is the measurement?

A

16-24w

25mm

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268
Q

What is a consideration for NSAIDs in the foetus?

A

Can cause premature closure of the FDA

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269
Q

What are the contraindications for rescue cervical cerclage?

Indications?

A

Signs of infection or active vaginal bleeding or uterine contractions

16-27+6w with a dilated cervix and exposed unruptured fetal membranes.

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270
Q

Hx in preterm labour

A

Painful contractions, these will stop spontaneously in half of women

With cervical incompetence, painless cervical dilatation may occur and woman may experience a dull suprapubic ache or increased discharge

Antepartum haemorrhage and fluid loss are common, the latter suggesting ROM

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271
Q

Examination in preterm labour

A

Fever

Lie and presentation may be checked

Digital vaginal examination is performed unless the membranes have rupture

An effaced or dilating cervix confirm the Dx but the course of preterm labour is unpredictable

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272
Q

Ix in preterm labour

A

Cardiotocography and USS to assess fetal state

To assess likelihood of delivery: if cervix is effaced fetal fibronectin is helpful. TVS of cerbical length is alos predictive, >15mm means unlikely

Look for infection: vaginal swabs, CRP, WCC (NB steroids will cause it to rise)

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273
Q

Broad Mx of preterm labour

A

Steroids given 24-34w, in those presenting with contraction these can be restricted to women who are fibronectin +ve or have a short cervix, these reduce perinatal morbidity and mortality by promoting pulmonary maturity. NB glucose control. As they take 24h to take effect delivery is often delayed using tocolysis. Repeated doses not recommended

Tocolysis: nifedipine or atosiban (oxytocin-R antag) can be given to allow steroids time to act or to allow transfer to a unit with NICU. Delay rather than stop labour and shouldn’t be used for more than 24h.

Detect and prevent infection

Mg Sulphate: neuroprotective for the neonate if given prior to delivery. NB toxic in OD.

Mode of delivery in preterm labour

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274
Q

Mode of delivery in preterm labour

A

Vaginal delviery reduces NRDS. Caesarian undertaken only for obstetric indications. Breech is more common in preterm laour

Conduct of delivery: membranes are notruptured in membrane. Labour may be slow allowing steroids more time to act. Forceps rather than ventouse are used. Unless immedaite resuscitation is required the cord should not be clamped for 45s.

Antibiotics are recommended in actual as opposed to threatened preterm labour due to increased risk and morbidity of GBS

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275
Q

NICE Dx of preterm

A

<30w clinically suspected preterm labour: treat

>30w: TVU measurment of cervix, >15mm unlikely preterm labour. Think of alternative dxs. <15mm treat for preterm

If TVS not available, fetal fibronectin +ve: treat, -ve: unlikely in preterm.

Do not use TVS and fetal fibronectin in combination to Dx preterm labour

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276
Q

NICE Mx of preterm labour

A

Nifedipine or oxytocin antagonist (atosiban)

Maternal corticosteroids

Mg Sulphate

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277
Q

Definition of preterm prelabour ROM (P-PROM)

A

Membranes rupture beofre labour at <37w

All the causes of preterm labour may be indicated

It occurse before 1/3rd of preterm deliveries

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278
Q

What are the Cxs of P-PROM?

A

Preterm deelivery and follows within 48h of >50% of cases

Infection of fetus or placenta (chorioamnionitis) or cord (funisitis) is common. May be the cause and thus occur before or it may follow

Prolapse of the umbilical cord may occur rarely

Absence of liquor <24w can result in pulmonary hypoplasia and postural deformities

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279
Q

Hx and Ex in P-PROM

A

Gush of clear fluid followed by further leaking

Ex: lie and presentation are checked.

Dx is with a pool of fluid in the posterior fornix on speculum examination

Digital examination to exclude cord prolapse if the presentation is not cephalic

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280
Q

What are the clinical features of chorioamnionitis?

A

Contractions or abdo pain

Fever

Tachycardia

Uterine tenderness

Coloured or offesnive liquor

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281
Q

Ix in P-PROM

A

Speculum examination, if pooling not observed consider IGF binding proetin 1 test or placental microglobulin-1 test of vaginal fluid

If the results are positive, in conjunction with clinical presentation, offer management in keeping with woman having P-PROM,

If negative, unlikely she has P-PROM

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282
Q

Mx of P-ROM (NICE)

A

Balance risk of infection with risk of preterm delivery.

Identify infection: CRP, WCC, CTG, do not use in isolation

Prophylactic antibiotics: Erythromycin (250mg QDS for <10d or until labour). If erythromycin is CIed consider oral penicllin.

Close maternal and fetal surveillance, if gestation reaches 36w, induce labour

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283
Q

Why is co-amoxiclav contraindicated in P-PROM as an antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Increases risk of NEC in neonate.

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284
Q

What are the normal blood changes in pregnancy an and why?

A

Normally falls to a minmum in the second trimester by about 30/15

Occurs in both normal and chronically hypertensive women due to a reduction in SVR

Rises again by term to normal pre-pregnant levels

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285
Q

What is the normal increase in protein excretion in pregnancy?

A

<0.3g/24h

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286
Q

What is the definition of PIH?

A

When the blood pressure rises by 140/90

Can be either pre-eclampsia or transient HTN

Normally after 20 weeks

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287
Q

What is pre-eclampsia

A

HTN and proteinuria (>0.3g/24h)

Appears in hte second half of pregnacny normally with oedema

Occasionally proteinuria is absent in early stage of disease

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288
Q

What is pre-existing HTN

What are the implications?

A

BP >140/90 before pregnancy or before 20w gestation or if the woman is on antiHTNs

May be 1o or 2o to other disease

May also be pre-exisitng proteinuria because of renal disease

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289
Q

What are the implications of pre-existing HTN on pre-eclampsia?

A

6x risk of “superimposed” preeclampsia

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290
Q

What is the course of pre-eclampsia

A

HTN normally precedes proteinuria which is a relatively late sign

Variability in time and severity of presentation.

The degree of HTN can be used to help asses it

Early onset disease tends to be more severe, after delivery may take up to 24h for “cure”

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291
Q

Pre-eclampsia epidemiology

A

6% of nulliparous. Less common in multiparous unless additional risk factors are present

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292
Q

What is the recurrence rate of pre-ecl

A

15% but can be up to 50% if there has been severe disease before 28w.

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293
Q

What are the 2 stages of pre-eclampsia pathogenesis

A

Stage 1: occurs before 20w. Incomplete invasion of spiral arterioles by trophoblasts leading to decreased uteroplacental blood flow.

Stage 2: manifestation of disease. Ischaemic placenta induces widespread endothelial cell damage causing vasoconstriction, increased permeability and clotting dysfunction.

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294
Q

What are the principal risk factors for pre-ecl

A

Nulliparity

Previous Hx

FHx

Old maternal age

Disorders characterised by microvascular disease: chronic HTN, chronic renal disease, SCD.

DM

Pregnancies with large placenta: Twin pregnancies, molar, fetal hydrops

Autoimmune disease (esp antiphospholipid)

Renal disease

Obesity

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295
Q

What are the classifications for HTN in pre-ecl

And pre-eclampsia itself?

A

>140/90= mild

>150/100= modetae

>160/100= severe

Mild: proteinruia and mild/modearate HTN

Moderate: proteinuria and severe HTN with no maternal complications

Severe: proteinuria and HTN <34w or with maternal complications

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296
Q

What are the protein cut offs in pre-ecl?

Dipstick

PCR

24h

A

Trace: seldom significant

+1: possible significant, quantify

+2: likely significant, quantify

PCR >30mg/noml: confirmed significant proteinuria

24h collection: >0.3g.24h

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297
Q

Hx of pre-eclampsia

Ex

A

Usually asymptomatic, headache, drowsiness, visual disturbances, N+V or epigastric pain may occur at late stage

HTN usually first sign but occasionally absent

Oedema may be massive, not postural or of sudden onset

Epigastric tenderness suggestive of impending complications

Urine dipstick

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298
Q

What are the maternal complications of pre-eclampsia?

A

Eclampsia: grand mal seizures. Mortality can result from hypoxia and concomitant complications. Rx with Mg SO4

CBA: results from failure of cerebral blood flow autoregulation, antiHTNsives can help

Liver and coag problems: HELLP syndrome. DIC, liver failure and rupture may occur. Treatment is supportive and may incude MgSO4 prophylaxis

Renal failure: fluid balance monitoring, may require haemodialysis

Pulmonary oedmea: Severe pre-eclamptic is particulalry vulnerable to fluid overload. PO treated with O2 and frusemide, assisted ventilation. ARDS may develop.

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299
Q

What are the fetal complications of pre-ecl?

A

Perinatal mortality and morbidity are all increased. Stil birth

<34w: IUGR, spontaneous preterm labour. Preterm devliery often required

Term: affects grwoth less but still associated with increased morbidity and mortality

At all gestations there is an increased risk of placental abruption

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300
Q

Dx of pre-ecl

Monitoring of pre-eclampsia

A

If dipstick positive exclude UTI with cultures and quantiy proteins.

Blood tests: Hb often high, uric acid elevated. Rapid fall in platelets suggests impending HELLP.

ALTs suggest impending liver test or help. LDH levels rise with liver disease and haemolysis

RFT: rapidly rising creatinine suggests severe Cxs and renal failure

Fetal: USS, umbilical artery doppler and if abnromal CTG to evaluate fetal well-being

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301
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

Haemolysis

Elevated Liver enzymes

Low Platelets

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302
Q

Screening for pre-ecl

A

HTN and urinaylsis checks in all pregnant women, esp those at high risk.

Most common is uterine artery Doppler at 23w.

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303
Q

Preventing pre-eclampsia

A

High risk women: 75mg of aspirin OD from 12w until birth of baby

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304
Q

What factors indicate women should be on aspirin for pre-eclampsia risk?

A

HTN disease during previous pregnancy, CKD, Autoimmune disease, DM, chronic HTN= High risk

first pregnancy, >40y/o, pregnancy interval of more than 10 years, >BMI, FHx, multiple pregnancy= moderate risk, >1 of these=aspirin

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305
Q

What are the indications for hospital admission according to NICE in pre-ecl

A

Mild, moderate or sever HTN= admission

Significant proteinuria

Following admission, should have regular BP monitoring, repeat quanitifcation of proteinuria not necessary. Montor RFT, FBC, LEs

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306
Q

What is first line treatment for pre-ecl HTN?

Which severities?

A

Labetalol

Moderate and severe, to keep DBP between 80-100 and systolic to <150

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307
Q

Mx of severe HTN or pre-eclampsia

A

Anticonvulsants: IV Mg SO. Loading dose of 4g followed by a 24hr infusion

Anti-HTNs: labetalol (oral or IV), hydralazine (+/- hydralazine) (IV), nifedipine

Corticosteroids for fetalo lung maturation: betamethasone (if <34w)

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308
Q

What are the adverse effects of MgSO4

A

Severe respiratory depression and hypotension

Preceded by loss of patellar reflexes

NB renal impairment, stop

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309
Q

Timing of delivery for pre-eclampsia

A

<34w: after discussion with neonatal and anaesthetists and course of corticosteroids if sever HTN develops refractory to Rx. Maternal or fetal indications.

>34w when BP has been controlled and if corticosteroid course complete

34-36+6: depnding on fetal condition

>37w: within 24-48h of onset

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310
Q

Conduct of delivery in pre-ecl

A

<34w: Csec

>34w: labour can be induced with PGs, epidural analgesisa helps reduce BP.

Use anti-HTNs

determine need for haematological and biopchemical tests.

Do not rountiely limit second stage of labour.

if HTN is severe and refractory to treatment, recommend operative birth

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311
Q

Post-natal care in pre-ecl

A

BP: monitor, ask about symptoms each time BP is measured.

Monitor bloods

Monitor fluid balance. NB PO and ARDS. If urine output is persistently low, use CVP monitoring. If CVP is high (overload) frusemide. If low, fluid but not albumin. If normal and oliguria persists renal failure is likely, K levels indicate need for dialysis

BP maintained at 140/90, postnatal treatment is with beta-blocker, nifedipine and ACEI can be seocodn line

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312
Q

Aetiology of pre-pregancy 2o HTN

A

Obesity, DM, renal disease (PCD, RAS, chronic pyelo)

Rarer include phaeo, Cushing’s, cadiac, coarctation

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313
Q

What should be exluded in all hypertensives?

A

Fundal changes, renal bruit, radiofermoal delay.

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314
Q

Ix in pre-existing chronic HTN in pregnacny

A

To identify secondary HTN, exlude Pheoe as maternal mortality is very high (24h VMA)

Look for coexistant disease through renal USS and RFTs

Identify pre pregnancy degree of proteinuria to alloiw compairosn later in the pregnancy

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315
Q

Mx of pre-pregnancy HTN

A

Stop ACEI and ARBs due to teratogenicity. Labetalol. Nifedipine second line.

Keep dietary Na low.

Kepp BP <150/100.

If HTN is severe and refractory offer birth.

Screen for pre-ecl

Low dose aspirin.

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316
Q

Mx of PIH

A

Take account of additional RFs

If HTN is sever admit until moderate levels.

Monitor proteinruia at each visit.

Labetalol, second line nifedipine, methyldopa

Do not offer birth to <36w unless HTN is severe.

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317
Q

Def: APH

A

Bleeding from genital tract after 24w gestation.

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318
Q

What are the causes of APH?

Common:

Rarer:

A

Undetermined origin, placental abruption, placenta praevia

Incidental genital tract pathology, uterine rupture, vasa preavia, placenta praevia

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319
Q

Def: placent praevia

Epidimeology

How does it change?

A

Occurs when the placenta is implanted in the lower segment of the uterus

Complicates 0.4% of pregnancies at term.

At 20w the placenta is low-lying in many more pregancies but appears to move upwards as the pergnancy continues, only 1 in 10 apparently low-lying placenta will be praevia at term.

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320
Q

How can placenta praevia be classified?

A

Marginal (I-II): placenta in lower segment, not over os

Major: placenta completely or partially covering os

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321
Q

What increases the risk of placenta praecia?

A

Twins, age of mothers, uterine scarring

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322
Q

What are the cxs in placenta praevia?

A

Obstructs engagement of the head, may necessitate C-sec and cause transverse lie

Haemorrhage can be severe and may continue during and after delivery as the lower segement is less able to contract and constrict the maternal blood supply.

If placenta implants in previous c-sec scar it may be so deep as to prevent placental separation or even penetrate through the uterine wall into the surrounding structures such as the bladder (placenta accreta and placenta percreta respectively). May provoke massive haemorrhage at delivery and require hysterectomy.

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323
Q

Hx and Ex in placenta praevia

A

Intermittenet painless bleeds which increase in frequency and intensity over several weeks. (1/3rd won’t have experienced bleeding before delivery)

Ex: breech presentation and transverse lie. No fetal head engagement. Vaginal examination can provoke massive bleeding and is never performed in a woman who is bleeding vaginally until placenta praevia has been excluded.

May be found incidentally on USS

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324
Q

Ix of placenta praevia

A

USS

Most diagnosed prior to bleeding, if low lying placenta has been dxed at a 2nd trimester USS this is repeated vaginally at 32w to exclude praevia. A placenta <2cm from the itnernal os is likely to be praevia at term. If close to a previous c-sec scar, 3-d power USS is best to determine if there is placenta accreta.

CTG

FBC: clotting studies and cross-match

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325
Q

Mx of placenta praevia

A

Admit all women with bleeding. If placenta praevia is found on USS women often stay in hospital until delviery due to risk of haemorrhage.

Blood kept available.

IV access maintained

Steroids if <34w.

If asymptomatic can delay until 37w.

Delivery: C-sec at 39w by most senior person available. Intra-operative and PPH are common.

May be emergency if bleeding is severe.

Accreta or percreta should have been anticipated although it may occur without invasion through a scar. Uterine incision should be made away from the placenta which can be left in situ or hysterectomy. Treatment of haemorrhage can be with compression of the scar after placental removal through a Rusch balloon. Alternatively, hysterectomy

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326
Q

Def: placental abruption

A

When part or all of the placenta separates before fetal delivery. Occurs in 1% of pregnancies

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327
Q

Pathology of fetal abruption

A

Placenta separating may lead to considerable maternal bleeding. Can lead to further placental separation and acute fetal distress.

Blood revealed as APH

May also enter the liquor

Or the moyemtrium (visible haemorrhage is absent in 20%)

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328
Q

Types of palcental abruption

A

Revealed

Concealed: bleed into the myometrium

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329
Q

Cxs of placental abruption

A

Fetal death (30% of proven abruptions)

Haemorrhage often necessitates blood transfusion: DIC and renal failure may lead to maternal death

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330
Q

What are the risk factors for abruption?

A

IUGR

Pre-ecl

Pre-existing HTN

Maternal smoking

Hx of placental abruption (6% risk)

Autoimmune diesase

Cocaine usage

Multiple pregnancy

High maternal parity

Trauma

Sudden reduction in uterine volume (ROM in woman with polyhydramnios)

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331
Q

Hx and Ex in placental abruption

A

Painful bleeding, often dark. Degree of vaginal bleeding does not reflect severity of the abruption. If pain occurs alone= concealed

Ex: tachycardia suggests profound blood loss. hypotension after massvie loss, uterine tender and often contracting. In severe cases the uterus is woody hard and the fetus difficult to palpate. Fetal heart tones abnormal/absent. If coagulation failure has occured, widespread bleeding is evident

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332
Q

Ix of placental abruption

A

Clinical dx

Ixs help to establish severity and plan resuscitation

CTG: fetal heartbeat, ferquent uterine activity

USS may be used to estimate fetal weight and exclude placenta previa but abruption may not be visible.

FBC, coagulation screen, cross-match. Catheterisation with hourly UO, regular FBC, Us&Es, CVP monitoring may be required in severe cases.

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333
Q

Features of major placental abruption

A

Maternal collapse

Coagulopathy

Fetal distress/demise

Woddy hard uterus

Poor UO or renal failure

Degree of vaginal loss is unhelpful

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334
Q

Mx of palcental abruption

A

Admit if pain and uterine tenderness. IV fluids. Steroids if gestation <34w. Blood transfusion. Opiate analagesia.

Delivery: depends on fetal state and gestation:

Fetal distress: emergency C-sec

No fetal distress but gestation is >37w induction of labour with amniotomy. Monitor mother and fetal distress.

If fetaus is dead: coagulopathy is also likely. Blood products given and labour induced.

If there is no fetal distress, pregnacny is preterms and abruption appears to be minor, steroids and pregnancy -> high risk .

PPH is the majory risk

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335
Q
A
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336
Q

What is bleeding of undetermined origin

A

APH small and painless without placenta praevia, may be difficult to find a cause.

USS little help.

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337
Q

What is vasa praevia

A

Occurs when fetal BS runs in the membranes in front of the presenting part.

rare but occur when the umbilical cord is attached to the membranes rather than the palcenta.

Can be detected on USS.

When membranes rupture, the vessel may rupture too.

Typical presentation is painless, moderate baginal bleeding at amniotomy or SROM which is accompanied by severe fetal distress.

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338
Q

NB for APH?

A

Cervical carcinoma can present in pregnancy.

If a cervical smear is overdue the woman with small recurrent or postcoital haemorrhage should undergo speculum exmaintions.

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339
Q

Definition of shoulder dystocia

Epidemiology.

Consequences?

A

When additional manoeuvres are required after normal downward traction has failed to deliver the shoulders after the head has delivered

1 in 200 deliveries

Characteristically results in Erb’s palsy (waiter’s tip) from excessive traction on the neck leading to damage to the brachial plexus.

Delay and unskilled attempts at delivery can be lethal (can be as short as 5 minutes from head to shoulder delivery)

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340
Q

Risk factors for dystocia

A

Large baby (>4kg although this only accounts for half of all cases)

Previous shoulder dystocia

Raised maternal BMI

Labour induction

Low height

Maternal diabetes

Instrumental delivery

Most cases considered unpreventable due to poor ability to predict and the prevention involves C-section

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341
Q

Mx of shoulder dystocia

A

Rapid and skilled intervention

Sequence of actions:

Because obstruction is at the pelvic inlet, excessive traction is useless.

Senior help.

Gentle downward traction

Legs are hyperextended onto the abdomen

Suprapubic pressure applied

This method works in 90% alternative methods if this fails involve internal manoeuvres necessitating episiotomy:

If the shoulders are transverese, pressure behind the anterior shoulder will rotate it to the widest diameter, combined with pressure on the anterior part of the posterior shoulder (Wood’s screw) can force delivery.

If this fails, posterior arm is grasped and by extension at the elbow the hand is brought down. The trunk will either follow or rotation of the body using the arm is performed.

Last resorts: symphysiotomy

Lateral replacement of the urethra with a metal catheter

Zavanelli maneuvre: replacement of the head and C-section, usually irreversible fetal damage has occured by this point.

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342
Q

McRobert’s maneuvre

A

Leg hyperextnension used in shoulder dystocia

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343
Q

Wood’s screw manoeuvre

A

Pressure on anterior shoulder and pressure on anterior part of posterior shoulder used in shoulder dystocia

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344
Q

Zavanelli manoeuvre

A

Reducing head back into uterus prior to c-sec in shoulder dystocia

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345
Q

Definition of cord prolapse

A

Occurs after ROM

Umbilical cord descends below the presenting part.

Untreated the cord will be compressed or go into spasm and the baby will rapidly become hypoxic.

1 in 500 deliveries

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346
Q

Risk factors for cord prolapse

A

Preterm labour

Breech presentation

Polyhydramnios

Abnormal lie

Twin pregnancy

(>50% occur at artificial amniotomy)

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347
Q

Dx of cord prolapse

A

Fetal heart rate abnormality

Vaginal palpation of the cord or its appearance at the introitus

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348
Q

Mx of cord prolapse

A

Presenting part must be prevented from compressing the cord: pushed up by the examining finger or tocolytics e.g. terbutaline are given.

If the cord is out of the introitus it should be kept warm and moist but not forced back inside.

Patient should go on all fours whilst preparation of delivery is undertaken.

C-sec usually used but instrumental vaginal delivery is appropriate when the cervix is fully dilated.

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349
Q

Def of amniotic fluid embolism

A

When liqupr enters the maternal circulation causing anaphylaxis with sudden dyspnoea, hypoxia and hypotension. Often accompanied by seizures and cardiac arrest.

Acute heart failure is evident.

Extremely rare but serious as often causes death.

If patient survives for >30mins she develops DIC, PO and ARDS.

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350
Q

Risk factors for amniotic fluid embolism

A

Membrane rupture, during labour, C-sec, TOP.

Multiple mild predisposing factor: strong contractions in the presence of polyhydramnios.

Prevention impossible

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351
Q

Mx of amniotic fluid emoblism

A

NB often confused with other causes of collapse and with eclampsia.

ABC resusc.

O2 and CVP monitoring.

Blooods for clotting, FBC, U&Es, cross match.

Blood and FFP will be required.

ICU admission.

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352
Q

Def: uterine rupture

A

Can be de novo or an old scar. Fetus is extruded. Uterus contracts and bleeds from rupture site causing acue fetal hypoxia and massive internal maternal haemorrhage.

Rupture of a lower trasnverse C-sec scar is usually less severe than others as the lower segment is not very vascular.

Occurs in 1/1500 pregnancies. and in 0.7% of women who attempt a vaginal delivery after a single previous lower C-sec.

Dx made from fetal HR abnormalities, constant lower abdo pain, vaginal bleeding, contraciton cessation, maternal collapse.

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353
Q

Risk factors for uterine rupture

A

Labours with a scarred uterus

Classical C-sec or deep myotomy.

Rupture before labour is rare

Neglected obstrcuted labour is rare in the West.

Congenital uterine abnormalities occasionally cause rupture before labour.

Preventive mesaures include avoidance of induction and caution when using oxytocin in women with previous C-sec.

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354
Q

Mx of uterine rupture

A

Maternal resus with IV fluid and bloods

Bloods taken fro clotting, Hb, X-match

Urgent laparotomy for fetal delivery and repair/removal of uterus.

Uterine rupture has a high recurrence rate

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355
Q

Def uterine inversion

A

When the fundus inverts into the uterine cavity.

Usually follows traction on the placenta and occurs in 1 in 20000 deliveries

Haemorrhage, pain and profound shock.

Brief immediate attempt to push the fundus up via the vagina.

If not, GA and replacement performed with hydrosstatic pressure of several litres of salin which is run past a clenched fist at the introitus.

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356
Q

Causes of epileptiform seizures in pregnant

A

Maternal epilepsy

Exlampsia

Hypoxia of any cause

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357
Q

Mx of epileptfiorm seizures in obstetrics

A

Assume pre-eclampsia, Mg sulphate

ABC

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358
Q

What is LA toxicity

A

Excessive doses or inadvertent IV doses of LA can cause transient cardiac, respiratoey and neurological consequences

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359
Q

What is the optimal initial management of cord prolapse in a fully equipped hospital setting?

A

When cord prolapse is diagnosed before full dilatation, assistance should be immediately called and preparations made for immediate birth in theatre. T

here are insufficient data to evaluate manual replacement of the prolapsed cord above the presenting part to allow continuation of labour. This practice is not recommended

. To prevent vasospasm, there should be minimal handling of loops of cord lying outside the vagina.

To prevent cord compression, it is recommended that the presenting part be elevated either manually or by filling the urinary bladder.

Cord compression can be further reduced by the mother adopting the knee–chest or left lateral (preferably with head down and pillow under the left hip) position.

Tocolysis can be considered while preparing for caesarean section if there are persistent fetal heart rate abnormalities after attempts to prevent compression mechanically, particularly when birth is likely to be delayed.

Although the measures described above are potentially useful during preparation for birth, they must not result in unnecessary delay.

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360
Q

What are the aims of antenatal care? (6)

A

Detect and manage pre-existing maternal disorders that may affect outcome of pregnancy

Prevent or detect and manage maternal complications of pregnancy

” fetal compications

Detect congenital fetal problems

Plan with mother the circumstancs of delivery to ensure maximum safety for the mother and baby

Provide education and advice regarding lifestyle and ‘minor’ conditions of pregnancy

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361
Q

Preconceptual care, components

A

Previous pregnancies: implications

Health check: better performed before conception

Rubella status

Strict preconceptual glucose control in diabetics to reduce the incidence of congenital abnormalities

Medication optimisation

Folic acid supplementation e.g. 0.4mg/day preconceptually.

Advice regarding smoking, ETOH, drugs

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362
Q

When is the booking visit

What is its purpose

A

Should be before 10 weeks gestation

To secreen for potential cxs that may arise during pregnancy: Risk assessment using Hx and Ex.

Decide about type and frequency of antenatal care: need to be constantly re-evaluation as the pregnancy proceeds.

Check pregnancy gestation and arrange prenatal screening

General health chec,

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363
Q

Impact of age on pregnancy risk

A

<17y/o >35y/o are at greater risk of obstetric and mediocal cxs.

Chromosomal abnormalities increase with age

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364
Q

Impact of past obstetric Hx on pregnancy risk

A

Many obstetric disorders have a small but significant recurrence rate

include: preterm labour, small for dates, IUGR, stillbirth, APH, PPH, some congenital abnromalities, rhesus disease, pre-eclampsia, GDM

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365
Q

Impact of gynae Hx on pregnancy risk

A

Hx of subferitility increases perinatal risk: IVF/augmentatin of fertilisation increases likelihood of multiple pregnancy.

Previous uterine surgery (e.g. myomectomy) may be an indication for elective C-section

Cervical smear Hx

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366
Q

Impact on PMHx on pregnancy risk

A

HTN, DM, autoimmune disease, Hbopathy, thromboembolic disease, CVD, R disease or other serios diseases are at an increased risk of pregancy problems.

Direct questions re: depression are useful

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367
Q

Impact of FHx on pregnancy risk

A

DM in first degree relative increases rsik of GDM

HTN, thromboembolic, autoimmune disease and pre-eclampsia are also familial

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368
Q

Examination at booking visist

A

General health and nutritional status

BMI

Baseline BP

Incidental disease may be detected e.g. breast carcinoma

Abdo examination: limited before third trimester. Uterus palpable from 12w. Fetal heart can be ausucltated at this point.

If no recent smear, usually performed 3 months post-natally.

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369
Q

Booking visit investigations and details.

A

USS: 11-13+6 to date using crown-rump length. Also detects multiple pregnancy and allows screening for nuchal translucency.

DS screen: nuchal translucency, beta-hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPPA) = combined test

Bloods: FBC (?anaemia). Serum Abs (anti-D) to identify those at risk of intrauterine isoimmunisation. GGT (in those at risk, normally perforemd later in pregnancy). Syphillis test (VDRL). Rubella immunity checked (vaccination postnatally). HIV and HBV screening. Hb electrophoresis.

Screening for infections implicatd in preterm labour (e.g. Chlamydia, BV).

Urine MC+S because asymptomatic bacteruria in pregnancy can lead to pyelnephritis in (20%)

Urinalysis for glucose, protein and nitrites

Folic acid supplementation 0.4mg/d

Vit d supplementation 10 microg/d recommended for women >30BMI, SEA or afrocarribean origin or with low sunlight absoprtion.

Fe supplementation should not be routine

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370
Q

What is the calorific intake in pregnancy?

ETOH?

Smoking in pregnancy?

Dental?

Coitus?

Infection avodiance

Exercise?

Seatbelt?

A

2500

Avoided or <1 unit

Smoking cessation with nicotine replacement therapy

Dental cehck up advised

Coitus is not contraindicated unless: placenta praevia, or ROMed.

Listeriosis is avoided by drinking pasteurised milk and avoiding soft and blue cheese, pate and undercooked or partially cooked prepared foods. Salmonella avoided by cooking eggs and poultry well.

Eservices advised.

Above and below the bump.

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371
Q

What are the two care options for pregnancy in hte UK?

A

Communiy: core team of midwives. Women can be referred to hospital

Consultant-led care

Risk assessment for VTE should be considered

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372
Q

When is the anomaly USS?

A

20w: enables detection of most structural fetal abnormalities.

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373
Q

What are the USS screening for risk assesments and whena re they performed?

A

Doppler of the uterine arteries at 23w can be used as a screening test for IUGR and pre-eclampsia.

Not performed routinely but in htose at risk

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374
Q

What are the NICE recommended appts schedules for antenatal visits in pregnancy?

A

Uncomplicated: 10 for nulliparous. 7 for multiparous

More frequent visits are appropriate for many “high-risk” pregnancies.

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375
Q

What are the components of the examination in antenatal visits?

A

BP

Urine dip-> urine culture/analysis if abnormality found

Abdominal exam: lie, engagement (unimportant until 36w)

Fetal heart

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376
Q

What is the 16w visit in pregnancy for?

A

Results of screening tests for chromosomal abnormalities.

R/v of booking bloods.

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377
Q

18-21w purpose of visit

A

Anomaly scan

Repeat scan arranged at 32w if low-lying placenta

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378
Q

Purpose of 25w antenatal vist

A

Exclusion of early onset pre-eclampsia (only in nulliparous)

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379
Q

Purpose of 28w antenatal visit

A

Fundal height

FBC and Abs

GTT is perforemd if indicated

Anti-D given to rhesus-negative women

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380
Q

Purpose of 31w antenatal visit

A

Fundal height, R/v of bloods from 28w (nulliparous only)

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381
Q

Purpose of 36, 38, 40 antenatal visits

A

Fundal height measured

Fetal lie and presentation

Referral for external cephalic version if presentation if breech (ECV)

Pelvic examination inappropriate unless induction is complicated or there is suspicion of obstruction (and placenta praevia has been excluded)

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382
Q

Purpose of 41w antenatal visit

A

Fundal height measure and fetal lie and presentation checked

Membrane sweeping is offered as is induciton of labour by 42w.

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383
Q

Itching in pregnancy

A

Common

Scleare checked for jaundice and LFTs and bile acids assessed

NB although rare liver issue in pregnancy may bpresent with itching

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384
Q

Pelvic girdle pain in pregnancy

Mx

A

Formerly pubic symphysis dysfunction

Common and causes varying degrees of discomfort

PT, corsets, analgesics and even crutches may be used

Care with leg abduction required

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385
Q

Heartburn in pregnancy

Mx

A

Affects 70%, most marked in supine position

Extra pillows are helpful.

Diet modification.

Antacids can be used

Ranitidine in severe cases (NB pre-eclampsia can present with epigastric pain)

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386
Q

Backache in pregnancy

Mx

A

Universal and may cause sciatica

Most cases resolve after delivery

PT, advice on posture and lifting, a firm mattress and corset may all felp

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387
Q

Constipation in pregnancy

A

Common and exacerbated by oral Fe.

High fibre intake.

Stool softners can be used.

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388
Q

Oedema in pregnancy

A

Common, worsens towards the end (unreliable sign of pre-eclampsia).

Sudden increase warrants assessment and FU of BP and urinalyis.

Benign oedema is helped by raising feet.

Diuretics should not be given.

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389
Q

Leg cramps in pregnancy

A

Affects 30% of women.

Treatments unproven but NaCl, Ca salts or quinine may be tried

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390
Q

Cause of carpal tunnel syndrome in pregnancy

Mx

A

Due to fluid retention compressing the median nerve.

Seldom severe, usually temporary. Splinting of the wrists may help.

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391
Q

Vaginitis in pregnancy

A

DDue to candida infection

Common and difficult to treat

Itchy, non-offensive, white-grey discharge.

Imidazole vaginal pessaires (e.g. clotrimazole) can be used for symptomatic infection.

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392
Q

Tiredness in pregnancy

A

Common, NB often incorrectly attributed to anaemia.

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393
Q

Changse in weight in pregnancy

A

Gain 10-15kg

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394
Q

Changes in UT in pregnancy

A

Uterus increases weight from 50g-1000g

Muscle hypertrophy, increased blood flow and contractility.

Cervix softens and may start to efface late in third trimester

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395
Q

Changes in blood in pregnancy

A

50% increase in blood volume

Increased red cell mass

Decreased Hb

Increased WCC

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396
Q

Changes in CVs in pregnancy

A

CO: 40% increase

Peripheral resitance: 50% reduction

BP: falls in mid-regnancy.

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397
Q

Changes in lung in pregnancy

A

Tidal volume: 40% increase

No change in RR

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398
Q

Changes to

Renal

Gut

Thyroid in pregnacny

A

Renal blood flow: 40% increase in GFR so creatinine/urea decreased

Reduce motility: delayed gastric emptying and constipation

Enlargement of thyroid.

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399
Q

First trimester

Second

Third

A

w1-12

13-27

28-birth

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400
Q

Components of a Bishop score

Cut offs

A

Cervical position

Cervical consistency

Cervical effacement

Cervical dilation

Fetal station

<5- indicates labour unlikely to start without induction

>9- indicates htat labour will most likely commence spontaneously.

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401
Q
A
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402
Q

What is the epidemiology of breech presenation?

A

present in 25% at 28w.

Only occurs in 3% of babies near term

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403
Q

What are the different types of breech presentation?

A

Frank: hips flexed and knees fully extended

Footling: one or both feet come first with the bottom at a higher position (rare but carries a higher perinatal morbidity)

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404
Q

What are the risk factors for breech presentation?

A

Uterine malformations: fibroids

Placenta praevia

Poly/oligohydramnios

Fetal abnromality (e.g. CNS malformation, chromosomal disorders).

Prematurity (due to increased incidence earlier in gestation)

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405
Q

Mx of breech presentation

<36w

36w

If reamins breech

A

Fetaus may turn spontaneously.

ECV: success rate of around 60% (RCOG recommend ECV should be offered from 36w in nulliparous and 37 in parous)

Planned C-sec or vaginal

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406
Q

What information about C-sec and breech is important

A

Planned C-sec carries a reduced perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity for babies with a breech presentation at term compared with planned vaginal birth

There is no evidence that the long term health of babies with a breech presentation delivered at term is influenced by how the baby is born

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407
Q

Absolite contraindications of ECV

A

Indication for C-sec irrespective of fetal presentation (e.g. placenta praevia)

Severe oligohydramnios or ROM

Nonreassuring fetal monitoring test results

Hyperextended fetal head

Significant fetal or uterine anomaly

PLacental abruption

Multiple gestation (can be considered for the second twin after delivery of the first twin)

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408
Q

What are the relative contraindications of ECV?

A

Maternal HTN

Maternal obesity

fetal growth restriction

Oligohydramnios

Previous C-sec.

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409
Q

What differentiates clinically between cholestasis of pregnancy and acute fatty acid of pregnancy?

A

holestasis of pregnancy is characterised by severe pruritis, whereas acute fatty liver of pregnancy has predominantly non-specific symptoms (e.g. malaise, fatigue, nausea). With a normal FBC and viral screen a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis is unlikely.

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410
Q

Features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (aka obstetric cholestatis)

Mx

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: caused by impaired bile flow. Leads to build up of bile salts which can then deposit in the skin as well as the placenta.

Can be uncomfortable for mohter but may also cause sudden asphyxial events in fetus leading to anoxia and death.

pruritus: typically worse on palms, soles and abodmen

bilirubin < 100

occurs in 2nd and 3rd trimester

Increased risk of preterm birth

Mx: induction at 37w.

Ursodeoxycholic acid

Vit K supplementaiton

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411
Q

Features of acute fatty liver of pregnacny

A

Rare complication which may occure in third trimester or immediately following delivery

Abdo pain, N+V, headache, jaundice, hypoglycaemia, severe disease may result in pre-eclampsia

ALT typically elevated e.g. 500u/l

Mx: supportive care, stabilised: delivery is the definitive manageemtn

NB Gilbert’s and DJS may be exacerbated during pregnancy

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412
Q

What is the ovarian blood supply?

And the ligamental organisation?

A

From the ovarian artery which anastamoses with branches of the uterine artery in the broad ligament.

Overy lie the uretur in the ovarian fossa. Attached to the broad ligament by the mesovarium, the pelvic side wall by the infundibulopelvic ligament and to the uterus by the ovarian ligament

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413
Q

From which layer of the ovary does the most common carcinoma derive?

A

The outer cortex which is covered by germinal epithelium

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414
Q

What are the layers of the ovary?

A

Outer cortex: germinal epithelium

Inner medulla: connective tissue and bvs

Cortex contains the follicles and theca cells.

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415
Q

Whence is oestrogen secretion?

What can occur

A

Granulosa cells in the growing follicles and also by theca cells

Rare tumours of these cells secrete oestrogens.

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416
Q

What changes occur to the follicles during ovulation

A

Multiple enlarge every month under influence of FSH

Onle one reaches 20mm and ruptures in response to mid cycle LH surge

Collapsed follicle becomes a corpus luteum and continues to produce oestrogen and progesterone to maintain the endometrium.

If no implantation occurs the corpus luteum involutes and hormone levels decline.

If fertilisation occurs hCG from the trophoblast maintains the corpus luteum’s function and hormone production until 7-9w when the placenta takes over.

Follicular and lutein cysts result from persistence of these structures in nonpregnant women.

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417
Q

What are the symptoms of ovarian masses

A

Often silent and detected either when they are very large and cause abdominal distension or on USS.

Acute presentation is associated with “accidents”

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418
Q

What are the different types of ovarian cyst accidents?

A

Rupture of cyst into the peritoneal cavity.

Haemaorrhage into a cyst or peritoenal cavity

Torsion of the pedcile

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419
Q

What are the features of ovarian cyst rupture

A

Rupture of the cyst contents into the peritoneal cavity causes intense pain.

This is especially the cause with an endometrioma or dermoid cyst.

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420
Q

What are the features of haemorrhage of a cyst

A

Can occur into a cyst or the peritoneal cavity.

Often causes pain.

Peritoneal cavity haemorrhage can occasionally cause hypovolaemic shock

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421
Q

What are the features of torsion of the ovary?

A

Torsion of the pedicle (which is bulky due to the cyst) causes infarction of the ovary and tube and severe pain.

Sx and detorsion required urgently to save the ovary

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422
Q

What are the features of PCOS?

A

Causees oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism and subfertility.

Actually small multiple, poorly developed follicles rather than cysts

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423
Q

What is the most common gonadal dysgeneses?

A

Turner’s

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424
Q

Why are benign cysts classified with primary neoplasms of the ovary?

A

Because they may undrego malignant change

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425
Q

What are the three main groups of primary ovarian neoplasms?

A

Epithelial tumours

Germ cell tumours

Sex cord tumours

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426
Q

What are the most common ovarian masses premenopausally?

A

Follicular/lutein cysts

Dermoid cysts

Endometriomas

Benign epithelial tumour

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427
Q

What are the most common ovarian masses postmenopausally?

A

Benign epithelial tumour

Malignancy

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428
Q

Which group of women are epithelial tumours most commonly found in?

What are the features of epithelial tumours that make them unique?

A

Postmenopausal

Histology may demonstrate borderline malignancy where malignant histological features are seen without invasion. Such tumours may become frankly malignant and Sx is advised

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429
Q

How does the management of borderline epithelial cysts in younger women differ?

What is significant following removal of a cyst?

A

Close observation following removal of the cysts or affected ovary to retain fertility with close observation.

Recurrence as a borderline or invasive tumour can occur up to 20y later

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430
Q

What is the most common malignant ovarian neoplasm?

What is the benign form

A

Serous adenocarcinoma (50% of malignant neoplasms of the ovary) derives from the peithelial.

Serous cystadenoma

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431
Q

What proportion of ovarian malignancies is made up of mucinous adenocarcinoma?

What are the features?

A

10%

Mucinous cystadenoma can become very large and are less frequently malignant.

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432
Q

What is a rare borderline variant of the mucinous cystadenoma?

What happens?

What should be excluded?

A

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

Abdominal cavity fills with gelatinous mucin secretions.

Appendieal primary should be excluded.

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433
Q

What proportion of ovarian malignancies are accounted for by endometroid carcinomas?

A

25%

Similar histologically to endometrial carcinoma. with which it is associated in 20%

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434
Q

Which ovarian neoplasm has a particulaarly poor prognosis?

What proportion of ovarian malignancies are accounted for by this?

A

Clear cell carcinoma (epithelial tumours)

<10%

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435
Q

What are Brenner Tumours

A

Rare small and usually benign tumours of the ovarian epithelium

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436
Q

What are the relavent proprtions of the incidences of the following ovarian malignancies?

From which tissue layer do they arise

Serous adenocarcinoma

Mucinous adenocarcinoma

Endometroid carcinoma

Clear cell carcinoma

A

Epiethlium

50%

10%

25% (associated with endometrial carcinoma in 20% of cases)

<10%

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437
Q

Whence do germ cell tumours arise?

What are the different kingds of GCT?

A

From undifferentiated primordial germ cells of the gonad

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438
Q

What is a teratoma also known as?

What tissue do they arise from?

What are the features?

What is the malignant form?

A

Dermoid cyst

Undifferentiated primordial germs cells of the gonad.

Common benign tumours arising in young premenopasual women.

May contain fully differentiated tissue from all cell lines.

Commonly bilateral, seldom large, asymptomatic.

May rupture.

The solid teratoma

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439
Q

What is a dysgerminoma?

Features?

A

Female equivalent of the seminoma.

Very rare, most common ovarian malignancy in younger women.

Senesitive to RTx

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440
Q

What is the most common ovarian malignancy in younger women?

A

Dysgerminoma

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441
Q

Whence do sex cord tumours arise?

What are the different types?

A

From the stroma of the gona

Granulosa cell tumours

Tehcomas

Fibromas

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442
Q

What is a granulosa cell tumour?

A

Sex cord tumour.

Usually malignant but slow growing

Rare and found in postmenopausal women.

Stimulation of the endometrium may cause bleeding, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial malignancy and precocious puberty (rarely in young girls)

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443
Q

How does a granulosa cell tumour cause endometrial changes?

What are these changes?

A

Secrete high livels of oestrogen and inhibin which can cause

bleeding

endometrial hyperplasia

malignancy

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444
Q

What is the tumour marker for granulosa cell tumours?

What is used for?

A

Serum inhibin

used to monitor for recurrence

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445
Q

What are the features of thecomas?

A

Rare

usually benign

Can secrete oestrogens or androgens

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446
Q

What are the features of fibromas?

A

Rare and benign tumours of the sex cord

Can cause Meig’s

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447
Q

What is Meig’s?

A

Ascites and usually right pleural effusions are found in conjunction with a small ovarian mass.

Effusion is benign and cured by removal of the mass

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448
Q

What is the proportion of ovarian masses are mets?

Where are the common sites?

A

10% of malignant ovarian masses

Breast

GIT

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449
Q

What are Krukenberg tumours

A

Mets to ovary from gut which contain “signet-ring” cells.

Primary malignancy may be difficult to detect and has very poor px

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450
Q

What are the features of endometriotic cysts

A

Endometriosis can cause altered blood to accumulate in “chocolates cysts”

In the ovary these are called endometriomas.

Rupture is painful though uncommon

“Tumour-like condition”

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451
Q

What are functional cysts?

Which causes more symptoms?

A

Follicular and lutein cysts are persistently enlarged follicles and CL respectively.

Only found in premenopausal women.

Protected against by OCP.

Lutein cysts.

“Tumour-like condition”

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452
Q

What is the Mx of functional cysts

A

Symptomatic treatment.

If asymptomatic, cyst is observed with serial USS.

Due to remote possibility of malignancy, if an apparent functional cyst >5mm persists beyond 2 months measure CA125 and consider laparoscopy to remove or drain the cyst

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453
Q

What is the 5 year survival rate of ovarian cancer

Why

A

<35%

Due to its silent nature

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454
Q

What is the epidemiology of ovarian malignacny

A

Rates increase with age

>80% in women >50

Highest age-specific incidence rates in 80-84

OCP use may be protective

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455
Q
A
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456
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian malignancy?

A

Relate to number of ovulations:

Early menarche

Late menopause

Nulliparity

Familial: BRCA1 or 2 (also associated with breast), HNPCC (Lynch, lifetime incidence of bowel 80%) (if >2 relatives are affected the lifetime risk is 13%) if BRCA1: 50%.

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457
Q

What are the protective factors against ovarian malignancy?

A

Pregnancy

Lactation

Use of pill

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458
Q

Screening for ovarian cancer

A

Generally foer ealry malignant rather than premalignant

Those with BRCA1 and 2 are offered yearly TVUSS and CA125 or prophylactic SPO

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459
Q

What are the clinical features in terms of Hx in ovarian malignancy?

A

Vague/ absent, 70% present with Stage 3-4 disease

Warning signs;

Persistent abdominal distension (bloating)

Feeling full (early satiety) +/- loss of appetite

Pelvic or abdo pain

Increased urinary urgency and or frequency

Vaginal bleeding

Ask about breast/GI symptoms as ovarian mass may be met from these sites.

NB for overlap with IBS although this usually presents in younger women. Must exclude ovarian cancer in older women.

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460
Q

What are the clinical features in terms of Ex in ovarian malignancy?

A

Cachexia

Large abdo or pelvic mass (very large masses are less likely to be malignant)

Ascites

Breasts should be examined.

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461
Q

What are the features that make an ovarian mass more likely to be malignant?

A

Rapid growth >5cm

Ascietes

Advanced age

Bilateral masses

Solid or septate nature on USS

Increased vasculatiry

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462
Q

What is the normal spread of ovarian adenocarcinoma?

A

Usually spreads directly within the pelvis and abdomen (transcoelomic spread)

Lymapthic and histological spread can occur.

Staging is surgical and histological.

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463
Q

What are the stages of ovarian cancer

A

Stage 1: macroscopically confined to ovaries.

1a: one ovary affected, capsule intact
1b: both ovaries affected, capsule intact
1c: one/both, capsule not intact, or malignant cells in the abdominal cavity (ascites).

Stage 2: disease beyond ovaries, confined to pelvis

Stage 3: disease is beyond the pelvis but confined to the abdomen (frequent involvement of the omentum, small bowel and peritoneuM)

Stage 4: disease is beyond abdomen e.g. lungs or liver parenchyma

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464
Q

How is ovarian malignancy detected intiially

What is the cut off

What is the next action

A

CA125 should measured in women >50 with abdominal symptoms.

>35IU/mL

USS of abdomen or pelvis

If this dentifies ascites or pelvic or abdo mass, urgent referral to secondary care

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465
Q

How is ovarian cancer Dx established

What is a consideration in women <40?

A

CA125 measured if not already done so

Measure AFP and hCG as they are at increased risk of germ cell tumours.

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466
Q

How is the Risk of malignancy scored for women with ?ovarian cancer

What are the possible scores?

A

RMI= U x Mx CA125

U scored 1 point for: multilocular cysts, solid areas, metastases, ascites, bilateral lesions.

M menopausal status: 1= pre, 3= menopausal.

CA125= serum level.

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467
Q

What is the cut off of RMI?

A

>250-> referred to MDT

CT TAP may be performed, but staging usually established surgically.

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468
Q

What is the surgical Mx of ovarian Ca

A

Assess fitness for surgery

Midline laparatomy allows assessment of abdo and pelvis

Total hysterectomy with BSO and partial omentectomy perfromed.

Stage 1: sample retroperitoneal LNs

Stage 2 or greater they are all removed through block dissection.

Uterus and unilateral ovary may be preserved in younger women following laparoscopic Sx looking to maintain fertility however they require extensive f/u

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469
Q

What is the CTx Mx of ovarian Ca?

A

Confirmed tissue dx.

Very early, no CTx

Stage 1c: carboplatin

2-4 carboplatin +/- paclitaxel.

NB 2/3rds of women with initial response to CTx relapse within 2 years of completing treatment

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470
Q

RTx Mx of Ovarian Ca

A

Only used for dysgerminomas

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471
Q

What are the poor Pxic features of ovarian Ca?

What normally causes death?

A

Advanced stage

Poorly differentiated tumours

Clear Cell tumorus

Slow/poor response to CTx

Bowel obstruction or perf

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472
Q

Symptom control in palliative care of ovarian Ca

Pain?

N+V

Heavy vaginal bleeding

Ascites and bowel obstruction

A

Analgesic ladder, co-analgesics such as antidepressants steroids and cytotoxics may be used.

Antiemetics: anticholinergics, antihistamines, dopamine antagonists or 5HT-3 antags (ondanstrenon)

High dose progestogens may be helpful. RTx can be used.

Ascites: repeated paracentesis. Obstruction can be managed at home and resolution occurs in 1/3rd spontaneously. If partial: metoclopramide (pro-motility and antiemetic) + stool obstructers with enemas for constipation and a trial of dexmethasone.

Complete obstruction: cyclizine and odansetron for N+V with hyoscine for spasm. Surgical palliation indicated with acute, single-sight obstruction, may involve insertion of stents.

Terminal distress: good symptom control with anxiolytics and analgesics without oversedation

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473
Q

What is the definition of palliative care

A

Active total care of the patient whose disease is incurable

Increase QoL

Address symptoms

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474
Q

Mx of primary dysmenorrhoea

A

NSAIDs: mefanamic acid and ibuprofen effective in up to 80% ofr women.

Combined OCP= second line

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475
Q

What is the difference between 1o and 2o dysmenorhhoea

A

In primary dysmenorrhoea there is no underlying pelvic pathology. It affects up to 50% of menstruating women and usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche. Excessive endometrial prostaglandin production is thought to be partially responsible.

Features

pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting suprapubic cramping pains which may radiate to the back or down the thigh

Secondary dysmenorrhoea typically develops many years after the menarche and is the result of an underlying pathology. In contrast to primary dysmenorrhoea the pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes include:

endometriosis

adenomyosis

pelvic inflammatory disease

intrauterine devices*

fibroids

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476
Q

What are the two methods of emergency contraception available in the UK?

A

Levonorgestrel (single does of a progesterone)

Ulipristal (progesterone R modulator)

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477
Q

What are the features of levonorgestrel?

A

should be taken as soon as possible - efficacy decreases with time

must be taken within 72 hrs of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI)*

single dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg (a progesterone)

mode of action not fully understood - acts both to stop ovulation and inhibit implantation

84% effective is used within 72 hours of UPSI

levonorgestrel is safe and well tolerated. Disturbance of the current menstrual cycle is seen in a significant minority of women. Vomiting occurs in around 1%

if vomiting occurs within 2 hours then the dose should be repeated

can be used more than once in a menstrual cycle if clinically indicated

*may be offered after this period as long as the client is aware of reduced effectiveness and unlicensed indication

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478
Q

What are the features of Ulipristal?

A

a progesterone receptor modulator currently marketed as EllaOne. The primary mode of action is thought to be inhibition of ovulation

30mg oral dose taken as soon as possible, no later than 120 hours after intercourse

concomitant use with levonorgestrel is not recommended

may reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptive pills and progesterone only pills

caution should be exercised in patients with severe asthma

repeated dosing within the same menstrual cycle is not recommended

breastfeeding should be delayed for one week after taking ulipristal. There are no such restrictions on the use of levonorgestrel

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479
Q

What is an alternative to the emergency contraceptive pill and its features?

A

Intrauterine device (IUD)

must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or

if a women presents after more than 5 days then an IUD may be fitted up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date

may inhibit fertilisation or implantation

prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is considered to be at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection

is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle

may be left in-situ to provide long-term contraception. If the client wishes for the IUD to be removed it should be at least kept in until the next period

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480
Q

What are the high risk groups for pre-eclampsia?

What is the action taken?

A

NICE published guidance in 2010 on the management of hypertension in pregnancy. They also made recommendations on reducing the risk of hypertensive disorders developing in the first place. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin 75mg od from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. High risk groups include:

hypertensive disease during previous pregnancies

chronic kidney disease

autoimmune disorders such as SLE or antiphospholipid syndrome

type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus

75mg Aspirin

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481
Q

What are the causes of urinary incontinence?

A

Causes

overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence: due to detrusor over activity

stress incontinence: leaking small amounts when coughing or laughing

mixed incontinence: both urge and stress

overflow incontinence: due to bladder outlet obstruction, e.g. due to prostate enlargement

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482
Q

What is the initial investigation of UI?

A

bladder diaries should be completed for a minimum of 3 days

vaginal examination to exclude cystocele

urine dipstick and culture

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483
Q

What is the Mx of urinary incontinence?

A

Management depends on whether urge or stress UI is the predominant picture. If urge incontinence is predominant:

bladder retraining (lasts for a minimum of 6 weeks, the idea is to gradually increase the intervals between voiding)

bladder stabilising drugs: antimuscarinic is first-line

surgical management: e.g. sacral nerve stimulation

If stress incontinence is predominant:

pelvic floor muscle training (for a minimum of 3 months)

surgical procedures: e.g. retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures

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484
Q

D/c features of Candida

A

‘Cottage cheese’ discharge
Vulvitis
Itch

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485
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Offensive, yellow/green, frothy discharge
Vulvovaginitis
Strawberry cervix

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486
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

Offensive, thin, white/grey, ‘fishy’ discharge

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487
Q

What are the causes of vaginal discharge?

A

Common causes

physiological

Candida

Trichomonas vaginalis

bacterial vaginosis

Less common causes

Gonorrhoea

Chlamydia can cause a vaginal discharge although this is rarely the presenting symptoms

ectropion

foreign body

cervical cancer

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488
Q

What are acute causes of pelvic pain? (usually)

A

Ectopic pregnancy

UTI

Appendicitis

PID

Ovarian torsion

Miscarriage

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489
Q

Hx in ectopic pregnancy?

A

A typical history is a female with a history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea who presents with lower abdominal pain and later develops vaginal bleeding
Shoulder tip pain and cervical excitation may be seen

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490
Q

Urinary tract infection

A

Dysuria and frequency are common but women may experience suprapubic burning secondary to cystitis

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491
Q

Appendicitis

A

Pain initial in the central abdomen before localising to the right iliac fossa
Anorexia is common
Tachycardia, low-grade pyrexia, tenderness in RIF
Rovsing’s sign: more pain in RIF than LIF when palpating LIF

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492
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria and menstrual irregularities may occur
Cervical excitation may be found on examination

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493
Q

Ovarian torsion

A

Usually sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain. Onset may coincide with exercise.
Nausea and vomiting are common
Unilateral, tender adnexal mass on examination

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494
Q

Miscarriage

A

Vaginal bleeding and crampy lower abdominal pain following a period of amenorrhoea

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495
Q

Chronic causes of pelvic pain

A

Endometriosis

IBS

Ovarian Cyst

Urogenital prolapse

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496
Q

Endometriosis

A

Chronic pelvic pain
Dysmenorrhoea - pain often starts days before bleeding
Deep dyspareunia
Subfertility

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497
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome

A

Extremely common. The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit
Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present

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498
Q

Ovarian cyst

A

Unilateral dull ache which may be intermittent or only occur during intercourse. Torsion or rupture may lead to severe abdominal pain
Large cysts may cause abdominal swelling or pressure effects on the bladder

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499
Q

Urogenital prolapse

A

Seen in older women
Sensation of pressure, heaviness, ‘bearing-down’
Urinary symptoms: incontinence, frequency, urgency

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500
Q

N+V Mx in early pregnancy

A

Nausea and vomiting are very common in pregnancy, with 70-85% of pregnant women affected. Most cases are mild and do not require treatment, however anti-emetics may be considered if symptoms are persistent, severe and preventing daily activities. Suitable anti-emetics include cyclizine, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, promethazine, chlorpromazine, domperidone and ondansetron. There is no evidence to suggest that any one of these drugs works better than another.

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501
Q

Mx of epilepsy in early pregnancy

A

Epilepsy affects 0.5% of pregnant women. It is a significant cause of maternal death, and so antiepileptic treatment is continued during pregnancy. However, antiepileptic drugs increase the risk of congenital abnormalities, particularly neural tube defects. Carbamazepine and lamotrigine are the safest drugs to prescribe, whereas sodium valproate should be avoided. This is because it is associated with a higher rate of congenital abnormalities and lower intelligence in children.

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502
Q

Preferred drug used in Mx of hyperthyroidism in early pregnancy?

A

Proplthiouricil

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503
Q

Mx of UTI in eraly pregnancy

A

Nitrofuratonin is preferred

Followed by trimethoprim and then cefalexin.

NB Nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to risk of neonatal haemolysis

Trimethoprim should be avoided during early pregnancy due to its action as a folic acid antagonist

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504
Q
A
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505
Q

What are the indications for induction of labour?

A

Indications

prolonged pregnancy, e.g. > 12 days after estimated date of delivery

prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, where labour does not start

diabetic mother > 38 weeks

rhesus incompatibility

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506
Q

What are the methods for induction of labour?

A

Method

membrane sweep

intravaginal prostaglandins

breaking of waters

oxytocin

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507
Q

A 19 year-old woman attends her GP for a repeat prescription of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Since starting it, she has been suffering from severe left sided headaches with changes in her vision before the headache begins. Clinical examination is normal. What is the most appropriate step in her management?

Stop the COCP and start treatment on a progesterone only contraceptive pill.

Immediately refer her to the emergency department

Refer her to a neurologist

Commence a different COCP

Stop the COCP and start an oestrogen only contraceptive pill

A

The woman is having migraines with aura - a condition that can increase using the COCP. Women who have migraine with aura should stop the pill immediately - this is because the oestrogen component of the COCP can increase the risk of the women having an ischaemic stroke. A progesterone-only contraceptive pill is therefore the only alternative contraceptive medication that can be prescribed, as the others have oestrogen.

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508
Q

What are the factors reducing HIV vertical transmission?

A

maternal antiretroviral therapy

mode of delivery (caesarean section)

neonatal antiretroviral therapy

infant feeding (bottle feeding)

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509
Q

ART in pregnancy

A

all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy regardless of whether they were taking it previously

if women are not currently taking antiretroviral therapy the RCOG recommend that it is commenced between 28 and 32 weeks of gestation and should be continued intrapartum. BHIVA recommend that antiretroviral therapy may be started at an earlier gestation depending upon the individual situati

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510
Q

Mode of delivery in pregnancy (HIV)

A

Mode of delivery

vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks, otherwise caesarian section is recommended

a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the caesarean section

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511
Q

Neonatal antivrial therapy

A

zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if maternal viral load is <50 copies/ml. Otherwise triple ART should be used. Therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

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512
Q

A 28-year-old pregnant woman is seen at her booking appointment. Her obstetric history revealed she had pre-eclampsia in her last pregnancy. Which of the following medications should this patient be started on at 12-14 weeks gestation to reduce the risk of intrauterine growth retardation?

A

The following question tests the understanding of secondary prevention of women with pre-eclampsia. There is A level data showing that low-dose aspirin started at 12-14 weeks’ gestation is more effective than placebo at reducing occurrence of pre-eclampsia in women at high risk, reducing perinatal mortality and reducing the risk of babies being born small for gestational age . There is some evidence that low molecular weight heparin might reduce the placental insufficiency seen in pre-eclampsia, but long-term safety studies are not yet available. Labetalol and methyldopa are both common antihypertensive drugs used in the acute management of pre-eclampsia, however are not given prophylactically and do not reduce intrauterine growth retardation. Similarly to LMWH, unfractionated heparin has not been proven to prevent the development uteroplacental insufficiency.

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513
Q

NICE guidelines suggest that a woman who has a pre-labour rupture of membranes at term…

A

can either be offered induction of labour approximately 24 hours later or managed expectantly. Induction is often with vaginal PGE2.

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514
Q

What is the most appropriate first line investigation in a woman of reproductive age who has not conceived after 1 year of unprotected vaginal intervourse?

A

The most appropriate first line investigation in this patient is a day 21 progesterone. This is a non-invasive test and can tell you whether the patient is actually ovulating.

Both serum prolactin and thyroid function tests are not recommended unless patient’s have a specific reason for being tested i.e. a pituitary tumour or signs of overt thyroid disease.

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515
Q

What are the risks to the mother and foetus of VZV in pregnancy?

A

Risks to the mother

5 times greater risk of pneumonitis

Fetal varicella syndrome (FVS)

risk of FVS following maternal varicella exposure is around 1% if occurs before 20 weeks gestation

studies have shown a very small number of cases occurring between 20-28 weeks gestation and none following 28 weeks

features of FVS include skin scarring, eye defects (microphthalmia), limb hypoplasia, microcephaly and learning disabilities

Other risks to the fetus

shingles in infancy: 1-2% risk if maternal exposure in the second or third trimester

severe neonatal varicella: if mother develops rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth there is a risk of neonatal varicella, which may be fatal to the newborn child in around 20% of cases

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516
Q

Mx of VZV exposure in pregnant women?

A

Management of chickenpox exposure

if there is any doubt about the mother previously having chickenpox maternal blood should be urgently checked for varicella antibodies

if the pregnant women is not immune to varicella she should be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. RCOG and Greenbook guidelines suggest VZIG is effective up to 10 days post exposure

consensus guidelines suggest oral aciclovir should be given if pregnant women with chickenpox present within 24 hours of onset of the rash

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517
Q

Features of ectopic pregnancy

A

A typical history is a female with a history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea who presents with lower abdominal pain and later develops vaginal bleeding

lower abdominal pain: typically the first symptom. Pain is usually constant and may be unilateral. Due to tubal spasm

vaginal bleeding: usually less than a normal period, may be dark brown in colour

history of recent amenorrhoea: typically 6-8 weeks from start of last period; if longer (e.g. 10 wks) this suggest another causes e.g. inevitable abortion

peritoneal bleeding can cause shoulder tip pain and pain on defecation / urination

Examination findings

abdominal tenderness

cervical excitation (also known as cervical motion tenderness)

adnexal mass: NICE advise NOT to examine for an adnexal mass due to an increased risk of rupturing the pregnancy. A pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is however recommended

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518
Q

Examination in ectopic pregnancy?

A

adnexal mass: NICE advise NOT to examine for an adnexal mass due to an increased risk of rupturing the pregnancy. A pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is however recommended

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519
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial carcinoma?

A

obesity

nulliparity

early menarche

late menopause

unopposed oestrogen. The addition of a progestogen to oestrogen reduces this risk (e.g. In HRT). The BNF states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously

diabetes mellitus

tamoxifen

polycystic ovarian syndrome

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520
Q

A 25-year-old woman presents 5 months after having dilation and curettage for a miscarriage. Since this procedure she has not had a period. A pregnancy test is negative. Hysteroscopy is performed which reveals the diagnosis.

A

Asherman’s syndrome, or intrauterine adhesions, may occur following dilation and curettage. This may prevent the endometrium responding to oestrogen as it normally would.

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521
Q

Ix in 2o amenorrhoea

A

exclude pregnancy with urinary or serum bHCG

gonadotrophins: low levels indicate a hypothalamic cause where as raised levels suggest an ovarian problem (e.g. Premature ovarian failure)

prolactin

androgen levels: raised levels may be seen in PCOS

oestradiol

thyroid function tests

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522
Q

Causes of secondary amenorrhoea (after excluding pregnancy)

A

hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. Stress, excessive exercise)

polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

hyperprolactinaemia

premature ovarian failure

thyrotoxicosis*

Sheehan’s syndrome

Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions)

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523
Q

Classification of tears following SVD

A

first degree: superficial damage with no muscle involvement

second degree: injury to the perineal muscle, but not involving the anal sphincter

third degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (external anal sphincter, EAS and internal anal sphincter, IAS):

3a: less than 50% of EAS thickness torn
3b: more than 50% of EAS thickness torn
3c: IAS torn

fourth degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS) and rectal mucosa

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524
Q

Risk factors for perineal tears

A

Risk factors for perineal tears

primigravida

large babies

precipitant labour

shoulder dystocia

forceps delivery

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525
Q

Mx of mastitis

A

Mastitis affects around 1 in 10 breast feeding women. The BNF advises to treat ‘if systemically unwell, if nipple fissure present, if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal of if culture indicates infection’. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. Breast feeding or expressing should continue during treatment.

Referral to hospital for review by the surgical team is only appropriate if a breast abscess is suspected. This patient has no palpable lump therefore an abscess is unlikely.

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526
Q

Indications for oral antibiotics in mastitis

Rx

A

Infected nipple fissure not improving after 12-24h following effective milk removal

Breast milk culture positive

Fluclox for 10-14d

Erythromycin or clarithromycin if penallergic

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527
Q

Predisposing factors for candidiasis

A

diabetes mellitus

drugs: antibiotics, steroids

pregnancy

immunosuppression: HIV, iatrogenic

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528
Q

Mx of candidiasis

A

options include local or oral treatment

local treatments include clotrimazole pessary (e.g. clotrimazole 500mg PV stat)

oral treatments include itraconazole 200mg PO bd for 1 day or fluconazole 150mg PO stat

if pregnant then only local treatments (e.g. cream or pessaries) may be used - oral treatments are contraindicated

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529
Q

Causes of recurrent vaginal candidiasis

A

compliance with previous treatment should be checked

confirm initial diagnosis i.e. high vaginal swab, exclude differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus

exclude predisposing factors (see above)

consider the use of an induction-maintenance regime, with daily treatment for a week followed by maintenance treatment weekly for 6 months

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530
Q

Down Syndrome screening tests in pregnancy.

A

The combined test is recommended at 10-14 weeks gestation. It involves an ultrasound scan for nuchal translucency and a blood test for levels of Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). In pregnancies with Down Syndrome, PAPP-A is low and beta-hCG raised.

If the window for the combined test was missed, at 14-20 gestation, the quadruple test will be offered. This involves a blood test for levels of alfa-fetoprotein (AFP), unconjugated oestriol, beta-hCG and inhibin A. In pregnancies with Down Syndrome, AFP and unconjugated oestriol are low and beta-hCG and inhibin A are raised.

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531
Q

Norethisterone 5 mg tds can be used as

A

a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.

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532
Q

Draw the flow chart for the Mx of a woman presenting with menorrhagia

A
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533
Q

Mx of pregnant women with previous Hx of GBS

A

Group B streptococcus is a bacteria which is put of the natural gut flora and can colonise the vagina. About 50% of babies born to women who carry Group B streptococcus will become carriers themselves but less than 1% will be ill themselves. The largest risk factor for a baby developing Group B streptococcus growth is the mother having a previous baby who has grown it - the risk is increased by a factor of 10.

High risk women should be treated with intrapartum antibiotics, this reduces the risk of the baby developing Group B streptococcus. There is no need for antibiotics prior to labour. Having a vaginal or rectal swab will not change management as intrapartum antibiotics would still be recommended even if they were negative.

Women who have known GBS carrier status prior to this pregnancy, but have not had a baby with a GBS pregnancy there is not a requirement for IV antibiotics during labour unless another risk factor is present.

Offer intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis using intravenous benzylpenicillin to prevent early-onset neonatal infection for women who have had:

a previous baby with an invasive group B streptococcal infection

group B streptococcal colonisation, bacteriuria or infection in the current pregnancy.

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534
Q

Intrapartum use of GBS for mother antibiotic choice

A

Benzylpenicllin

Clindamycin if penallergic

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535
Q

What is first choice empirical antibiotic for use in baby in ?GBS infection

A

IV benzylpenicillin and gentamicin

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536
Q

Risk factors for GBS infection?

A

Risk factors for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) infection:

prematurity

prolonged rupture of the membranes

previous sibling GBS infection

maternal pyrexia e.g. secondary to chorioamnionitis

Women found to have GBS infection in the antenatal period should be treated with intravenous antibiotics during labour. This has been shown to reduce early-onset GBS disease in the neonate

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537
Q

Extent of the vulva

A

Area of skin that stretches from the labie majora laterally to mons pubis anteriorly and the perieneum posteriorly. Overlaps the vestibule, the area between the labia minora and the hymen with surrounds the urethral and vaginal orifices

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538
Q

What is the epithelium of the vagina

What is found anteriorly?

Posteriorly?

Lymphatic drainage

A

Squamous epithelium

Bladder and urethra

Upper third is the pouch of Douglas, lower posterior wall close to the rectum

Most occurs via the femoral via the inguinal LNs and to the EIA nodes of the pelvis

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539
Q

What are the most common vulval symptoms

A

Pruritus

Soreness

Burning

Superficial dyspareunia

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540
Q

What are the causes of pruritus vulave?

A

Infections:

Candidiasis (+ vaginal d/c)

Vulval warts

Pubic lice/scabies

Dermatological disease:

Any condition esp eczma, psoriasis, lichen simplex, lichen sclerosus, lichen planus, contact dermatitis

Neoplasia:

Carcinoma

Premlaignant disease (vulval intraepithelial neiplasia

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541
Q

Features of lichen simplex

Ix

Mx

A

AKA chronic vulval dermatitis

Chronic inflammatory skin condition

Presents with severe intractable pruritus, especially at night

Labia majora typically inflamed and thicekend with hyper and hypopigmentation.

Symptoms can exacerbated by chemical or contact dermatitis

May be exacerbated by chemical or contact dermatitis. Linked to stress/ low Fe stores,

Vulval biopsy indicated if biopsy in doubt

Irritants such as soap should be avoided

Emollionts, moderately potent steroid creams and antihistamines

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542
Q

Features of liche planus

A

Affects skin anywhere on the body but particulalry mucosal surfaces

Presents with flat, papular purphlish lesions.

Can be erosive and more commonly assoicated with pain than pruritus

Treatment is with high-potency steroid creams:

potent – such as betamethasone dipropionate

very potent – such as clobetasol propionate

Topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used as second-line therapy

Systemic corticosteroids may be used for short periods in severe ongoing disease

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543
Q

Features of lichen sclerosus

A

Vulval epithelium is thin with loss of collagen.

May have autoimmune basis and thyroid disease and vitiligo may coexist.

Typically postmenopausal.

Causes severe pruritis which may be worse at night.

Uncontrollable scratiching may cause trauma. Pink-white papules with coalesce.

May cause inflammatory adhesions

Vulval carcinoma may develop in 5%.

Biopsy important to exclude carcinom.

treatment with ultra-potent topical steroids.

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544
Q

Vulvodynia

A

Vulvar dysaesthesiia (AKA)

Dx of exclusion.

No evidence of vulavl disease

Can be provoked or spontaneous and subdivided into to site: local or generalised.

Hx of UTI, OCP, psychosexual disorders.

Topical agents tend to be unhelpful. Oral

durgs e.g. amitriptyline or gabapentin used

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545
Q

Spontaneous generalised vulvar dysaesthesia

A

Burning pain that is more common in older patients

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546
Q

Vulvar dysaesthesia of the vestibule

A

Causes superficial dyspareunia or pain using tampons and is more common in younger women in whom introitus damage must be excluded.

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547
Q

Features of candidial infection of the vulva

A

Irritation and soreness of the vulva and anus rather than discharge.

topical or oral antifungal therapy may be necessary

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548
Q

What is the pathogeneis of Bartholin’s cyst/abscess

A

Blockage of ducts of the glands behind the labia manora causes cyst formation.

Infection may occur with Staphy or E Coli and an abscess forms.

Treatment is with incision and drainage and marsupialisation.

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549
Q

What is marsupialisation

A

Where an incision is sutured open to reduce the risk of re-formation

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550
Q

What are the features of introital damage

A

Commonly follows childbirth.

Overtightening, incorrect apposition at perineal repair or extensive scar tissue can cause superficial dyspareuina.

If the introitus is too tight, vaginal dilators or surgey can be used

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551
Q

What is Fenton’s repair?

A

The Fenton’s procedure (also called Fenton’s repair) is an operation to remove scar tissue and widen the vaginal opening when a woman experiences persistently painful sexual intercourse.

Health problems that may require a Fenton’s procedure include:

  • Lichen planus of the vulva or vagina
  • Lichen sclerosus of the vulva
  • Previous surgery on the genitals that results in painful intercourse
  • Childbirth tears
  • Episiotomy complications
  • Radiotherapy to the genitals
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552
Q

What is a common error in the consideration of vaginal cysts

A

Often mistaken for a prolapse

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553
Q

What is vaginal adenosis

A

When columnar epithelium is found in the normally squamous epithelium of the vaginal.

Occurs in women whose mothers received diethylstillboestrol in pregnancy

Can turn malignant (clear cell carcinoma of the vagina) although often spontaenously resolves.

Women with DES exposure in utero undergo annual screening by colposcopy.

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554
Q

What is VIN

What are the two types

A

Presence of atypical cells in the vulval epithelium

Usual: nearly all VIN is usual. Associated with HPV, CIN, smoking and chornic immunosuppression, Nay be mutlifocal and varied aappearaence. Associated with warty or basaloid SCC.

Differentiated: associated with lichen sclerosis, seen in older women, usually unfocal, linked to keratinisiing SCC of the vulva. Higher risk of progression to cancer thean for VIN.

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555
Q

Mx of VIN

A

Pruritus or pain common: emollients or mild topical steroid may help.

Gold standard is local surgical excision for symptomatic relief, to confirm histology and exclude invasive disease.

15% of women undergoing excision have unrecongised invasive disease. Therefore if conservative management is used, adequate biopsies must be taken.

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556
Q

VIN=

A

Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia

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557
Q

Epidemiology for carcinoma of the vulva

A

5% of genital tract cancers.

Most common >60y/o

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558
Q

What is the pathology of vulval carcinoma

A

95% are SCC.

Melanomas, BCC, adenocarcinomas and others accoutn for the rest.

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559
Q

Aetiology of vulval carcinoma

A

VIN is premalignant.

However it often arises de novo

Associated with lichen sclerosis, ummonsuppresion, smoking and paget’s disease of the vulva

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560
Q

What is paget’s disease of the vulva

A

Extramammary Paget’s disease (EMPD), also extramammary Paget disease, is a rare, slow-growing, usually noninvasive intraepithelial (in the skin)adenocarcinoma outside the mammary gland and includes Paget’s disease of the vulva and the extremely rare Paget’s disease of the penis

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561
Q

Hx in vulval carcinoma

A

Pruritus

Bleeding or d/c

Mass

Malignancy often presents late due to unnoticed lesions or embarrassment

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562
Q

Ex in carcinoma of vulva

A

Ulcer or mass

Most commonly on the labia majora or clitoris.

Inguinal LNs may be enlarged, hard and nodal

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563
Q

Spread of vulval carcinoma

A

Local and via LN-> superfiical then deep inguinal nodes-> femoral-> EIA.

Contralateral spread may occur

Staging is surigcal and histological

50% present with Stage 1 disease

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564
Q

Staging of vulval carcinoma

A

Stage 1:

a: Tumour confined to vulva/perineum, <2cm in size with stromal invasion <1mm. Negative nodes.
b: Tumour confined to vulva perineum, >2cm in size or with stromal invasion >1mm. negative nodes.

Stage 2: tumour of any size with adjacent spread, negative nodes.

Stage 3: tumour of any size with positive inguinofemoral nodes.

Stage 4: tumours invades upper urethra/vagina/rectum, bladder, bone or distant metastases (IVA vs IVB)

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565
Q

Ix of vulval carcinoma

A

Biopsy

Fitenss for surgery: CXR, EXG, FBC, U&E, X match

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566
Q

Treatment of vulval carcinoma

A

Stage 1a: wide local excision

For other stages: WLE and groin lymphadenectomy through skin-sparing incisions.

If the tumours doesn’t extende to within 2cm of midline unilateral excision of LNs has emerged. This has replaced the radical vulvectomy.

Cxs: wound break down, infection, lymphoaedma, lymphocyst formation and sexual and body image probelms.

RTx may be used for large tumours prior to Sx.

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567
Q

Px of vulval carcinoma

A

Many patients die from other age-related disease

Surival at Stage 1: >90%

Stage 3-4: 40%

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568
Q

Features of secondary vaginal carcinoma

A

Common and arises from local infiltration from cervix, endometrium or vulva or from metastatic spread from cervix, endometrium or GI tumours

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569
Q

Features of rpiamry carcinoma of the vagina

A

2% of all genital tract malignancies.

Affects oder women and is usually squamous.

Presents with bleeding or discharge and a mass or ulcer is evident.

Treatment with intravaginal RTx or radical surgery.

Survival at 5y: 50%

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570
Q

Features of clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

A

Most common in the late teenage years.

Most are a rare Cx of DES prescription to mother during pregnacies to try to prevent miscarriage in 1950-70.

Radical surgery and RTx: good survival

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571
Q

What is the importance of infection in pregnancy?

A

Maternal illness may be worse e.g. varicella

Maternal complications: HIV infection implicated in pre-eclampsia

Preterm labour

Vertical transmission can cause miscarriage, can be teratogenic or damage developed organ or can cause serious infection in child.

Neurologic damage is more common in present of bacterial infrection

Antibiotic usage may be limited by potential adverse effects on foetus.

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572
Q

Features of CMV

A

Herpesvirus transmitted by personal contact.

Up to 1% of women develop CMV infection, usually subclinical in pregnancy.

Common cause of handicap and deafness

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573
Q

Fetal effects of CMV infection

A

Vertical transmission occurs in 40%

10% of infected neonates are symptomatic at birth with IUGR, pneumonia and thrombicytopenia.

Most of these will develop serious neurological sequelae: hearing, visual and mental impairment or die

Asympthomatic neonates are at risk of deafness.

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574
Q

Dx of CMV infection

A

USS abnromalities inconsitently present but include intracranial or hepatic calcification.

Most diagnoiesd using CMV testing.

CMV IgM remains positive a long time after infection, which could predate pregnancy, titres willl rise and IgG avidity will be low with recent infection.

If maternal infection confirmed: amniocentesis >6w post maternal infection will confirm or refute vertical trnsmission

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575
Q

Mx of CMV infection in pregnancy

A

Most infected neonates are not seriously affected.

Close surveillance for USS abnormlities and fetal blood sampling at 32w may help determine those at greatest risk for severe sequelae.

No prenatal treatment and termination may be offered.

Routine screening not advised.

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576
Q

Herpes simplex virus features

A

Responsible for most genital herpes

Less than 5% of pregnant women have a history of prior infection but man more have Abs

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577
Q

Fetal/neonatal effects of HSV

A

Not teratogenic.

Neonatal infeciton is rare but has a high mortality.

Vertical transmission occurs at vaginal delivery, particularly if vesicles are present.

More likely to occur in context of recent maternal infection because the fetus will not have maternal Abs (Risk >40%)

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578
Q

Dx of HSV infection

A

Cliinically and swabs are of little use

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579
Q

Mx of HSV infection in pregnancy

A

Referral to GU clinic

C-section for those delivering within 6w of primary attack and those with genital lesions from primary infection at time of infection.

Risk is less in recurrent herpes and they can have normal labour.

Daily aciclovir in late pregnancy may reduce the frequency of recurrences at term.

Exposed neonates are given IV aciclovir.

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580
Q

NB if there are CNS features in child at risk of HSV infection

A

LP shuld be performed

Aciclovir IV until infection excluded

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581
Q

Features of rubella in pregnancy

A

Congenital rublleea is very rare in UK due to immunisation

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582
Q

Effects of rubella on fetus

A

Maternal infection causes multiple fetal abnromalities including deafness, cardiac disease, eye problems, rmental retardation.

Probability and severity decreases with advancing gestation.

At 9w the risk is 90% if after 16w risk is very low.

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583
Q

Mx of rubella in pregnancy

A

If a non-immune woman develoips Rubella before 16w, TOP offered.

Screening routine at booking to identify those in need of vaccination after end of pregnancy.

Rubella vaccine is live and thus contraindicated in pregnancy.

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584
Q

Features of toxoplasmosis in pregnancy

A

Caused by T. gondii

Follows contact with cat faeces, soil or eating infected meat.

Infection in pregnancy occurs in 0.2% of women in UK but is more common in europe

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585
Q

Fetal/neonatal effects of toxoplasmosis

A

Fetal infection occurs in <50%

More common as pregnancy progresses.

Earlier infection leads to more severe sequelae: mental retardation, convulsions, spasiticities and visual impairment.

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586
Q

Dx of toxoplasmosis in pregnacny

A

USS may show hydrocephalus

Maternal infection diagnosed after IgM testing.

Flase positives and negatives are common

Can be diagnosed or excluded using amniocentesis after 20w.

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587
Q

Mx of toxoplasmosis

A

Health education to reduce risk of toxoplasmosis

Spiromycin intiated once maternal infection confirmed.

Additional combination therapy may be used following confirmation of vertical transmission although TOP may be requested.

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588
Q

Features of VZV

A

Chickenpox in pregnancy is rare but can cause severe maternal illness

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589
Q

Fetal/neonatal affects of VZV

A

Teratogenicity is a rare consequence of early pregnacny infection (which is immediately treated with oral aciclovir).

Maternal infection in the 4w preceding pregnancy may cause severe neonatal infection, this is most common if delivery occurs within 5d or 2d before maternal symptoms

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590
Q

Mx of VZV in pregnancy

A

Ig used to prevent and aciclovir to treat infection.

Pregnant women exposed are tested to confirm immunity. Ig recommended if they are non-immune

Aciclovir if infection occurs.

In late pregnancy neonates delivered in the risk period are given Ig. closely monitored and aciclovir if infection occurs.

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591
Q

What are the infections screened for in pregnancy

A

Asymptomatic bacturia: MSU

Chlamydia (<25y/o)

HBV

HIV

Rubella

Syphillis

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592
Q

Why should parvovirus B19 be tested for if ?Rubella in pregnancy?

A

As they are clinically indistinguishable.

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593
Q

How to treat pain or fever in pregnancy

A

Paracetamol

Ibuporfen may be considered but should not be used beyoind 27w gestation.

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594
Q

Features of parvovirus B19 infection

A

Infects 0.26% of pregnant women and more during epidemics

Slapped cheek is calssic but many have arthralgia or are asymptomatic

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595
Q

Fetal/neonatal effects of B19

A

Virus suppresses fetal erythropoiesis causing anaemia and variable degrees of thrombocytopenia

Fetal death occurs in 10% of pregnancies usually before 20w

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596
Q

Dx of B19

A

Where materanl exposure or syymtpoms have occurred maternal IgM testing will prompt fetal surveillance

Anaemia is detectable on USS as increased blood flow velocity in the fetal middle cerebral arteral and subsequently as oedema (fetal hydrops) from fetal heart failure.

Maternal testing may also follow identification hydrops

Hydrops and anaemia spontaneously resolves in 50%

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597
Q

Mx of B19

A

Mothers infected are regulalry sacanned

Where hydrops is detected, in utero transfusion is given is this is severe.

Evidence of severe disease being associated with neurological damage

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598
Q

Features of GBS infection in pregnancy

A

Caused by carriage of Streptococcus agalactiae which is asymptomatic in about 25% of pregnant women

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599
Q

Neonatal effects of GBS

A

The fetus can be infected during labour after ROM. Most commmon in pre term labour or PROM.

Maternal fever

Early onset GBS occurs in 1 in 500 neonates. Causes severe illness and has a 6% mortality in term and 18% mortality in preterm.

IV benzyl can prevent vertical transmission

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600
Q

Risk factors for GBS transmission

A

Previously affected neonate

Positive urinary culture for GBS

Preterm labour

ROM >18h

Maternal fever in labour

Treatment is usual for incidental GBS carriage.

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601
Q

Strategy 1 vs Strategy 2 for GBS

A

Strategy 1= treatment based on RFs

Strategy 2: screening with vaginal and rectal swabs at 35-37w

Treat with IV benzlypenicillin in labour if swabs positive or RFs present

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602
Q

Features of HBV in pregnancy

A

Persitent HBV infeciton presint in 1% of pregnant women up to 25% in those from Asia and Africa.

Degree of infectivity depends on Ab status. HBsAb are immunologically cured and of low infectivity.

Those with surface Ag but not Ab and those with E Ag are more infectious

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603
Q

Neonatal effects of HBV infection

A

Vertical transmission occurs at delivery.

90% of infected neonates become chronic carriers compared to 10% of adults

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604
Q

Mx of HBV infection

A

Neonatal immunisation reduces the risk of infection by over 90%.

Maternal screening is routine in

Offer tenofovir disoproxil to women with HBV DNA greater than 107 IU/ml in the third trimester to reduce the risk of transmission of HBV to the baby UK

Advise women that there is no risk of transmitting HBV to their babies through breastfeeding if guidance on hepatitis B immunisation has been followed, and that they may continue antiviral treatment while they are breastfeeding.

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605
Q

Maternal effects of HIV in pregnancy

A

Does not hasten progression to AIDS

Increased incidence of pre-eclampsia (may be increased by ARTs)

Gestational diabetes may be more commmon

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606
Q

Neonatal/fetal effects of HIV

A

Stillbirth, pre-eclampsia, IUGR and prematurity more problem

Congenital abnormalities aren’t and ARTs not teratogenic

NB Folic acid antagonists may be prescribed to HIV infected women.

The most important risk is of vertical transmission, beyond 36w, intrapartum or during breastfeedings.

25% of infected neonates develop AIDS by 1y, 40% will develop AIDS by 5y

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607
Q

Mx of HIV in pregnancy

A

HIV +ve women should be managed in conjunction with their physician and have regular CD4 and viral load tests.

Prophylaxis against PCP if low CD4

Drug toxicity monitored with LFT, RFT, Hb and blood glucose.

Ix for genital tract infections.

HAART including zidovudine which reduces viraemia and maternal disease and should be continued throughout pregnancy and delivery.

Neonate treated for the first 6w.

Therapy in women not already taking HAARTs is usally started at 28w.

C-section

Reduces vertical transmission to <1%

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608
Q

Features of GAS

A

Traditionally responsible for puerperal sepsis.

Most common bacterium associated with maternal death in which sepsis is the leading cause (50%).

Caused by strep pyogenes, NB sore throat.

Infection during as opposed to after pregnancy is usally from children.

Chorioamnionitis. abdo pain, diarrhoea and severe sepsis may ensue.

Infected fetus usually dies in utero

Early recognition, culture and high dose antibiotics and ITU required in severe cases..

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609
Q

IFV in pregnancy

A

Immunisation recommended

Oseltamivir and zanamivir

Admit esp if respiratory symptoms

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610
Q

Syphillis in pregnancy

A

Active disease in pregnacny usually causes miscarriage, severe congenital disease or stillbirth

Benzylpenicillin will prevent but not reverse fetal damage.

VDRL used for screening/ PCR

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611
Q

Implications of TB in pregnancy

A

Tuberculin testing is safe

BCG is live and contraindicated.

Dx in late pregnancy is associated with prematurity and IUGR.

Treatment with first line drugs and vitamin B6 is safe in pregnancy

Streptomycin is contraindicated

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612
Q

Implications of HCV infection in pregnancy

A

Vertical transmission occurs in 6% and is increased by HIV coinfection and high viral load.

Infected neonates are prone to chronic hepatitis.

C-sec doesn’t reduce vertical transmission.

Screening restricted to high risk groups

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613
Q

Maternal cxs of malaria infection

A

Severe anaemia and other problems are more common

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614
Q

Fetal cxs of malaria

A

IUGR and stillbirth are more common

Congenital malaria complicates 1% of affected pregnancies

Artemisin combination therapy appears safe.

Intermittent preventative treatment of 2 dosease at least a month apart can prevent maternal and neonatal infection

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615
Q

Where is L monocytogenes found?

What does it cause?

Dx?

Prevention

A

Gram negative bacillus found in pates, soft cheeses and prepacked meals

Causes nonspecific febrile illness.

If bacteraemia occurs in pregnancy then a potentially fatal infection of the fetus may occur.

Blood cultures

Avoidance of high risk food.

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616
Q

What are the implications of chlamydia/gonorrhoea infection in the neonate

A

Associated with preterm labour and neonatal conjunctivitis.

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617
Q

Treatment of of chlamydia in pregnancy?

A

azithromycin or erythromycin.

NB tetracycline causes fetal tooth discolouration

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618
Q

Treatment of gonorrhoea in pregnancy

A

Cephalosporins due to high prevalence of penicllin resistance

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619
Q

Most common causes of BV

Implications in pregnancy

Mx

A

Gardnerella vaginalis and mycoplasma hominis

Preter, labour and late miscarriage more common

Screning and treatment with oral clindamycin reduces the risk of preterm birth.

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620
Q

Anatomy and function of the female lower UT system

A

Voluntary control of urine release achieved by the bladder and urethra

Normal function of the filling phase relies upon adequate bladder capacity and competent urethral sphincter.

Normal function of the voiding phase is dependant upon detrusor contractility and coordinated urethral relaxation.

Bladder has a smooth muscle wall: detrusor muscle

Can store around 500mL or urine although first urge to void is at 200mL.

Drained by the urethra which is 4cm long and has a muscular wall and external orifice in the vestibule

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621
Q

Nervous control of the bladder

A

PNS: aids voiding

SNS: prevent

Afferent fibres respond to bladder wall distension

Effeerent PNS bass back to the detrusor muscle and cause contraction.

Efferent SNS fibres also pass to the detrusor and are inhibted.

This is the micturition reflex and is controlled at the level of the pons.

The cerebral cortex modulates this through relaxation or contraction of the pelvic floor and the striated muscle of the urethra

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622
Q

What are the factors that influence continence.

A

Prssure in the urethra being greater than in hte bladder.

Bladder pressure is influenced by detrusor pressure and intra-abdominal pressure.

Urethral pressure is influenced by the inherent urethral muscle tone and by external pressure (pelvic floor and intra-abdominal pressure).

The detrusor muscle is expandable, as bladder fills there is no increase in pressure.

Increases in abdominal pressure are transmitted equally to the bladder and upper urethra.

Therefore coughing does not normally lead to urinary incontinence.

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623
Q

When does micturition occur

A

When bladder pressure exceeds urethral pressure.

Achieved volunterily by simultaenous drop in urethral pressure (partly due to pelvic floor relaxation) and in bladder pressure due to detrusor contraction.

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624
Q

What are the two main causes of female incontinence?

A

Uncontrolled increases in detrusor pressure

Increased intra-abdominal pressure transmitted to bladder but not urethra

Rarer causes include urine bypassing the sphincter through a fistula

Or pressure overwhelming the sphincter due to overfilling of thbladder due to neurogenic causes

Or outflow obstruction leading to overflow incontiinece

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625
Q

What are the implications of uncontrolled increases in detrusor pressure

Most common cause

A

Increased bladder pressure beyond that of the normal urethra due to

OAB or urinary urge incontinence (previously called detrusor instability) i

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626
Q

What are the implications and cause of increased intra-abdominal pressure transmission to the bladder but not the urethra?

A

Incontininece, normally as a consequence of the urethral neck slipping from the abdomen.

Bladder pressure therefore exceeds urethral pressure when intra-abdominal pressure is raised.

This is most commonly caused by urinary stress incontince

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627
Q

What are hte common urinary symptoms?

A

Incontinence

Daytime frequency

Nocturia

Nocturnal enuresis

Urgency

Bladder pain

Urethral pain

Dysuria

Haematuria

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628
Q

What is urinary incontinence?

A

The complaint of involuntary urinary leakage wihich can be divided into stress incontinence and urge incontinence.

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629
Q

What is daytime frequency?

Normal?

A

Number of times a women voids during waking hours

Normall 4-7

Increased daytime frequency defined by patients perception

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630
Q

What is nocturia

A

Having to wake at night one or more times to void

<70y/o >1 per night= abnormal

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631
Q

What is nocturnal enuresis

A

Urinary incontinence during sleep

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632
Q

What is urgency?

A

Sudden compelling desire to pass urine, which is difficult to deter.

Most frequently secondary to detrusor overactivity

Inflammatory bladder conditions may also present with this

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633
Q

What is bladder pain and where is it typiically felt?

A

Supra or retropubic.

Pain occurs with bladder filling and is relieved by emptying it.

Pain is indicative of an intravesical pathology such as interstitial cystitis or malignancy

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634
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Pain felt in the bladder or urethra on passing urine, most frequently associated with UTI

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635
Q

What are the features of urine dipstick tests?

A

Blood, glucose, protein, leucocytes and nitrites

Nitrites suggestive of infection, if +ve MCS

Glycosuria suggests diabetes

Haematuria suggests bladder carcinoma or calculi

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636
Q

What is a urine diary

A

When a patient keeps a record for a week of the time and volume of fluid intake and micturition

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637
Q

What is the use of postmicturition ultrasound or catheterisation

A

Exclude chornic urinary retention

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638
Q

What is cystometry

A

Directly measures via a catheter, the pressure in the bladder while the bladder is filled and provoked with coughing.

A pressure transducer also placed in vagina or rectum to measure abdominal pressuor.

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639
Q

How can true detrusor pressure by caclulated?

A

Subtraction of the abdominal pressure from the vescile pressure.

Should not normally alter with filling or provocation

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640
Q

If urinary leaking occurs with coughing in the absence of detrusor contraciton what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Urodynamic stress incontinence

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641
Q

What is the diagnosis if an involuntary detrusor contraction occurs?

A

Detrusor overactivity

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642
Q

What is the use of ultrasonography in investigation of the urinary tract

A

Excludes incomplete bladder emptying.

Checks for congenital abnromalities or abnormalities of the kidneys

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643
Q

What is the use of CT urogram?

A

With the use of contrast the integrity and route of the uretur is examined

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644
Q

What is the methylene dye test?

A

BLue dye is instilled into the bladder, leakage from places other than the urether i.e. fistulae can be seen

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645
Q

What is the definition of urinary stress incontinence?

Whendoes it become urodynamic stress incontinence

What is the most common cause

A

Complaint of involuntary leakage of urine on effort or exertion, on sneezing or coughing.

Once it has been confirmed by urodynamic studies

As a result of urethral sphincter weakness, can only be made with certainty after cystometry.

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646
Q

What proportion of female incontinence is caused by stress incontinence?

A

50%

Occurs to verying degress in more than 10% of women

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647
Q

What are the causes of stress incontinence?

A

Pregnancy and vaginal delivery

Esp: prolonged labour, forceps delivery

Obestity and age.

Prolapse commonly exists but is not always related.

Previous hysterectomy (when indication was not for prolapse or urianry symptoms) may predispose to USI

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648
Q

What is the mechanism of stress incontinence

A

Increase in intra-abdominal pressure, normally the bladder neck is equally compressed and its pressure rises so the P difference remains unchanged.

If the bladder neck has slipped below the pelvic floor because its supports are weak it will not be compressed.

If the rest of the urethra are unable to compensate the bladder pressure exceeds urethral pressure and incontinence results.

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649
Q

Hx in stress incontinence

A

Disruption of patients life

Stress incontinence predominantes, may also complain of frequency, urgency or urge incontinence.

It is important to have the patient prioritise her symptoms as treatment for USI vs OAB differs.

Faecal incontinence may coexist (perineal tear during childbirth)

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650
Q

Ex in Stress incontinence

A

Sim’s speculum, often but not invariable reveals a cystocoele or urethrocoele.

Leakage of urine with coughing may be seen.

Abdo palpation to exclude bladder distension.

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651
Q

Ix in stress incontinence

A

Urine dipstick

Bladder diaries

Can measure post-void residual volume by bladder scan

Try conservative management before:

Cystometry is required to exclude overactive bladder is considered or if overactive bladder symptoms fail to respond to medical treatment

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652
Q

UTIs, MCS and antibiotics

A

Positive for leucocytes and nitrites with symtpoms; send an MSU for MCS and start empirical antibitotics.

Symptomatic and negative test for leucoytes or nitrites send an MSU for MCS and consider empirical antibiotics

If asymptomatic with postivie L and N, do not offer antibiotics without the results of MSU

If asymptomatic and negative for either L or N do not send for MCS as unlikely UTI

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653
Q

Mx of stress urinary incontinence

A

Conservative:

Modification of fluid intake

Lose weight if obese

Cause of chronic cough can be reduced e.g. smoking.

1st line Pelvic floor muscle training

Medical:

[Duloxetine (not routinely used as second line treatment unless woman prefers not to have surgery]

2nd line Sxical:

Considered when conservative measures have failed and woman’s QoL is being signficantly impact.

Need to be clear that USI is the cause

Mid-urethral sling using tension free tape and trans-obturator baginal tape are first line with cure rates up to 90%

If sx fails, artifical urinary sphincter may be considered.

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654
Q

What is duloxetine and its adverse effects

A

SNRI that enhances urethral striated sphincter activity

Associated with significant and dose-dependant reduction in frequency of incontinence episodes.

Can cause nausea, dyspepsia, dry mouth, dizziness, insomnia or drowsiness

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655
Q

What are the Cxs of surgery for USI?

A

Bladder perforation

Postoperative voiding difficulty

Bleeding

Infection

de novo detrusor overactivty and suture or mesh erosion

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656
Q

What is TVT?

A

Tension-free vaginal tape: synthetic polypropylene tape placed in a U-shape under the midurethra ander LA or GA, tension adjusted as woman coughs

Cystouerthroscopy is performed to ensure there has been no damage to bladder or urethra

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657
Q

What is TOT

A

Transobturator tape

Similar to TVT with different insertion methd (via the transobturator foramen)

Reduced risk of bladder perf as retropubic space isn’t entered.

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658
Q

What is injectable periurethral bulking?

A

Injection of bulking agents for the treatment of USI. Has a low immediate success rate but low morbidity so may be appropriate in patients where surgery has failed or very elderly patients.

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659
Q

What is the difference between USI and stress incontinence?

A

Stress incontinence is a symptom

USI is a disorder diagnosed only following cystometry

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660
Q

Def OAB?

A

Urgency with or without urge incontinence, usually with frequency or nocturia in the absence of proven infection.

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661
Q

What is detrusor overactivity?

A

Urodynamic diagnosis characterised by involuntary detrusor contractions during the filling phase which may be spontaenous or provoked by coughing.

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662
Q

What is the epidemiology of OAB

A

causes 35% of female incontinence

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663
Q

Aetiology of OAB

A

Can follow operations for USI in which case it may be caused by bladder neck obstruction.

May occasionally occur in hte context of detrusor overactivity occuring the presence of a neuropathy e.g. MS or SC injury

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664
Q

Mechanism of incontinence in OAB

A

Detrudor contraction normally felt as urgency. If strong enough it causes the bladder pressure to overcome the urethral pressure and the patient leaks= urge incontinence.

Can occur spontaneously or with provocation e.g. rise in IAP.

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665
Q

Hx in OAB

A

Urgency and urge incontinence

Frequency

Nocturia

Stress incontinence also common

Some patients leak at night or at orgasm

Hx of childhood enuresis is common

Faecal urgency

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666
Q

Ex in OAB

A

often normal but an incidental cystocoele may be present

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667
Q

Ix in OAB

A

Urine dip

Urine diary: frequent passage of small volumes of urine, particularly at night and may show high intake of caffeine containing drinks.

After lifetyle changes and trial of Rx, cystometry

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668
Q

Mx of OAB

A

Lifestlye changes:

Reduce fluid intake, obesity, avoiding caffeine, drugs that alter bladder function such as diuretic and antipsychotics should be reviewed.

Conservative:

1st line Bladder training lasting a minimum of 6 weeks

Medical:

Muscarinic antagonists

2nd line: Oxybutynin or toiterodine or darifenacin, offer durg with lowest acquisition cost

3rd line: oestrogens, mirabegron for symptomatic control

Sxical (only after cystometry):

Botulinum toxin injection

Percutnaeous nerve stimulation

Clam augmentation ileocystoplasty is used only for very severe and resistant symptoms, woman has to be willing to self catheterise

Urinary diversion (last ditch)

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669
Q

Anticholinergics MOA in OAB

Adverse effects

A

Suppress detrusor overactivity

Block muscarinic receptors that mediate detrusor smooth-muscle contraction relaxing the detrusor muscle

Dry mouth, dizziness (oxybutynin), constipation, blurred vision, drosiness and dizziness. Have also been known to induce delerium

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670
Q

MOA of oestrogens in OAB

A

Many women develop bladder filling symptoms after menopause

Improves symptoms of vaginal atrophy.

Can reduce symptoms of urgency, urge incontinence, frequency and notcuria

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671
Q

Botulinum A MOA in OAB

Cxs

A

Blocks NMJ transmission causing weakness

Injected cystoscopicall into the detrusor muscles with sparing of the trigonium.

Lasts 6m on average.

Voiding dysfunction and urinary retention

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672
Q

Features of neuromodulation and sacral nerve stimulation

A

Continuous stimulation of hte S3 nerve root via an electrical pulse generator improves the ability to suppress detrusor contractions

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673
Q
A
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674
Q

Causes of urgency and frequency

A

UTI

Bladder pathology

Pelvic mass

Overactive bladder

USI

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675
Q

What is Mixed incontinence

A

Combination of USI and OAB

Dx made at cytometry

Most bothersome symptom treated first

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676
Q

Def acute urinary intention

Features

A

Patient unable to pass urine for 12h or more.

Catheterisation producing as much or more urine than bladder capacity

Painful unless due to epidural anaesthesia or failure of the afferent pathway

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677
Q

Causes of acute urinary retention

Mx

A

Childbirth: epidural, vulval or perineal pain

Sx

Drugs such as anticholinergics

Retroverted gravid uterus

Pelvic mass

Neurological disease

Catheterisation for 48h whilst cause is treated

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678
Q

Features of chronic retention and urinary overflow

A

1% of incontinence

Bladder overdistension eventually causes overflow

Can be due to urethral obstruction or detrusor inactivity

Pelvic masses and incontinence sx are the most common causes of urethral obstruction

Autonomic neuropathies e.g. DM or previous overdistension of the bladder can cause detrusor inactivity.

Presentation may mimic stress incontinence or loss may be continuous

Examination reveals a distended non-tender bladder

Dx with USS or catheter after micturition

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679
Q

Features of painful bladder syndrome and interstitial cystitis

A

PBS= suprapubic pain due to bladder filling accompanied by other symptoms e.g. frequency in the absence of UTI

Dx of interstital cystitis reserved for pateitns with painful bladder who have characteristic cystoscopic and histological features.

Treatments include dietary modificatiion, bladder training, TCAs, analgesics and intravesical drug infusion

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680
Q

What are the most common fistulae causing incontinence

A

Vesicovaginal

Urethrovaginal

Commonly as a result of obstructed labour in the developing world, in West normally due to Sx, RTx or Ca.

Ix with CTU or cystoscopy.

Sx often required

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681
Q

Name that fistula!

A
  1. urethrovaginal
  2. vesicovaginal
  3. vesicouterine
  4. ureterovaginal
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682
Q

What are the cut offs for anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Anaemia in pregnancy is defined using different cut off values than in non-pregnant women and varies according to trimester. British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance gives the following values:

first trimester Hb less than 110 g/l

second/third trimester Hb less than 105 g/l

postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l

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683
Q

What are the management options for anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) guidelines advise for normocytic or microcytic anaemia a trial of oral iron should be considered as the first step, and further investigations only required if no rise in haemaglobin after 2 weeks.

Parenteral iron is only indicated if oral iron is not tolerated, absorbed, patient is not compliant or they are near term and there is insufficient time for oral iron to be effective.

Blood transfusion is inappropriate at a slighlty low level of haemoglobin without active bleeding.

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684
Q

Define placental abruption

Epidemiology

A

Placental abruption describes separation of a normally sited placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in maternal haemorrhage into the intervening space

1/200 pregnancies

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685
Q

What are the associated factors for placental abruption?

A

Cause - not known but associated factors:

proteinuric hypertension

multiparity

maternal trauma

increasing maternal age

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686
Q

What are the clinical features of placental abruption

A

Clinical features

shock out of keeping with visible loss

pain constant

tender, tense uterus

normal lie and presentation

fetal heart: absent/distressed

coagulation problems

beware pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria

Presents with sudden abdominal pain in the third trimester.

On examination the mother can be seen to be in extreme pain and cold to touch.

Bleeding is present in 80% of cases.

Absence of visible bleeding does not rule out this diagnosis.

Risk factors include: maternal hypertension (common), cocaine, trauma, uterine overdistension, tobacco and previous placental abruption.

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687
Q

What are the causative organisms for PID?

A

Causative organisms

Chlamydia trachomatis - the most common cause

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Mycoplasma genitalium

Mycoplasma hominis

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688
Q

What are the features of PID?

A

Features

lower abdominal pain

fever

deep dyspareunia

dysuria and menstrual irregularities may occur

vaginal or cervical discharge

cervical excitation

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689
Q

Ix of PID

A

screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea

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690
Q

Mx of PID

A

due to the difficulty in making an accurate diagnosis, and the potential complications of untreated PID, consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment

oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

RCOG guidelines suggest that in mild cases of PID intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in. The more recent BASHH guidelines suggest that the evidence is limited but that ‘ Removal of the IUD should be considered and may be associated with better short term clinical outcomes’

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691
Q

Cxs of PID

A

Complications

infertility - the risk may be as high as 10-20% after a single episode

chronic pelvic pain

ectopic pregnancy

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692
Q

Def PID

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a term used to describe infection and inflammation of the female pelvic organs including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surrounding peritoneum. It is usually the result of ascending infection from the endocervix

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693
Q

What are the major causes of bleeding in the 1st trimester?

A

Spontaneous abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Hydatidiform mole

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694
Q

Causes of bleeding in 2nd trimester?

A

Spontaneous abortion
Hydatidiform mole
Placental abruption

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695
Q

Causes of bleeding in 3rd trimester?

A

Bloody show
Placental abruption
Placenta praevia
Vasa praevia

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696
Q

Hydatidiform mole features

A

Typically bleeding in first or early second trimester associated with exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis. The uterus may be large for dates and serum hCG is very high

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697
Q

Features of placenta praevia

A

Vaginal bleeding, no pain. Non-tender uterus* but lie and presentation may be abnormal

*vaginal examination should not be performed in primary care for suspected antepartum haemorrhage - women with placenta praevia may haemorrhage

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698
Q

Features of vasa praevia

A

Rupture of membranes followed immediately by vaginal bleeding. Fetal bradycardia is classically seen

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699
Q

What are indications for gynae referral in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Failure of oral antiemetics to control symptoms, ketonuria and weight loss (>5% of pre pregnancy body weight) are all reasons to refer a woman to gynaecology for urgent assessment and intravenous fluids. It is particularly important to keep a low threshold for referral if the woman has a concurrent condition which may be affected by prolonged nausea and vomiting (for example diabetes).

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700
Q

Def: hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum describes excessive vomiting during pregnancy. It occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels. Hyperemesis gravidarum is most common between 8 and 12 weeks but may persist up to 20 weeks*.

*and in very rare cases beyond 20 weeks

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701
Q

Cxs of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Mallory-Weiss tear

central pontine myelinolysis

acute tubular necrosis

fetal: small for gestational age, pre-term birth

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702
Q

Mx of hyperemsis gravidarum

A

antihistamines should be used first-line (BNF suggests promethazine as first-line)

ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest these can be tried but there is little evidence of benefit

admission may be needed for IV hydration

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703
Q

Mx of primary herpes infection within 6w of delivery

A

Oral aciclovir 400 mg TDS (three times daily) until delivery is recommended in the RCOG guidelines for women who present with a primary herpes infection in their third trimester of pregnancy, especially if the woman is expected to deliver within 6 weeks.

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704
Q

When is IV aciclovir indicated in HSV infection during pregnancy?

A

IV aciclovir for the mother or for the infant is only recommended if there has been a preterm pre-labour rupture of membranes or a spontaneous vaginal delivery in the presence of a primary herpes infection.

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705
Q

What are the ToRCH infection?

A

toxoplasmosis, other, rubella, CMV, herpes

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706
Q

HSV 6w before delivery?

A

It can be difficult to differentiate between a primary infection and a recurrent infection and the guidelines recommend suppressive therapy for both infections after 36 weeks until delivery. Recommended method of delivery in a primary infection is a Caesarean section. For a recurrent infection the risk of transmission is low due to maternal antibodies and a Caesarean section is not recommended.

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707
Q

Mx of HSV

A

Management

gingivostomatitis: oral aciclovir, chlorhexidine mouthwash

cold sores: topical aciclovir although the evidence base for this is modest

genital herpes: oral aciclovir. Some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer term aciclovir

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708
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents with a thin, purulent, and mildly odorous vaginal discharge. She also complains of dysuria, intermenstrual bleeding and dyspareunia. A swab shows a Gram negative diplococcus.

A

IM ceftriaxone + oral azithromycin

The 2011 British Society for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 1 g oral as a single dose. The azithromycin is thought to act synergistically with ceftriaxone and is also useful for eradicating any co-existent Chlamydia infections

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709
Q

A 27-year-old woman complains of an offensive ‘musty’, frothy, green vaginal discharge. On examination you an erythematous cervix with pinpoint areas of exudation.

A

The correct answer is Oral metronidazole

The ‘strawberry cervix’ is actually quite rare outside of examinations - some studies suggest only 2% of patients with Trichomonas vaginalis have this finding

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710
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents with an offensive ‘fishy’, thin, grey vaginal discharge. Testing the discharge shows the pH to be > 4.5.

A

Oral metronidazole

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711
Q

Amsell’s criteria for BV Dx?

A

Amsel’s criteria for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis - 3 of the following 4 points should be present:

thin, white homogenous discharge

clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells

vaginal pH > 4.5

positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)

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712
Q
A
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713
Q
A
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714
Q

Mx of PPH

A

ABC

IV syntocinon (oxytocin) 10 units or IV ergometrine 500 micrograms

IM carboprost

other options include: B-Lynch suture, ligation of the uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries

if severe, uncontrolled haemorrhage then a hysterectomy is sometimes performed as a life-saving procedure

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715
Q

Secondary PPH

A

occurs between 24 hours - 12 weeks**

due to retained placental tissue or endometritis

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716
Q

Primary PPH

A

occurs within 24 hours

affects around 5-7% of deliveries

most common cause of PPH is uterine atony (90% of cases). Other causes include genital trauma and clotting factors

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717
Q

Use of PGE2 in pregnancy?

A

Initiating labour

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718
Q

Uses of indomethacin and salbutamol in pregnancy?

A

Tocolytics

719
Q

Use of mifepristone in pregnancy?

A

Medical abortion

720
Q

Use of oxytocin/ergometrine in pregnancy?

A

oxytocin / ergometrine is commonly used to encourage smooth muscle contraction in uterine blood vessels, reducing the risk of postpartum haemorrhage.

721
Q

Variable decelerations

A

Independent of contractions

May indicate cord compression

722
Q

Late deceleration

A

Deceleration of the heart rate which lags the onset of a contraction and does not returns to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction

Indicates fetal distress e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency

723
Q

Early deceleration

A

Deceleration of the heart rate which commences with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal on completion of the contraction

Usually an innocuous feature and indicates head compression

724
Q

Baseline bradycardia CTG

A

Heart rate < 100 /min

Increased fetal vagal tone, maternal beta-blocker use

725
Q

Baseline tachycardia CTG

A

Heart rate > 160 /min

Maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, prematurity

726
Q

Loss of baseline variability CTG

A

< 5 beats / min

Prematurity, hypoxia

727
Q

Classification of PPH?

What are the four Ts?

A

Primary postpartum haemorrhage is defined as the loss of 500ml or more from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby. This can be further defined as minor haemorrhage (500-1000ml) or major haemorrhage (>1000ml), and causes 6 deaths/million deliveries.

Causes can be grouped into the ‘four T’s’:

tone

tissue (retained placenta)

trauma

thrombin (coagulation abnormalities)

728
Q

Vitamin A in pregnancy?

FUnctions of vitamin D?

A

Vitamin A is teratogenic in high doses, and pregnant women should not exceed a daily intake of >10,000IU. Women are therefore advised to avoid any supplements containing vitamin A, such as normal multivitamin tablets, in pregnancy (NHS Choices). However, as supplements in the UK are now limited to a maximum vitamin A content of 6,000IU, if they have been taking one it should not be cause for concern. Pregnant women are also advised to avoid eating liver, as it has high levels of vitamin A.

Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin.

Functions

converted into retinal, an important visual pigment

important in epithelial cell differentiation

antioxidant

Consequences of vitamin A deficiency

night blindness

729
Q

HRT Adverse effects?

A

Side-effects

nausea

breast tenderness

fluid retention and weight gain

Potential complications

increased risk of breast cancer: increased by the addition of a progestogen

increased risk of endometrial cancer: reduced by the addition of a progestogen but not eliminated completely. The BNF states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously

increased risk of venous thromboembolism: increased by the addition of a progestogen

increased risk of stroke

increased risk of ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause

Breast cancer

in the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study there was a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer

the increased risk relates to duration of use

breast cancer incidence is higher in women using combined preparations compared to oestrogen-only preparations

the risk of breast cancer begins to decline when HRT is stopped and by 5 years it reaches the same level as in women who have never taken HRT

730
Q

Parity and gravity

A

Parity is the number of pregnancies a woman has had which have been carried to a viable age; in the UK this is 24 weeks. The number after ‘+’ is the number of pregnancies which have not been carried to a viable age. It can be thought of the number of fetuses/babies which have come from her, in contrast to gravida which is the number of times the uterus has contained a foetus. For example twins are counted as Gravida 1 Parity 2. Parity also does not increase until the foetus is born but gravida technically increases from conception (though in practice from a woman’s first appointments with her doctor).

731
Q

Potential Cxs of Chlamydia infection?

A

Potential complications

epididymitis

pelvic inflammatory disease

endometritis

increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies

infertility

reactive arthritis

perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)

732
Q

Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome

A

Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease(PID) named after the two physicians, Thomas Fitz-Hugh, Jr and Arthur HaleCurtis who first reported this condition in 1934 and 1930 respectively.[1][2][3] It involves liver capsule inflammation[4]leading to the creation of adhesions.

733
Q

Ix of Chlamydia

A

Investigation

traditional cell culture is no longer widely used

nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) are now rapidly emerging as the investigation of choice

urine (first void urine sample), vulvovaginal swab or cervical swab may be tested using the NAAT technique

734
Q

Placenta praevia

A

Associated factors

multiparity

multiple pregnancy

embryos are more likely to implant on a lower segment scar from previous caesarean section

735
Q

Danazol

A

is a derivative of ethisterone. It can be used to treat endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease. It will not prevent implantation and can cause virilisation of female fetuses, so is contraindicated in pregnancy.

736
Q

. If magnesium sulphate is not available, or if it fails to terminate the seizure what can be considered?

A

A BZD e.g. midazolam

737
Q

Guidlines on usage of Mg Sulphate?

A

should be given once a decision to deliver has been made

in eclampsia an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given followed by an infusion of 1g / hour

urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations should be monitored during treatment

treatment should continue for 24 hours after last seizure or delivery (around 40% of seizures occur post-partum)

738
Q

The major breastfeeding contraindications tested in exams relate to drugs (see below). Other contraindications of note include:

A

galactosaemia

viral infections - this is controversial with respect to HIV in the developing world. This is because there is such an increased infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding that some doctors think the benefits outweigh the risk of HIV transmission

739
Q

Women who are considering taking the progestogen only pill (POP) should be counselled in what most common side effect?

A

Women should be advised about the likelihood and types of bleeding patterns expected with POP use. As a general guide:

20% of women will be amenorrhoeic

40% will bleed regularly

40% will have erratic bleeding.

Between 10% and 25% of women using a POP will discontinue this method within 1 year as a result of these bleeding patterns.

740
Q

Advise on starting the POP?

A

Starting the POP

if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle it provides immediate protection, otherwise additional contraceptive methods (e.g. Condoms) should be used for the first 2 days

if switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC) gives immediate protection if continued directly from the end of a pill packet (i.e. Day 21)

Taking the POP

should be taken at same time everyday, without a pill free break (unlike the COC)

Missed pills

if < 3 hours* late: continue as normal

if > 3 hours*: take missed pill as soon as possible, continue with rest of pack, extra precautions (e.g. Condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours

741
Q

Other issues around the POP

A

Other potential problems

diarrhoea and vomiting: continue taking POP but assume pills have been missed - see above

antibiotics: have no effect on the POP**

liver enzyme inducers may reduce effectiveness e.g. rifampicin

discussion on STIs

742
Q

Missed POP

A

if < 3 hours* late: continue as normal

if > 3 hours*: take missed pill as soon as possible, continue with rest of pack, extra precautions (e.g. Condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours

743
Q

Def: puerperal pyrexia

Causes?

Mx?

A

Causes:

endometritis: most common cause

urinary tract infection

wound infections (perineal tears + caesarean section)

mastitis

venous thromboembolism

Management

if endometritis is suspected the patient should be referred to hospital for intravenous antibiotics (clindamycin and gentamicin until afebrile for greater than 24 hours)

744
Q

A 28 -year-old is found to have an ectopic pregnancy at 10 weeks gestation. She undergoes surgical management of the ectopic with a salpingectomy. She is known to be rhesus negative. What is the recommendation with regard to anti-D?

A

In surgical management of an ectopic pregnancy then Anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered.

Anti-D is not required in circumstances where a medical management of the ectopic has been used, nor for treatment of pregnancy of unknown location.

745
Q

Coombs test:

A

Direct Coombs: Is a investigation used to look for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia,
Indirect: Used antenatally to detect antibodies in the maternal blood that can cross the placenta and result in haemolytic disease of the newborn.

746
Q

Listeriosis in pregnancy

A

pregnant women are almost 20 times more likely to develop listeriosis compared with the rest of the population due to changes in the immune system

fetal/neonatal infection can occur both transplacentally and vertically during child birth

complications include miscarriage, premature labour, stillbirth and chorioamnionitis

diagnosis can only be made from blood cultures

treatment is with amoxicillin

747
Q

Blood cultures and LP for Listeria infection

A

CSF may reveal a pleocytosis, with ‘tumbling motility’ on wet mounts

748
Q

Side effects of IUD

A

IUDs make periods heavier, longer and more painful

the IUS is associated with initial frequent uterine bleeding and spotting. Later women typically have intermittent light menses with less dysmenorrhoea and some women become amenorrhoeic

uterine perforation: up to 2 per 1000 insertions

the proportion of pregnancies that are ectopic is increased but the absolute number of ectopic pregnancies is reduced, compared to a woman not using contraception

infection: there is a small increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease in the first 20 days after insertion but after this period the risk returns to that of a standard population
expulsion: risk is around 1 in 20, and is most likely to occur in the first 3 months

749
Q

Contraceptives - time until effective (if not first day period):

A

instant: IUD

2 days: POP

7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS

750
Q

What is the gold standard Ix for endometriosis?

A

Diagnostic laparoscopy

751
Q

Mx of fibroids

A

medical: symptomatic management e.g. with combined oral contraceptive pill. GnRH agonists may reduce the size of the fibroid but are typically useful for short-term treatment

surgery is sometimes needed: myomectomy, hysterscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy

uterine artery embolization

752
Q

Def: endometriosis

Epidemiology

A

Presence and growth of tissue similar to endometrium outside of the uterus

1-2% of women are diagnosed and peak is between 30 and 45. Although prevalence may be 1-20%, asymptomatic

753
Q

Where is enodmetriosis most commonly found?

Pathology

A

Uterosacral ligaments and on or behind the ovaries

Occasionally it affects the umbilicus or abdominal wound scars, vagina, bladder rectum, even lungs

Oestrogen dependent, regresses after menopause and during pregnancy.

Acucumulated altered blood is dark brown and can form a chocolate cyst (endometrioma) in the ovarias.

Can cause inflammation with progressive fibrosis and adhesions, in the most severe form the entire pelvis is frozen due to adhesion

754
Q

Aetiology of endometriosis

A

Retrograde menstruation

More distant foci may be through mechanical, lymphatic or blood-borne spread.

Degree of inherited predisposition

NB poor symptomatic correlation with extent of disease

755
Q

Hx in endometriosis

A

May be asymptomatic

Causes chronic pelvic pain, usually cyclical

Dysmeorrhoea before the onset of mensturation

Dyspareunia

Subfertility

Dyschezia

Menstrual probloms

Rupture of chocolate cyst: acute pain, may be first symptom

Cyclical haematuria, rectal bleeding or bleeding from the umbilicus are uncommon and suggestive of severe disease

756
Q

Ex in endometriosis

A

VE@ tenderness and or thickening behind the uterus or in the adnexa

In severe cases the uterus may be retroverted and immobile

A rectovaginal nodule of enodmetriosis may be apparent on digital examination or visible on speculm.

With mild endometriosis the pelvis feels normal

757
Q

Ix in endometriosis

A

Laparoscopy with visualisation and biopsy

active lesions are red or punctate marks

White scars or brown spots represent less active endometriosis

TVU may be useful to dx/exclude endometriomas and may also suggest the presence of adenomyosis although MRI is a better investigation for this.

If theere is clinical evidence of deeply infiltrating endometriosis extent of involvement can be examined with MRI, Intravenous pyelogram and barium studies

CA125 may be raised but of little diagnostic merit

758
Q

When to suspect endometriosis

A

Symptoms after severeal years of painless periods

Pelvic examinatoin likely to be normal

Pelvis USS likely to be normal

759
Q

Mx of endometriosis

A

Asymptomatic do not require treatment although nb in the low risk of missing ovarian ca

Symptomatic relief:

Pain: offer NSAID e.g. ibuprofen naproxen or mefenamic acid.

Paracetamol if NSAIDs CIed.

Rx (NB should be in women who do not wish to conceive):

Trial hormonal treatment:

COCP (not suitable for older women or smokers)

Progestogen preparations: denogestrel or IUS cyclical or continuous. Side effects may be severe.

GnRH analgoues: induce temprorary menopausal state so side effects mimic the menopause although add back HRT can minimise these

If woman does not want hormonal contraception offer an oral progestogen e.g. medroxyprogesterone

Sxical: diathermy ec can be used at laparascopy using see and treat approach. (This may improve conception rates)

BSO

760
Q

TVU appearance of ovary described as ground glass

A

Ovarian endometrioma

761
Q

What is important to note in women undergoing BSO for endometriosis

A

Will need HRT

However if endometriosis remains then there is risk of malignant change in ectopic endometrium

Consideration should be given to providing a combined preparation

762
Q

Fertility and endometriosis

A

Found in 25% of diagnostic laps for subfertility.

763
Q

Def: Chronic Pelvic Pain

A

Intermittent or constant pain in the lower abdomen or pelvis with >6m duration not occuring exclusively with mesntruation or intercourse

Can present in primay care as migraine, low back pain and affects 15% of adult women

764
Q

NB for CPP

A

Exclude pathological causes

Through TVU, MRI or lap as appropriate

765
Q

Possible causes of CPP

A

Varies over menstrual cycle: endometriosis, adenomyosis (oestrogen important as condition not typically seen in postmenopausal and suppression of ovarian activity cures 2/3rds).

Adhesions: ovarian tissue can become trapped followiing Sx and cause cyclical pain

IBS

Interstitial cystitis.

Psychological factors.

766
Q

Mx of CPP

A

Depends on cause

?IBS: antispasmodics, analgesia

Cyclical pain: therapeutic trial using COCP or GnRH analogue with add back HRT for 3-6m before laparscipy.

IUS

767
Q

A pregnant 25-year-old woman attends her booking appointment. Although she is symptom-free, urine dipstick indicates a urinary tract infection. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy?

Trimethoprim

Amoxicillin

Cefalexin

Nitrofurantoin

Erythromycin

A

Whether symptomatic or asymptomatic it is important to treat urinary tract infections in pregnancy to prevent progression to pyelonephritis.

As trimethoprim is a folate antagonist it should be avoided in the first trimester - this is the time when the neural tube forms and there is a risk of teratogenicity. The other antibiotics listed are not contraindicated in the first trimester. However, erythromycin is not typically used to treat urinary tract infections, and nitrofurantoin should be avoided close to full term as there is a risk of causing neonatal haemolysis.

Sulfonamides and quinolones should also be avoided in pregnancy.
(BNF 5.1.13)

768
Q

What are gestational trophoblastic disorders?

A

Describes a spectrum of disorders originating from the placental trophoblast:

complete hydatidiform mole

partial hydatidiform mole

choriocarcinoma

769
Q

What is a complete hydatidiform mole?

A

Benign tumour of trophoblastic material. Occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that then duplicates its own DNA, hence the all 46 chromosomes are of paternal origin

770
Q

What are the features of hydatidform moles?

A

Features

bleeding in first or early second trimester

exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis

uterus large for dates

very high serum levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

hypertension and hyperthyroidism* may be seen

*hCG can mimic thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

771
Q

What is the Mx of hydatidiform moles?

What is the Px?

A

Management

urgent referral to specialist centre - evacuation of the uterus is performed

effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months

Around 2-3% go on to develop choriocarcinoma

772
Q

What are the features of partial hydatidiform moles?

A

n a partial mole a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms, or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. Therefore the DNA is both maternal and paternal in origin. Usually triploid - e.g. 69 XXX or 69 XXY. Fetal parts may be seen

773
Q

What are the two stages of the first stage of labour?

A

First stage is broken into two stages:

Latent: Time taken for the cervix to completely efface and dilate to 3cm

Active: From 3cm to 10cm

774
Q

What are the time limits of the second stage of labour?

A

Second stage is from 10cm to delivery of the baby

2 hours is the maximum recommended in multiparous women

3 hours is the maximum recommended in nulliparous women

Remember, in the context of an epidural, 1 hour of passive second stage (without pushing) is advised

775
Q

What is the third stage of labour?

A

Third stage is from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta and membranes

Third stage is from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta and membranes

Active: Uses uterotonics, clamping of the cord and controlled cord traction

Meds include syntocinon and ergometrine: syntometrine, or oxytocin

They are generally given as the anterior shoulder is born

Physiological: The cord is only clamped when pulseless in the absence of medications and the placenta delivered through maternal efforts alone

Should be converted to active management if placenta not delivered in 1hr

776
Q

What are the active forms of managing 3rd stage of labour

A

Active: Uses uterotonics, clamping of the cord and controlled cord traction

Meds include syntocinon and ergometrine: syntometrine, or oxytocin

They are generally given as the anterior shoulder is born

777
Q

What is the definition of labour?

A

Labour may be defined as the onset of regular and painful contractions associated with cervical dilation and descent of the presenting part

Signs of labour include

regular and painful uterine contractions

a show (shedding of mucous plug)

rupture of the membranes (not always)

shortening and dilation of the cervix

778
Q

What is nexplanon?

What are the contraindications?

A

Implanon was a non-biodegradable subdermal contraceptive implant which has been replaced by Nexplanon. From a pharmacological perspective Nexplanon is the same as Implanon. The two main differences are:

the applicator has been redesigned to try and prevent ‘deep’ insertions (i.e. subcutaneous/intramuscular)

it is radiopaque and therefore easier to locate if impalpable

Contraindications

UKMEC 3*: ischaemic heart disease/stroke (for continuation, if initiation then UKMEC 2), unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, liver cancer, positive antiphospholipid antibodies**

UKMEC 4**: current breast cancer

.

*proven risks generally outweigh the advantages
**there is some contradiction in the guidance issued by the FSRH but their most recent document (revised 2010) lists positive antiphospholipid antibodies as UKMEC 3
***a condition which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used

779
Q

Def: recurrent miscarriage

What are the common causes?

A

Recurrent miscarriage is defined as 3 or more consecutive spontaneous abortions. It occurs in around 1% of women

Causes

antiphospholipid syndrome

endocrine disorders: poorly controlled diabetes mellitus/thyroid disorders. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

uterine abnormality: e.g. uterine septum

parental chromosomal abnormalities

smoking

780
Q

What is TTTS?

A

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is a relatively common complication of monochorionic twin pregnancies. The two fetuses share a single placenta, meaning that blood can flow between the twins. In TTTS, one fetus, the ‘donor’ receives a lesser share of the placenta’s blood flow than the other twin, the ‘recipient’. This is due to abnormalities in the network of placental blood vessels. The recipient may become fluid-overloaded whilst the donor can become anaemic. One fetus may have oligohydramnios and the other may have polyhydramnios as a result of differences in urine production, causing additional problems. In severe cases, TTTS can be fatal for one or both fetuses.

TTTS usually occurs in early or mid-pregnancy, thus ultrasound examinations performed between 16 and 24 weeks focus on detecting this condition. After 24 weeks the main purpose of ultrasound examinations is to detect fetal growth restriction.

781
Q

What is the incidence of multiple pregnancies?

A

The incidence of multiple pregnancies is as follows

twins: 1/105
triplets: 1/10,000

Twins may be dizygotic (non-identical, develop from two separate ova that were fertilized at the same time) or monozygotic (identical, develop from a single ovum which has divided to form two embryos). Around 80% of twins are dizygotic

782
Q

What are the risks of monoamniotic monozygotic twins?

A

Monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with:

increased spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate

increased malformations, IUGR, prematurity

twin-to-twin transfusions: recipient is larger with polyhydramnios (do laser ablation of interconnecting vessels)

783
Q

What are the predisposing factors for dizygotic twins?

A

previous twins

family history

increasing maternal age

multigravida

induced ovulation and in-vitro fertilisation

race e.g. Afro-Caribbean

784
Q

What are the complications of twin preganancies:

Antenatally

For the fetus?

Labour?

A

Antenatal complications

polyhydramnios

pregnancy induced hypertension

anaemia

antepartum haemorrhage

Fetal complications - perinatal mortality (twins * 5, triplets * 10)

prematurity (mean twins = 37 weeks, triplets = 33)

light-for date babies

malformation (*3, especially monozygotic)

Labour complications

PPH increased (*2)

malpresentation

cord prolapse, entanglement

785
Q

Mx of twin pregnancies

A

Management

rest

ultrasound for diagnosis + monthly checks

additional iron + folate

more antenatal care (e.g. weekly > 30 weeks)

precautions at labour (e.g. 2 obstetricians present)

75% of twins deliver by 38 weeks, if longer most twins are induced at 38-40 wks

786
Q

Mx of infertility in PCOS

A

Infertility

weight reduction if appropriate

the management of infertility in patients with PCOS should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate as to whether metformin, clomifene or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation

a 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested clomifene was the most effective treatment. There is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen* therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence metformin is not a first line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS

metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese

gonadotrophins

787
Q

General Mx in PCOS

Mx of hirsutism and acne

A

General

weight reduction if appropriate

if a women requires contraception then a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill may help regulate her cycle and induce a monthly bleed (see below)

Hirsutism and acne

a COC pill may be used help manage hirsutism. Possible options include a third generation COC which has fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol which has an anti-androgen action. Both of these types of COC may carry an increased risk of venous thromboembolism

if doesn’t respond to COC then topical eflornithine may be tried

spironolactone, flutamide and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision

788
Q

Mx of genital warts

A

Topical podophyllum or cryotherapy are first choice

Imiquimod is ssecond line

789
Q

A 48-year-old female smoker attends the GP for information regarding contraception. Her last menstrual period was 9 months ago and she is convinced that she has ‘gone through the menopause’. The most suitable form of contraception is:

None, this lady has gone through the menopause and is protected

The combined oral contraceptive pill for 12 months (COCP)

The intrauterine system (IUS)

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

Barrier methods alone

A

The menopause is a retrospective diagnosis and is said to occurred 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who menopause under the age of 50 require contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period. Those over the age of 50 require only 1 year of contraception. In view of this, it would be inappropriate to say this lady does not require any contraception because she is protected. Similarly prescribing the COCP for only 12 months would be equally inappropriate. The fact that she is also a smoker would mean that the risks outweigh the benefits of the COCP as she is over the age of 35. Hormone replacement therapy should not be used solely as a form of contraception and barrier methods are less effective than the other types of contraception listed thus the most appropriate answer is the IUS. This will take the patient through the menopause and can be used for 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period.

790
Q

What is the advice to women planning pregnancy and taking antiepileptics?

A

Take folic acid 5mg per day before pregnancy

(Risk of congenital defects in non-epileptic mothers 1-2%, in mothers taking antiepileptic medication rises to 3-4%)

791
Q

Sodium valproate in pregnancy

A

The November 2013 issue of the Drug Safety Update also carried a warning about new evidence showing a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate.

The update concludes that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary. Women of childbearing age should not start treatment without specialist neurological or psychiatric advice.

792
Q

Mx of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Management

antihistamines should be used first-line (BNF suggests promethazine as first-line)

ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest these can be tried but there is little evidence of benefit

admission may be needed for IV hydration

793
Q

What proportion of threatened miscarriages go on to miscarry?

A

25%

794
Q

What is the most common identifiable cause of postcoital bleeding?

A

Causes

no identifiable pathology is found in around 50% of cases

cervical ectropion is the most common identifiable causes, causing around 33% of cases. This is more common in women on the combined oral contraceptive pill

cervicitis e.g. secondary to Chlamydia

cervical cancer

polyps

trauma

795
Q

A 21-year-old female presents for review. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has been seen by the midwives for her booking visit. There have been no pregnancy related problems to date. Tests taken revealed the following:

Blood group:A Rhesus negative

What is the most appropriate management regarding her rhesus status?

Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks

No action required unless antenatal vaginal blood loss

Give first dose of anti-D as soon as possible

Give anti-D just prior to delivery

No action required

A

Rhesus negative woman - anti-D at 28 + 34 weeks

NICE recommend giving rhesus negative woman anti-D at 28 weeks followed by a second dose at 34 weeks

796
Q

Cx of DM during pregnancy

Maternal

Neonatal

A

Maternal complications

polyhydramnios - 25%, possibly due to fetal polyuria

preterm labour - 15%, associated with polyhydramnios

Neonatal complications

macrosomia (although diabetes may also cause small for gestational age babies)

hypoglycaemia (secondary to beta cell hyperplasia)

respiratory distress syndrome: surfactant production is delayed

polycythaemia: therefore more neonatal jaundice

malformation rates increase 3-4 fold e.g. sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)

stillbirth

hypomagnesaemia

hypocalcaemia

shoulder dystocia (may cause Erb’s palsy)

797
Q

What is Galactocele?

A

Galactocele typically occurs in women who have recently stopped breastfeeding and is due to occlusion of a lactiferous duct. A build up of milk creates a cystic lesion in the breast. The lesion can be differentiated from an abscess by the fact that a galactocele is usually painless, with no local or systemic signs of infection.

798
Q

What are the NICE guidlines warranting CTG monitoring?

A

suspected chorioamnionitis or sepsis, or a temperature of 38°C or above

severe hypertension 160/110 mmHg or above

oxytocin use

the presence of significant meconium

fresh vaginal bleeding that develops in labour - this was a new point added to the guidelines in 2014

Fresh vaginal bleeds developing in labour could be a sign of placental rupture (the most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage) or placental praevia (second most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage) and therefore monitoring of the baby is required.

799
Q

You are called to see a 32-year-old woman who has vaginal bleeding one hour post delivery. Formal measurement estimates the blood loss at 1200mls including liquor. Blood pressure is 98/52mmHg and heart rate 110bpm. Bleeding is ongoing. Which of the following options is most appropriate?

IV access, group O RhD negative blood, tranexamic acid

IV access, crossmatch, tranexamic acid

IV access, group and save, commence crystalloid infusion

IV access, crossmatch, commence crystalloid infusion

IV access, commence crystalloid infusion, consider ballon tamponade

A

This scenario is classed as a major post partum haemorrhage (PPH) due to an estimated blood loss of greater than 1000 mls. An ABCD approach should be instituted with prompt senior involvement. As this is a major PPH, group and save is inappropriate. Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic which may be used in vaginal bleeding secondary to heavy menstrual bleeding, but has no role in PPH.

The causes of PPH can be divided into four T’s (uterine Tone, Tissue, Trauma and Thrombin). In uterine atony bimanual uterine compression should be trialed first and a Foley catheter passed to ensure an empty bladder. Uterine balloon tamponade is a suitable first line surgical management, but pharmacological measures should be trialled first. These include a bolus of intravenous syntocinon (repeated if necessary), followed by ergometrine, syntocinon infusion and carboprost in turn.

A fluid challenge should be instituted in the first instance while blood products are awaited. The RCOG state that up to 3.5L of warmed crystalloid can be infused at an appropriate rate while waiting for blood products.

800
Q

Combined oral contraceptive pill: missed pill

If 1 pill missed?

If >1 pill missed

A

If 1 pill is missed (at any time in the cycle)

take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day

no additional contraceptive protection needed

If 2 or more pills missed

take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills and then continue taking pills daily, one each day

the women should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. FSRH:’This advice may be overcautious in the second and third weeks, but the advice is a backup in the event that further pills are missed’

if pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7): emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1

if pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14): after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception*

if pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21): she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day; thus omitting the pill free interval

801
Q

How does teh FSRH categorise risk factors for the COCP?

A

1 - no restrictions on the use of contraceptive method

2 - advantages of contraceptive method generally outweigh the theoretical and proven risks

3 - theoretical and proven risks generally outweigh the advantages of the contraceptive method, can still be given based on expert clinical judgement

4 - condition that poses unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used

802
Q

What are hte bsolute contraindications for hte COCP?

A

Migraine with aura

Breastfeeding <6 weeks post-partum

Age 35 or over smoking 15 or more cigarettes/day

Systolic 160mmHg or diastolic 95mmHg

Vascular disease

History of VTE

Current VTE (on anticoagulants)

Major surgery with prolonged immobilisation

Known thrombogenic mutations

Current and history of ischaemic heart disease

Stroke (including TIA)

Complicated valvular and congenital heart disease

Current breast cancer

Nephropathy/retinopathy/neuropathy

Other vascular disease

Severe (decompensated) cirrhosis

Hepatocellular adenoma

Hepatoma

Raynaud’s disease with lupus anticoagulant

Positive antiphospholipid antibodies

803
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly recognised risk of combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

Leukaemia

Endometrial cancer

Gallbladder disease

Meigs syndrome

Cellulitis

A

Unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer and remains elevated for 5 or more years after stopping therapy

The risk is not eliminated completely with additional sequential progestogen

No increased risk has been found with continuous combined HRT

Risk of ovarian cancer is higher the longer HRT is taken.

But when the HRT is stopped, the risk goes back down to normal over a few years

Venous thromboembolism risk is more than doubled with HRT but absolute risk remains small

Risk of breast cancer is increased as it simulated delaying menopause.

Every year the menopause is naturally delayed, the risk increases by 2.8%

With HRT the risk is increased by 2.3% by year

The risk of gallbladder disease is increased in women taking HRT - though this risk may be reduced with transdermal administration

804
Q

Mx of gonorrhoea

A

Management

ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice. However, there is increased resistance to ciprofloxacin and therefore cephalosporins are now used

the 2011 British Society for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 1 g oral as a single dose. The azithromycin is thought to act synergistically with ceftriaxone and is also useful for eradicating any co-existent Chlamydia infections

if ceftriaxone is refused or contraindicated other options include cefixime 400mg PO (single dose)

805
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults?

A

Gonorrhoea

806
Q

What are the potential Cxs of gonorrhoea infection?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of DGI is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection (e.g. Asymptomatic genital infection). Initially there may be a classic triad of symptoms: tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis and perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)

807
Q

Key features of DGI?

A

Key features of disseminated gonococcal infection

tenosynovitis

migratory polyarthritis

dermatitis (lesions can be maculopapular or vesicular)

808
Q

Features of chorioamnionitis

A

Chorioamnionitis (which can affect up to 5% of all pregnancies) is a potentially life-threatening condition to both mother and foetus and is therefore considered a medical emergency. It is usually the result of an ascending bacterial infection of the amniotic fluid / membranes / placenta. The major risk factor in this scenario is the preterm premature rupture of membranes (however, it can still occur when the membranes are still intact) which expose the normally sterile environment of the uterus to potential pathogens. Prompt delivery of the foetus (via cesarean section if necessary) and administration of intravenous antibiotics is widely considered the mainstay of initial treatment for this condition.

809
Q

Normal SFH

A

The measurement of the symphysis-fundal height in centimetres should closely match the foetal gestational age in weeks within 1 or 2 cm from 20 weeks gestation

Anything less= small for dates

Anything more= polyhydramnios

810
Q

Injectable contraceptive (medroxyprogesterone acetate)

A

Inhibits ovulation

The Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) state Progestogen-only injectable contraception works primarily by inhibiting ovulation.

811
Q

Progestogen-only pill (excluding desogestrel)

A

The Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) state All POPs alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration into the upper reproductive tract. In addition, traditional POPs inhibit ovulation but this can be variable.

812
Q

Intrauterine system (levonorgestrel)

A

The Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) state Most of the contraceptive effect of the LNG-IUS is mediated via its progestogenic effect on the endometrium which prevents implantation.

813
Q

You are called to see a 33-year-old patient complaining of vaginal bleeding 12 hours after a vaginal delivery. On arrival, she is alert, complaining of breathlessness and giddiness. Her blood pressure is 97/73 mmHg. She has no history of a bleeding disorder, and you are told she did not tear. She has a blue cannula in situ with nothing attached, and the midwife has bleeped the registrar on call.

What is your immediate course of action?

Bleep your FY2

Insert a large bore cannula

500mL crystalloid fluid challenge

Vaginal examination

Give oxytocin

A

Post-partum haemorrhage should be managed with an ABC approach.

This lady is symptomatic and hypotensive. It would be most appropriate to commence a fluid challenge in the first instance whilst awaiting help from your registrar.

A blue cannula (22G) however will only provide a flow rate of 31 mL/minute. Insertion of a large bore cannula is thus the priority in this lady who is actively bleeding.

A vaginal examination may also prove useful, as you may find that there are retained products of conception in the cervix causing a vasovagal reaction leading to hypotension. However, your registrar would be able to provide you with assistance to perform that after you have begun fluid resuscitation.

814
Q

Cannula size and colour order

A

Blue 22G (very small - for difficult hand veins)

Pink 20G (small - suitable for the majority of patients that require IV fluids)

Green 18G (average sized - suitable for IV fluids and smaller blood transfusions)

Grey 16G (large - for use in large blood transfusions and emergency use)

Brown 14G (very large and painful - again, for emergency use)

815
Q

A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She thinks her last period was 6 weeks ago but cannot be certain. She has never been pregnant before and has no previous gynaecological history.

She is systemically well with a blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg and pulse 79 bpm. A pregnancy test performed in the department is positive and transvaginal ultrasound confirms a pregnancy in the adnexa with a fetal heart beat present. What is the most appropriate management in this case?

Reassure and discharge with routine follow-up appointment

Mifepristone and misoprostol

Admit and observe

Surgical management - salpingectomy or salpingotomy

Methotrexate

A

This patient has a confirmed ectopic pregnancy. There is no evidence the pregnancy has ruptured but definitive treatment is still the safest course.

Expectant management of ectopics may be an option in those without acute symptoms and declining beta-HCG levels. Close monitoring is essential and intervention is advised if symptoms manifest or beta-HCG levels begin to rise.

The presence of a fetal heart beat makes both conservative and medical management unlikely to be successful and also risky in terms of rupture, which would be a medical emergency.

Surgical removal of the ectopic is the most appropriate option here. If the contralateral tube is healthy then salpingectomy may be the best option. However, if the contralateral tube is damaged, salpingotomy preserves the functional tube and helps minimise the risk of future infertility.

816
Q

‘Traditional’ POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen)

Missed pills

A

If less than 3 hours late

no action required, continue as normal

If more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken)

action needed - see below

Action required, if needed:

take the missed pill as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed just take one pill. Take the next pill at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day

continue with rest of pack

extra precautions (e.g. condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours

817
Q

Cerazette (desogestrel) missed pill

A

If less than 12 hours late

no action required, continue as normal

If more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken)

action needed - see below

Action required, if needed:

take the missed pill as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed just take one pill. Take the next pill at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day

continue with rest of pack

extra precautions (e.g. condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours

818
Q

First line Ix for endometrial carcinoma

A

The first step in the investigation of possible endometrial cancer is to preform a trans-vaginal ultrasound scan to measure the endometrial thickness. Different hospitals have different cut-offs for endometrial thickness and further investigation. If the endometrial lining is thickened then a hysteroscopy will be preformed and an endometrial biopsy taken.
Treatment for endometrial cancer is usually laparoscopic hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, with or without radiotherapy.

819
Q

Grading of Perineal Tears

1

2

3

4

A

The RCOG has produced guidelines suggesting the following classification of perineal tears:

first degree: superficial damage with no muscle involvement

second degree: injury to the perineal muscle, but not involving the anal sphincter

third degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (external anal sphincter, EAS and internal anal sphincter, IAS):

3a: less than 50% of EAS thickness torn
3b: more than 50% of EAS thickness torn
3c: IAS torn

fourth degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and

IAS) and rectal mucosa

820
Q

When should early referrals for infertility be considered in females?

A

Previous STI

>35y/o

Previous pelvic Sx

Abnormal genital examination

Amenorrhoea

821
Q

When should early referrals for infertility be considered in males?

A

Previous Sx on genitali

Varicocele

Significant systemic illness

Abnormal genital examination

Previous STI

822
Q

A pregnant woman is found to have tested positive syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant. What is the most appropriate management?

Oral doxycycline

Recommend termination of pregnancy and administer antibiotic therapy

Repeat test in 4 weeks and treat if still positive

IM benzathine penicillin G

IM human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG)

A

Management

benzylpenicillin

alternatives: doxycycline

the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is sometimes seen following treatment. Fever, rash, tachycardia after first dose of antibiotic. It is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment.

The 2008 British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidelines recommend IM benzathine penicillin G in this scenario.

Doxycycline should not be used in pregnancy. Immunoglobulins are used to provide protection against viral illnesses such as rubella.

823
Q

young woman of 28 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with painless vaginal bleeding, she appears well and is haemodynamically stable.

Which investigation is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?

Abdominal ultrasound with colour flow doppler

Speculum

Digital vaginal examination

Kleihauer test

Full blood count and urea and electrolytes

A

RCOG guidelines clearly state that the definitive diagnosis of placenta praevia is through ultrasound scan imaging. There is no screening programme for placenta praevia , however the UK National screening committee supports local practices which during the routine 20 week scan, comment and look for evidence of the placenta covering the cervical os.

Transvaginal ultrasound scans be safely performed at 20 weeks, in addition to the abdominal ultrasound scan to help improve the accuracy of localisation and RCOG guidelines state that they should be used to confirm the diagnosis of placenta praevia

824
Q

Which of these is correct in regards to the management of endometrial cancer?

Most patients present with stage 1 disease, and are therefore amenable to surgery alone

Endometrial biopsy is not required for diagnosis

Chemotherapy is used more extensively in treatment than radiotherapy

Lymphadenectomy in early stage disease is usually beneficial

Progestogens are often used in treatment

A

1: Correct, 75% of patients present with stage 1 disease, which is generally treated with a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
2: Endometrial biopsy is required for diagnosis.
3: Radiotherapy is used more often than chemotherapy, particularly in treating high-risk patients post-hysterectomy or in pelvic recurrence.
4. Routine lymphadenectomy is not usually beneficial.
5. Progestogens are now seldom used in treatment.

825
Q

A 30-year-old para 1+0 has presented at term in labour. On vaginal examination, the occiput can be palpated posteriorly (near the sacrum). Which of these is correct regarding your further management of these patients?

The fetal head may rotate spontaneously to an OA position

Delivery is impossible without rotation

Augmentation should be avoided if labour is slow

If instrumentation is necessary, a ventouse is associated with the most successful outcomes

Mothers will generally experience a later urge to push than if position was OA

A

1: Correct.
2: Delivery is possible in the OP position, however labour is likely to be longer and more painful.
3: Augmentation should be used if progress is slow.
4: Kielland’s forceps are associated with the most successful outcomes, however require particular expertise.
5: Generally, women will experience an earlier urge to push in OP than OA.

826
Q

A 38-year-old patient who is undergoing in vitro fertilisation (IVF) for tubal disease presents 4 days after egg retrieval with abdominal discomfort, nausea and vomiting. She has a past medical history of well-controlled Crohn’s disease and is currently taking azathioprine maintenance therapy. On examination her abdomen is visibly distended. The most likely diagnosis is:

Ruptured ovarian cyst

Intestinal obstruction

Hyperemesis gravidarum

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

This question concerns complications that may arise during IVF. The most unlikely answer is hyperemesis gravidarum as the patient is not currently pregnant. Given the patient’s reason for IVF (tubal disease) - PID may seem like a reasonable answer however it would be likely that this patient would have already been screened for this disease prior to the commencement of IVF and have been appropriately treated. A ruptured cyst would present with a much more acute picture of pain and systemic signs/symptoms. Obstruction may be on a list of differentials considering the patient’s past medical history however in the scenario this patient’s Crohn’s is well-controlled and the patient would present with central colicky pain and bile-stained vomiting. Thus in this scenario ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a much more likely diagnosis. This is associated typically with the use of human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) in the maturation of follicles during IVF. It presents with lower abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting and abdominal distension. Patients may also develop ascites, hypotension and in serious cases acute respiratory distress syndrome and venous thromboembolism. Patients are treated with fluid replacement and thromboprophylaxis.

Note: The actual effect on azathioprine during pregnancy is not fully known - the BNF suggests there are some reports of an association between low birth weight and premature births and exposure to the drug however most physicians would advise women with Crohn’s disease that are on maintenance treatment with azathioprine to continue taking this drug as the risk of harm from a flare up of Crohn’s disease outweighs the risk of harm of taking this medicine.

827
Q

Features of Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Cx seen in some forms of infertility treatment, presence of high levels of luteinized cysts within the ovaries results in high levels of oestrogens and progesterone and also VEGF which leads to increased membrane permeability and loss of fluid from the intravascular compartment.

More likely to be seen following gonadotrophin or hCG treatment, more rare in clomifene therapy

828
Q

Classification of OHSS

Mild

Moderate

Severe

Crticial

A

Mild:

Abdo pain, bloating

Moderate:

Mild+ N+V, USS evidence of ascites

Severe:

Moderate + clinical evidence of ascites, oliguria, HCt >45% hypoproteinaemia.

Crticial:

Severe + thromboembolism, ARDS, anuria, tense ascites

829
Q

What is mefenamic acid?

A

An NSAID not recommended in pregnancy

830
Q

What is tranexamic acid?

A

Plasminogen activator inhibtor that acts as an antifibrinolytic to prevent heavy menstrual bleeding.

Used when a patient wishes to conceive and there is no dysmenorrhoea

831
Q

A 32 year-old lady has a diagnosis of fibroids and has been trying for a baby for 18 months. She has been under investigation at the sub-fertility clinic and no abnormality has been found except for three small submucosal fibroids, for which she does not have any symptoms. Her partner has had sperm analysis which found no abnormality.

Which of the following treatments are most appropriate in this situation?

Myomectomy

Goserelin acetate (GHRH agonist)

Endometrial ablation

Uterine artery embolisation

Ulipristal acetate

A

Myomectomy is the only treatment option here that will also retain this lady’s fertility. Depending on the operation performed, and whether the uterine cavity was entered, the lady would need counselling in regards to delivery, since often a caesarean section is advised due to risk of uterine rupture.

GnRH agonists effectively turn off the ovaries, which causes the fibroids to shrink and therefore are easier to remove surgically. On stopping the medication, the fibroids grow back. As this treatment turns off the ovaries, it inhibits ovulation and therefore means that pregnancy is not possible during this time. As a treatment on its own, it would not be suitable in this case as it causes temporary infertility and fibroid regrowth on cessation. However, if combined with a myomectomy, it would provide a suitable treatment option.

Endometrial ablation destroys the endometrial lining, therefore meaning that an embryo would not be able to implant.

Uterine artery embolisation is not recommended if trying to conceive as it cuts down the blood supply to the uterus significantly, therefore meaning that the fetus would be unable to implant and grow.

Ulipristal acetate is a selective progesterone receptor modulator. It is used pre-operatively for women with fibroids as it has been proven to shrink them, thus making surgery easier. This medication affects fertility, thus is not suitable for women trying to get pregnant, unless (like GnRH agonists) it is used for a short period in combination with surgery.

832
Q

Why should a pregnant woman be resuscitated in the left lateral position?

A

To prevent compression of the IVC reducing venous return to the hear

833
Q
A
834
Q

Dx of PE in Pregnanacy

A

ECG and CXR in all patients

If CXR normal, compression duplex doppler.

CXR normal-> V/Q

CXR abnormal-> CTPA

NB d-dimer is usually raised in first trimester of pregnancy and is thus not useful.

835
Q

CTPA in pregnancy

A

CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer(increased by up to 13.6%, background risk of 1/200 for study population). Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation

836
Q

V/Q Scanning in pregnancy

A

V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancercompared with CTPA (1/280,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000)

837
Q

What are the Fraser Guidelines?

What do they constitute?

A

Used to determine provision of COCP to children under 16y

the young person understands the professional’s advice

the young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents

the young person is likely to begin, or to continue having, sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment

unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer

the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent

838
Q

Fraser vs Gillick competence

A

Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children.

839
Q

A 35-year-old woman comes to see you, her GP, because she feels tearful and low since the birth of her son 1 month ago and she isn’t sleeping well. She says she thinks the baby hates her and feels they aren’t bonding, though she is still breast feeding. She has a good family network, including the baby’s father and has never suffered with depression in the past. She does not feel suicidal and has not been abusing any substances, you do not feel the baby is at risk. What is the most appropriate management?

Refer to social services

Antidepressant therapy

Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

Mindfulness

Prescribe zopiclone

A

The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that for women without previous history of severe depression, the first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or the post-natal period should be a high intensity psychological intervention (such as CBT).

If this is refused, or symptoms do not improve, then an antidepressant should be used. NICE suggests a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Mindfulness may be useful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. You would only need to involve social services if you felt that someone in the household may be at risk. According to the British National Formulary (BNF) zopiclone should be avoided whilst breast feeding as it is present in breast milk

840
Q

False Labor

A

Occurs in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy

Presentation: contractions felt in the lower abdomen. The contractions are irregular and occur every 20 minutes. Progressive cervical changes are absent.

841
Q

Braxton Hicks contractions

A

Braxton Hicks contractions, also known asprodromal labor or practice contractions, or false labor, are sporadic uterine contractions that sometimes start around six weeks into a pregnancy. However, they are not usually felt until the second trimester orthird trimester of pregnancy. [1]

842
Q

You are the junior doctor on the labour ward, and are called to a 27-year-old’s first delivery. She underwent spontaneous preterm rupture of membranes at 34 weeks, and now the umbilical cord is palpable vaginally above the level of the introitus.

Which of these is correct regarding your management of this patient?

Tocolytics, e.g. terbutaline, should be avoided

The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus

The patient is advised to lie supine

The cord may be pushed back into the uterus

Natural labour would be the usual delivery method of choice

A

This is a case of cord prolapse, which occurs after membrane rupture when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the fetus. It can lead to fetal hypoxia and death due to the cord being compressed or going into spasm.

1: Tocolytics should be used to reduce cord compression and allow Caesarean delivery
2: Correct, to avoid compression
3: The patient is advised to go onto all fours
4: The cord should not be pushed back into the uterus
5: Immediate Caesarean section is the delivery method of choice

843
Q

What are the indications for assessment of a newborn by the neonatal team after any degree of meconium?

A

RR >60

Grunting

HR <100 >160

CRT >3

T >38 or 37.5 on 2 occasions 30 minutes apart

SaO2 <95

Central cyanosis

844
Q
A
845
Q

Def Eisenmenger’s?

With what is it associated?

What are its features?

Mx?

A

Reversal of a left to right shunt in a congenital heart defect due to pulmonary hypertension which has occurred as a result of remodelling of pulmonary microvasculature?

VSD, ASD, PDA

Original murmur may disappear

Cyanosis

Clubbing

RV failure

Haemoptysis, embolism

Heart-lung transplant required

846
Q

A woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to clinic with a pre-existing heart condition. Which of the following put her at the highest risk of complications?

Ventricular septal defect

Patent ductus arteriosus

Coarctation of the aorta

Chronic mitral regurgitation

Eisenmenger’s syndrome

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome is the correct answer as it has a maternal mortality ranging from 30% to 50%, with a 50% risk of foetal loss if the mother survives. It occurs when a long standing left to right shunt reverses; not only are mother and baby at risk of hypoxaemia but also of thromboembolic events.

Isolated VSDs are well tolerated during pregnancy, provided it is not associated with pulmonary hypertension or eisenmenger’s, and so considered a low-risk lesion

PDA during pregnancy is not associated with additional maternal risk, provided the shunt is small to moderate and the pulmonary artery pressures are normal. Percutaneous closure is now considered first-line therapy, and it is reasonable to close even asymptomatic small PDAs. Following repair of more significant PDAs, women are at no additional risk for complications during pregnancy.

Coarctation is well tolerated during pregnancy, although hypertension, heart failure, angina, and aortic dissection are possible complications. Coarctation can be associated with intracerebral aneurysms, which may rupture during pregnancy. It is therefore considered to be a moderate-risk lesion, even when repaired.

In chronic mitral regurgitation, the physiologic reduction in SVR partially compensates for the additional volume overload generated by the regurgitant valve. Should heart failure occur, it can be treated safely with nitrates, hydralazine and dihydropyridine calcium channel-blocking agents. It is considered a low risk lesion, especially after repair.

847
Q

Varencline

A

a nicotinic receptor partial agonist

has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion

nausea is the most common adverse effect. Other common problems include headache, insomnia, abnormal dreams

varenicline should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. There are ongoing studies looking at the risk of suicidal behaviour in patients taking varenicline

contraindicated in pregnancy and breast feeding

848
Q

Bupropion

A

a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist

should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patients target date to stop

small risk of seizures (1 in 1,000)

contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy and breast feeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication

849
Q

Smoking in pregnant women

A

Pregnant women

NICE recommended in 2010 that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors, partly because ‘some women find it difficult to say that they smoke because the pressure not to smoke during pregnancy is so intense.’. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services.

Interventions

the first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services

the evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed but it is often used if the above measures failure. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women should remove the patches before going to bed

as mentioned above, varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated

850
Q

A 36-year-old woman suffers from a major postpartum haemorrhage after delivering twins. The obstetric consultant examines her and suspects uterine atony to be the cause. The protocol for major PPH is initiated. Bimanual uterine compression fails to control the haemorrhage. Which drug is an appropriate next step in the management of uterine atony?

Intramuscular carboprost

Intravenous oxytocin

Rectal misoprostol

Intravenous carboprost

None - proceed immediately to balloon tamponade

A

Uterine atony is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage. It entails failure of the uterus to contract fully following the delivery of the placenta, which hinders the achievement of haemostasis. Uterine atony is associated with overdistension, which may be due to multiple gestation, macrosomia, polyhydramnios or other causes.

In addition to the usual steps taken in an episode of PPH (including an ABC approach if the patient is unstable), the following management should be initiated in sequence:

bimanual uterine compression to manually stimulate contraction

intravenous oxytocin and/or ergometrine

intramuscular carboprost

intramyometrial carboprost

rectal misoprostol

surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade

851
Q

Mx of PPH?

A

ABC

Bimanual uterine compression

IV oxytocin and or ergometrine

IM carboprost

Intramyometrial carboprost

Rectal misoprostol

Balloon Tamponade

In sequence

852
Q

What are the expected results in DS screening if trisomy present?

A

Low alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

Low oestriol

High human chorionic gonadotrophin beta-subunit (-HCG)

Low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

Thickened nuchal translucency

853
Q

A 40-year-old woman returns to the GP to discuss her recent blood results. A CA 125 was measured after she reported persistent abdominal bloating and urinary urgency over the past 2 months. Her CA 125 level is reported as 15 IU/ml. Normal CA 125 <35 IU/ml

Which one of the following is the most appropriate next action?

Refer to gynaecology clinic

Give advice on a bladder retraining programme

Assess for other cause of symptoms and advise to return if these become more frequent

Refer for ultrasound of abdomen and pelvis

Re-test CA 125

A

If serum CA 125 is 35 IU/ml or greater, arrange an ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis
If the ultrasound suggests ovarian cancer, refer the woman urgently.

For any woman who has normal serum CA125 (less than 35 IU/ml), or CA125 of 35 IU/ml or greater but a normal ultrasound: clinicians should assess her carefully for other clinical causes of her symptoms and investigate if appropriate. If no other clinical cause is apparent, they should advise her to return to her GP if her symptoms become more frequent and/or persistent.

Referral to the gynaecology clinic is not warranted at this time. While bladder retraining is a treatment option for overactive bladder syndrome; it is not the most appropriate approach to dealing with this patient’s symptoms. From above we can see that referral for an ultrasound would be necessary if CA 125 was raised to sufficient levels but this is not the case. Re-testing CA 125 would also be of no value at this time. In this case, a thorough assessment for alternative causes of this patient’s symptoms is the best form of action at this stage.

854
Q

Epilepsy: contraception

For women taking phenytoin,carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, oxcarbazepine:

A

UKMEC 3: the COCP and POP

UKMEC 2: implant

UKMEC 1: Depo-Provera, IUD, IUS

855
Q

Epilepsy: contraception

For lamotrigine:

A

UKMEC 3: the COCP

UKMEC 1: POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, IUS

856
Q

Def: preterm labour

A

24-37w

Most important before 34w as neonatal risks are greater.

857
Q

What are the causes of preterm delivery?

A

Can be as a result of spontaneous labour or can be iatrogenic (obstetric induction due to maternal/fetal risks)

858
Q

Neonatal Cxs of preterm labour

A

Accounts for 80% of NICE occupancy

20% of perinatal mortality

50% of cerebal palsy

Chronic lung ndisease

Blindness

Minor disability

Earlier the gestation the greater the risk to the fetus

859
Q

Px of preterm delivery

A

24w: 1/3rd of neonates die, 1/3tf handicapped

by 32w both of these risks are less than 5%

860
Q

Maternal risk of preterm labour

A

Infection

Endometritis post natally

861
Q

Risk factors for spontaneous preterm labaour

A

Previous Hx

Socioeconomic class

Maternal age

Short inter-pregnancy interval

Maternal medical disease e.g. renal failure, DM, thyroid disease

Preganancy complications: pre-eclampsia, IUGR, male fetus

Raised Hb

STIs

BV

Previous cervical Sx

Multiple pregnancy

Uterine abnormalities and fibroids

UTI

Polyhydramnios

Congenital fetal abnromalities

APH

862
Q

Three mechanisms fo preterm labour

(Castle analogy)

A

Too many defenders:

Multiple pregnancy, excess liquor.

Probably largely mediated by increased stretch

Defenders jumpm out:

Fetal surivavl response: pre-eclampsia, IUGR, infection, placental abruption

Poor castle design:

Uterine abnormalities

Cerbical incompetence

Enemy knock down walls:

Infection, may be subclinical, BV, GBS, Trichomonmas and Chlamydia

Poor dental health

863
Q

Prediction of preterm labour: Hx

A

Those with risk factors

Previous Hx of late miscarriage or prteterm labour

Often not identified on history alone

864
Q

Ix in predicitng preterm labour

A

TVS: cervical length is both sensitive and specific

865
Q

Prevention of preterm labour

A

Limited to women at high risk, strategies should begin by 12w

Cervix: cervical cerclage either vaginally or abdominally. Prepregnancy and laparoscopy.

Progesterone supplementation: low risk women with short cervix on USS may benefit

Infection: screening and treatment of UTIs and BV

Fetal reduction: higher order multiple reduction at 10-14w

Polyhydramnios: needle aspiration (amnioreduction) or if fetal surveillance is intesive NSAIDs which reduce fetal urine output and cause premature closure of fetal PDA

Treatment of medical disease e.g. thyroid disease

866
Q

3 situtations in which cervical cerclage is used?

A

Elective., 12-14w

Scanned regulalry and used if significant shortening

Rescue

867
Q

NB re metronidazoole in preterm labour

A

Increases risk of preterm labour

868
Q

Clinical features of Preterm labour

Hx

Ex

A

Painful contractions (stop spontaneously in 50%) and labour will not continue until term

Painless cervical dilatation may occur in cervical incompetence or the woman may experience a dull suprapubic ache

APH and fluid loss common

Fever

Lie and presentation checked with palpation

DVE is performed unless membranes have ruptured. Effaced or dilating cervix confirms dx but the course of preterum labour is unpredictable

869
Q

Ix in preterm labour

A

CTG + USS to assess fetal state

Fetal fibronectin can be useful. Negative= unlkely delivery. TVS may be used >15mm means delivery unlikely

To look for infection: vaginal swabs, maternal CRP, WCC NB steroids

870
Q

Def: Red blood cell isoimmunisation

A

Occurs when the mother mounts an immune response against antigens on fetal RBCs that enter her circulation.

Resulting Abs then cross the placenta and cause fetal RBC destruction

871
Q

Pathophysiology of RBC isoimmunisation

Blood groups

A

ABO and rhesus genotype

Rhesus system consists of 3 linked gene pairs. Aone allele of each pair is dominant to the other. C, D, E.

An individual inherits one allele of each pair from each parent in Mendelian fashion

D is most significant.

Dd/DD express the D antigent and are D rhesus positive.

dd= Rhesus negative and will recognise the D antigen as foreign if they are exposed to it

872
Q

Sensitisation in RBC isoimmunisation

A

Small amounts of fetal blood and cross te placenta during uncomplicated pregnancies and particularly at sensitising events at delivery.

If fetus is D-rhesus positive and mother is D-rhesus negative the mother will create anti-D Abs

873
Q

Haemolysis in RBC isoimmunisation

A

Immunity is permanent and if the mother’s immune system is exposed again to the antigen e.g. a subsequent pregnancy, large amounts of Abs are rapidly created.

They can cross the plaecnta and bind to fetal RBCs which are then destroyed in the fetal reticuloendothelial system.

This causes haemolytic anaemia and ultimately death.

Rhesus haemolytic disease.

A similar immune response can be mounted against other RBC antigens

874
Q

What are the other antibodies that can be involved in haemolytic disease of newborn?

A

Anti-C

Anti-Kell (not a rhesus)

Esp. after blood transfusion

875
Q

What are some potentially sensitising events for haemolysis in newborn?

A

TOP or ERPC after miscarriage

Ectopic pregnancy

Vaginal bleeding <12w or heavy

ECV

Invasive uterine procedure e.g. amniocentesis or CVS

Intrauterine death

Delivery

876
Q

Prevention of Rhesus disease

A

Produciton of maternal anti-D can be prevented by the administration of exogenous anti-D to the mother

This mops up fetal RBCs that have crossed the placenta by binding to their Ags, preventing maternal immune recognition.

Anti-D usually given even if both parents are known to be rhesus negative due to possibilty of non-paternity

NB Anti-D is pointless if sensitisation has already occurred

877
Q

Antenatal use of Anti-D

A

Anti-D should be given to all women who are rhesus negative at 28w.

Also given to such women within 72h of any sensitising event.

878
Q

Anti-D <12w

A

Not required for spontaneous miscarriage before 12+0 unless there is intrumentation of the wob

In pregnancies <12w anti-D indicated in ectopic, molar, TOP and intrauterine bleeding where this is heavy, repeated or associated with abdominal pain.

879
Q

Anti-D <12w alwasy given:

A

Ectopic or TOP regardless of method of management

NB NICE recommends not offering anti-D if ectopic is medically managed although there is no clear evidence to support this

880
Q

Anti-D in 12w-20

A

For potentially sensitising events between 12 and 20 weeks of gestation, a dose of 250 IU should be administered within 72 hours of the event.

Women who are RhD negative presenting with continual uterine bleeding between 12 and 20 weeks of gestation should be given at least 250 IU anti-D Ig, at a minimum of six-weekly intervals.

A maternal blood group and antibody screen should be undertaken to determine or confirm the RhD group and check for the presence of immune anti-D in these cases.

If anti-D is identified, further history should be obtained and investigation undertaken to determine if this is immune or passive. If this is not clear then the women should be offered anti-D prophylaxis, as the assumption should be made that it is passive.

881
Q

Anti-D 20-Term

A

Within 72h of sensitising event

FMH is required to detect fetal cells in maternal circulation and to estimate the volume of FMH to calculate additional anti-D dosease.

882
Q

What is FMH and when is it used?

A

Fetal maternal haemorrhage, used to determine the degree of fetal blood loss into the maternal circulation

>20w to determine anti-D dosing

883
Q

Prevention of rheus disease

A

Booking and 28w: check for Abs

Rhesus negative: give anti-D at 28w, after any bleeding or protentially sensitising event and after delivery if fetaus is positive

884
Q

Manifestations of rhesus disease

A

Mild: neonatal jaundice only

More sufficient haemolysis may cause neonatal anaemia.

More severe: in utero anaemia-> cardiac failure ascites and oedema-> hydrops. Death will follow.

885
Q

Rhesus disease in subsequent pregancies

A

Worsesns as maternal Ab production increases

886
Q

Mx of rhesus isoimmunisation

A

Identifiaction of women at risk

Assessing if how severely the fetus is anaemic

In utero blood transufion or delivery

887
Q

Identifiication of risk for fetal haemolysis

A

Unsensitised women screened at 28w.

If anti-D levels <10IU/mL, significant fetal problem unlikely, checked every 2-4w

>10IU/mL further investigation

Anti-Kell Abs less predictive of severity and USS used earlier

888
Q

How to assesss severity of fetal anaemia

A

USS

Doppler USS of the peak velocity in systle (PSV) in the fetal MCA has high sensitivity for significant anaemia in <36w.

Used fortnightly in at-risk pregnancies

Very severe anaemia (<5g/dL) is detectable as fetal hydrops or excessive fetal fluid. US-guided blood sampling can be used to confirm suspected fetal anaemia.

889
Q

Treatment of fetal anaemia

A

Fetal blood sampling is performed with rhesus negative, high Hct, CMV-negative blood ready to be injected down needle if anaemia si confirmed.

This proicess will need to be continued until delviery at 36w.

All neonates born to rehus-negative women should have the blood group checked, FBC, blood film and bilirubin to detect degrees of isoimmunisation

890
Q

What is the lie of the fetus

A

Describes the relationship of the fetus to the long axis of the uterus

891
Q

What are the different kinds of fetal lie?

A

Longitudinal

Transverse or

Oblique

892
Q

What is the proportion of abnromal lie?

A

1 in 200 births

Before term it is normal

893
Q

What are the causes of abnormal lie?

A

Circumstances that allow more room to turn:

e.g. polyhydramnios, high parity (more lax uterus) are the most common causes resulting in an unstable or constantly changing lie

Conditions that prevent turning:

Fetal and uterine abnormalities and twin pregnancies

Conditions that prevent engagement:

Placenta praevia, pelvic tumours or uterine deformities

Unstable lie in nulliparous women is rare

894
Q

Cxs of abnormal lie

A

If the head or breech cannot enter the pelvis, labour cannot deliver the fetus.

An arm or the umbilical cord may prolapse when membranes rupture

If neglected, obstruction eventually causes uterine rupture

895
Q

What is the difference between oblique and transverse lie?

A

Head in flank= transverse

Head in one iliac foss= oblique

896
Q

Mx of abnormal lie

A

No management required before 37w unless the woman is in labour

Agter 37w woman is admitted incase of ROM, USS performed to exclude particular causes e.g. polyhydramnios and placenta praevia

ECV unjustified as fetus turns back.

If spontaneous version occurs and persists for 48h the mother is discharged.

An abnormal lie will usually stabilise before 41w.

At 41w or if the woman is in labour the persistently abnromal lie is delivered by Caesarean.

897
Q

Def: breech presentation

A

Presentation of the buttocks

Occurs in 3% of term pregnancies.

More common earlier in pregnancy therefore more common in preterm labour

898
Q

Extended breech

A

70% has both legs extended at the knee

899
Q

Flexed breech

A

15%

Has both legs flexed at the knee

900
Q

Footling breech

A

15%

One or both feet present below the buttocks

901
Q

Causes of breech presentation

A

No cause found in most

Previous breech has occurred in 8%

Prematurity

Conditions that prevent movement or head engagement are more common

902
Q

Dx of Breech presentation

A

Only important from 37w or if patient is in labour

Upper abo discomofort common

Hard head normally palpable and balottable at the fundus

USS confirms Dx and can help detect fetal abnormalitiy, pelvic tumour or placenta praevia and ensures the prequisites for ECV are met

903
Q

Cxs of breech presentation

A

Perinatal and long-term morbidity and mortality are increaesd

Fetal abnromalities are more common but even normal breech babies have higher rate of LT neurological handicap which is independent from the mode of delivery.

Labour has potential hazards: increased risk of cord prolapse.

Also risk of trapped head.

904
Q

Mx of Breech presentation

A

ECV from 37w

Caesareab section (if ECV has failed or is contraindicated)

Vaginal delivery

905
Q

Features of ECV

A

Attempt to turn the baby to a cephalic presentaiton.

Reduces the number of breech presentations at term.

Success rate is 50%

3% of successfully turned breeches will turn back.

Where ECV fails, only 3% will turn spontaneously before delivery

906
Q

ECV technique

A

Without anaesthetic

Made easier with administration of a tocolytic if uterine tone is high or an initial attempt has failed.

Breech disengaged from the pelvis and pushed upwards and to the side.

USS guided

CTG straight after

Anti-D for rhesus negative women.

907
Q

Safety of ECV

A

Risk very low

Placental abruption and uterine rupture have been reported.

Risk of emergency C-section

908
Q

Factors affecting success of ECV

A

Low succes rates seen in nulliparous

Caucasions

Where the breech is engaged

Head not easily palpable

Uterine tone high

Obese women

Liquor volume reduced

909
Q

What are the Absolute contraindications to ECV

A

C-section required anyway e.g. placenta praevia

Twins

Membranes ruptured

APH within last 7d

Abnromal CTG

Major uterine abnromalitiy

910
Q

Relative contraindications to ECV

A

Small for dates with abnormal doppler

Proteinuric pre-eclampsia

Oligohydramnios

Major fetal abnormalities

Scarred uterus

Unstable lie

911
Q

What is the safest method of delivery for singleton term breech?

A

C section

Reduces mortality by 1% and ST morbidity but does not affect LT outcomes.

Maternal morbidity is not increased.

NB 1/3rd of attempted vaginal breech deliveries ends with emergency C-sections.

912
Q

Unfavourable factors for vaginal breech birth

A

Contraindications to vaginal delivery

Contracted pelvis

Footling breech

Large baby >3800g

Growth restricted baby

Hyperextended fetal neck in labour

Lack of suitably trained clinician

Previous C-section

913
Q

Vaginal breech birth

Intrapartum care

A

Pushing not encouraged until the buttocks are visible

CTG

Epidural common

In 30% there is slow cervical dilatation in the frist stage or particularly poor descent in the second.

Oxytocin not advised-> C-section

914
Q

What is a common cause of a difficult breech delivery

A

Injudicious traction causing extension of the head.

Once the buttocks distend the perineum an episiotomy may be made but is not essential.

915
Q

Delivery in Breech

A

Fetus delivers as far as the umbilicus with maternal effort

Legs can flexed out of the vagina whilst the back is kept anterior,

Once the scapula is visible the arms are hooked down by sweeping it across the chest

If arms cannot be reached as they are extended superiorrly, Lovset’s procedure is required.

Once the back of the neck is visible, the operator supports the entire weight of the fetus on one palm and forearm, with their finger in its mouth to guide the head over the perineum and maintain flexion. The other hand presses against the occiput.

If this fails, forceps.

916
Q

What is Lovset’s procedure

A

Required in breech if arms are extended above the head.

Hands placed around the body with the thumbs on the sacrum, rotating the baby 180 degrees clockwise then counter-clockwise with gentle downward traction.

Allows the shoulders to enter the pelvis

917
Q

What is the Mauricea-Smellie-Veit manouvre

A

Used in breech to deliver the head:

Operator supports the entire weight of the fetus on one palm and forearm.

Finger in mouth to guide head over the perinum and maintain flexion.

Other hand presses against the occiput

918
Q

What is the purpose of instrumental delivery

A

Aim is to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity. Shape of the pelvis will only allow delviery if the head it posterior or occasionally anterior

919
Q

What are Simpson’s Forceps, Neville-Barnes forceps?

When are they suitable

A

Non-rotational

Only suitable when the baby’s head is occipitoanterior

920
Q

What are Kiellan’d forceps?

A

Rotational forceps allowing a malpositioned head to be rotated by the operator to the OA position before the application of traction.

921
Q

Safety of ventouse and forceps

A

Failure: both methods can fail

Maternal Cxs and need for analgesia are greater with forceps. Either instrument can cause vaginal laceration, blood loss or third-degree tears. Cervical and uterine tears are very rare.

Fetal complications: worse with the vventous. Lives a chignong which diminishes over hours. Scalps lacerations, cephalohaematomata are more common with ventous

Facial bruising, nerve damage and even skull and neck fractures occur with injudicious use of forceps and prolonged traction by either instrument is dangerous.

Chaning instrument: associated with increased fetal trauma and is only appropriate if a ventouse has achieved descent to pelvic outlet but is then replaced by a low cavity forceps delivery.

922
Q

What are the indiciations ofor instrumental vaginal delivery?

A

Prolonged second stage: most common indication

Fetal distress; more common in the second stage

Prophylactic use indicated to prevent pushing in some women who have medical problems e.g. cardiac disease or HTN

In breech delivery to control the head

923
Q

Prolonged second stage, use of instrument

A

1h of pushing has failed to deliver the baby

If the mother is exhausted it may be performed earlier

The length of the passive second stage is less important

924
Q

What are the approaches to prevent instrumental delivery

A

All labours: continuous support with delivery in the most comfortable maternal position possible. Epidural, analgesia, CTG, and induction predispose to instrumental delivery.

925
Q

Epidural analgesia and isntrumental delviery

A

Epidural increases the risk of instrumental delivery.

If used, maternal pushing should be delayed at least an hour after the diagnosis of second stage unless the head is visible. Oxytocin should be considered if descent of the head is poor (Nulliparous women)

926
Q

What determines the type of delivery and the choice of instrument?

A

Position and descent of the head.

With either instrument, if moderate traction does not produce immediate and progressive descent, C-section is indicated

927
Q

Features of a low cavity delivery

A

Head below the level of the ischial spines with bony prominences palpable vaginally on the lateral wall of the mid pelvis and is usually OA.

Forceps/ventouse are appropriate.

Pudendal block with perineal infiltration is usually sufficient.

928
Q

Features of a mid-cavity delivery

A

Head is not palpable adominally but is at or just below the level of the ischial spines.

Epidural or spinal.

Trialled in theatre if there is doubt about the potential success. May be OA, OT or OP

929
Q

OA mid-cavity delivery

A

Forceps or ventouse

930
Q

OT mid-cavity

A

Usually this is as a result of insufficient descent of the head to make it rotate.

Descent achieved with ventouse with rotation resulting

Non-rotational forceps are contraindicated.

Rotational forceps may be able to achieve rotation in situ followed by descent.

931
Q

OP mid-cavity delivery

A

Often accompanied by extension of the fetal haed.

1/5th may still be abdominally palpable.

Need for instrumental delivery is unsuual in multiparous women and if required this position should be suspected.

Requires rotation 180deg, Klielland’s most effective.

932
Q

What are the prerequisites for instrumental vaginal delivery

A

Head must not be palpable abdominally

Head must be at or below the level of the ischial spines

Cervix must be fully dilated, with the second stage reached.

Position of the head must be known

Adequate analgesia

Bladder should be empty

Delivery for a valid reason

933
Q

Ventouse vs forceps

A

Ventous causes:

Higher failure rate

More fetal trauma

no difference in APGAR

Less maternal trauma.

934
Q

What is the usual C-section operation?

A

Lower segment Caesarean section in which the abdominal wall is opened with a suprapubic transverse incision and the lower segment of the uterus is also incised transversely to deliver the baby

935
Q

When might a “classical” C-section be used?

A

Extreme prematuirty

Multiple fibroids

Transverse fetus

936
Q

Indications for emergency C-section

A

Prolonged first stage

Fetal distress

937
Q

Features of prolonged first staeg

A

Diagnosed when dilatation is not imminenet by 12h or earlier if labour was initially rapid.

Occasionally ful dilatation is achieved but not all of the criteria for instrumental delivery are met.

938
Q

What are the 3ps of a prolonged labour

A

Powers: inefficient uterine action

Passenger: malposition or malpresentation

Passage: pelvic abnormalities and cephalo-pelvic disproportion

939
Q

When is elective C-section usually performed

A

39w

If earlier, steroids should be considered

940
Q

What are the absolute indications for elective caesarean

A

Placenta praevia

Severe antenatal fetal compromise

Uncorrectable abnormal lie

Previous vertical C-section

Gross pelvic deformity

941
Q

What are the relative indications for elective C section?

A

Breech

Severe IUGR

Twin pregnancy

DM and other diseases

Previous C-sec

Older nulliparous patients.

942
Q

What are the most common indications for delivery before 34w

A

Severe pre-eclampsia and IUGR

943
Q

What are the different types of C section

A

Emergency: immediate threa to mother or fetus e.g. severe fetal distress

Urgent: maternal/fetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening e.g. dystocia

Scheduled: needing early delivery but no compromise

Elective: at time to suit mother and team

Peri/post-mortem: for fetus and mother during maternal arrest or for fetus after maternal death

944
Q

What are the maternal complications of C-section

A

Greater than with a vaginal delivery. Greater when in labour rather than elective.

Haemorrhage and the need for transfusion

Uterine or wound infection (20%)

Bladder/bowel damage.

VTE

Prophylactic antibiotics and thromboprophylactic measures.

1/5000 will die after caesarean

945
Q

What are the fetal complications of C section

A

Increased risk of fetal respiratory morbidity at any gestation and should not be before 39w in uncomplicated pregnancy for this reason.

Fetal lacerations rre rare

Bonding and breastfeeding affected by emergency procedures.

Neonatal morbidity and mortality is increased with elective C-section.

946
Q

What are the risks of C-section to subsequent pregnancy

A

Become increasingly difficult

Increase in stilbirths in subsequent pregnancies

Increased incidence of placenta praevia, also increased risk of placenta accreta or percreta (best diagnosed with 3D power Doppler)

947
Q

Mx of placenta praevia

A

Most senior person with anaesthetic support

Cross match blood

Facilities for internal iliac or uterine artery embolisation are advised

Uterine incision should avoid the placenta, which can be left in situ or hysterectomy performed.

In less severe cases compression of the placenta with a Rusch balloon may alleviate or reduce haemorrhage.

Ultimately delay in performing hysterectomy can be lethal.

948
Q

What is labour

A

Process whereby the fetus and placenta are expelled from the uterus, usually between 37 and 422 gestation

Dx: painful uterine contractions accompany dilatation and effacement of the cervix

949
Q

What are the stages of labour

A

Stage 1: initiation to full dilatation

2: Dilatation to fetus delivery
3: Delivery of fetus to delivery of placenta

950
Q

What are the 3 mechanical factors determinining the progress of labour

A

Powers

Passage

Passenger

951
Q

What are features of the powers of labour

A

Once labour is established the uterus contract 45-60s every 2-3 minutes

This pulls the cervix up: effacement and causes dilatation, this is aided by the pressure of the head as the uterus pushes the head down into the pelvis.

Poor uterine activity is a commmon feature of nulliparous women and in induced labour but is rare in multiparous women

952
Q

What factors constitute tthe passage in labour

A

Bony pelvis

Soft tissues

953
Q

What are hte palnes of the pelvis?

A

Inlet: transverse diameter is 13cm, wider than the 11cm AP diameter

Mid-cavity: is almost round, transverse and AP diameters are similar

Outlet: AP (12.5cm) is greater than the transverse (11cm)

In the lateral wall of the round mid-pelvis, the ischial spines are palpable vaginally and are used as landmarks to assess the head’s descent.

954
Q

What is “station” and how is it measured

A

Level of the descent of the head

Measured in relation to the ischial spines

Station 0 means the head is above the level of the spines

+2 means it is 2 below

-2 means it is 2 above

955
Q

What are the features of the soft tissues in passage

A

Cerbical dilatation is prerequisite for delivery and is dependant on contractions. Pressure of head and the ability of the cervix to soften allows distension.

The soft tissues of the vagina and perineum need to be overcome in the second stage.

956
Q
A
957
Q

What are the features of passenger

A

Attitude

Position

Size

958
Q

What is the gregma

A

Anterior fontanelle

959
Q
A
960
Q

What is the vertex of fetal head

A

The area between the occipit (posterior fontanelle) and the bregma (anterior fontanelle)

961
Q

What is the attitude of the fetal head

What is the ideal attitude?

A

Degree of flexion of the head on the neck

Maximum flexion keeping the head bowed- vertex presentation.

Presenting diameter is 9.5cm running from the anterior fontanelle to below the occiput at the back.

Aextension results in a larger diameter

962
Q

What is a brow presentation

A

Extension of the fetal head by over 90 degrees, increases the diameter to 13cm.

963
Q

What is a face presentation

A

Extension by 120 degrees.

964
Q
A
965
Q

What is the position of the fetal head?

A

The degree of rotation of the head on the neck.

If the sagittal suture is transverse, the fetal head will fit the pelvic inlet best.

At the outlet the saggital suture must be vertical for the head to fit.

Therefore the head must rotate 90 degrees during labour.

966
Q

What is the normal delivery of the fetal head?

A

OA: occipitut anterior

OP in 5% is more difficult.

967
Q

What does position of the OT position imply?

A

Non-rotation and that delivery without assistance is impossible.

968
Q

What is moulding of the fetal head?

A

Compression of the fetal head due to the sutures allowing the bones of the head to come together

Pressure of the scalp on the cervix to cause localised swelling or caput.

969
Q

Terms describing the fetal head

A

Presentation: i.e. cephalic or breech

Presenting part: lowest part of the fetus palpable e.g. vertex, brow, face

Position: OA, OT, OP

Attitude: degree of flexion

970
Q

What are the movements of the fetal head in delivery

A

Engagement in OT

Descent and flexion

Rotation 90 deg to OA

Descent

Extension to deliver

Restitution and delivery of shoulder

971
Q
A
972
Q

What is the show?

A

A pink/white mucus plug form the cerivx and or rupture of membranes

973
Q

What are the phases of Stage 1 of labour?

A

Latent phase: cervix dilates slowly for first 3cm

Active phase: average dilatation is at a rate of 1cm/h in nulliparous and 2cm/h in multiparous

Active first stage should not normally last longer than 12h

974
Q

What are the stages of the second stage of labour

A

Passive: lasts from full dilation until the head reaches the pelvic floor and the woman experienes the desire to push. Rotatio and flexion are commonly completed, may last a few minutes

Active: when the mother is pushing/ Fetus is delviered on average after 40 minutes or 20 minuts (multip vs nullip). If it takes >1h spontaenous delivery becomes decreasingly likely.

975
Q

Process of delivery of the baby

A

As the head reaches the perineum it extends to come up and out of the pelvis

Perineum stretches and often tears

Episiotomy is indicated if progress is slow or in fetal distress

The head then restitutes, rotating 90 degress to adopt the transverse position in which it entered the pelvis

With the next contraction, the shoulders the deliver, with the anterior shoulder coming under the pubic symphysis first, usually aided by lateral body flexion in a posterior direction. Posterior shoulder delivery is aided by flexion in an anterior direction

976
Q

What are the features of a normal 3rd stage of labour

A

15 mins

<500mL blood loss

Uterine muscle fibres contract to compress the BVs formerly supplying the placenta

977
Q

What is the prevalence of perineal trauma following delivery?

A

Intact in 1/3rd of nullips and in 1/2 of multips

978
Q

What is the difference between induciton and augmentation

A

Artificial initiation of labour= induction

Augmentation= strengthening the contractions of established labour

979
Q

What determines the likelihood of the success of labour induction

A

Favourability of the cervix (Bishop’s score)

980
Q

What are the methods for induction

A

Natural

Medical: PGs

Oxyotcin following amniotomy

Surgical: Amniotomy

981
Q

Features of inductions with prostaglandins

A

PGE2 (2mg)

Inserted into posterior vaginal fornix, best method in most nullips and multips (unless te cervix is very favourable)

Either starts labour or improves the ripeness of the cervix to allow amniotomy.

If one dose doesn’t improve cervical ripeness, a second dose may be given >6h later providing there is no uterine activity.

>2 doses are not helpful

982
Q

Features of induction with amniotomy

A

Forewaters are ruptured with an amnihook (ARM)

Oxytocin infusion is usually started within 2h if labour has not ensued.

Oxyotcin alone may be used if ROM has already occurred

983
Q

What is natural induction

A

Cervical sweeping: passing a finger through the cervix and stripping between the membranes at the lower segment of the uterus.

At 40w this reduces the chance of induciton and postdates pregnancy

984
Q

What are some common indications for induction

A

Prolonged pregnancy

Suspected growth restriction

PROM

Pre-eclampsia

Medical disease: HTN and DM

985
Q

What are the fetal indications for induction

A

High risk situations e.g. prolonged pregnancy

Suspected IUGR

Compromise

APH

Poort Ob Hx

PROM

986
Q

What are the materno-fetal indications for induction?

A

Pre-eclampsia

Maternal disease e.g. DM

987
Q

What are the maternal indications for induction

A

Social

In utero death

988
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to induction

A

Acute fetal compromise

Abnormal lie

Placenta praevia

Pelvic obstruction or deformity

Usually considered inappropriate after >1 C-sect

989
Q

What are the relative contraindications for induction

A

One previous C-sec (increased scar rupture rate)

Prematurity

990
Q

What is the Mx of induced labour

A

Because of both the indication and the use of drugs, the fetus is at increased risk during induction

CTG following induction with Pg (1hr) or when they stimulate uterine activity

Oxyoticn also warrants CTG monitoring

Induction increases the time spent in early labour

991
Q

What are the Cxs of induced labour?

A

Failure/slow start of labour due to ineffcient uterine activity

Risk of instrumental delivery or C-section is higher

Uterine overactivity: fetal distress and uterine rupture

Umbilical cord prolapse at amniotomy

PPH more likely

IP and PP infection also more likely

Prematurity due to acciden e.g. incorrect gestation

Amniotic fluid embolism (if Oxyotcin used and ARM not performed)

992
Q

What are the contraindications for VBAC?

A

Vaginal delivery after C-section:

Vertical uterine scar

Multiple previous Caesareans (>2)

993
Q

What are the factors influencingvaginal delviery after one C-sec

A

60-80% of women will deliver vaingally, others will require an emergency C-sec

Factors associated with increased success:

Spontaneous labour

Inter-pregnancy interal <2y

Low age and BMI

Previous Vaginal delivery

Previous C-sec was elective or for fetal distress.

Smaller subsequent fetus and engagement of the head

994
Q

What are the maternal risks of VBAC?

A

Vaginal delivery safest, emergency C sec least safe.

Risk of blood transfusion or uterine infection higher

Serious maternal morbidity is greater with increasing number of C-secs: placenta accreta

995
Q

What are the fetal risks of VBAC?

A

Higher mortality as risk of antepartum stillbirth elminiated by 39w elective C sec

Uterine rupture

996
Q

What is significant in terms of fetal implications of C-sec

A

TTN is higher in elective C-secs

Fetal morbidity is increased with increasing number of prior caesareans

997
Q

Mx of VBAC

A

Hospital delivery and CTG monitoring advised

Induction avoided

Augmentation also increases the risk of scar rupture

Epidural safe but labour should not be prolonged

Scar rupture presents as fetal distress accompanied by scar pain, contraction cessation, vaginal bleeding and maternal collapse.

Immediate laparotomy if rupture suspected

998
Q

What is prelabour term ROM

A

Rupture of membranes without onset of labour

Different from PPROM: prelabour preterm rupture of membranes

999
Q

What is hindwater ruptre

A

Leaking of liquor but membranes remain in front of the fetal head

1000
Q

What are the risks of PROM

A

Cord prolapse: rare, usually a Cx of transverse lie or breech

Risk of infection, increased by vaginal examination, GBS presence, increased duration of membrane rupture

1001
Q

Mx of Prelabour ROM

A

Confirmation

Lie and presentation checked

DVE avodied, may be performed if risk of cord prolapse or fetal distress

Vaginal swab

Fetal auscultation or CTG

Induce or await onset of labour

1002
Q

Induciton of labour in prelabour ROM

Waiting for labour in ROM

A

Does not increase risk of C-sec and associated with a lower chance of maternal infection and of NICE admission, particularly if GBS carrier

Only 20% do not enter labour spontaenously

Maternal pulse, T and fetal HR measured every 4h.

Meconium or infection warrants induction.

After 18h: antibiotic prophylaxis vs GBS and induction

1003
Q

What is the cut off for antibiotic prophylaxis in Prelabour ROM?

A

18h

vs GBS

and induce labour

1004
Q

Metronidazole

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Possible increased risk of preterm labour

Use with caution

Clindamycin

Safe to breastfeed

1005
Q

Penicillins

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risks

Safe

1006
Q

Erythromycin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known

Safe

1007
Q

Cephalosporins

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Safe

Nil known risks

1008
Q

Augmentin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Possible increased neonatal risk if preterm birth- NEC

Use with caution

Penicllins

Safe to breastfeed

1009
Q

Tetracyclines

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Discolour teeth if 2nd trimester

Avoid

Erythromycin as alternative

Safe to breastfeed

1010
Q

Timethoprim

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Folic acid antagonist

Avoid in pregnancy

Cephalosporins as an alternative

Safe

1011
Q

Fundamentals of analgesic use in pregnancy

A

Paracetamol best used, codeine if more severe

1012
Q

NSAIDs

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Closure of fetal DA.

Fetal IUGR

Possible cerebral haemorrhage

Caution (avoid for analgesia)

Monitor fetus with USS

Paracetamol

Safe to breast feed

1013
Q

Aspirin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risk

Use if high risk of pre-eclampsia

Alternatives NA

Safe to breastfeed

1014
Q

Paracetamol

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risk

Safe

Safe to breastfeed

1015
Q

Opiates

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Maternal/fetal dependancy

Only if severe pain or drug dependancy

Methadone if opiate addict

Beware accumulation in breast feeding

1016
Q

Warfarin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Teratogenic

Risk of fetal haemorrhage

Only use if artifical heart valves and with specialist advice

LMWH

Safe to breast feed

1017
Q

LMWH

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Maternal bleeding in OD
Safe for fetus

Use if indicated

Safe to breast feed

1018
Q

Fundamentals of analgesics in pregnancy

A

Best use paracetamol, plus codeine if more severe

1019
Q

Fundamentals of anticoagulants in pregnancy

A

Probably underused

Warfarin only used in exceptional circumstances

1020
Q

ACEI

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Fetal renal failure

Teratogenic

Avoid in pregnancy

Methyldopa as alternative

Captopril is safe for breast feeding

1021
Q

Methyldopa

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risk

Best 1st line

Safe to breast feed

1022
Q

Beta blockers

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Possible IUGR if early

Caution, 3rd line

Methyldopa as alternative

Safe to breast feed

1023
Q

Ca antagonists

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risk

Best second line e.g. nifedipine

Safe to breast feed

1024
Q

Thiazide diuretics

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Maternal hypovolaemia

Avoid in pregnancy

Methyldopa as alternative

Safe to breast feed

1025
Q

Thyroid hormone in pregnancy

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Use if indicated

Monitor thyroid

1026
Q

Propylthiouracil

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Fetal hypothyroidism

Use minimal dose

Monitor thyroid

1027
Q

Carbimazole

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Fetal hypothyroidism, aplasia cutis

Use minimum dose

Propylthiouracil as alternative

Monitor thyroid

1028
Q

Inslin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Maternal hypoglycaemia

Use with usual precautions

Safe to breast feed

1029
Q

Metformin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Probably safe

Use with caution

Insulin as alternative

Safe to breast feed

1030
Q

Ciclosporin

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known effects

Continue, monitor leveles

Probably safe

1031
Q

Azathioprine

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Minimal risk

Continue if indicated

Safe to breastfeed

1032
Q

Prednisolone

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

No fetal effects

Maternal GDM, HTN

Use minimum dose

Safe to breastfeed

1033
Q

TCAs

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Largely safe

Use if high risk of relapse

Fluoxetine as an alternative

Safe to breast feed

1034
Q

SSRIs

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Paroxetine teratogenic (3% risk), others probably safe

Use if high risk of relapse, fluoxetine preferentially

Safe to breast feed

1035
Q

Lithium

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Teratogenic (10% risk)

Use only if high risk of relapse

Alternatives difficult

Watch for toxicity

1036
Q

Neuroleptics in pregnancy

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Possibly mildly teratogenic although largely unknown

Usually continue due to risk of relapse but avoid clozapine

Alternatives difficult

Probably safe to breast feed

1037
Q

Sodium valproate

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Impaired childhood cognition, cognition teratogenic (4-9% risk)

Minimise combinations and consider cahgne if <12w

Carbamezapine as an alternative

Safe to breast feed

1038
Q

Carbamezapine

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Teratogenic (3% risk)

Usually continue

Safe to breast feed

1039
Q

Lamotrigine

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Teratogenic (1-5% risk)

Usually continue

Safe to breast feed

1040
Q

Fundamentals of antiepileptics in pregnancy

A

Best sorted preconception

Seizure control imperative

Minimise combinations and doses

High dose folic acid

1041
Q

Steroids

Betamethasone and dexamethsone

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risk with single course

Use if high risk for preterm labour

Betamethasone best

NA

NA

1042
Q

Beta-agonists

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Nil known risk at anti-asthmatic doses

Use if indicated

Safe to breast feed

1043
Q

Ursoedoxycholic acid

In pregnancy

Risk

Conclusion

Alternatives

Breastfeeding

A

Safe

Use for cholestasis

1044
Q

What is the background risk of congenital malformations?

A

1-2%

1045
Q

Hb in pregnancy

A

10.5-14

Higher with supplementation

High Hb associated with worse perinatal outcomes, rapid drop in platelets suggestive in PET

1046
Q

WBC in pregnancy

A

5-11

Levels unchanged in pregnancy but rise in labour

1047
Q

Platelets in pregnancy

A

100-450

Slight drop towards term

1048
Q

Free T4 in pregnancy

Free T3 in pregnancy

TSH

NB

A

11-22

Slightly lower in early pregnancy

43-45

Slightly lower in early pregnancy

0-4

Aim for 1.5-2 if replacement therapy

NB: undertreated and subclinical hypothyroidism associated with cognitive deficit in childhood

1049
Q

Renal function in pregnancy

Urea

Creatinine

Uric acid

Na

K

Prtoein excr

NB

A

2.8-3.8

Lowered in pregnancy

50-80

Lowered in pregnancy

x100, should ve

Unchanged

K usually slighlty low in pregnancy

Slightly raised protein excretion

Increased renal excretion in pregnancy, high creatinine/uric acid common with PET

1050
Q

Liver funciton in pregnancy

ALP

ALT

AST

ALbumin

NB

A

<500

Raised

<30

Reduced

<35

Reduced

28-37

Reduced

Rapid rise in liver enzymes common with complications of PET

1051
Q

ESR in pregnancy

A

>30, elevated, no clinical use in pregnancy

1052
Q

CRP in pregnancy

A

<8, unchanged by pregnancy

1053
Q

Glucose in pregnancy

NB

A

<6: fasting

<8 after food

Slight fall in pregnancy

Tight glucose control improves outcomes with maternal diabetes.

1054
Q

What is breakthrough bleeding?

A

Irregular bleeding associated with hormonal contraception

1055
Q

What are the causes of breakthrough bleeding?

A

Bleeding problems are more common with progestogen-only methods:

COCP

POCP

Contraceptive depot

IUS

Emergency hormonal contraception

1056
Q

Def: puerperium

A

6w period following delivery when the body returns to its preprgenant state

Maternal morbidity and mortality associated with pregnancy is highest during this period

1057
Q

Changes to the genital tract during the puerperium

A

Uterus contracts and the BVs that supplied the placenta occlude

Uterine size reduces over 6w and shouldn’t be palpable abdominally within 10d

Contractions or after pains may be felts for 4d.

Os closes by 3d

Lochia, cervical discahrge may be bloo stained for 4w.

Menstruation delayed by lactation but occurs after 6w if woman is not lactating

1058
Q

Changes to the CVS during the puerperium

A

CO and BV decrease to prepregnant levels within a wekk

Loss of oedema can take up to 6w

BP normalises within 6w

1059
Q

Changes to the urianry tract during the puerperium

A

Physiological dilatation of pregnancy reduces over 3m

GFR decreases

1060
Q

Changes to the blood during the puerperium

A

U+Es return to normal

Hb and HCt rise thie haemoconcentration

WCC falls

Platelets and clotting factors rise, predisposing to thrombosis

1061
Q

Generalities of postnatal care

A

Do not separate mother and baby

Early mobilisation

Couneselling

Check uterine involution, lochia, BP, pulse, T daily

Analgesia may be required for perineal pain which can be helped through pelvic floor exercises

FBC, Fe if appropriate in conjunction with laxatives

Discussion of delivery

Psych referral if indicated by history

1062
Q

Physiology of lactation

A

Dependant on prolactin (ant pit) which stimulats milk secretion. Levels of prolactin in conjunction with the decline in oestrogen and progesterone promote milk secretion

Oxytocin from post pit stimulations ejection in respoonse to suckling which also stimulates prolactin release

Can produce up to 1000ml

Since oxytocin is controlled by hypo, emotional or physical stress may inhibit

1063
Q

What is colostrum

A

A yellow fluid contianing fat-laden cells, proteins (IgAs) and minerals which is passed for the first 3d before the milk comes in

1064
Q

What is the correct positioning for breast feeding

A

Baby’s lower lip should be planted below the nipple so the entire nipple is drawn into the mouth.

1065
Q

Why is Vit K given postpartum?

A

To reduce the chances of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

1066
Q

What are the advantages of breastfeeding?

A

Protextion against infeciton in neonate

Bonding

Protection against Ca in mother

£

1067
Q

Advice about postnatal contraception

A

Lactation not adequate alone.

Usually started 4-6w post delivery

Combined contraceptive suppresses lactation and contraindicated if breastfeeding

Progesterone only safe

IUD safe: screen for infeciton.

Insert at end of third stage or at 6w

1068
Q

Def: primary post partum haemorrhage

A

Loss of >500mL blood <24h after delivery

<1000mL after C-sec

Occurs in 10%

1069
Q

What are the causes of PPPH?

A

Retained placenta

Uterine causes

Vaginal causes

Cervical tears

Coagulopathy

1070
Q

Features of retained placenta

A

Occurs in 2.5% of deliveries.

Partial separation can cause blood to accumulate in the uterus, which will rise

Collapse may occur in the absence of external loss

1071
Q

Features of uterins causes of PPPH

A

Account for 80%

Uterus fails to contract either due to atony, retained placenta

Atony is more common with prolonged labour, grand multparity and overdistension of the uterus and fibroids

1072
Q

Features of vaginal causes of PPPH

A

Accounts for about 20%

Bleed from perineal tear or episiotomy may be obvious but bleed from higher vaginal tear must be considered, especially after instrumental

1073
Q

Features of cervical tears and PPPH

A

Rare but associated with precipitate labour and instrumental delivery

1074
Q

Coagulopathy causing PPPH

A

Congenital disorders

Anticoagulant therapy

DIC

1075
Q

Prevention of PPH

A

Oxytocin in 3rd stage of labour decrease incidence by 60%

As effective as ergometrine

1076
Q

Contraindication of ergometrine in PPH prevention

A

Causes vomiting and is contraindicated in HTNive women

1077
Q

What are the risk factors for PPH?

A

Previous hx

Previous C sec

Coagulation defefct or anticoagulant therapy

Instrumental/C-sec

Retained placenta

APH

Polyhydramnios, multiple pregnancy

Grand multiparity

Uterine malformation or fibroids

Prolonged/induced labour

1078
Q

Clinical features of PPH

A

Blood loss should be minimal after placental delivery

Enlarged uterus suggest uterine cause

Inspect vaginal walls and cervix for tears

May be abdominal blood loss e.g. uterine rupture without pain or overt bleeding

1079
Q

Mx of PPH

A

ABC: nursed flat, cross matched blood. Restore BV. Page anaesthetist, haematologists, seniors

Retained placenta should be removed manually if there is bleeeding if it is not expelled within 60mins of delivery

Identify and treat cause: examination

Bimanual uterine compression

Oxytocin and or ergometrine given to contract the uterus

If this fails examination under anaesthetic performed for retained placental fragment and inspect of the vagina

If uterine atony persists, PgF2 injected into myometrium

Persistent haemorrhage despite medical treatment requires surgery.

May be compressed using Rusch balloon if bleeding from placental bed alone

B-Lynch (brace suture may be used)

Uterine artery embolisation

Hysterectomy if these fail

1080
Q

Def: secondary PPH

A

Excessive blood loss occuring 24h-6w after delivery

1081
Q

Causes of secodarry PPH

A

Due to endometritis +/- retained placental tissue

Rarely incidental gnaecological pathology or

gestational trophoblastic disease

Uterus enlarged and tender with an open internal cervical os.

1082
Q

Ix in secondary PPH

A

Vaginal swab

Blood count

Cross-match

USS: although difficult to differentiate between blood clot and retained placental tissue

Antibiotics

ERPC may be used if bleeding is heavy and acute. Chronic can be managed with antibiotics alone.

Histlogical examination of evacuated tissues will exclude gestational trophoblastic disease

1083
Q

What is characteristic of endometritis?

A

Endometritis due to reatined tissue causes bleeding that slows but does not stop with antibiotics and gets worse again once the course is finished

1084
Q

Def postpartum fever

A

>38 in first 14d

1085
Q

What are the common causes of postpartum pyrexia

A

Infection: genital tract sepsis. Most common after C-sec. Prophylactic antibiotics reduce this

DVT often causes low grade pyrexia

1086
Q

What organisms most commonly cause postpartum genital sepsis

A

GAS

Staph

E. Coli

1087
Q

What are the features of postpartum genital tract sepsis

A

Lochia may be offesnive

Uterus enlarged and tender

Urinary infection, chest infeciton, mastitis, perineal infection and wound infection are alos common.

1088
Q

Ix of postpartum pyrexia

A

Bloods

Urine

High vaginal

Fetal cultures

Broad spectrum antibiotics

1089
Q

What proportion of obstetric deaths from DVT occur post-partum?

A

50%.

Early mobilisation and hydration importatnt for all women

1090
Q

What are third day vlues

A

Temporary emotional lability, affect 50% of women. Support and reassurance

1091
Q

What should be considered in postnatal depression

A

Postpartum thyroiditis

1092
Q

Mx of pregnant women with Hx of mental illness

A

See a psychiatrist before delivery

MDT plan for postnatal discharge arranged

1093
Q

Pre-eclampsia postnatally

A

Takes 25h before illness improves.

BP peaks 4-5d post delivery and may need treatment for weeks.

Fluid balance, renal funciton and UO should be monitored.

BP and hpatic/cardiac failures

Continue BP measurements for 5d postnatally

1094
Q

What complications of the urinary tract are common in the puerperium

A

Retention of urine

UTI

Incontinence

1095
Q

Features of urine retention in the puerperium

A

Common after delivery, may not be painful after epidural.

May present with frequency, stress incontinence or severe abdominal pain.

Infection, overflow incontinence and permanent voiding difficulties may follow.

Strict fluid charts and abdominal palpation help to identify.

Postmicturition USS can be used to assess the residual volume

Treatment is with catheteritsation

1096
Q

Incontinence in the puerperium

A

Occurs in 20% of women

Overflow and infection should be excluded using postmicturition ultrasound or catheterisation and an MSU

Symptoms of stress incontinence usually improve with pelvic floor exercises

1097
Q

Complications of perineal trauma in the puerperium

A

Perineal trauma: repaired

Pain: persists more than 8w in 10%. Superficial dyspareunia is common. Diclofenac is effective.

Paravaginal haematoma: excrutiating pain te perinum a few hours after delivery., sometimes identified on USS. Drained under anaesthetic

1098
Q

Bowel problems in the puerperium

A

Constipation and haemorrhoids: laxatives

Incontinence of faeces or flatus

1099
Q

Features of faecal/flatus incontinence in the puerperium

A

Affects 4% of women mostly transiently

Can be caused by pudendal nerve or anal sphincter damage.

Anal manometry and ultrasound used to assess and managed on basis of symptoms.

Formal repatir may be required after which deliveries should be by C-sec

1100
Q

What are the risk factors for incontinence following delivery?

A

Forceps

Large babies

Shoulder dstocia

Persistent OP position

1101
Q

What are the normal flora and pH of the vagina?

A

Lactobacillus

Acidic pH <4.5

In prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women, lack of oestrogen results in a thin, atrophic epithelium with a higher pH and reduced resistance to infection

1102
Q

What is thrush and its features

A

Infection with Candida albicans

Most common cause of vaginal infection and found in up to 20% of women, often asymptomatically.

Cotttage cheese discahrge

Vulval irritaiton and itching.

Superficial dyspareunia and dysuria may occur.

Vagina and or vulva are inflamed or red

1103
Q

Risk factors for thrush

A

Pregnancy

DM

Use of antibiotics

1104
Q

Rx of candida

A

Topical imidazole (e.g. clotrimazole)

or

oral fluconazole.

1105
Q

What is BV and its features

A

When normal latcobacilli ar eovergrown by a mixed flora including anaerobes, Garderella and Mycoplasma hominis

Found in 12% of women

Grey-white discharge

Vagina not red or itchy

Fishy odor from amines released by bacterial proteolysis

1106
Q

Dx of BV

A

Raised vaginal pH

Positive whiff test (when 10% KOH added)

Presence of clue cells

1107
Q

Vulvitis

Cottage-cheese discharge

A

Candida

1108
Q

Grey-white discharge

Fishy odor

A

BV

1109
Q

Rx in BV

A

Metronidzaole

or clindamycin cream

1110
Q

Signficiance of BV obstetrically

A

Can cause secondary infection in PID

Also an association with preterm labour

1111
Q

What is vaginal infection and discharge in children often due to?

A

Foreign body.

May also be due to atrophic vaginitis due to low oestrogen levels

1112
Q

Toxic shock syndrome in a young woman menstruating

A

Occurs as a rare complication of a retained, hyperabsorbable tampon

Toxin producing Staph aureus.: high fever, hypotension and multisystem failure

Abx and ICU

1113
Q

What are the principles in the management of STIs?

A

Screen for concurrent disease

Regular sexual partner should also be screened and treated.

Partner notification

Maintenance of confidentiality.

Education

Barrier methods of contraception

1114
Q

What is the most common sexually transmitted bacterial organism in the world?

A

Chlamydia

1115
Q

Symptoms of chlamydia

A

May be asymptomatic

Urethritis and vaginal discharge

1116
Q

What is the significant Cx of chlamydia infeciton?

A

Pelvic infection (may be silent)

Can cause tubal damage leading to subfertility or chornic pelvic pain.

Can also cause Reiter;s yndrome

1117
Q

Rx of chlamydia

A

Azithromycin or doxycylcine

1118
Q

Dx of chlamydia

A

NAAT

1119
Q

Reiter’s syndrome

A

Urethritis

Conjunctivitis

Arthritis

(see, pee, climb a tree)

1120
Q

Causative organism in chlamydia

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

1121
Q

Causative organism in gonorrhoea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

1122
Q

Symptoms of gonorrhoea

A

Asymptomatic in women, vaginal discharge, urethritis, bartholinitis and cervicitis can occur. Pelvis commonly infected

1123
Q

Systemic complications of gonorrhoea?

A

Vacteraemia

Acute monoarticular septic arthritis

1124
Q

Rx in gonorrhoea

A

Azithromycin or ceftriaxone

1125
Q

What are condylomata acuminata?

A

Genital warts

1126
Q

Treatment of genital warts?

A

Topical podophyllin or imiquimod cream

1127
Q

Genital herpes causative agent?

A

HSV Type 2.

Although Type 1 implication increasing.

1128
Q

Features of genital herpis

A

Primary infeciton is the worst with multiple small painful vesicles and ulcers around the introitus.

Local lymphadenoapthy, dysuria and systemic symptoms are common.

Secondary bacterial infection, aspetic meningitis or urinary retention may also occur.

1129
Q

Rx of genital herpes

A

Aciclovir (also valaciclovir or famciclovir) used in severe infections

1130
Q

Causative organism in syphillis?

A

Treponema pallidum

1131
Q

Features of primary syphillis

A

Solitary, painless, vulval ulcer (chancre)

1132
Q

Features of secondary syphillis

A

Untreated primary, secondary may develop weeks later:

Rash, IFV-like symtpoms and warty genital or perioral growths (condylomata lata)

Latent syphillis follows

1133
Q

What are the complications of tertiary syphillis

A

AR
Dementia

Tabes dorsalis

Gummata in skin and bone.

1134
Q

Treatment of syphillis

A

IM penicillin

1135
Q

Causative organism in trichomonas infection

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

Flagellate protozoan

1136
Q

Symptoms of TV

A

Grey-green offesnive discharge

Vulval irritaiton

Superficial dyspaerunia

Cervicitis has a punctuate erythematous (“strawberry”) appearance)

1137
Q

Treatment of TV

A

Metronidazole

1138
Q

Causative orgnaism in chancorid

A

Haemophils ducreyi

1139
Q

Causative organism in lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia subtypes

1140
Q

Causative organism in donovanosis

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

1141
Q

What are the infective causes of genital ulcerative disease

A

Herpes

Syphillis

Chancroid

Lymphogranuloma venereum

Donovanosis

1142
Q

AIDS=

A

Development of opportunisitc infections or malignancy

CD4 <200

1143
Q

Smears in HIV +ve women

A

Yearly due to increased risk of lesion progression

1144
Q

Features of endometrtiis

A

Infection confined to the cavity of the uterus which, if left untreated, commonly spreads to the utereus

Often the result of either instrumentation of the uterus or as a complication of pregnancy or both.

1145
Q

Common orgnaisms causing endometritis

A

E Coli

BV

Staph

Clostridia

Chlamydia

Gonococcus

1146
Q

Presentation of endometritis

A

Persistent and heavy vaginal bleeding accompanied by pain

Uterus is tender and the cervical os is commonly open

Fever may be absent byt septicaemia can ensure.

1147
Q

Ix and Mx of endometritis

A

Vaginal and cervical swabs

FBC

Pelvis USS (not very reliable)

Empirial antibiotics

ERPC

1148
Q

Def: PID

A

Traditionally describes sexuallly transmitted pelvic infection, endometritis usually co-exists

1149
Q

Pelvic infection in pregnancy

A

Almost never occurs in the presence of a viable pregnancy

1150
Q

What are the risk factors for PID

A

Sexual factors (80%)

Multiple partners

No use of barrier protection

COCP and Mirena IUS are protective.

1151
Q

What causes the spread of asymptomatic STIs to the pelvis?

A

Usually spontaneous

Can be the result of uterine instrumentation e.g. TOP, ERPC, Lap and dye test, intrauterine devices

Or complicatins of childbirth and miscarriage (infection often caused by non-sexually transmitted bacteria)

Descending infection from the appendix may also occur

1152
Q

Bacteria implicated in PID

A

Frequently polymicrobial

Chlamydia (60%) (asymptomatic- symptoms commonly due to secondary infection)

Gonococcus (acute presentation)

1153
Q

Pathology of PID

A

Endometritis

Bilateral salpingitis

Ovary sparing normally

Fitz-Hugh- Curtis syndomr

1154
Q

Hx in PID

A

Many have no smyptoms and present later with subfertility and or menstrual problems

Bilateral lower abdominal pain with deep dyspareunia is the hallmark

Usually with abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge

1155
Q

Bilateral lower abdominal pain with deep dyspareunia

A

PID

1156
Q

Ex in PID

A

Tachycardia, high fever, signs of lower abdominal peritonism with bilateral adnexal tenderness and cervical excitation

Pelvic abscess may be palpable

1157
Q

What is cervical excitation

A

Pain on movement of the cervix

1158
Q

Ix in PID

A

Endocervical swabs for Chlamydia and gonococcus

Blood cultures

WBC

CRP

Pelvis USS helps to exclude abscess or ovarian cyst

1159
Q

What is the gold standard Ix in PID

A

Laparoscopy with fimbrial biopsy and culture

1160
Q

Mx of PID

A

Analgesic

Parenteral cephalosporin e.g. IM ceftriaxone + foxy and metronidazole or ofloxacin and metronidazole

Admit

Dx should be reviewed if no significant improvement in 24h and a laparoscopy performed

Pelvis abscess may requrie drainage.

NB rupture of a large pelvis abscess may be life-threatening

1161
Q

Cx of PID

A

Early: formation of abscess or pyosalmpinx

Later: tubal obstruction and subfertility.

Ectopic pregnancy x6 more common following pelvic infection

Chance of tubal damage following one episode of acute PID is 12%

1162
Q

What is chronic PID

A

Persisting infection and is the result of non/inadequate treatment of PID)

Dense pelvic adesions and fallopians may be obstructed and dilated with fluid (hydrosalpinx) or pus (pyosalpinx).

1163
Q

Symptoms of Chronic PID

A

Chronic pelvic pain or dysmenorrhoea

Deep dyspareunia

Heavy + irregular menstruation

Chronic vaginal discharge

Subfertility

May have similar examination feature sto endometriosis

1164
Q

Abdominal and adnexal tenderness and a fixed retroverted uterus

A

PID

Endometriosis

1165
Q

Dx of chronic PID

A

Laparoscopy as culture is often negative.

1166
Q

Rx of chronic PID

A

Analgesics

Abx of evidence of active infection.

Adhesiolysis

Salpingectomy

1167
Q

Features of PID

A

Silent (chlamydia)

Bilateral pain

Caginal discharge

Cervical excitation

Adnexal tenderness

Fever

WCC and CRP raised

1168
Q

What are the characteristics of physiological vaginal discahrge

A

Usually non-offensive

Increases around ovulation, during prgnancy and in women taking COCP.

Exposure of columnar epithelium in cervical eversion and ectropion may cause discharge one infection has been exluded.

1169
Q

Watery vaginal discharge in post-menopausal women

A

?Fallopian tube carcinoma

1170
Q

Bloody/offensive vaginal discharge

A

Suggestive of cervical carcinoma but any genital tract malignancy may be responsible.

1171
Q
A
1172
Q

Def: early neonatal death

A

Occurs within 7d of delivery

1173
Q

Def: stillbirth

A

Fetus delivered after 24w

1174
Q

Def: neonatal death

A

Death within 28d of delivery

1175
Q

Def: miscarriage

A

Fetus born with no signs of life <24w.

(if born with signs of life <24w classified as a neonatal death)

1176
Q

Def: perinatal mortality rate

Corrected perinatal mortality rate

A

Sum of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths per 1000 total births

Excludes those that are due to congenital malformations

1177
Q

How are causes of neonatal death classified?

A

Extended Wigglesworth and supplemented by the Obstetric Aberdeen classification sysytem

1178
Q

What is te most common cause of neonatal mortality?

A

Preterm delivery

1179
Q

What proportion of stillbirths are accounted for by IUGR?

A

>10% stillbirths

1180
Q

APH in neonatal death

A

Occurs in 10%

1181
Q

What are the principle causes of perinatal mortality

A

Unexplained antepartum stillbirth

IUGR

Prematurity

Congenital anomalies

Intrapartum hypoxia

APH

1182
Q

Def: maternal death

A

Death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42d of its cessation from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnacny

1183
Q

Def: late maternal death

A

After 42d post-delivery and <1y

1184
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect maternal death

A

Obstetric complication vs previous or new disease but not the result of pregnancy

1185
Q

What are hte factors affecting maternal death rates

A

Socioeconomic

Obstetric

Pre-existing health

Level of care

Reporting methods

1186
Q

What are the obstetric factors affecting maternal death rates?

A

Extremes of maternal age

High parity

Multiple pregnancy

Multiple previous C-sec

1187
Q

What are the global causes of maternal mortality?

A

Haemorrhage

Obstructed labour

infection

Severe pre-ecl

and the consequences of illegal abortion

1188
Q

What are the main casuses of direct deaths in the UK in pregnancy

A

Sepsis: most common cause

VTE

Haemorrhage

Hypertensive disease: mostly as a result of ICH

Other causes: disorders of early pregnancy (ectopic), genital tract infeciton, amniotic fluid embolism, anaesthesia, acute fatty liver, genital tract trauma

1189
Q

What are the main causes of indirect deaths in the UK?

A

Cardiac disease: acquired and congenital disease

Psychiatric disease

Other: drug?ETOH related death, domestic violence, epilepsy and ICH

1190
Q

Provision of contraception to <16 y/o

A

Child has capacity

Try to get child to discuss with parent

Be convinced that the child’s physical or mental health will ne affected without the treatment

and it is in the child’s best interests to have the treatment without parental knowledge

1191
Q

What is the Bolam principle

A

A doctor is not guilty of negligence if he or she has acted in accordance with the practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of medical men skilled in that particular art.

1192
Q

What is the risk of stillbirth for women induced at 41-42w?

A

1 in 300

1193
Q

Observations in labour

A

T, pulse, BP should be monitored

If circumstances predispose to abnormalities e.g. epidural, this should be more frequent

1194
Q

What are the Cxs of epidural

Mx

A

Hypotension

managed with fluids and ephidrine

1195
Q

How can aortocaval compression be prevented?

What is the implication in labour?

A

By maintaing left lateral tilt

Women should not go through labour flat on their back

1196
Q

Hydration in labour

A

Dehydration is common

IV fluids necessary in epidrual

1197
Q

What is Mendelson’s syndrome?

A

Aspiration of stomach content into the lungs during anaesthesia

Most common cause of maternal aneasthetic death.

Cyanosis.

Tachycardia.

Massive pulmonary oedema.

Bronchospasm, which occurs often (unlike with amniotic fluid embolism).

Hypotension.

Hypovolaemia with haemoconcentration (the reactive transudation of fluid into the lungs contributes to this).

1198
Q

What are the implciations of Mendelson’s syndrome

A

Eating is often discouraged during labour

Ranitidine may be given to reduce stomach acidity

1199
Q

Def and risks of pyrexia in labour

A

>37.5

Associated with increased risk of neonatal illness and is not always as a result of chorioamnionitis

More common with epidrual anaesthesia and prolonged labour.

Cultures of vagina, urine and blood are taken.

Antipyretics often administered

Antibiotics warranted if fever reaches 38deg or there are other risk factors for sepsis

1200
Q

Urinary tract in labour

A

Neglected retention of urine can irreversibly damage the detrusor muscle.

Epidural usually removes bladder sensation

Catheterisation may be needed but not necessarey for all.

Women should be encouraged to micturate during labour

1201
Q

What is used to monitory progression in labour?

A

The partogram

1202
Q

What consitutes hte partogram

A

Progression in dilatation of the cervix

+/- descent of the head

Assessed on VE and plotted against time.

1203
Q

What is the usual minimum rate of dilatation after hte latent phase in labour?

A

1cm/h

1204
Q

What is the most common cause of slow progress in labour?

A

Inefficient uterine action.

Common in nullips and inductions but rarer in multips

1205
Q

Mx of persistently slow progress?

A

Augmentation initially with amniotomy

Then qith oxytocin

1206
Q

What is hyperactive uterine action?

A

Occurs with excessively strong or frequent or prolonged contractions.

Fetal distress occurs as placental bloo flow is diminished

Associated with placental abruption, with too much oxytocin or as a side effect of PG administration to induce labour.

1207
Q

Mx of hyperactive uterine action

A

If there is no evidence of abruption a tocolytic e.g. sablutaoml can be given IV or subcut

C-section usually indicated due to fetal distress

1208
Q

Features of nullip labour

A

First stage: slow progress usually due to inefficient uterine action. Augmentation can sometimes correct passenger probelsms of attitude or position.

ARM may be used

If ARM fails to produce further cervical dilatation in 1-2h oxytocin may be used and titrated up.

CTG monitoring is advised

Nullips are at less risk of uterine rupture

1209
Q

Effects of oxytocin in nullip labour

A

Will usually increase dilatation within 4h if it is going to be succesfull

1210
Q

C-section in nullips in labour, cut off for C-sec

A

12-16h

1211
Q

Mx of the second stage in nullip labour

A

If descent is poor, oxytocin should be started and pushing delayed by 2h

If epidural has been used, the urge to push characteristic of second stage may be diminshed

1212
Q

What is the cut off for the active stage of labour?

A

If lasts longer than 1h, spontaneous delivery becomes less likely because of maternal exhaustion.

Fetal hypoxia and maternal trauma are also more common.

If the head is distending the perineum, episiotomy can be performed.

If not, instruments may be used

1213
Q

Features of the first stage in multip labour

A

Slow progress is unusual.

Uterus likely to be effective.

Therefore failure to progress is more likely to be the fetal head: its attitude or position

Multip also more prone to rupture.

Augmentation with oxytocin may only be performed after careful exclusion of malpresentation.

1214
Q

Features of OP presentaiton in labour

A

Longer

More painful

Backache

Early desire to push,

If progress in labour is normal, no action is needed as OP may spontaenously revert to OP.

If labour is slow, augmentation is used.

If the position is persistent, delivery will be face to pubis and completed by flexion rather than extension.

C-section may be required.

If associated with prolonged second stage, instrumental delivery usually achieved with rotation to OA using ventouse or Kielland’s

1215
Q

When does OT position become significant

A

If vaginal delivery has not been achieved after 1h of pushing in the second stage.

Usually associated with poor powers so rotation with traction may be required

Ventouse

1216
Q

Mx of brow presentation

A

C section

1217
Q

Features of face presentation

A

Fetal compromise more common.

If the chin is anterior, mento-anterior, delivery may be possible.

If the chin is mento-posterior, extension of the head over the perineum is impossible and C-section indicated

1218
Q

Common causes of failure to progress in labour

A

Powers: inefficient uterine action

Passenger: fetal size, OT, OP, disorder of flexion e.g. brow

Passage: cephalo-pelvic disproportion, cervix

1219
Q

Def of cephalopelvic disproportion

A

Retrospective dx made on the inability to deliver a particular fetus despite:

presence of adequate uterine activity

absence of maposition or presentation.

Slightly more likely with very large babies, sort women or where the head remains high in a nullip at term.

1220
Q

Featuers of pelvic vaiants

A

Found in 50-80% of caucasian women.

Arthropod (20%) has a narrower inlet with a transverse diameter less than the AP diameter.

Android pelvis is heart shaped.

Platypelloid levis: oval shape of the inlet persists with the mid pelvis

1221
Q

What conditions contribute to abnormal pelvic architecture?

A

RIckets and osteolmalacia

Poorly healed pelvic fractures

Spinal abnormalities

Poliomyelitis

Congenital malofrmations

1222
Q

What proportion of cerebal palsies can be attributed solely to intrapartum problems?

A

10%

1223
Q

What are the causes of intrapartum damage to the fetus?

A

Fetal hypoxia

Infeciton/inflammation in labour

Meconium aspiration

Trauma

Fetal blood loss

1224
Q

Def: fetal distress

A

Hypoxia that may result in fetal damage or death if not reversed or the fetus delivered urently.

1225
Q

What is the fetal scalp pH indicative of fetal distress

A

<7.2

Neurological damage becomes common when it is <7

1226
Q

What are some causes of acute fetal hypoxia in labour?

A

Placental abruption

Hypertonic uterine states

Use of oxytocin

Prolapse of the umibilcal cord

Maternal hypotension

1227
Q

Intrapartum risk factors for fetal distress?

Antepartum?

A

Long labour

Mecnoium

Use of epidruals and oxytocin

IUGR

Pre-ecl

1228
Q

What factors are used to diagnose fetal distress?

A

Color of liquor

FHR

CTG

Fetal ECG monitoring

Fetal blood sampling

1229
Q

What is the significance of undiluted meconium on fetal mortality

A

4x increase in perinatal mortality.

Indication for caution and hence closer surveillance with a CTG as:

Fetus may aspirate it

Hypoxia is more likely

1230
Q

FHR monitoring

A

Auscultated every 15 mins during first stage

Every 5 mins during the second

Using Pinard’s or Doppler for 60s after a contraction.

Distressed fetus normally exhibits abnormal HR patterns which can be heard.

Appropriate monitoring for low risk pregnancies.
CTG indicated if abnormalities are detected

1231
Q

pH <7.2 on fetal scalp m,onitoring

A

Delivery expedited by fastest route possible

1232
Q

CTG

DR C BRAVADO

A

DR: Define risk: other factors e.g. meconium, fever, IUGR

C: Contaction per 10 minutes

BR: Baseline rate 110-160bpm

Tachys associated with fever, fetal infection, fetal hypoxia. Steep sustained deterioration in rate suggests acute fetal distress

V Variability: ST variation in FHR should be >5bpm except during fetal sleep which normally lasts 45 minutes, reduced variability suggests hypoxia

A: Accelerations of fetal heart with movements or contractions

D: decelerations. Early are synchronous with contractions and are a normal response to head compression.

Variable decelerations vary in timing and classically reflect cord compression which can ultimately cause hypoxia

Late: persist after the contraction and are suggestive of fetal hypoxia

O: Overall assessment

1233
Q

Def uterine hyperstimulation

A

Contractions >5/10 minutes

1234
Q

What is the normal baseline variability in FHR?

A

>5bpm except during sleep.

Prolonged reduction in variability suggests hypoxia

1235
Q

Early decelerations

A

Synchronous with contractions as a normal response to head compression

1236
Q

Variable decelerations

A

Vary in timing and may reflect cord compression which may ultimately cause hypoxia

1237
Q

Late decelerations

A

Persist after the contraction is completed and are suggested of fetal hypoxia

1238
Q

What are the levels of screening for fetal distress

A

Level 1: intermittenet auscultation, if abnromal, meconium, long or high risk, proceed to

Level 2: continuous CTG. If sustained bradycardia, delvier.

Level 3: Fetal blood sampling, if abnormal proceed to

Level 4: delivery

1239
Q

What are the disadvantages of CTG

A

Reduces maternal mobility

Increases obstetric intervention

No proven reduction in mortality or LT handicap

More puerperal sepsis

1240
Q

Mx of fetal distress

A

Left lateral psotion

O2 and IV fluids

Stop oxytocin infusion with B2 agonists

VE to exclude cord prolapse or rapid progress

FBS and delivery expedited if <7.2

If FHR pattern continues or deteriorates a second sample will be needed

1241
Q

Implications of low-grade maternal fever

A

Strong risk factor for seizures, fetal death and cerebal palsy even in the absence of evidence of infection.

Combination with fetal hypoxia is particulalry dangerous.

1242
Q

Features of meconium aspiration

A

Aspiration by fetus into lungs where it causes a chemical pneumonitis

More common in the presence of fetal hypoxia

Where the meconium is thick, amnioinfusion of saline reducs the incidence of meconium aspiration although questions remain around maternal safety and this is rarely performed

1243
Q

Causes of fetal blood loss

A

Vasa praevia

Feto-maternal haemorrhage

Placental abruption

1244
Q

What is entonox

A

NO and O2: Gas and air

Can casue light headed ness, nausea and hyperventilation

1245
Q

What opiates are used in labour

A

Pethidine or meptid are widely used

Easy administration

Analgesic efect may lead to sedation or confusion.

Antiemetics usually needed.

Opiates can cause respiratory depression in newborn and reversal with naloxone may be indicated

1246
Q

What are the principle complications of spinal anaesthesia?

A

Hypotension

Total spinal analgesia causing respiratory paralysis (rare)

1247
Q

Use of pudendal nerve block

A

Low-cavity instrumental vaginal deliveries

bilateral injection around the pudendal nerve where it pases by the ischial spine

1248
Q

Location of epidural?

A

L3 and L4

LA injection into the epidural space.

Complete sensory and partial motor blockade from the upper abdomen downwards may occur

1249
Q

When may epidural anaesthesia be advised in labour?

A

If labour is long

HTNive women

Abolish a premature urge to push

Analgesia for insrumental or C-sect

1250
Q

What are the disadvantages of epidural?

A

Increased midwifery supervision of BP and HR

Woman bed bound

Urinary retention

Maternal fever is more common

Instrumental (but not CS) more common

Transient hypotension (minimised by IV fluids)

Transient fetal bradycardia although rarely precipitates fetal distress

1251
Q

Contraindications to epidural

A

Sepsis

Coaglopathy or anticoagulant therapy (unless LMWH)

Active neurological disease

Spinal abnormalities

Hypovolaemia

1252
Q

What are the major complications of epidrual

A

Spinal tap

Total spinal analgesia

Hypotension

LA toxicity

Higher instrumental delivery rate

Poor mobility

Urinary retention

Maternal fever

1253
Q

Features of spinal tap

A

Inadvertent puncture of the dura mater causing CSF leakage

Leads to severe headache, characteristically worse when sitting up

1254
Q

How does epidural change the approach to second stage of labour

A

Normal to wait an hour before pushing in second stage

Encouraged to push 3 times for 10 seconds during every contraction

1255
Q

Approach to episiotomy

A

Perineum infiltrated with LA

Cut made with scissors from the fourchette to the mother’s right side of the perineum

1256
Q

Delivery of placenta

A

Gentle contunous traction on cord

Suprapubic pressure to prevent uterine inversion

1257
Q

Def: retained placenta

A

3rd stage longer than 30 minutes

Oxytocin infusion started and injected into the vein of the cord and milked up

In the absence of bleeding, can be left for 1h

1258
Q

First degree perineal tear

A

Injury to skin only

1259
Q

Second degree perineal tear

A

Involving the perianal muscles but not anal sphincter

1260
Q

Third degree tear

A

Involving anal sphincter complex

3a: <50% of external anal sphincter
3b: >50% of external anal shpincter
3c: internal anal sphincter also involved

1261
Q

Fourth degree tear

A

Involving anal sphincter and epithelium

1262
Q

Mx of first and second degre tears

A

Sutured under LA

Absorbable material used/

Continueous sutures used

1263
Q

Mx of 3rd and 4th degree tears

A

Occur in 1-3%

Sphincter repaired under epidural and spinal anaesthetic

Torn ends of the external sphincter are mobilised and sutured usually overlapping

Internal sphincter requires seperate suturing if damaged.

Antibiotics and laatives given

PT assessment

30% have incontinence of flatus or faecas or urgency

1264
Q

What are the risk factors for 3rd/4th degree teasr?

A

Forceps

Large babies

Nulliparity

And the now obsolete midline episiotomy

1265
Q

What are the principles of fast labour

A

Early diagnosis of labour

2-hourly VEs

Early correction of slow progress with amniotomy and oxytocin

C section by 12h if delivery not imminent.

1266
Q

What are the criteria for home birth?

A

Woman’s request

Low risk

37-41w

Cephalic

Clear liquor

Normal FHR

All maternal obs normal

1267
Q

What are the 3 principle routes for gynaecological operations?

A

Abdominal route through a lower tranverse incision (Pfannsteil) or vertical midline

Vaginal route

Laparoscopic

1268
Q

Features of diagnostic hysteroscopy

A

Rigid or flexible hysteroscope passed through the cervix

Cavity distended using CO2 or saline

Can be performed without anaesthetic, cervical LA block or under GA

Used as an adjunct to endometrial biopsy

1269
Q

What is TCRE?

A

Transcervical resection of endometrium

1270
Q

What is TCRF

A

Transcervical resection of fibroid

1271
Q

What are the Cxs or hysteroscopic surgery

A

Uterine perforation

Fluid overload

1272
Q

When is TCRE best used?

A

With bleeding that is heavy but regular and painless

In women approaching menopause

Doesn’t ensure sterility

NB biopsy to be taken before diatherym

1273
Q

What is a Veress needle

A

Used in laparscopy to insufflate the abdomen with CO2

1274
Q

What is lap and dye?

A

When dye is passed through the cervix to assess tubal patency

1275
Q

What are the advantages of laparscopic surgery?

A

Better visualisation of tissues

Less tissue handling

Less infection

Reduced hopsital stay

Faster postoperative recovery with less pain

1276
Q

What are hte indications for hysterectomy

A

Menstural disorders

Fibroids

Endometriosis

Chronic PID

Treatment of pelvic malignancy

Prolapse

PPH

1277
Q

What is the approach to hysterectomy

A

1:

Blood: anastamosis between uterine and ovarain arteries, if hte ovaries are removed the ovarian artery and vein ar ligated instead

Round ligament

2:

Blood: main uterine artery

Cardinal ligament.

Bladder dissected off the cervix and upper vagina to prevent injury to it or the ureters

3: Cervicovaginal branches of the uterine artery

Uterosacral ligament

1278
Q

What are the different types of hysterectomy?

A

TAH

VH
Lap H

Wertheim’s H

1279
Q

What happens in a subtotal hysterectomy?

A

Cervix is reatined

1280
Q

What is the indication for VH?

A

Uterine prolapse

1281
Q

What is LAVH?

A

Laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy

1282
Q

What is Wertheim’s hysterectomy?

A

Involves removal of hte parametrium

Upper third of the vagina

Pelvic LNs

Indication is Stage 1a(ii)-2 cervical carcinoma

1283
Q

What is Shcauta’s hysterectomy?

A

Radical hysterectomy performed vaginally

1284
Q

What are hte Cxs of hysterectomy?

A

Mortality: 1 in 10000

Immediate: haemorrhage, bladder or uteric injury

Postoperative: VTE, apin, retention and infetion of urine. Wound and chest infection. Pelvic haematoma. LMWH and prophylactic antibiotics

Long term: prolapse, genuine stress incontinence, premature menopause, pain and psychosexual problems

1285
Q

Features of D&C

A

Dilatation and curettage

Cervix dilated with steel rods Hegar dilators of increasing size

Endometrium is curetted to biopsy it

This is diagnostic procedure inferior to hysteroscopy and is not commonly performed

1286
Q

What is LLETZ

A

Surgery for CIN

Involves using cutting diathermy under LA to remove the transformation zone of the cerix

Increases risk of subsequent preterm delivery

1287
Q

What is a cone biopsy

A

Removal of the transformation zone and the enodcervix by making a circular ct

Used to stage early cervical carcinoma and is sufficient for Stage 1ai

Increased cervical damage means there is a significant risk of subsequent preterm delivery

1288
Q

What is the approach to repairing a cystocoele

A

Excision of prolapsed vaginal wall and plication of the bladder base and fascia

Vagina then closed

1289
Q

What is the approach to repairing a rectocoele

A

Levator ani on each side plicated

1290
Q

What is important to ascertain in vaginal prolapse repair?

A

Whether the patient is sexually active as it may lead to overtightening of the vagina

Other complications include urinary retention

1291
Q

What is hysteropexy?

A

Re-suspension of the prolapsed uterus using a strip of non-absorbable bifurcated mesh to lift the uterus and hold it in place

One end is attached to the cervix and the other to the anterior longitudinal ligament over hte sacrum.

1292
Q

What is sacrocolpoplexy?

A

Used for prolapse of the vaginal vault after hysterectomy

Mesh attached from vaginal vault to the sacrum

1293
Q

What is TVT?

A

Tension free vaginal tape

Vertical incision made on the anterior vaginal wall over the midurethral section.

Lateral dissection around hte urethra

Tape is introduced vaginally with trocards entering the retropubic space.

Cystoscopy performed to ensure there is no bladder perforation.

If the tape is over tightened, acute urinary retention may occur

1294
Q

What is Burch colposuspension

A

Involves dissection into the extraperitoneal space over the bladder and anterior vaginal wall.

Vaginal wall on either side of the bladder neck is hitched up to the iliopectineal ligaement on either side of the pubic symphysis.

Usually performed for failed tape procedures

1295
Q

What are the operations for fibroids?

A

Myomectomy

Uterine artery embolisation (for women who do not want a hysterectomy but do not wish to preserve fertility)

Hysterectomy

1296
Q

What are the risks of myomectomy

A

Adhesions

Uterine rupture during labour

Perioperative haemorrhage: requiring transfusion and rarely, hysterectomy

1297
Q

How are the risks of thromboembolism minimised in gynae sx?

A

Stop OCP 4w prior to major abdominal surgery

If HRT is not stopped, LMWH must be used

All mobilised early and given TEDs

LMWH given according to risk assessment

1298
Q

Thromboprophylaxis in gynae surgery

Low risk

A

Minor surgery or major surgey <30 mins with no risk factors

1299
Q

Thromboprophylaxis in gynae surgery

Moderate risk

A

Consider Teds or subcut LMWH for

Sx >30 mins

Obesity

Gross varicose veins

Current infection

Prior immobility

Major current illness

1300
Q

Thromboprophylaxis in gynae surgery

High risk

A

Use LMWH for 5d or until mobile for

C sx

Prolonged Sx

History of DVT

Thrombophilia

>3 moderate risk factors

1301
Q

What is a foley catheter?

A

Indwelling transurethral catheter

1302
Q

When is a suprapubic catheter used in gynae sx?

A

Following surgery for genuine stress incontinence so that the ability to pass urine urethrally can be assessed before catheter removal

1303
Q

What are the principle causes of perinatal mortality?

A

Unexplained

Preterm delivery

IUGR

Congenital abnormalities

Intrapartum including hypoxia

Placental abruption

1304
Q

What are the major associations with cerebal palsy?

Minor?

A

Prematurity

IUGR

Infection

Pre-ecl

Congenital abnormalities

Intrapartum fetal distress

Postnatal events

Autoimmune disease

Multiple pregnanc

Placental abruption

1305
Q

Def: SFD

A

Small for dates

Weight of the fetus is less than the tenth centile for its gestation, if at term 2.7kg

1306
Q

Def: IUGR

A

Describes fetuses that have failed to reach their own “growth potential”

In utero growth is slowed

May end up SFD

1307
Q

Def: fetal compromsie

A

Chronic situation when conditions for normal growth and neurological development are not optimum.

Most identfiiable causes involve poor nutrient transfer through the placenta: placental dysfunction.

Commonly there is IUGR but this may also be absent.

1308
Q

What are the aims of fetal surveillance?

A

Identify high risk pregnancy

Monitor the fetus for growth and well being

Intervene at an appropriate time balancing the risk of in utero compromise against those of intervention/prematurity

1309
Q

What factor prepregnancy are suggestive of a high risk pregnancy

A

Poor past obstetric history or very small baby

Maternal disease

Assisted conception

Extremes of reproductive age

Heavy smoking or drug abuse

1310
Q

What factors during pregnancy are suggestive of a high-risk pregnancy?

A

HTN, proteinuria

Vaginal bleeding

SFD baby

Prolonged pregnancy

Multiple pregnancy

1311
Q

What are the Ixs used to identify high-risk pregnancies?

A

Cervical scan at 23w

Uterine artery Doppler

Maternal blood tests e.g. PAPP-A

1312
Q

What is PAPP-A?

A

Placental hormone the maternal level of which is reduced in the first trimester with chromosomal abnormallities

Used as a DS screnning

Low level also constitutes a high risk for IUGR, placental abruption and consequent stillbirth

1313
Q

What are the features of maternal uterine artery doppler

A

Uterine circulation develops a low resistancei in pregnancy.

Abnormal waverforms at 23w suggest failure of low resistance circulation and identifies 75% of pregnancies at risk of adverse neonatal outcomes in the early third trimester

esp: pre-ecl, IUGR, palcental abruption.

Most sensitive at 23w

1314
Q

What is the cornerstone of identifying SFD?

A

Measurement of the symphysis fundal height

1315
Q

What is USS used for in antenatal care?

A

USS asessment of fetal growth, which are subsequently recorded on centile charts.

Rate of growth can be determined by previous scans

Pattern of smallness may often help e.g. the fetal abdomen will often stop enlarging before the head which is spared: asymmetrical growth restriction

Allows for consitutional non-pathological determinents of fetal grwoth

Benefits: serial USS safe and useful.

Limitations: one-off USS in later pregnancy are of limited benefit

1316
Q

What is suggestive of placental dysfunction?

A

Reduced flow in umbilical artery in fetal diastole compared to systole suggests placental dysfunction.

1317
Q

What are the benefits and limitations of doppler umbilical artery waveforms

A

Umbilical artery waveforms help identify which small fetuses are actually growth restricted and therefore copromosied. Also predates CTG abnormalities and correlates well with severe compromise.

Limitations: Doppler is not a useful screening tool in low-risk pregnancies

1318
Q

What is the use of doppler wavforms of the fetal circulation?

A

So all major fetal vessels can be seen but the most commonly measured are the MCA and the ductus venosus,

With fetal compromise, the MCA often develops a low resistance pattern in comparison to the thoracic aorta or the renal vessels- head sparing effect.

Velocity of flow also increases with fetal anaemia.

Benefits: use is restricted to high-risk preegnancies and specific situtations.

Limitations: routine use does not reduce perinatal mortality or morbidity

1319
Q

Incraesed diastolic flow in the MCA on fetal doppler?

A

Suggests reduced resistance in the fetal MCA.

Suggests head sparing

Indicative of fetal compromise

1320
Q

What are the features of USS assessment of biophysical profile?

A

Limb movements

Tone

Breathing movements

Liquor volume

Scored 2 each out of 8

CTG also included and the score is out of 10

Low score suggests fetal compromise

Benefits: it is useful in high-risk pregnacny where CTG or doppler give equivocal results.

Limitations: time consuming and of little use in low risk pregnancy

1321
Q

What is a kick chart?

A

The mother records the number of individual movements that she experiences every day

Benefits: most compromised features have reduced movements in the days or hours before demise, reduction in fetal movements is an indication for more sophisticated testing.

Limitations: compromised fetuses stop moving only shortly before death, of limited benefit in reducing perinatal mortality

1322
Q

SFD

Other cut off

A

<10th centile

<3rd centile i.e. 97th centile

1323
Q

What are the constitutioal determinants of fetal size and health?

A

Affect growth and birth weight without causing IUGR

Low maternal height and weight

Asian

Female fetal gender

All associated with smaller babies

1324
Q

What are the pathological determinants of fetal growth causing IUGR?

A

Pre-existing maternal disease

Maternal pregnancy complications

Multiple pregnancy

Smoking

Drug usage

Infection eg. CMV

Extreme malnutrition

Congenital (chromosomal included) abnormalities

Male obesity

DM

and Male gender

All assocaited with increased risk of adverse outcomes

1325
Q

Cx of IUGR

A

Stillbirth

Cerebal palsy

Preterm delivery: both iatrogenic and spontaenous

Maternal risks

1326
Q

Dx of SFD

A

Made using ultrasound.

Umbilical artery doppler

Amniotic fludi volume (often reduced) with fetal redistribution of blood flow apaprent in MCA

CMV infection or chromosomal abnormality testing may be indicated

CTG: only become abnormal when severe compromise or fetal distress is present

1327
Q
A

SFD

1328
Q
A

IUGR

1329
Q

Mx of SFD

A

Growth recheced at fortnightly fetus

Small but consistently growing fetus with normal umbilical artery doppler values does not need internvention

1330
Q

Mx of IUGR at term

A

Small for dates with abnormal Doppler values is delivered if beyond 36w

Induction or c-sect required

1331
Q

Mx of IUGR at preterm

A

Aim is to prevent in utero demise or neurological damage with ongoing placental dysfunction whil maximising the gestation to avoid cxs of prematurity.

IUGR fetus with anbormal doppler values is reviewed twice a week. I fabsent end-diastolic flow is seen the mother is admitted, given steroids if pre-34w and has a daily CTG

A severely preterm IUGR is delayed until the CTG or fetal dopplers become abnormal.

1332
Q

Def: SFD

A

Fetus’s weight or estimated weight is below the tenth/fifth/third centile

1333
Q

Def: IUGR

A

Implies compromise: growth has slowed or is less than expected, taking into account constitutional factors

1334
Q

Def: prolonged pregnancy

A

>42w

NB risks of perinatal mortality and morbidity start between 41 and 42w.

1335
Q

What is the risk of still birth between 37w and 43 w

A
  1. 35 at 37w
  2. 12 at 43w
1336
Q

What are the risks of prolonged pregnancy

A

Stillbirth

Neonatal illness and encephalopathy

Meconium passage

Dx of fetal distress

1337
Q

Mx of prolonged pregnancy

A

From 41w: examine patient vaginally and induce, unless cervix very unfavourable or patient prefers to wait

If no indcution: sweep cervix and arrange daily CTG

If CTG abnormal: delivery by c-sect

1338
Q

What is the probability of twin pregnancy?

Triplet?

A

1 in 80

1 in 1000

1339
Q

What are the types of multiple pregnancy?

A

DZ

MZ

1340
Q

What are the features of DZ twins?

A

2/3rds of all multiple pregnancies or triplets results from fertilisation of different oocytes by different sperm

May be of different sex and are no more genetically similar than siblings from different pregnancies

1341
Q

Features of MZ twins

A

Result from mitotic division of a single zygote into identical twins.

Whether they share the same amnion or placenta depends on the time at which division occured

1342
Q

What are DCDA twins?

A

Dichorionic diamniotic MZ twins.

When division occurs before day 3: leads to twins with separate placentas and amnions

1343
Q

What are MCDA twins?

A

Monochroionic diamniotic MZ twins

Occurs with division between d4 and 8

Leads to twins with a shared placenta but separate amnions

1344
Q

What are MCMA twins?

A

Monochroionic monoamniotic twins

Occurs with later division (9-13d) and is very rare

Twins have a shared placenta and single amniotic sac

1345
Q

What are the issues with MC twins

A

Monochorionic twins have a higher fetal loss rate, particulalry before 24w

1346
Q

What are the most common types of MZ twins?

A

MCDA (70%)

DCDA (30%)

MCMA: very rare

1347
Q

What factors contribute to the likelihood of multiple pregnancy?

A

Assisted conception

Genetic factors

Increasing maternal age

Parity

Geenrally affect DZ twins

1348
Q

Dx of multiple pregnancy

A

Vomiting may be more marked in early pregnancy

Uterus is large for dates.

May feel multiple fetal poles in later pregnancies

1349
Q

Multiple pregnancy and antepartum complications

A

Virtually all obstetric risks are exagerrated in multiple pregnancies

Maternal:

GDM and pre-ecl more common

Anaemia: greater increase in blood volume and dilutional effect and also becuase more Fe and folic acid are needed.

Fetal:

Twins have greater mortality (x6)

LT handicap (5x increase)

Triplets fare worse with 18x risk of ganidcap

Preterm delivery, IUGR, monochorionicity

1350
Q

What are the antepartum risks for all multiples?

A

Miscarriage: first trimester death. Late miscarriage more common in MC twins

Preterm labour: main cause of perinatal mortality. 40% of twins and 80% triplet pregnancies deliver <36w.

IUGR

Congenital abnormalities are more common per baby in dichorionic

Co-twin death: if one of a pair of DC twins dies, the other usuallly survies although the risk of preterm delivery is increased

1351
Q

Why and what are the Cxs of monochorionicity?

A

Result largely from the shared blood supply in the single placenta.

Twin-twin transfuision syndrome

IUGR

Co-twin death

Monoamniotic twins

1352
Q

What is twin-twin transfusion syndomre

A

Occurs only in 15% of MCDA twins

Results from unequeal blood distribution through vascular anastamoses of the shared placenta.

One twin is volume depleted and develpops anaemia, IUGR and oligohydramnios. The other gets fluid overloaded and may develop polycytheamia, cardiac failure and massive polyhydramnios.

Both twins are at very high risk of in utero death or severely preterm delivery.

Even with optimal treatment, survival of both twins occurs in 50% with one twin in 80%.

10% of survivors have neurological disability

1353
Q

How is TTTS staged?

A

Quintero system

1-5

1354
Q

What is a particular problem in IUGR of MC twins

A

Where the umbilical artery waveform of the smaller twin is very erratic (selective IUGR with intermittenet absent or reversed end diastolic flow- sIUGR with iAREDF) which may be the result of superficial artery artery anastomoses. Sudden in utero death occurs in up to 20%

1355
Q

What occurs wth co-twin death?

A

The drop in BP of the dead twin allows acute transfusion of blood from one to the other which may rapidly lead to hypovolaemia and in 30% death or neurological damage

1356
Q

What are the features of monoamniotic twins

A

Not only the placenta but the amniotic sac is also shared. The cords are always entangled. In utero demise is sudden.

1357
Q

What are the intrapartum Cxs of multiple pregnacny?

A

Malpresentation of the first twin occurs in 20%

Second twin has an increased risk of death after the first has been delivered because of cord prolapse, hypoxia, tetanic uterine contraction, placental abruption, may present as a breech

PPH more common.

1358
Q

Mx of twin pregnancies antepartum

A

High risk pregnancy

Fe and folic acid supplementation prescribed.

Selective reduction can be discussed, only indicated in twins when one of them has a congenital abnormalitiy.

Transvaginal US of cervical length may identify those at most risk of preterm delivery.

Idenfy IUGR

1359
Q

What is the lambda sign?

A

Sign of dichorionic twins

Dividing membrane is thicker as it meets the placenta

1360
Q

What is the T sign?

A

Thin dividing memrane as it meets the placenta.

MZ twins

1361
Q

Mx of TTTS?

A

Laser photocoagulation of the placental anastomoses in a fetal medicine centre is the preferred treatment.

1362
Q

Intrapartum Mx of multiple pregnancies

A

Mode: C-sect: reduces risk of death and hypoxia in second twin. vaginal can be discussed when the first fetus is cephalic, regardless of the lie of the second.

Method: Induction or C-sec is usualy at 37-38w (DC) or 34-37w(MC) after which time perinatal mortality is increased.

CTG monitoring due to increased risk of fetal hypoxia, particularly for the second twin.

1363
Q

Delivery of twins

A

First as normal

Second:

Maternal contractions often diminish after the first twin. Usually these return after a few miinutes, oxytocin can be started if not. Lie of the second twin is cehcked and ECV performed if not longitudinal. Once the head or breech enters the pelvis, the membranes are ruptured and pushing again beings.

Delivery usually achieved within 20 mins of the first. Excessive delay is associated with increased mortality.

1364
Q

What is breech extraction

A

Performed under general, epidural or spinal anaesthesia.

Involves inserting a hand into the uterus, grasping the feet and guiding them down.

1365
Q

What are the different classifications of congenital abnormalities?

A

Structural

Chromosomal

Inherited

or as a result of intrauterine infection or durg exposure

1366
Q

What is the prevalence of congenital abnormalities?

Major?

A

Affect 2% of all pregnancies

1% major

1367
Q

What proportion of perinatal deaths are accounted for by congenital abnormalities?

A

25%

1368
Q

What makes a good screening test?

A

Cheap

High sensitivity and specificity

Is safe

Must also be an acceptable diagnostic test

Condition must be serious enough to warrant testing

1369
Q

What is the difference between a screening and a diagnostic test?

A

Screening teast is available for all women and gives a measure of the risk of the fetus being affected by a particular disorder

A diagnostic test is performed on women with a “high risk” to confirm or refute the possibility e.g. this fetus doesn’t have down syndrome

1370
Q

What is sensitivity

A

Proprotion of subjects with the condition classified by a test as screen positive for a condition

1371
Q

What is NPV

A

Probability that a subject who is screen negative will not have the condition

1372
Q

What is the specifcity of a test?

A

Proportion of subjects without the condition who are classified as screen negative

1373
Q

What is the screen positive rate?

A

The proportion of subjects who are classified as high risk by a tst

1374
Q

What is the PPV?

A

Probability that a subject who is screen positive will have the condition

1375
Q

When is AFP raised at screening tests?

A

In neural tube defects.

May also indicate a higher risk of third trimester Cxs

Seldom used as USS is more accurate

1376
Q

What components constitute the DS screening test?

A

beta-HCG

PAPP-A

AFP

Oestriol

Inhibin A

Results can be integrated with other risk factors e.g. amternal age and USS measurements to screen for trisomies 21, 18, 13

1377
Q

Larger nuchal translucency=

A

Greater risk of DS

Also indicates a higher risk of structural (particulalry cardiac) abnormalities in addition, 50% of fetuses with trisomies have structural abnormalities e.g. exomphalos

1378
Q

When is nuchal translucency test performed?

A

11 and 14w

1379
Q

What is nuchal translucenecy?

A

Space between skin and soft tissue overlying the cervical spien

1380
Q

What may polyhydramnios indicate? And so?

A

May be the result of a fetal abnoramlity

Warrants a repeat, detailed USS examination

1381
Q

Features of amniocentesis

A

Diagnostic test involving removal of amniotic fuid using a USS guided fine gauge needle.

Safest performed at 15w

1% miscarry

1382
Q

What can be diagnosed using amniocentesis?

A

Infections e.g. CMV and toxoplasmosis

Inherited disorders e.g. sickle-cell anaemia, thalassaemia, CF

1383
Q

Features of CVS

A

Involves biopsy of the trophoblast by passing a fine gauge needle through the abdominal wall or cervix and into the placenta after 11w.

Higher miscarriage rate than amniocentesis

Can be performed at 11w.

1384
Q

Down’s syndrome=

A

Trisomy 21

Usually the result of non-dysjunction at meiosissis

May arise as a result of a balanced chromosomal translocation in the parents.

More common with advancing maternal age.

1385
Q

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality

A

DS

1386
Q

What are the clinical features of DS?

A

Mental retardation

Characteristic facies: epicanthic folds and flat facial profile

Congenital cardiac disease (50%)

Abundant neck skin

Intestinal stenosis

Umbilical hernia

hypotonia

Predisposition to leukaemia

Simian palmar crease

Recurrence rate is low unless it is the result of a balanced partental translocation

1387
Q

USS in DS

A

Thickened nuchal translucenecy

Some structural abnormalities

Absent or shortened nasal bone

TR

1388
Q

Blood test results in DS

A

Low PAPP-A (1st trimester)

Low AFP (1st/2nd trimester)

Low oestriol

High inhibin

High HCG

1389
Q

What is Trisomy 18

A

Edward’s syndrome

1390
Q

What is Trisomy 13

A

Patau’s syndrome

1391
Q
A

Patau’s syndrome

(Trisomy 13)

1392
Q

Clinical features of Patau Syndrome

A

Polydactyly

Microcephaly and mental retardation

Clef-lip and palate

Cardiac defects

Renal defects

Umbilical hernia

Rocker-bottom feet

1393
Q

Rocker-bottom feet

A

Patau (Trisomy 13)

1394
Q
A

Edwards syndrome

(Trisomy 18)

1395
Q

Clinical features of Edwards

A

Prominent occiput

Mental retardation

Low set ears

Short neck

Overlapping fingers

Mircognathia

Congenital heart defects

Renal malformation

Limited hip abductio

1396
Q

Kilnfelters

A

47 XXY

Males have normal intellect, small testes, infertile

1397
Q

Turners syndrome

A

45 XO

Affected individuals are female, infertile but with preserved intellect

1398
Q

What is the triple test for DS?

A

Blood test at 16w using AFP, hCG and oestriol

Not hugely accurate, should only be used when screening occurs later than 14w

1399
Q

What is the combined test for DS?

A

Maternal age

PAPP-A

Beta-hCG

Nuchal translucency as measured by USS at 11-14w

1400
Q

What are neural tube defects?

A

Result of failure of closure of the neural tube.

Neural tissue often exposed allowing degradation.

Best known examples are spina bifida (severe disability), anaencephaly (incompatible with life(

1401
Q

How can NTDs be prevented

A

Preconceputal folica cid supplementation for 3months at 0.4mg/d

1402
Q

Risk of NTDs

A

1 in 200

Recurrent NTDs occur in 1 in 10 pregnancies but this risk is greatly reduced by high dose folic acid.

1403
Q

What is ventriculomegaly

A

Often due to NTDs, aqueduct stenosis or agenesis fo the copus callosum

Px depends on severity and cause

1404
Q

Akinesia syndromes in utero

A

Cause abnormal posture and are usualy lethal

Polyhydramnios follows impaired swallowing

1405
Q

Frog eye appearance on USS?

A

Anencephaly

1406
Q

Epidmeiology of congenital cardiac defects

A

Occur in 1% of pregnancies

More common in women with congenital cardiac disease or women who have had previously affected offsrping and when other structural/chromosomal abnormalities are present.

1407
Q

In utero therapy for congenital defects

A

Medical:

Steroids to mature lungs

Antiarrythmic drugs

NSAIDs for polyhydramnios

Surgical:

Laser treatment for TTTS

Amnioreduction for polyhydramnios

Pleuramniotic shunt for hydrops/effusions

Vesicoamniotic shunt for urethral valves

Bllod/platelet transfusion

Tracheal occlusion for diaphragmatic hernia

Valvoplasty for critical AS

Cord occlusion of monochorionic twins

Open:

Neural tube defect surgery

1408
Q

What is exomphalos

A

Partial extrusion of the abdominal contents in the peritoneal sac

Fifty percent of affected infants have chromosomal problem and amniocentesis is offered.

Isolated, small defects have a good prognosis after postnatal surgery.

1409
Q
A

Exomphalos

1410
Q

What is gastrochisis

A

Free loops of bowel in the amniotic cavity and is assoicated with ohter abnormalities.

More common when the mother is very young

Postnatal surgery is indicated: >90% survive

1411
Q
A

Gastroschisis

1412
Q

What are diaphragmatic hernias

A

Cause the abdominal contents to herniate into the chest leading to pulmonary hypoplasia

Associated abnromalities are common.

60% with isolated defects survive.

In utero tracheal occlusion can improve prognosis in severe cases

1413
Q

Pleural effusions in utero

A

May cause pulmonary hypoplasia and hydrops. in utero shunting isuseful

1414
Q

What are CCAMs and pulmonary sequestrations?

A

Congenital cystic adenomatous malformations and pulmonary sequestrations are visisble as solid or cystic masses of varying sizes.

Px usually good

1415
Q

Featuers of oesophageal atresia and traceho-oesophageal fistulae?

A

Stomach non-visible or small.

Polyhydramnios

1416
Q

WWhat is a classic double bubble of the stomach associated with?

A

Duodenal atreasia,c aused by stomach and dilated upper duodenum.

DS very common

Polyhydramnios

1417
Q

What does lower gut atresia cause?

A

Dilated bowel +/- polyhydramnios

Meconium ileus due to CF is common

1418
Q

Hydronephrosis in utero

A

Can be mild to severe

Unilateral or bilateral

Due to obstructino or reflux

More prone to infection and therefore renal damage

1419
Q

What do posterior urethral valves cause?

A

Obstruct the male urethra, cause oligohydramnios, bladder and renal dilation and damge which can range from lethal to renal failure in adulthood.

1420
Q

What are skeletal dysplasia syndromes?

A

Affect the limbs, when they are lethal e.g. thanatophoric dysplasia, chest is frequently small

1421
Q

What is the cause of isolated limb abnormalities

A

Amniotic bands- constriction deformities involving the amnion

1422
Q

What is fetal hydrops?

A

Occurs when fluid accumulates in two or more areas in the fetus.

Has a high mortality and is rarer in late pregnancy due to its high mortality

1423
Q

What are the causes of fetal hydrops

A

Immune: anaemia and haemolysis (e.g. rhesus)

Non-immune:

  1. Chromsomal e.g. DS
  2. Cardiac abnromalities or arrythmias
  3. Structural abnromalities e.g. pleural effusion can cause hydrops
  4. Anaemia causing cardiac failure (e.g. parvovirus infection), FMH or fetal alpha thalassaemia major
  5. TTTS
1424
Q

Ix of fetal hydrops

A

USS assessment: MCA

Kleihauer and aprvovirus, CMV and toxoplasmosis testing

Fetal blood sampling

1425
Q

When can hydrops be cured?

A

Only possible where anaemia (transfusion) or compression by fluid collection e.g. pleural effusion (vesicoamniotic shunting) have caused hydrops

1426
Q

Def: polyhydramnios

A

Increased liquor volume. Deepest liquor pool >10cm

1427
Q

Causes of polyhydramnios

A

Idiopathic

Maternal disorders (established and GDM), renal failure

Twins (esp TTTS)

Fetal anomaly (particuallry upper GI obstructions or inability to swallow)

1428
Q

Clinical features of polyhydramnios

A

Maternal discomfort

Large for dates

Taut uterus

Difficult palpation of fetal parts

1429
Q

Cxs of polyhydramnios

A

Preterm labour

Maternal discomfort

Abnormal lie

Malpresentation

1430
Q

Mx of polyhydramnios

A

To diagnose fetal anomaly: detailed USS

To diagnose DM: maternal blood glucose

To reduce liquor: If <34w and severe, amnioreduction, or use of NSAIDs to reduce fetal urine output

Consider steroids if <34w

Delivery: vaginal unless persistent unstable lie or other obstetric indication

1431
Q

What are the consequences of raised fetal blood glucose levels

A

Induces fetal hyperinsulinaemia leading to fetal fat deposition and excessive growth-> macrosmia

1432
Q

Why does glucose tolerance decrease in pregnancy?

A

Altered carbohydrate metabolism and the antaonistic effects of human placental lactogen, progesterone and cortisol.

Pregnancy is diabetogenic.

1433
Q

What is significant about renal glucose excretion in pregnancy?

A

Threshold for glycosuria decreases, therefore glucose in urine may occur at physiological blood concentrations

1434
Q

Pre-existing diabetics in pregnancy

A

Insulin requirements increase

1435
Q

Def: GDM

A

Carbohydrate intolerance which is diagnosed in pregnancy and may or may not resolve after pregnancy

1436
Q

NICE definition of GDM

A

Fasting plasma glucose level of >5.6

2 hour plasma glucose level of >7.8 after a 75g glucose load (GTT)

1437
Q

Fetal cxs in DM

A

T1DM and T2DM are similalrly effected. GDM less so

Congenital abnormalities: neural tube and cardiac defects and are related to periconceptual glucose control

Preterm labour

Reduced fetal lung maturity

Raised birthweight: dystocia and birth trauma

Fetal compromise

Fetal disress

Sudden fetal death are more common

1438
Q

How does polyhydramnios arise in GDM?

A

Fetal pancreatic islet cell hyperplasia leads ot hyperinsulinaemia and fat deposition

Leads to incresased UO and polyhydramnios

1439
Q

Maternal cxs of DM in pregnancy

A

INsulin requirements increase

DKA rare

Hypoglycaemia may result from attempts to achieve optimum glucose control

Infection: UTI, wound or endometrial more common

Pre-ecl more common

Pre-existing IHD aggravated

C-sect or instrumental delivery more likely.

Diabetic nephropathy associated with poorer fetal outcomes but doesn’t deteriorate in pregnancy

Diabetic retinopathy often deteriorates and may need to be treated in pregnancy

1440
Q

Preconceptual care of diabetic women wishing to conceive

A

Baseline RFTs, BP and retina

Glucose optimised

5mg folic acid/d

BP control with labetalol or methyldopa

1441
Q

How is DM monitored during pregnancy

A

HbA1c

1442
Q

Who should be screened for GDM?

A

BMI >30

Previous macrosmic baby

Previous unexplained still birth

Previous GDM

First degree relative with GDM

Family origin with high prevalence of DM

1443
Q

Dx test for GDM

A

OGTT

1444
Q

Mx of DM in pregnancy

A

Non-drug treatment: lifestyle changes

Medication:

Offer metformin if lifestyle changes do not impact on blood glucose levels in 1-2w

Insulin as alternative to metformin.

If fasting glucose above 7, insulin and metformin.

NB advise women to always have fasting acting glucose source available

1445
Q

Fetal monitoring in DM

A

Normal USS

Fetal echocardiography is also indicated.

1446
Q

Mx of pre-ecl risk in DM in pregnancy

A

75mg daily from 12w

1447
Q

NB in any pregnant woman presenting unwell with hyperglycaemia

A

DKA

1448
Q

Timing and mode of delivery in GDM

A

By 39w. Offer C-sect if fetal weight exceeds 4kg

Glucose levels maintained by sliding scale of insulin and dextrose infusion during labour

1449
Q

What are the common complications for the neonate immediately after delivery in GDM

A

Hypoglycaemia due to its accustomisation to hyperglycaemia

RDS occurs even after 38w.

1450
Q

Mx of GDM after delivery

A

Dose of insulin can be changed to prepregnant doses

1451
Q

Indications for GTT in pregnancy

A

Risk factors

Polyhydramnios

Persistent glycosuria (2+ on 1 occasion or 1+ on 2 occassions)

1452
Q

Draw Mx of GDM

A
1453
Q

Folllow up to women with GDM after delivery

A

OGTT at 3m

50% will be diagnosed as diabetic within the next 10y

1454
Q

Why is an ejection systolic murmur heard in 90% of pregnant women?

A

40% increase in CO.

40% increase in BV

50% reduction in SVR

BP drops, flow rate increases.

Increased blood flow produces a flow murmur

1455
Q

How does the ECG change in pregnancy?

A

Left axis shift

Inverted T waves

1456
Q

How are women with cardiac disease assessed prepregnancy

A

Echo

1457
Q

Mx of labour in women with cardiac disease

A

Fludi balance monitoring

Elective epidural analgesia

Elective forceps delivery helps avoid the additional stress of pushing

Antibiotics for those at risk of endocarditis

1458
Q

Mx of PDA, VSD and ASD in pregnant women

A

Do not usually cause complicatiosn

1459
Q

Pulmonary HTN and pregnancy e.g. Eisenmenger’s syndrome

A

High maternal mortality rate (40%)

Pregnancy contraindicated and usually terminated

1460
Q

AS in pregnancy

A

Severe disease causes an inability to increase cardiac output when required and should be corrected before pregnancy.

Beta-blockade often used

Epidrual analgesia is contraindicated. Thromboprophylaxis required for aortic valves

1461
Q

Mitral valve disease and pregnancy

A

Should be treated before pregnancy

In severe stenosis HF may develop late in pregnancy and beta blockade should be used.

Artificial metal valves are particularly prone to thrombosis and warfarin is used after the first 12w despite risk to fetus

1462
Q

What is peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

Rare cause of HF specific to pregnancy

Develops in the last month or the first 6m after pregnancy in the absence of a recognisable cause.

Cause of maternal death and leads to permanent LVD in >50%

Treatment is supportive with diruetics and ACEI

1463
Q

Asthma in pregnancy

A

Doesn’t need to be a change in control as medication generally safe

Women on LT steroids require an increased dose in labour because the chronically suppressed addrenal cortex is unable to produce adequate steroids for the stress of labour

1464
Q

Supplementation in epileptics during pregnancy

A

Folic acid 5mg daily

36w: Oral vit K

Fetal echocardiography and anomaly scan are important to exclude fetal abnormalities

1465
Q

Cxs of hypothyroidism in pregnancy

A

High perinatal mortality.

Even subclinical hypothyroidism is associated with:

miscarriage

preterm delivery

intellectual impairment in childhood

Also associated with an increased risk of pre-eclampsia, particulalry if antithroid antibodies are pregsent.

TSH monitored

1466
Q

Cause of neonatal thyrotoxicosis and goritre

A

Antithyroid Abs in mother suffering from Graves disease that cross the placenta

1467
Q

Implications of poorly controlled hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

Risk of thyrotoxicosis: acute symptoms and HF usually near or at delivery.

Treated with PTU rather than carbimazole

1468
Q

Propylthiouracil

A

Used to treat hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

Can cross the placenta and occasionally causes neonatal hypothyroidism

1469
Q

Features of postpartum thyoridtis

A

Common and can cause postnatal depression

Risk factors:

Antithyroid Abs

T1DM

Transient and usually subclinical hyperthyroidism usually about 3 months postpartum, folled by 4 months of hypothyroidism which is permanent in 20%

1470
Q

Clinical features of acute fatty liver in pregnancy

A

Acute hepatorenal failure, DIC and hypoglycemia

Early symptoms: malaise, vomiting, jaundice and vague epigastric pain.

Early dx and prompt delivery essential.

Correction of clotting defects and hypoglycaemia

Supportive treatment with blood products, fluid blanace and occasionally dialysis

1471
Q

Mx of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A

Vit K 10mg/d to reduce risk of haemorrhage

Ursodeoxychlic acid

Induction at 38w

1472
Q

Why does intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy occur?

A

Due to increased sensitivity to the cholestatic effects of oestrogen

1473
Q

Dx of antihphospholipid syndrome

A

1+ clinical criteria:

Vascular thrombosis

1+ death of fetus >10w

Pre-ecl or IUGR requiring delivery <34w

3+ fetal losses <10w, otherwise unexplained

With laboratory criteria:

Lupus anticoagulant or high anticardiolipin Abs or anti-b2 glycoprotein Ab

(Measured twice >3m apart)

1474
Q

What are the adverse outcomes of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Due to placental thrombosis:

Recurrent miscarriage

IUGR

Early pre-ecl

Fetal loss rate is high

1475
Q

Mx of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

2% of pregnant women have the Abs

Mx with aspirin and LMWH and is restricted to those with the syndrome.

Pregnancy is managed as a high risk, with serial USS and elective induction of labour at least by term.

Postnatal anticoagulation

1476
Q

Pregnancy in CKD

A

Inadvisable if creatinine level is >200mmol as renal function often deteriorates late in the pregnancy

1477
Q

Differentiation between proteinuria in CKD and pre-ecl

A

CKD present <20w

1478
Q

Fetal cxs of CK

A

Pre-ecl

IUGR

Polyhydramnios

Preterm delivery

1479
Q

Mx of CKD in pregnancy

A

USS for fetal growth

RFTs

Screen for UTIs

Control of HTN

Dialysis

Vaginal delivery appropriate

1480
Q

UTI in pregnancy

A

Associated with preterm labour and increased perinatal morbidity and mortality

Asymptomatic bacteriuria affects 5% but is more likely (20%) to lead to pyelonephritis in pregnancy

1481
Q

ECG and PE in pregnancy

A

ECG changes of normal pregnancy can mimic those of a PE

1482
Q

LMWH dosing in pregnancy

A

More is needed than in nonpregnant women as clearance is more rapid

1483
Q

Risk assessment for VTE

High

Intermediate

Moderate

A
1484
Q

Maternal and fetal risks of obesity in pregnacny

A

Maternal:

High risk of thromboembolism, pre-ecl, DM

C-sec, wound infections, difficult sx, PPH, maternal death

Fetal:

Higher rate of congenital abnromalities, DM and pre-ecl

x2-3 perinatal mortality

1485
Q

Mx of obesity in pregnancy

A

Preconceptual advise

5mg folic acid

High risk if >35BMI: screen for GDM, and BP surveillance.

BMI >40 require formal anaesthetic risk assessment

1486
Q

BPAD and pregnancy

A

Well or at low risk of relapse, stop Li

Unwell or at high risk, continue Li with blood monitoring due to increased excretion during pregnancy

Higher risk of maternal sucidie and postnatal medication is important

1487
Q

Paroxetine in pregnancy

A

May cause cardiac defects and is not advised

1488
Q

Clozapine and olanzapine in pregnancy

A

Usually avoided

1489
Q

Risks and management of opiate use in pregnancy

A

Not teratogenic, use associated with: preterm delivery, IUGR, stillbirth, developmental delay and SIDS

Methadone maintenance

1490
Q

Risk and management of cocaine use in pregnancy

A

Probably teratogenic and can cause childhood intellectual impairment. Associated with IUGR and placental abruption as well as preterm delivery, stillbirth and SIDS

COunsellying

1491
Q

Ecstasy and pregnancy

A

Teratogenic: cardiac defects, gastroschisis

Pregnancy cxs similar to that of cocaine

Counselling

1492
Q

BZDs and pregnancy

A

Associated with facial clefts, cause neonatal hypotonia

1493
Q

Fetal alcohol syndomre

A

Facial abnormalities

IUGR

Microcephaly

Developmental delay

>18 units per day

1494
Q

What are alcohol spectrum disorders

A

Encompass lesser variants of fetal alcohol syndrome

1495
Q

Risks of smoking in pregnancy

A

Dose dependent

Increased risk of

Miscarraige

IUGR
Preterm birth

Placental abruption

Stillbirth

SIDS

1496
Q

Fe deficiency anaemia in pregnancy

A

Folic acid deficiency may coexist

Symptoms absent until Hb <9

MCV reduces but may initially be normal

Ferritin levels reduced

Treatment is with oral Fe, can cause GI upset

In severe cases IV Fe is quicker

1497
Q

Foods rich in Fe

A

Meat, particulalry kidney, and liver, eggs, green vegetables

1498
Q

Foods rich in folic acid

A

lightly cooked or raw green vegetables.

Fish

1499
Q

Adult HbA

A

2 alpha

2 beta

1500
Q

Fetal HbF

A

2 alpha

2 gamma

1501
Q

Maternal complications of sickle cell disease

A

More frequent crises

Pre-ecl

Thrombosis

Infections

1502
Q

Fetal cxs of SCD

A

Miscarraige

IUGR
Preterm labour

Death

1503
Q

Mx of SCD in pregnancy

A

Regular exchange blood transfusions

Infection screening

Hydration

Folic acid supplementation

Fe avoided because of overload

1504
Q

Def: perimenopause

A

Time beginning with the first features of the approaching menopause e.g. vasomotor symtpoms and mesntural irregulatiry and ends 12 months after the last menstrual period

1505
Q

Def: surgical menopause

A

Following BSO

1506
Q

Causes of premature menopause

A

Premature ovarian failure

Infections

Autoimmune disease

CTx

Ovarian dysgensis

Metabolic disease

1507
Q

Mx of premature menopause

A

Oocyte donation for fertility treatment

HRT until 50

1508
Q

20% of PMB caused by

A

Endometrial carcinoma

Cervical carcinoma

Premalignant endometrial hyperplasia with cytological atypia

1509
Q

Purulent blood stained vaginal discahrge ina post menopausal woman

A

Investiage to exclude endometrial cancer or (uncommonly) a divertiuclar avscess draining via the uterus or vagina

1510
Q

Causes of PMB

A

Endometrial carcinoma

Endometrial hyperplasia +/- atypia and polyps

Cervical carcinoma

Atrophic vaginitis

Cervicitis

Ovarian Ca

Cervical polyps

1511
Q

Mx of PMB

A

Bimanual and pseculum +/- cervical smear

TVS to measure endometrial thickness, thickened endometrial cavity or fluid filled cavity: malignancy, hyperplasia or polyps

1512
Q

Early, intermediate and late effects of menopause

A

Early: psychological symptoms

Intermediate: skin atrophy, genital tract atrophy, urinary tract atrophy

Late: Cerebrovascular accidents, cardiac disease, bony fractures

1513
Q

What are the vasomotor symptoms of menopause?

A

Hot flushes and night sweats

May begin before periods stop and are usually present for less than 5y

1514
Q

Symptoms of vaginal atrophy

A

Dyspareunia

Cessation of sexual activity

Itching

Burning

Dryness

Urinary symptoms: frequency, urgency, notcuria, incontinence, recurrent infection

1515
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis

Genetic

Constitutional

Environmental

Drugs

Disease

A
1516
Q

When are FSH levels best measured

A

Between days 2 and 5 of the cycle to aboid the mid cycle preovulatory increase and the luteal phase suppression

1517
Q

AMH measurement

A

Produced by small ovarian follicles and give a direct measurement of ovarian reserve, low levels are consistent with ovarian failure.

AMH levels are stable throughout the menstrual cycle and so can be measured on any day

1518
Q

Ix in ?premature ovarian failure

A

FSH (AMH)

TFTs

Catecholamnies

LH, oestradiol and progesterone

1519
Q

Why is the hip better than the spine in terms of estimating bone density?

A

Spine may have falsely increased values due to osteophytes from OA, kyphosis, scoliosis and aortic calcification

1520
Q

HRT

single

combined

A

Oestrogen alone in women who have had a hysterectomy

Combined with progestogens in those who ahve not.

1521
Q

Delivery of oestrogens

Delivery of progestogens

A

Oral

Transdermal

Subcut

Orally

Transdermally

IUS

1522
Q

Why are synthetic oestrogens not used for the HRT?

A

Because of their greater metabolic impact

1523
Q

What oestrogens are used in HRT

A

Oestradioll, oestrone, oestriol

Synthesised from plants

1524
Q

What progestogens are used in HRT

A

levonorgestrel

Norethisterone

1525
Q

What is tibolone

A

Synthetic steroid compound that is inert but is converted in vivo to metabolites with oestrogenic, progestogenic, and andorgenic actions.

Used in post-menopausal women who desire amenorrhoea and treats vasomotor, psychological and libido problems

Conserves bone mass

1526
Q

Oestrogen only HRT

A

Used in women after hysterectomy

May be concenrs about a remnant of endometrium in the cervical stump if it was a subtotal hysterectomy.

If this is suspected, presence or absence of bleeding following HRT is a useful test

1527
Q

What is sequential HRT and its effects

A

10-14d every 4w or 1`4d every 13w

Leads to monthly bleeds or 3 monthly bleeds

1528
Q

What is continuous HRT and its effects

A

Used every day

Leads to no bleeds

1529
Q

When is the IUS useful in menopause

A

During the perimenopausal period if there is menorrhagia

1530
Q

Post-menopause, preferred HRT

A

Continuous combined regmines because of the lack of induced bleeding and because it may reduce the risk of endometrial cancer

Continuous combined therapy induces endometrial atrophy.

IU delivery may be used but can be technically difficult in older women

1531
Q

Mx of urogenital symptoms of menopause

A

Vaginal administration by cream or pessary (oestriol) or oestradiol by table ot ring

1532
Q

Benefits of oestrogens in menopausal symptoms

A

Oestrogen reduces vasomotor symptoms

Oestrogens also reduced vaginal atrophic symptoms

May improve sexuality

Testosterone can be added

1533
Q

Benefits of HRT for osteoporosis

A

HRT reduces the risk of #s

1534
Q

Benefits of HRT in CRC

A

HRT reduces the risk of CRC by 1/3rd

1535
Q

Risks of HRT: breast cancer

A

Combined but not oestrogen only HRT increases risk

Risk fallson stopping combined therapy and normalises after 5y

1536
Q

Risks of HRT: endometrial cancer

A

Unopposed oestrogen replacement therapy increases endometrial cancer risk

1537
Q

Risks of HRT: VTE

A

HRT increases risk of VTE x2

1538
Q

Risks of HRT: gall bladder

A

Oral HRT increases risk of gallbladder disease

1539
Q

Non-oestrogen therapy for vasomotor symptoms of menopause

A

Progestogens

Clonidine: of lmited value

SSRIs: are ffective in ST

Gabapentin may be effective

1540
Q

Bisphosphonates in menopause

A

e.g. alendronate, risendronate and ibandronate

Used in prevention and treatment of osteoporosis

Princple adverse effect is irritation of the upper GI

May affect fetal skeleton, so aren’t advised in women wishing to conceive

1541
Q

Strontium ranelate

A

Decreases the risk of osteoporotic vertebral and hip #s

1542
Q

Raloxifene

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator, reduces the incidence of osteoporosis-related vertebral ‘s

1543
Q

Denosumab

A

RANKL Ab

Used whe bisphosphonates are contraindicated

1544
Q

Def: septic miscarriage

A

The contents of hte uterus are infected causing endometritis.

Vaginal loss is usually offensive, uterus is tender and a fever may be present.

If plevic infection occurs there is abdominal pain and peritonsim

1545
Q

What is the cause of >60% one off sporadic miscarriages?

A

Isolated non-recurring chromosomal abnormalities.

1546
Q

Ix in ?miscarraige

A

USS: will show uterine contents. If in doubt, the scan should be repeated 1w later.

Bloods: HCG levels (if raised and no intrauterine gestational sac is visible, ectopic)

FBC

Rhesus group

1547
Q

Mx of miscarriage

A

Admit: if ectopic, septic or heavy bleeding

Resus: contents in cervical os. IM ergometrine will reduce bleeding but is only used if the fetus is non-viable

If there is a fever, swabs for culture and IV antibiotics

Anti-D is gient to women who are rhesus negative

1548
Q

Mx of threatened miscarriage

A

90% of women in whom fetal heart activity is detected at 8w will not miscarry

1549
Q

Mx of non-viable intrauterine pregnancy

A

Expectant

Medical: prostaglandins

Surgical: ERPC

1550
Q

Cxs of miscarriage

A

Vaginal bleeding with expectant or medical management can be heavy

Risks of expectant/medical management include need for surgical evacuation, risk of infection is not incresed.

Infection may become systemic leading to endotoxic shock

1551
Q

Counselling after miscarriage

A

Miscarriage was not result of anything they did

Reassurance as to the high chance of successful pergnancies is important

Referral to a support group

1552
Q

Causes of recurrent miscarriage

A

Antiphospholipid Abs: LMWH and aspirin

Chromsoomal defects: parental karyotyping, CVS or amniocentesis. Use of donor oocytes

Anatomical: uterine abnormalities (USS or hysterosalpingoram), cervical incompetence (>16w)

Infection

Obesity

Smoking

PCOS

Excess caffeiene intake

Higher maternal age

1553
Q

Statuatory grounds for abortion in the UK

A
1554
Q

Surgical methods of abortion

A

Suction curettaeg (7-13w)

Dilatation and evacuation (>13w)

Antibiotic cover required for both

1555
Q

Medical methods of abortion

A

Antiprogesterone: mifepritsone + prrostaglandin (mifeprostol, gemeprost, PGE1 analogues (36-48h later) is the most effective in <7w and can be used up to 9w

Prostaglandin alone can be used

Byeond 22w: KCI injected into the umbilical vein or fetal heart

1556
Q

What are the cxs of TOP

A

Haemorrhage

Infection

Uterine perforation

Cervical trauma

Failure

1557
Q

What is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Fallopian tube (95%)

1558
Q

Sites of ectopics

A
1559
Q

Hx of ectopic

A

Lower abdominal pain

Scanty dark vaginal bleeding

Pain may be initially colicky (as the tube tries to exude the sca) and then become constant

Syncopal episodes and shoulder tip pain suggests intraperitoneal blood loss

1560
Q

Ix in ectopic

A

Pregnancy test

USS: TV

Quantitative serum hCG is useful if the uterus is empty ifmaternal >1000IU then if a uterine pregnancy were present it should be visible on TVS. If the level is lower but rises more than 66% in 48h, an earlier but intrauterine pregnancy is normal.

Declining or slower rising levles of hCG suggest an ectopic or nonviable intrauterine pregnancy

1561
Q

What is a heterotropic pregnancy

A

When an intrauterine and an ectopic pregnacny coexist

1562
Q

Mx of symptomatic suspected pregnancy

A

NBM

ABC

FBC and cross-match

Pregnancy test

USS

Laparoscopy or medical management if criteria met.

1563
Q

What are the issues with salpingostomy

A

10% chance a repeat surgery for persisting ectopic is required- detected by failure of serum hCG to fall on follow up.

Increased risk of repeat ectopic as damaged tube remains

1564
Q

Medical management of ectopic

A

If the ectopic is unruptured, with no cardiac activity and an hCG level <3000 IU

Methotrexate as a systemic sinlg edose can be used.

Serial hCGs are used to confrm that trophoblastic tissue has gone.

SSecond dose may be required.

1565
Q

Conservative management of ectopic

A

If the ectopic is small and unrupture or if the location of the pregnancy is not clear and hCG le3vles are low and declining. Careful observation may suffice

1566
Q

Cx of ectopic pregnancy

A

Serial hCG to confirm resolution.

70% will have subsequent successful pregnancy following salpingectomy

1567
Q

Def: hypermesis gravidarum

A

When N+V is so severe as to cause severe dehydration, weight loss or electrolyte disturbance.

1568
Q

Mild NVP

A

Nausea and occasional morning vomiting

50% pregnant women

No treatment required

1569
Q

Moderate NVP

A

More persistent vomiting

5% pregnant women

Often admitted to hsopital

1570
Q

Severe NVP

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

1571
Q

Mx of hyperemsis gravidarum

A

Exclude predisposing conditions: UTI, multiple or molar pregnancy

IV rehydration

Antiemetics: promethyazine or cyclizine

metoclopramide second line

Thiamine

Steroids in severe cases

1572
Q

Def: gestatuiational trophoblastic disease

A

Trohpohblastic tissue which is part of the blastocyst that normally invades the endometrium proliferates in a more aggressive way than is normal: hCG secreted in excess

Prolifreation can be localised and noninvasive.

May also have characteristics of malignant tissue, invasive in the uterus alone= invasive mole. If metastasises= choreocarcinoma

1573
Q

What is a complete hydatidiform mole

A

Entirely paternal in origin. When one sperm fertilises an empty oocyte and undergoes mitosis.

Result is diploid tissue, usually 46XX

1574
Q

What is a partial hydatidiform mole

A

Triploid, derived from two sperms entering one oocyte. Variable evidence of a foetus

1575
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic neiplasia

A

When there is evidence of persistence of gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiofrm mole, invasive mole, choriocarcinoma), commonly defined as elevation of hCG.

1576
Q

Hx and Ex in GTD

A

Heavy vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis

Uterus large for dates, pre-eclampsia and hyperthyroidism can occur

1577
Q

Snowstorm appearance of swollen villi

A

Complete hydatidiform mole

1578
Q

Mx of GTD

A

Trophoblastic tissue removed by ERPC and diagnosis confirmed histologically

Bleeding often heavy

Serial hCG levels taken, pesristent or rising levels are suggestive of malignancy.

Pregnancy and COCP avoided until hCG levels are normal as they may increase the need for CTx

1579
Q

Cx of GTD

A

Recurrence of molar pregnancy occurs in 1 in 60, after every subsequent pregnancy, further hCG samples are required to exclude disease recurrence

GTN (molar pregnancy only accounts for 50% as malignancy may also follow miscarriages and normal pregnancy, usualy presents as persistent vaginal bleeding)

1580
Q

Mx of GTN

A

Highly malignant but very sensitive to CTx

Patients are risk stratified

Low risk: methotrexate and folic acid

High risk: Combination CTx

1581
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary infertility?

A

Primary: female never conceived

Secondary: previously conceived even if the pregnancy ended in miscarraige or TOP

1582
Q

What are the four basic conditions required for pregnancy?

A

1: Egg must be produced (anovulation)
2. Adequate sperm must be released (Male factor)
3. Sperm must reach the egg (fallopain tube damage, 25%, sexual 5% and cervical 5% problems may also prevent fertilisation)
4. Fetilised egg must implant

1583
Q

What are the most common factors contributing to suberfitility

A

Ovulatory 30%

Male 25%

Tubal 25%

Coital 5%

Cervical <5%

Unxeplained 30%

Because more than one cause may be present, the percentage total is >100%

1584
Q

Why does fertility decline with increasing age?

A

Mainly due to reduced genetic quality of remaining oocytes rather than ovulatory problems

1585
Q

What is the dominant follicle

A

The largest follicle with sufficeient gonadotrophin receptors which competes with the other follicles for diminishing stimulating hormones. It is the most likely to survive and continue growth.

Development is coregulated by inhibin B which also suppresses FSH

1586
Q

Ix of ovaulation

A

D21 progesterone (or progesterone 7d before the end of the cycle)

  1. USS can monitor follicular growth: not performed
  2. Over the counter LH predictor kits that analyse urine
  3. Temperature charts
1587
Q

What is PCO?

A

Characteristic TVS appearnace of >12 small follciles in an enlarged ovary.

Found in 20% of women, the majority of whom have regular ovulatory cycles.

Development of other features leads to diagnosis of full syndrome

1588
Q

Clinical dx of PCOS criteria

A

>2 of:

PCO on USS
Irregular periods (\>35d)

Hisutism: clinical (acne or hirsutism) and or biochemical (raised testosterone)

1589
Q

Pathophysiology of PCOS

A

Disordered LH production with peripheral insulin resistance

Combination of raised LH and insulin acitng on PCO leads to increased ovarian androgen production.

1590
Q

What are the additional Ix indicated in PCOS?

A

Bllods: FSH investigated (raised in ovarian failure, low in hypothalamic disease, normal in PCOS), Prolactin (to exclude a prolactinoma) and TSH. Serum testosterone. LH

USS

Other: DM screening and abnormal lipids or FHx of CVD

1591
Q

Clinical feautres of PCOS

A

None

Subfertility

Oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea

Hisutism and or acne

Obesity

Miscarriage

1592
Q

Cxs of PCOS

A

50% develop T2DM

30% develop GDM

Endometrial C more common in women with many years of amenorrhoea due to unopposed oestrogen action

1593
Q

Treatment of PCOS symtpoms other than infertility

A

Advice re diet and exercise which should result in reduction of insulin levels and improvement in all PCOS symptoms

Treatment with COCP will regulate mesntruation and treat hirsutism

At least three to four bleeds per year, whether spontaenous or induced, are necessary to protect hte endomertium

Cyproterone acetate (anti-androgen) or spironolactone are effective treatments for hisutsim but conception must be avoided.

Metformin can be used (also promotes ovulation)

1594
Q

Causes of anovulation

A

Hyptholamus:

Hypothalamic hypogonadism: reduction in GnRH causes amenorrhoea. Occurs with anoerxia nervosa.

Kallman’s syndrome (can be treated with exogenous gonadotrophins- bone protection with OCP or HRT required)

Pituitary:

Hyperprolacinaemia: suppresses GnRH release (CT indicated if neurological symptoms are present) treated with dopamine antagonist restores ovulation. Sx needed if this fails

Pituitary damage: pressure from tumours, Sheehan’s

Ovarian:

Preamture ovarian failure

Gonadal dysgenesis

Luteinised unruptured follicle syndrome

Thyroid:

Hyper or hypo

Androgen secreting tumours

1595
Q

What is Kallman’s snydomre

A

Occurs when GnRH secreting neurones fail to develop

1596
Q

What is a consideration of exogenous GnRH therapy?

A

Osteoporosis

LT managed by OCP or HRT

1597
Q

What is luteinised unruptured follicle syndrome

A

Present whena a follicle develops but the egg is never released

1598
Q

Lifestlye changes to induce ovulation

A

Advice regarding risks

Folic acid

Restoration of normal weight

Treat specific causes

Smoking should cease

1599
Q

Treatment of PCOS

A

Clomifene: first line ovulation induction drug in PCOS. Limited to 6m used. Anti-oestrogen. Only given at start of the cycle from 2-6

Metformin: second line (has a lower live birth rate compared to clomifene) although it doesn’t increase the risk of multiple pregnancy

Increases the effectiveness of clomifene in clomifene resistant women.

Laparoscopic ovarian diathermy: as effective as gonadotrophis and with lower multiple pregnancy rate. Can also check tubal patency during the procedure

Gonadotrophins

1600
Q

Considerations of clomifene therapy

A

Given for 6m and at the start of the cylce from days 2 to 6.

Monitored by TVS to assess ovarian response and endometrial thickenss.

If no respons than the dose can be increased from 50 to 100 and even 150mg/day

If three or more follicles develop then cycle cancellation indicated to reduce the risk of multiple pregnancy.

Leads to endometrial thinning

1601
Q

Use of gonadtrophin induction of ovulation

A

Used when clomifene has failed but also in hypothalamic hypogonadism

Mutliple pregnanices are a consideration so a low-dose step up regiment is followed.

Once a follicle is of sufficient size, ovulation can be stimulated by injection of hCG or recombinant LH.

GnRH pumps can be used to stimulate FSH and LH production form the pituitary in a physiological manner.

1602
Q

What are the side effects of ovulation induction

A

Mutliple pregnancy: more likely with clomifene or gonadotrophins but not metformin

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome: gonadtrophins and rarely clomifene overstimulates the follicles which can get very large and painful (more common during IVF)

Ovarian and breast carcinomas: generally not a risk

1603
Q

Features of Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Risk factors include gonadotrophin stimulation, age <35y, previous OHSS, ovaries of PCO morphology

Prevention includes using lowest effective gonadotrophin doses, USS monitoring, coasting (withdrawing gonadotrophins for a few days) or cancelling IVF cycle.

In severe cases hypovolaemia, electrolyte disturbances, ascites, thromboembolism and pulmonary oedema may develop. OHSS can be fatal

Admission may be required: restoration of intravascular volume, electrolyte monitoring, analgesia and thromboprophylaxis

1604
Q

On what is spermatogenesis dependant?

A

Pituitary LH and FSH

LH acts via testosterone production in the Leydig cells of the testis

FSH controls sertoli cells which are involved in synthesis and transport of sperm

Takes 7d for sperm to develop fully

1605
Q

Features of male semen analysis

A

Sample produced by mastrubation with last ejaculation having occurred 2-7d previously.

Must be analysed within 1-2h of produciton

Abnormal analysis must e repeated after 12w.

If persistently abnormal, examination and investigations of the male must follow.

1606
Q

Features of normal semen

Vollume

Sperm Count

Progressive motility

A

>1.5ml

>15m

>32%

1607
Q

Azoospermia

A

No sperm present

1608
Q

Oligospermia

A

<15m/ml

1609
Q

Severe oligospermia

A

<5m/ml

1610
Q

Asthenospermia

A

Absent or low motility

1611
Q

Causes of abnormal semen analysis

A

Unknown

Smoking/ETOH/drugs/chemicals/inadequate local cooling

Genetic

Antisperm Abs

1612
Q

Ix and treatment of male factor

A

Semen: if abnormal repeat and examine scrotum and optimise lifestyle factors

If oligospermic then: intrauterine insemination

If moderate to severe oligospermia: IVF with intracytoplasmic sperm inection

If azoospermic: examine for presence of vas deferens, check karyotype, CF, hormone profile, surgical sperm retreival

1613
Q

Common causes of abnormal/absent sperm release

A

Idiopathic

Drug exposure: sulfasalzine, anabolic steroids

Varicocoele

Antisperm Abs

Other causes: infection, mumps orchitis, testicular abnormalities, obstruction to delivery (e.g. congenital absence of the vas deferens), hypothalamic problems, Kallman’s, hyperprolactinaemia, rterograde ejaculation (due to neurological disease secondary to DM or TURP)

1614
Q

Kallman’s

A

hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

1615
Q

With what is vas deferens agenesis associated?

A

CF

1616
Q

What do high levels of FSH and LH with low testosterone in males suggest?

A

Primary testicular failure e.g. due to:

cryptorchidism, surgery, RTx or CTx.

1617
Q

Causes of tubal damage

A

Infection: PID: main cause. If there are peritubal adhesions or clubbed and closed fimbrial ends, laparsocopic adhesiolysis and salpingostomy can be performed. Ectopic rates increased

Endometriosis

Previous surgery/sterilisation

1618
Q

Causes of cervical problems in failure to fertilise

A

Antibody production

Infection in hte vagina or verxi that prevents adequate mucus

Cone biopsy

IUI to bypass cervix often used

1619
Q

Tests for detection of tubal damage

A

Lap and dye

Hysterosalpingogram

1620
Q

HSG

A

Hysterosalpingogram

Radio-opaque contrast injected through the cervix. Spillage from the fimbrial end can be seen on XR. Can also be done transvaginally.

1621
Q

How is ovarian reserve measured and what is its significance in IVF

A

AMH

Must be present for IVF to be performed i.e. premature ovarian failure cannot use IVF

1622
Q

What are the stages of IVF

A

Multiple follicular development

Ovulation and egg collection

Fertilisation and culture

Embryo transfer

1623
Q

What are the cxs of assisted conception

A

Superovulation

Egg collection: intraperitoneal haemorrhage and pelvic infection may complicated the USS-guided aspiration of mature follicles necessary for IVF

Pregnancy: increased multiples, rates of ectopics, increased perinatal mortality and morbidity.

1624
Q

What is the Pearl Index?

A

The risk of pregnancy per 100 women years of using the given contraceptive

1625
Q

What are the considerations for contraceptives in women with IBD?

A

Malabsorption can reduce th efficacy of oral contraception

Alternative methods should be used such as combined patches, progesterone only injectables and implants

Depo-provera should not be a first line option as it increases the risk of osteoporosis

1626
Q

Cut off for natural contraception when breat feeding

Contraceptive option afterwards?

A

21d

Combined pill reduces breast milk volume and should be avoided 6w postpartum and is relatively contraindicated 6-6m post partum.

Progestogen only methods have no effect and can be used in the 6 weeks postpartum

1627
Q

Advice to perimenopausal women re contraception

A

<50y/o: continue contraception for at least 2y after the LMP

>50y/o at least 1y,

1628
Q

What are the different types of hormaonal contraception?

A

Progestogen as a tablet: progestogen only pill (mini pill)

Progestogen as a depot: Nexplanon, Depo-Provera or in the levonorgesrel containing IUS

3: Combined hormonal contraception:

COC

Transdermal patch

Vaginal ring

1629
Q

How does the COCP work

A

Exerting negative feedback on gonadotrophin release inhibiting ovulation.

Also thin the endometrium and thicken cervical mucus

1630
Q

What are the dosing regimens for COCP and what does it contain?

A

3w on, 1w off

Most contain synthetic oestrogens: ethinyldoestradiol

Bleeding occurs at the end of the pill packet due to withdrawal of hormonal inhibition.

Pill packets can be taken back to back to reduce the frequency of the withdrawal bleed

1631
Q

What is oestradiol valarate

A

Natural oestrogen found in some new types of COC

1632
Q

Feautres of ethinyloestradiol containing COC

A

Monophasic containing same dose of both hormones every day.

Standard dose pill: 30-40

Low dose: 20

Usual choice is 30-35 ug

Bleeding determined by type of progestogen rather than oestrogen dose or the phasic regmin

1633
Q

Features of COCP containing oestradiol valerate

A

Natural oestrogen combined with a synthetic progestogen: dienogest

Four phases of oestrogen and progestogen dose over 26 days followed by 2 fill days.

1634
Q

What are the common progestogenic side effects?

A

Depression

PMS-tension like symptoms

Bleeding, amenorrhoea

Acne

Breast discomfort

Weight gain

Reduced libido

1635
Q

What are the common oestrogenic side effects

A

Nausea

Headaches

Increased mucus

Fluid retention and weight gain

HTN

Breast tenderness and fullness

Bleeding

1636
Q

What are the other noncontraceptive uses of the COCP

A

Menstrual cycle control

Menorrhagia

PMS symptoms

Dysmenorrhoea

Acne/hirsutism

Prevention of recurrent simple ovarian cysts

1637
Q

COC in reduced absorption

A

If woman suffering from D+V or taking some oral antibiotics.

Should follow missed pill instructions for day of the illness

If she vomits within 2h of taking the pill she should take another one or follow the rules for missed pill

If she is taking broad spectrum antibiotics she should use condoms for the course and for 7d post course

If she takes liver inducing drugs, increased dose may be required

1638
Q

What are the instructions for missed standard strength preparations

Low strength?

A

One or two missed pills nayhere in the pack not a problem

Only one pill can be missed

Forgotten pill should be taken ASAP and pack cntinued as normal but should use condoms for 7d.

If there are less than seven pills remaining in the packet, avoid a pill-free break by running straight into the next packet.

1639
Q

Pill and surgery

A

Normally stopped 4 weeks before.

Not discontinued before minor surgery

1640
Q

Counselling women starting pill

A

Advise of major cxs and benefits

Stop smoking

Advise to seek medical attention if symptoms suggestive of major cxs

Advise re absorption issue

Stress the importance of F/U and BP monitoring

1641
Q

What are the major risks of the COCP?

A

VTE and MI (multiplied by smoking, obestity), more common with 3rd generation pills.

Cerebrovascular accident

Focal migraine

HTN

Jaundice

Liver, cervical and breast carcinoma

1642
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to COCP?

A

Hx of VTE

Hx of cerebrovascular accidant, IHD, HTN

Migraine with aura

Active breast/endometrial cancer

Inherited thrombopilia

Pregnancy

Smokers >35, smoking >15/d

BMI >40

DM with vascular Cxs

Acute/chronic liver disease

1643
Q

What are the relative contraindications to the COCP?

A

Smokers

Chronic inflammatory disease

Renal impairment, DM

Age >40

BMI 35-40

Breastfeeding up to 6m postpartum

1644
Q

What should be done if breakthrough bleeding doesn’t stop after 3m

A

Consider changing the pill to one containing a more potent progestogen or using an increased strength for ethinyloestradiol.

1645
Q

What are the advantages of the COCP

A

Contraceptive

Non-contraceptive benefits:

Regular, less painful and lighter mesntruation

Protection against simple ovarian cysts, benign breast cysts, fibroids and endometriosis.

May improve features of PCOS.

Reduced risk of PID

Reduction in incidence of ovarian, endometrial and bowel carcinoma

1646
Q

What are the features of the combined transdermal patch

A

Adhesive patch that releases ethinyloestradiol and the progestogen norelgestromin.

A new patch is applied weekly for 3 consecutive weeks then replaced.

This is followed by a patch free week

1647
Q

What is Evra

A

Combined transdermal patch

1648
Q

What is Nuvargin

A

Combined vaginal ring

1649
Q

Features of Nuvaring

A

Latex free, releases a daily dose of ethinyloestradiol and progestogen.

Inserted and worn for 3w

Removed to allow for a 7d ringe free break and a withdrawal bleed.

New ring is then inserted.

Reduced synthetic oestrogen side effects.

Shouldn’t be remved during intercourse

1650
Q

What are the features of the mini-pill

A

Contains a low dose (350mg norethisterone) and must be taken every day without a break and at the same time +/-3h

MOA: makes cervical mucus hostile to sperm and inhibits ovulation in 50%

Progestogenic side effects: vaginal spotting, PMS-like symptoms

Functional ovarian cysts can occur.

Can be used in those in whom COCP is contraindicated.

1651
Q

Missed POP

A

Not taken within 3h

Another should be taken ASAP and condoms used for 2d

1652
Q

What is Cerazette

A

A different POP, contains a higher dose and inhibits ovulation in 90% of cycles.

More effective and can be taken within a 12h window

1653
Q

What is the benefit of depot progesteogen administration

A

Bypass portal circulation

Similar MOA to minipill

Ovulation normally also prevented.

Also protect against functional ovarian cysts and ectopic pregnancy.

1654
Q

What are the features of Depo-Provera

A

Contains medroxyprogesterone acetate

Administered by IM very 3m.

Often causes irregular bleeding in the first weeks but this is usually followed by amenorrhoea.

Bone density decreases over first 2-3y then stabilises and is regiained after stopping.

Other methods are preferred in teenagers to allow them to reach peak bone mass.

Useful during lactation

1655
Q

What is Noristerat

A

Alternative depot injection with similar efficacy to Depo-Provera.

Lasts 8w

Recommended as a ST interim contraceptive.

1656
Q

What are the features of Nexplanon

A

Single 40mm rod containing progestogen inserted into the upper arm using LA.

Lasts 3y

Side effects include progestogenic symptoms, irregular bleeding especially in the first year.

1657
Q

What is Levonelle

What are its features

A

Contains a single 1.5mg dose of levonorgestrel

Morning after pill. Taken within 24h and no later than 72

Affects sperm function and endometrial reciptivity.

95% success if used within 24h

58% if delayed until 72h

Vomiting may occur plus menstrual distrubances

1658
Q

What is ellaOne

What are its features

A

Selective progesterone receptor modulator (like mifepristone)

Prevents or delays ovulation

Can be used up to 120h after unprotected intervourse.

It will reduce the effectiveness of progesterone containing contraceptives and so women should use condoms or avoid unprotected intercourse until the next period.

1659
Q

IUD as an emergency contraceptive

A

Usually prevents implantation and is the most efficacious method

Can be inserted up to 5d after either the episode of intercourse or the expected day of ovulation.

Antibiotic prophylaxis usually given at the time of insertion

1660
Q

What is the failure rate of the male condom?

A

2-15 per 100 woman years

1661
Q

Features of copper containing IUDs

A

Operate primarily by preventing fertilisaiton with the Cu ions being toxic to sperm

Also block implantation

Copper either wound around an inert frame which sits within the uterine cavity or threads which are attached to the fundus

1662
Q

What is the Mirena coil and its features

A

IUD that contain the progestogen levonorgestrel

Released locally over 5y

Known as the IUS.

Contraceptive effects are local through changes to the cervical mucus and uterotubal fluid which impair sperm migration coupled with endometrial changes, impeding implantation.

Also reduces menstrual loss and pain.

Systemic side effects are low.

Irregular ligt bleeding is the main problem

1663
Q

What are the Cx of IUS?

A

Pain or cervical shock: due to inreased vaginal tone can complicate insertion, devices can be expelled within first month.

Perforation of the uterie wall can occur at insertion or afterwards. Expulsion or preforation will cause the threads to disappear but they may also have been cut too short. If the threads are not visible- USS, if it is not present then an XR will reveal whether it is in the abdomen.

Heavier or more painful menstruation can occur (with non-progestogen devices)

Increased risk of PID if women have symptomatic STIs when the coil is inserted.

Increased risk of infection

Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy if pregnancy does occur, although the risk of ectopic pregnancy is lower than in a woman using no contraception.

If not ectopic, IUD should be removed to reduce the risk of miscarraige

1664
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to the IUD

A

Endometrial or cervical cancer

Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

Active/recent pelvic infection

Current breast cancer (for progesteogen IUS)

Pregnancy

1665
Q

What are the relative contraindications to the IUD?

A

Previous ectopic

Exessive menstrual loss (unless IUS0

Multiple sexual partners

Young/nullip

Immunocompromised

1666
Q

What is the counselling that should be given before inserting IUD

A

Advise of major risks

Seek medical help if:

IMB

Experiences pelvic pain or a vaginal discharge

If she feels she might be pregnant

Advise to check for strings after each period

1667
Q

What is the most common technique for female sterilisation?

A

Filshie clips that are applied to the fallopian tubes laparoscopically, occluding the lumen.

1668
Q

What is an alternative to tube clipping for female sterilisation

A

Transcervical sterilisation:

Hysteroscopic placement of microinserts into the proximal part of each tubal lumen

Inserts expand, causing fibrosis and occlusion of the lumen, which is confirmed 3m later with a hysterosalpingogram

1669
Q

Reversal of female sterilisation

A

Not possible with hysteroscopic

Not guaranteed with Filshie clips

Not available on the NHS

1670
Q

Difference beween endometriosis and adenoymosis?

A

Endometriosis: presence and grwoth of tissue similar to endometrium outside of the uterus.

Adenoymosis: growth of endometrial tissue in myomterium

1671
Q

A 47-year-old woman,comes to the clinic to discuss contraception. She stopped having her periods 12 months ago. She is normotensive with a blood pressure recording of 122/78 mmHg in clinic. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day. She has a past history of breast cancer, successfully treated 4 years ago. You advise:

Cerazette (Progesterone-only-pill)

No longer requires contraception

Copper Intrauterine Device (Cu-IUD)

Rigevidon (Combined oral contraceptive pill)

Depot injection

A

This woman has entered the postmenopausal period as she has not had a period for 12 months. Even though she is postmenopausal she still requires contraception because she is under the age of 50. Guidelines advise: ‘Women using non-hormonal methods of contraception can be advised to stop contraception after 1 year of amenorrhoea if aged over 50 years, 2 years if the woman is aged under 50 years.’ (FSRH)

A copper coil is the best option for this woman because of her past history of breast cancer. All other methods, as they are hormonal, are a UKMEC Category 3, and this may be considered an unacceptable risk.

1672
Q

COCP in women >40

A

COCP use in the perimenopausal period may help to maintain bone mineral density

COCP use may help reduce menopausal symptoms

a pill containing 40 years

1673
Q
A
1675
Q

What are the 3 categories to describe a CTG

A

Normal

Non-reassuring

Abnormal

1676
Q

A 30-year-old female presents to her GP seeking contraception. She has three children and states she has completed her family. She is open to long-acting reversible contraception. After receiving advice about all options available, she opts for the copper IUD. Besides pregnancy, which of the following is it important to exclude?

Migraines with aura

Pelvic inflammatory disease

History of ectopic pregnancy

History of venous thromboembolism

Smoking history

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease is an absolute contraindication to the insertion of a copper IUD. Women at risk, such as those with multiple sexual partners or symptoms suggestive of pelvic inflammatory disease, should be tested and, if necessary, treated for any infections which could cause pelvic inflammatory disease such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae . Testing for these infections is done using endocervical swabs.

Insertion of a copper IUD is in itself a risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease, however this risk is low in women who are at low risk of sexually transmitted infections.

1677
Q

Potential issues with IUDs

A

Make periods heavier, longer and more painful

IUS associated with inital frequent uterine bleeding and spotting

Uterine perforation

Increased risk of ectopic pregnancies (in women using contraception, NB lower than in woman not using contraception)

Increased risk of PID for 20d after insertion

Risk of insertion in 1/20

1678
Q

A 21-year-old female presents to her GP asking for medication to prevent menstruation when she goes away on holiday in 2 weeks’ time. She is a non-smoker and has no significant past medical history. What would be the drug of choice for short-term cessation of menstruation in this case?

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate

Combined oral contraceptive

Cerazette

Oral norethisterone

GnRH analogue

A

This patient does not have any menstrual problems and wants short-term cessation of her menses. Norethisterone 5 mg three times a day is licensed for the postponement of periods, and is often prescribed to women who wish not to have a period when going on holiday. It must be started three days prior to the expected onset on menstruation. Menstruation resumes as normal two to three days after stopping the tablets.

Note that this is a high dose and should not be used for longer than it is needed i.e. in the short-term. You may wish to read the following article regarding the risk of venous thromboembolism with norethisterone

Norethisterone 5 mg TDS can also be used to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.

1679
Q

A 32-year-old gravid 2, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation attends an antenatal clinic and wishes to discuss delivery options for her pregnancy. On history, you find that her previous pregnancies were delivered by vaginal and elective caesarean section respectively. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for vaginal delivery following previous cesarean section?

Chorioamnionitis

Classical caesarean scar

Post-term dates

Pre-eclampsia

Two previous caesarean sections

A

Planned vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC) is contraindicated in patients with previous classical caesarean scars, previous episodes of uterine rupture and patients with other contraindications to vaginal birth (e.g. placenta praevia). Women with two or more previous caesarean sections may be offered VBAC. The other options in this question are not absolute contraindications.

1680
Q

Indications for C section

A

absolute CPD

placenta praevia grades 3/4

pre-eclampsia

post-maturity

IUGR

fetal distress in labour/prolapsed cord

failure of labour to progress

malpresentations: brow

placental abruption: only if fetal distress; if dead deliver vaginally

vaginal infection e.g. active herpes

cervical cancer (disseminates cancer cells)

1681
Q

Cxs of C section

A

DVT/PE

PPH

Infeciton: wound, endometritis, UTI

Retained placental tissue, ileus, ureteric trauma, transient abdominal distension

1682
Q

Diagnosis of Sheehan’s

A

by inadequate prolactin and gonadotropin stimulation tests in patients with a history of severe PPH.

1683
Q

A 36-year-old nulliparous presents at 37 weeks gestation with the report of a reduction in foetal movements for the past 3 hours associated with abdominal cramping and a small amount of peri vaginal bleeding. Her pregnancy has been otherwise uneventful. It is decided that a cardiotocography (CTG) is needed to further investigate her presentation. Which of the following features of a CTG is a worrying sign and would prompt further investigation?

Stable baseline heart rate of 91 bpm with normal variability

Single early deceleration

Baseline variability of 6 beats / min

Multiple early decelerations

Single prolonged deceleration for 3 minutes duration

A

According to NICE guidelines, bradycardia or a single prolonged deceleration that persists for >3 minutes or more is an abnormal CTG results and indicates the need for urgent investigation.

1684
Q

A 34-year-old gravid 3, para 2 presents in spontaneous labour and has an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. 30 minutes after delivery, the patient reports heavy vaginal bleeding which you estimate to be around 700mL. Which of the following is true regarding postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?

Active management of third stage of labour increases risk of PPH

Prophylactic oxytocics in the third stage of labour do not reduce risk of PPH

Most cases of PPH have no identifiable risk factors

Oxytocin is not as effective as misoprostol in the management of PPH

Age is the strongest risk factor for PPH

A

The correct answer is 3.) most cases of PPH have no identifiable risk factors.

In terms of the other options, active management of the third stage of labour has been shown to lower maternal bleeding and reduce the risk of PPH. Similarly, prophylactic oxytocics are routinely used in third stage management as they have been shown to effectively reduce risk of PPH. Oxytocin is 1st line in the management of PPH and has been shown to be more effective than misoprostol. While age is a risk factor for PPH, it is not the strongest risk factor.

1685
Q

A 30-year-old female presents to her GP for advice about contraception. She is provided with information and advice regarding all methods of contraception available and decides to opt for a copper IUD. A pregnancy test done at the surgery is negative. She has a regular 28-day cycle. At what point in her menstrual cycle can the IUD be inserted?

Days 1-7

Days 8-14

Days 15-21

Days 22-28

Anytime during cycle

A

The copper IUD can be fitted at any point during the menstrual cycle. It can also be fitted immediately after first or second-trimester abortion, and from 4 weeks postpartum.

Note the importance of advising the patient to refrain from intercourse or use adequate contraception to prevent pregnancy until the IUD is fitted.

1686
Q

A 32-year-old female with long standing hypothyroidism is confirmed as pregnant at 8 weeks gestation. She is taking 75 micrograms of levothyroxine and this dose has remain unchanged over the past 18 months. Blood tests show the following:

fT411.7 pmol/L

TSH2.77 mU/L

What is the most appropriate action in relation to this woman’s levothyroxine dose?

Increase to 100 micrograms daily

Maintain at 75 micrograms per day

Reduce to 50 micrograms per day

Change to liothyronine

Reduce to 25 micrograms per day

A

Although the thyroid function tests are normal, thyroxine demands increase during pregnancy, and most woman require their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine. Therefore, it would be sensible to increase the dose to 100 micrograms in this case.

1687
Q

women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by

A

at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value

1688
Q

Interactions of levothyroxine

A

iron: absorption of levothyroxine reduced, give at least 2 hours apart

1689
Q

How long does the combined contraceptive patch last?

A

4w

For the first 3w the patch is worn every day and needs to be changed each week

During the 4th week if the patch is not worn there will be a withdrawal bleed

1690
Q

For delays in changing the patch, different rules apply depending what week of the patch cycle the woman is in.

If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2:

A

If the delay in changing the patch is less than 48 hours, it should be changed immediately and no further precautions are needed.

If the delay is greater than 48 hours, the patch should be changed immediately and a barrier method of contraception used for the next 7 days. If the woman has had sexual intercourse during this extended patch-free interval or if unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred in the last 5 days, then emergency contraception needs to be considered.

1691
Q

For delays in changing the patch, different rules apply depending what week of the patch cycle the woman is in.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3:

A

The patch should be removed as soon as possible and the new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.

1692
Q

A 20-year-old pregnant lady is found to be anaemic 10 weeks gestation. A full blood count is ordered:

Hb85 g/L

MCV95 fL

The lab also reports a high reticulocyte count. A blood film shows target cells and Howell-Jolly bodies. What is the most likely cause of the anaemia?

Folate defficiency

Anaemia of chronic disease

Iron defficiency

Thalassaemia

Sickle cell disease

A

The full blood count confirms a normocytic anaemia. Folate and B12 deficiency cause megaloblastic anaemia which is characterised by macrocytosis. Iron deficiency and thalassaemia typically cause microcytosis. Therefore, based on the MCV it can be inferred that sickle cell disease is the most likely answer.

In addition, the Howell-Jolly bodies suggest hyposplenism which can occur in Sickle cell disease due to splenic infarctions.

The high reticulocyte count suggests increased destruction (e.g. haemolysis) or increased loss (e.g. bleeding) of red cells. Sickle cell disease results in a chronic haemolytic anaemia due to premature destruction of abnormally shaped red cells. This would result in a high reticulocyte count.

1693
Q

Abnormal category for CTG

A

Within the abnormal category lie the following:
Heart rate - >180 BPM or <100 BPM

Variability - Less than 5 for over 90 minutes

Decelerations - Non-reassuring variable decelerations for over 30 minutes since starting conservative measures to improve occuring with over 50% of contractions OR late decelerations present for over 30 minutes not improving with conservative measures occurring with over 50% of contractions OR bradycardia or a single prolonged deceleration lasting 3 minutes or more.

1694
Q

A 15 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, having never started her periods. Which element of her history would lead you to reassure her that there is no need to investigate yet?

She has not developed breasts or axillary/pubic hair

Family history of late menarche

History of acne and scanty, dark facial hair

She is sexually active

Cyclical abdominal pain

A

Primary amenorrhoea can be diagnosed in women above the age of 14 with no secondary sexual characteristics, or above the age of 16 with secondary sexual characteristics. Primary amenorrhoea is commonly constitutional and has a familial distribution; in these cases there is no anatomical or physiological abnormality and patients will generally start menstruating by the age of 18.

Lack of breast or body hair development suggests this is true primary amenorrhoea and so warrants investigation. Acne and facial hair may suggest virilisation, e.g. in polycystic ovarian syndrome. In a woman who is sexually active, pregnancy may be a cause of amenorrhoea and should always be excluded. Cyclical abdominal pain associated with amenorrhoea may suggest an anatomical abnormality such as an imperforate hymen.

1695
Q

Requirements for instrumental delivery

FORCEPS

A

Fully dilated cervix generally the second stage of labour must have been reached

OA position preferably OP delivery is possible with Keillands forceps and ventouse. The position of the head must be known as incorrect placement of forceps or ventouse could lead to maternal or fetal trauma and failure

Ruptured Membranes

Cephalic presentation

Engaged presenting part i.e. head at or below ischial spines the head must not be palpable abdominally

Pain relief

Sphincter (bladder) empty this will usually require catheterization

1696
Q

A women of child bearing age comes into your GP surgery. She wishes to try to conceive for a baby in one years time and does not wish to conceive sooner due to barrister exams she has this year. She ideally wants to fall pregnant soon after her exams. Which of the follow methods of contraception is most associated with delayed return to fertility?

Intrauterine system

Condoms

Combined oral contraceptive pill

Depo-Provera

Progesterone only pill

A

Condoms work as a barrier contraceptive and do not affect ovulation and hence do not delay fertility.

The intrauterine system (IUS) works by thickening cervical mucous and in some women may prevent ovulation, however the majority of women still ovulate. After removal of the IUS the majority of women regain fertility immediately.

The combined oral contraceptive pill can delay return to normal menstrual cycle in some women but the majority will be able to conceive within a month of stopping. The progesterone only pill is less likely to delay return to normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.

Because Depo-Provera lasts up to 12 weeks, it can take several months for the body to return to the normal menstrual cycle and hence delay fertility. For this reason, it is the least appropriate method for this woman who wants to return to ovulatory cycles immediately.

1697
Q

Adverse effects of injectables contraceptives

A

Irregular bleeding

Weight gain

May potentially increase risk of osteoporosis: only used in adolescents if no alternative

Not quickly reversible and there is a variable return to fertility

1698
Q

A pregnant woman asks for advice about alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Which one of the following is in line with current NICE guidelines?

1 to 2 units once or twice per week throughout pregnancy

Avoid first and second trimester. If then chooses to drink 1 to 4 units no more than twice per week

1 to 2 units once per week throughout pregnancy

Avoid first trimester. If then chooses to drink 1 to 2 units once or twice per week

Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy

A

the government now recommend pregnant women should not drink. The wording of the official advice is ‘If you are pregnant or planning a pregnancy, the safest approach is not to drink alcohol at all, to keep risks to your baby to a minimum. Drinking in pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby, with the more you drink the greater the risk.’

1699
Q

A hepatitis B serology positive woman gives birth to a healthy baby girl. She is surface antigen positive. What treatment should be given to the baby?

Hep B vaccine

Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth

0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth only

Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months

No treatment required

A

This question tests your knowledge of the Hepatitis B vaccine schedule in baby’s born at risk of developing hepatitis B. For babies who are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive, or are known to be high risk of hepatitis B, should receive the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine soon after birth and those born to mother’s who are surface antigen positive should also receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The baby should then further receive a second dose of hepatitis B vaccine at 1-2 months and at 6 months.

1700
Q

A 28-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

On examination her abdomen is non tender with the uterus an appropriate size for her gestation. There is no visible rash, although she is mildly jaundiced. Her heart rate is 74/min, blood pressure 129/62mmHg, respiratory rate 20/min, oxygen saturations are 98% in air, temperature 36.8°C.

A set of blood results reveal:

Hb110 g/lNa+139 mmol/lBilirubin54 µmol/l

Platelets243 109/lK+4.1 mmol/lALP353 u/l

WBC8.2 109/lUrea4.6 mmol/lALT84 u/l

Neuts5.7 109/lCreatinine74 µmol/lγGT207 u/l

Lymphs1.8 * 109/lAlbumin34 g/l

What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

HELLP syndrome

Pre-eclampsia

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

Biliary colic

A

The answer here is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy.

This is a common cause of itch in the third trimester of pregnancy. It will give a cholestatic picture of liver function tests (LFTs) with a high ALP and GGT, with a lesser rise in ALT. Patients may also be jaundiced with right upper quadrant pain and steatorrhoea. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a common treatment.

The cholestatic LFTs could indicate biliary colic, however the absence of abdominal pain here makes it very unlikely.

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy also occurs in the third term of pregnancy but a hepatic picture would be expected on LFTs, with a rise in ALT/AST greater than that of ALP, a raised white cell count and potential clotting abnormalities. This condition is rare and patients are likely to be unwell with nausea, vomiting, jaundice and possible encephalopathy.

In HELLP syndrome you would see a haemolytic anaemia, the mild anaemia seen here does not correlate with this and also low platelets not seen here.

This lady is not hypertensive and does not have any other features of pre-eclampsia so this is unlikely. In late pre-eclampsia a hepatic derangement of LFTs might be seen.

1701
Q

28-year-old woman presents the Emergency Department at 35-weeks gestation with lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is alert and responsive. Physical examination revealed a heart rate of 115 bpm, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and O2 saturation of 99%. On neurological exam, her pupils were dilated and her reflexes were brisk.

Hb115 g/l

Platelets250 * 109/l

WBC5 * 109/l

PT12 seconds

APTT30 seconds

Which of the following underlying conditions would most likely explain the findings on physical exam?

HELLP syndrome

Heroin abuse

Cocaine abuse

Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

Pre-eclampsia

A

pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are known causes of placental abruption, which typically presents with hyperreflexia. HELLP syndrome can be ruled out since the full blood count shows no indication of anaemia or low platelets as would be expected in this condition. Dilated pupils + hyperreflexia seen on physical examination point towards cocaine abuse. Heroin abuse would often present with pinpointed pupils and has not been associated with an increased risk of placental abruption. Although pre-eclampsia in pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of placental abruption, the findings on physical exam are more consistent with that of cocaine abuse. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is a complication placental abruption, not an underlying cause. Additionally, the normal partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and activated partial thromboplastintime (APTT) decrease the likelihood of underlying DIC.

1702
Q

Risks of smoking in pregnancy

A

Increased risk of miscarriage
Increased risk of pre-term labour
Increased risk of stillbirth
IUGR
Increased risk of sudden unexpected death in infancy

1703
Q

Risks of ETOH in pregnancy

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
learning difficulties
characteristic facies: smooth philtrum, thin vermilion, small palpebral fissures
IUGR & postnatal restricted growth
microcephaly

Binge drinking is a major risk factor for FAS

1704
Q

Risks of cocaine in pregnancy?

A

Maternal risks

hypertension in pregnancy including pre-eclampsia

placental abruption

Fetal risk

prematurity

neonatal abstinence syndrome

1705
Q

Risks of heroin in pregnancy

A

Risk of neonatal abstinence syndrome

1706
Q

You are reviewing your patients on the post-natal ward and are discussing a patient who suffered from gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Post-delivery her blood glucose levels have now returned to normal. The consultant asks you what sort of follow up patients like this have with regards to the gestational diabetes?

Fasting BGL before being discharged

No follow up

Fasting blood glucose level (BGL) 6-13 weeks post-partum

6 monthly Hb1Ac levels

75g 2 hour Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

A

One of the first things that needs to be insured is that women who have been diagnosed with gestational diabetes should discontinue the blood-glucose lowering therapy immediately after the birth.

Before discharge the BGL must be tested to ensure there is no persisting hyperglycaemia

Remind women who suffered gestational diabetes during pregnancy of the symptoms of hyperglycaemia

Explain the risk of gestational diabetes in future pregnancies

Offer lifestyle advice to those whose BGL have returned to normal after delivery

Offer a fasting plasma glucose test 6-13 weeks after the birth - this usually takes place at the 6 week post-natal check at the GP

1707
Q

A 24-year-old woman comes to the sexual health clinic. She states she has had 3 episodes of unprotected sex within the last 4 days. She states she uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) but does not take this regularly and has missed several pills in her current packet. She states that she last had a period 10 days ago. What should she be offered for emergency contraception?

Levonorgestrel

Cu-IUD

Nothing as she is covered by her COCP

Mirena coil

Ulipristal acetate

A

This woman requires emergency contraception because she had several episodes of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and has missed pills in her current packet of COCP. It is not clear if she has real contraceptive cover due to her poor compliance with taking the COCP.

The copper-bearing intrauterine device (Cu-IUD) is the best method for this woman as she has presented 4 days after UPSI. It is difficult to assess her expected ovulation date as her periods could be withdrawal bleeds from her intermittent COCP use. The Cu-IUD has a low documented failure rate so women should initially be offered this as a means of emergency contraception. It also serves the dual purpose of long-term reversible contraception which may benefit this woman as she has difficulty taking the COCP.

As this woman has poor compliance she should first be offered a pregnancy test before insertion of Cu-IUD.

As this woman has presented within 120 hours of UPSI she can be offered ulipristal acetate (ellaOne) but this would be a second choice to a Cu-IUD. Levonorgestrel (Levonelle One) is not indicated for use after 72 hours of UPSI. Mirena coil is not used for emergency contraception.

1708
Q

A woman comes to the GP surgery as she has a long term medical condition but wishes to try to conceive. Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication for high dose folic acid?

Obesity

Coeliac disease

Epilepsy treated with sodium valproate

Depression treated with an SSRI

Type 1 diabetes

A

SSRIs are taken safely by many women during pregnancy. The associated effect on the foetus is centred around the instant withdrawal that occurs at birth, and the baby may be initially jittery and hypotonic, rather than with any neural tube malformations.

1709
Q

Prevention of neural tube defects (NTD) during pregnancy:

A

all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy

women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a NTD should take 5mg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy

women are considered higher risk if any of the following apply:

→ either partner has a NTD, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a NTD, or they have a family history of a NTD

→ the woman is taking antiepileptic drugs or has coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait.

→ the woman is obese (defined as a body mass index [BMI] of 30 kg/m2 or more).

1710
Q

A 22 year old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant attended the early pregnancy assessment unit with vaginal bleeding. The ultrasound scan confirmed a viable intrauterine pregnancy and she was discharged. A few days later, her endocervical swab results are noted to have isolated Chlamydia trachomatis. She is allergic to azithromycin. What is the most suitable management?

Topical clindamycin

Oral flucloxacillin

Oral doxycycline

Oral levofloxacin

Oral erythromycin

A

Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is associated with premature delivery, amnionitis and puerperal infection. If cervical chlamydia infection is present at delivery, there is a high likelihood of neonatal chlamydia.

Neonatal chlamydia can include complications such as conjunctivitis and pneumonia.

Patients should be referred to a sexual health clinic for a full sexual health screen and for contact tracing.

Suitable treatments in pregnancy include erythromycin, amoxicillin or azithromycin. Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of teeth and bone abnormalities in the fetus.

Repeat testing sometime after completion of treatment is recommended in pregnancy to ensure therapeutic cure.

1711
Q

A 27 year-old lady is day 1 post emergency caesarean section for failure to progress in the first stage. She has been complaining of pain and heavy vaginal bleeding since delivery and in the morning was noted to have heavy, offensive lochia and a boggy poorly contracted uterus above the umbilicus.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

Urgent ultrasound scan

Speculum examination

Examination under anaesthesia

IV antibiotics and review after first dose

Urgent MRI scan

A

This is a typical history of retained products, which can happen after caesarean section if care is not taken to make sure that all the placental membranes are removed. The uterus does not contract down well as the products are still in the cavity, and the discharge is offensive suggesting that the products have become infected.

This lady needs and urgent examination under anaesthesia to remove the products. The products often pass by themselves without the need for anaesthesia, however after day 1 this is unlikely so intervention is needed. Sometimes a scan would be done before but with a history this clear, it is not necessary. It is also hard to pick up products on scan sometimes as they can be very small.

A speculum examination would be helpful to show is the os was still open, however the os remains open in heavy bleeding so this information would not give us a diagnosis.

IV antibiotics are probably needed in this case, however the infection will not resolve until the products are removed and therefore surgery is also needed.

An MRI is not helpful in this situation as it is not useful for detecting intrauterine pathology, and would probably take a long time to organise which is unhelpful in this acute situation.

1712
Q

A 22-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 10 weeks’ gestation is involved in a high speed vehicle collision and her abdomen hits the steering wheel. Maternal vital signs are stable. No uterine contractions are present, and there is no vaginal bleeding. U/S shows an intact placenta. Which is the most appropriate next step?

Caesarean delivery

Betamethasone

Blood type and Rhesus testing

Induce labour

Discharge home on bed rest

A

Important points:

A pregnant woman with abdominal trauma should have Rhesus testing asap because women who are Rhesus-negative should be given anti-D to prevent Rhesus isoimmunization.

1713
Q

A 17-year-old girl who is nine weeks pregnant has a surgical termination of pregnancy. She feels well a few hours after the procedure. Which of the following risks is most common following a TOP?

Infection

Haemorrhage

Uterine perforation

Cervical trauma

Failure

A

Infection can happen in up to 10% of TOP cases. Antibiotics are given to reduce the risk of infection. Signs and symptoms of an infection are unlikely to occur so soon after the procedure.

Retained tissue pregnancy occurs in less than 1% of cases.

Haemorrhage occurs in less than 1% of cases, but is more likely to occur in pregnancies greater than 20 weeks gestation.

Failure occurs in less than 1% of cases.

Injury to the cervix occurs in less than 1% of cases.

1714
Q

A 16-year-old girl comes to your GP surgery worried that she has not yet started her periods. She is quite short, has a webbed neck, low set ears and widely space nipples. A heart murmur is heard on auscultation. What type of murmur are you most likely to hear?

Systolic, loudest over the pulmonary valve

Diastolic, loudest over the pulmonary valve

Systolic, loudest over the aortic valve

Systolic, loudest over mitral valve

Diastolic, loudest over mitral valve

A

From the clinical picture, you should have a differential diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome. Patients with Turner’s syndrome are prone to have bicuspid aortic valve, aortic valve stenosis and/or aortic coarctation. For this reason, you would be expecting to hear a systolic murmur which is loudest over the aortic region.

1715
Q

A 24 year old woman presents to your surgery with vaginal discharge. She says it smells quite strongly, but isn’t itchy. She has no dysuria or dyspareunia. She has no post-coital bleeding.

On examination, there is a watery discharge with an odour. There is no erythema to the labia. Her cervix looks healthy and there is no cervical excitation.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gonorrhoea

Bacterial vaginosis

Chlamydia

Herpes simplex

Candidiasis

A

Clearly you would want more information about sexual history for this lady, and in all likelihood would send triple swabs regardless. However, a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea is unlikely given the healthy looking cervix. You would also expect a more green and purulent discharge for Gonorrhoea rather than a watery discharge. Gonorrhoea is particularly problematic as it can present with a normal examination, however is not often associated with an odour.

In a similar line, you would expect to see more problems with the cervix for a diagnosis of Chlamydia and a more mucopurulent discharge. Chlamydia can also cause cervical excitation which this lady does not have.

Herpes simplex doesn’t tend to cause vaginal discharge, and would instead present as a crop of ulcers or tingling type sensations around the vulva. Patients can have a flu like illness, and may have some lymphadenopathy.

For candidiasis, or thrush, you would expect a lot more itching in the history. It would also be more likely to have a thick creamy consistency like cottage cheese. There is a higher probability with thrush that you would get vulval irritation.

Bacterial vaginosis is the most likely diagnosis on balance. It gives a characteristic fishy odour, and is often a thin watery discharge that can have a green or white hue. It often doesn’t cause irritation or soreness, and can be completely asymptomatic. Diagnosis would be confirmed with a vaginal pH > 4.5 and clue cells on microscopy.

1716
Q

A 34-year-old woman who is 35 weeks pregnant presents to her general practitioner with painful blisters affecting the vagina and cervix, along with inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has never had these symptoms before. The GP diagnoses primary genital herpes. Which of the following management strategies is most appropriate?

Simple analgesia only

Oral aciclovir for 5 days

Oral aciclovir until delivery and delivery by caesarean section

Caesarean section

Oral aciclovir until delivery

A

Guidelines issued by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists state that women who present with first-episode genital herpes during their third trimester should be managed with daily suppressive oral aciclovir 400mg until delivery. Delivery should be by caesarean section due to a high risk of neonatal HSV (herpes simplex virus) transmission.

It can be difficult to clinically distinguish between primary and recurrent episodes of genital herpes. If a patient has not noticed the symptoms in the past it is recommended that management is initiated on the assumption that it is the first episode. Type-specific HSV antibody testing can be performed in order to confirm or refute this, but this can take 2-3 weeks to yield results - hence the recommendation to initiate the above management plan which can later be modified if appropriate.

1717
Q

A 29 year-old woman who is taking antidepressant therapy for moderate depression visits her general practitioner (GP) to talk about becoming pregnant. After discussion, the woman and her GP agree that she should continue antidepressant therapy if she falls pregnant in the near future. Which of the following drugs must be avoided in pregnancy due to risk both of fetal malformation and maternal hypertensive crisis?

Phenelzine

Imipramine

Sertraline

Fluoxetine

Amitriptyline

A

There are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, however it is not uncommon for medication to be continued if a patient is already taking it and is likely to struggle without it.

Phenelzine is a monoamine-oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The BNF strongly advises that MAOIs be avoided in pregnancy due to an increased risk of neonatal malformations. Maternal hypertensive crisis has also been reported in association with this class of antidepressant.

Fluoxetine and sertraline are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. They are associated with a small increased risk of congenital heart disease and can cause neonatal withdrawal symptoms.
Imipramine and amitriptyline are tricyclic antidepressants. Imipramine use during pregnancy is associated with a wide range of neonatal symptoms including tachycardia and respiratory depression.

1718
Q

A 25-year-old present 8 weeks after her last menstrual period. She complains of severe nausea, vomiting and vaginal spotting. Pregnancy test was positive and transvaginal ultrasound showed an abnormally enlarged uterus. Which of the following test results would be expected in this patient?

High beta hCG, high TSH, high thyroxine

High beta hCG, low TSH, high thyroxine

High beta hCG, high TSH, low thyroxine

Low beta hCG, low TSH, high thyroxine

Low beta hCG, high TSH, low thyroxine

A

The clinical presentation in this question is consistent with that of a molar pregnancy. A basic understanding of physiology is needed to answer this question correctly. Molar pregnancies are characterised by significantly high levels of beta hCG for gestational age, and are therefore used as a tumour marker of gestational trophoblastic disease. The biochemical structure of beta hCG is very similar to that of luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). That being said, high levels of beta hCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4), and then triiodothyronine (T3). This can result in signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. High levels of T4 and T3 have a negative feedback effect on the pituitary gland to stop secretion of TSH, causing and overall reduction in TSH levels.

1719
Q

A 19-year-old woman has a positive pregnancy test and is found to have an ectopic pregnancy after an intrauterine pregnancy is excluded. She has no pain or other symptoms at this time. Her serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (B-hCG) level is 1397 IU/L. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 29mm adnexal mass but no heartbeat. There is no free fluid in the abdomen. She says she would like a follow-up appointment following her treatment. What is the first line treatment?

Methotrexate

Urgent laparoscopic salpingectomy

Monitor B-hCG

Misoprostol

Mifepristone

A

The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) states that if a woman has a small (<35mm) unruptured ectopic pregnancy with no visible heartbeat, a serum B-hCG level of <1500 IU/L, no intrauterine pregnancy and no pain, then first line treatment should be with methotrexate as long as the patient is willing to attend for follow-up.

Methotrexate is an antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drug. It interferes with DNA synthesis and disrupts cell multiplication^1 thus preventing the pregnancy from developing.

The other treatment option is laparoscopic salpingectomy (or salpingotomy where there is risk of infertility). This should be offered where the ectopic is larger than 35mm, is causing severe pain or if the B-hCG level is >1500. There is a risk of infertility if a problem arises with the remaining Fallopian tube in the future.

1720
Q

USS of hydatidform mole

A

On ultrasound, the mole appears as a solid collection of echoes with numerous small anechoic spaces which resembles a bunch of grapes (also known as ‘snow-storm’ appearance).

1721
Q

A 25-year-old receives a letter from her GP explaining that her first smear showed mild dyskaryosis, and she was Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) positive. She was subsequently referred to the colposcopy clinic where she underwent treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) stage 1.

Which cell cycle protein does the HPV E6 protein inhibit in the process of cell transformation?

pRB

c-RAF

p53

PTEN

c-Ras

A

The E6 protein binds to p53, preventing it from halting cell division. The E7 protein binds to pRb.

The Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) is the causative agent in almost all cervical carcinomas. It is spread easily via sexual transmission, and although most types do not cause cancer, persistence of high-risk oncogenic types, such as 16, 18, 33 and 45 cause cell transformation and neoplasia. The aim of the cervical screening programme is to prevent cervical intraepithelial neoplasia from progressing to cancer.

HPV itself is a double-stranded DNA virus, consisting of an icosahedral capsid (encoded by L1 and L2) and proteins E1-E7 (involved in replication and cell transformation).

HPV invades keratinocytes of the skin and mucous membranes and uses the host DNA replication machinery to replicate itself. HPV enters the basal compartment and as the surface cells naturally shed, the HPV infected cells migrate upwards and begin to replicate, resulting in a huge increase in viral copy number. Normally, the E2 protein blocks the E6 and E7 proteins, but when HPV DNA integrates into host cell DNA, E2 is inhibited. The E6 protein inhibits the tumour suppressor p53 and the E7 protein inhibits pRb, enabling uncontrolled cell division.

HPV evades the immune response as there is no active cytolysis, it is not blood borne, it can disable antigen presenting cells and inhibit interferon synthesis. Most people do eventually mount an immune response to HPV. It is not known why some people are persistently infected with HPV, but it could be related to an inherent problem in immunity, as well as other co-factors, such as smoking and multiparity.

The HPV vaccine consists of the L1 nucleocapsid protein (Gardasil uses L1 proteins from 6, 11, 16 and 18), which is non-oncogenic. Intramuscular injection of the vaccine means that stromal dendritic cells encounter the protein, producing a robust antibody response against L1, thus protecting against HPV infection.

1722
Q

UKMEC 1-4

A

UKMEC1 - No restriction
UKMEC2 - Advantages > Disadvantages
UKMEC3 - Disadvantages > Advantages
UKMEC4 - Unacceptable risk

1723
Q

UKMEC 3

A
  • > 35 years old and smoker of < 15 cigarettes per day
  • BMI > 35
  • Migraine with no aura
  • Family history of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in first degree relative < 45 years old
  • Controlled hypertension
  • Immobility e.g. Wheelchair use
  • Breast feeding and 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum
1724
Q

UKMEC 4

A
  • >35 years old and smoker of > 15 cigarettes per day
  • migraine with aura
  • Personal history of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism
  • Personal history of stroke or ischaemic heart disease
  • Uncontrolled hypertension
  • Breast cancer
  • Recent major surgery with prolonged immobilisation
  • Breast feeding and < 6 weeks postpartum
1725
Q

A woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with shortness of breath and unilateral leg oedema. You suspect a pulmonary embolism and consult your seniors as to the best test to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best reason to choose a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan over CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)?

It requires less specialist training to perform

It is cheaper

There is less radiation to the breast tissue

It is less harmful to the foetus

It is easier to interpret

A

Breast tissue in premenopausal women is highly sensitive to radiation; in the long-term, CTPA confers a 14% increased risk against the background for breast cancer in pregnant women who are under 40 years old and should therefore be avoided.

In 2012 NHS costing report documented the cost of a V/Q scan as £162 with CTPA as £100; both cost an additional £20 each for reporting.

There is often more disagreement between radiologists as to the presence or absence of a PE on V/Q scan and so results are given as high or low probability in the context of a scoring system such as the Wells score.

Radiation exposure to the fetus with V/Q scans and CTPA are equivocal

1726
Q

A 20 year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant wishes to visit rural Burundi to attend a family funeral. Her general practitioner explains that this is a high risk area for malaria and advises her against visiting whilst pregnant, but the woman is adamant that she will go. Which of the following drugs should be offered as prophylaxis?

Atovaquone

Piperaquine

Doxycycline

No antimalarial prophylaxis can be prescribed in pregnancy

Mefloquine

A

Travel to malarial areas should ideally be avoided during pregnancy. However, if travel is unavoidable then the benefits of taking prophylaxis are usually considered to outweigh the risks. Mefloquine is recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as the drug of choice for prophylaxis in the second and third trimesters. Although chloroquine is considered to be relatively safe, the RCOG states that with very few areas in the world free from chloroquine-resistance, mefloquine is essentially the only drug considered safe for prophylaxis in pregnant travellers.

Doxycycline, like other tetracyclines, should be avoided in pregnancy due to effects on skeletal development and discoloration of teeth. Piperaquine has been found to be teratogenic in animal studies. There is insufficient information about the effect of atovaquone in pregnancy.

1727
Q
A
1728
Q

Which of the following presentations has the greatest mortality and morbidity?

Occipitoposterior presentation at delivery

Footling presentation at delivery

Face presentation at delivery

Transverse lie at 30 weeks

Breech presentation at 20 weeks

A

Footling presentations are a rare but the most risky form of breech- there is a 5-20% risk of cord prolapse, which can obstruct foetal blood flow and is an obstetric emergency.

40% of babies are breech at 20 weeks but only 3% at term- there is still plenty of room for the foetus to turn around and resolve to head down.

In occipitoposterior presentation the posterior fontanelle is found in the posterior quadrant of the pelvis; greater rotation is required so labour is usually longer. There is a greater rate of intervention- 22% require forceps and 5% require caesarean section.

Face presentations normally occur by chance when the head extends rather than flexes as it engages.
99% rotate so the chin lies behind the symphysis and the head can be born by flexion; in 1%the chin rotations to the sacrum and caesarean section is indicated.

Transverse lie is where the shoulder is presenting. It occurs in multiparous women due to their uterine muscles being less tight than a nulliparous woman. Extracephalic version may be attempted from 32 weeks and thus is manageable at 30 weeks.

1729
Q

A 28-year-old patient presents with painless vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. Transvaginal ultrasound showed an ectopic pregnancy of 3-cm in diameter and beta-hCG of 1000 lU/litre. She was given a single dose of methotrexate and reassessed at day 4. Her beta-hCG levels rose to 1,300 IU/litre. What would be the next best management step?

Second dose of methotrexate

Second measurement of beta-hCG levels

Laparoscopic surgery with salpingectomy

Laparoscopic surgery with salpingostomy

Emergency laparotomy

A

This question tests the understanding of the management of ectopic pregnancy. According to the NICE guidelines, systemic methotrexate should be offered to women who have all of the following

No significant pain

An unruptured ectopic pregnancy with adnexal mass less than 35mm with no visible heart beat

A serum hCG less than 1,500 IU/liter

No intrauterine pregnancy ( as confirmed by ultrasound)

In addition to the criterion mentioned above, it is important to be familiar with the contraindications of using methotrexate. Once given, the patient should have her beta-hCG levels measured twice (at day 4 and day 7). Normally, beta-hCG levels rise on day 4 compared to pre-treatment levels. This is due to the death of trophoblastic cells. A second beta-hCG level should therefore be taken at day 7 and ensure that levels are dropping. Although a second dose of methotrexate is a common approach ,it should only be considered if the beta-hCG levels do not fall >15% on day 7 compared with day 4. Laparoscopic surgery is preferred in women with ruptured ectopic pregnancy not meeting the criteria for medical treatment. The decision to have a salpingotomy over salpingectomy depends on the condition of the contralateral tube and desire for future fertility. In this scenario, laparoscopic surgery should be considered if medical therapy with methotrexate fails. An emergency laparotomy is not indicated in this patient, as she is stable.

1730
Q

Causes of hyperechogenic bowel?

A

CF

Down’s

CMV

1731
Q

Causes of increased nuchal translucency

A

Down’s

Congenital

Abdominal wall defects

1732
Q

A 37-year-old woman in her second pregnancy has delivered a live male infant. She has no past medical history of note. Ten minutes after delivery, she complains of a sudden onset severe occipital headache that is associated with vomiting. On examination there is evidence of photophobia. Shortly after this she losses consciousness and has a Glasgow coma score of 8. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Extra-dural haematoma

Sheehan’s syndrome

Sub-dural haematoma

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

Intracerebral haemorrhage

A

A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of stroke which is usually the result of bleeding from a berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis. Key clinical features include a sudden onset headache which reaches maximum severity in seconds to minutes (‘thunderclap headache’) and meningitic symptoms (for example photophobia and neck stiffness).

1733
Q

What are the long term Cxs of PCOS?

A

Subfertility

DM

Stroke and TIA

Coronary artery disease

Obstructive sleep apnoea

Endometrial Ca

1734
Q

A 27-year-old primiparous woman has had a prolonged first stage of labour and the foetal heart rate on auscultation was 172 beats per minute. Cardiotocography (CTG) is initiated. Over the last 30 minutes the CTG has changed. The latest recording shows a baseline foetal heart rate of 175 beats per minute, a baseline variability of 7 beats per minute, some accelerations are present and there are variable decelerations. What is the next step?

Do nothing as the CTG is not worrying

Conservative measures and take foetal blood sample

Plan immediate delivery

Conservative measures (change position, optimise hydration) only

Give IV oxytocin to initiate contractions

A

Cardiotocography (CTG) is used to assess foetal well being by measuring the foetal heart rate and maternal contractions. A normal trace is reassuring but an abnormal trace can require further monitoring or require additional investigations.

There are four important features when interpreting a CTG:

Baseline foetal heart rate

Baseline variability

Presence of accelerations

Presence/absence of decelerations

The CTG described in this case has 2 non-reassuring features - the foetal heart rate is 175 bpm and there are variable decelerations. This makes the CTG abnormal but it does not require urgent intervention as there is no bradycardia or prolonged late decelerations. NICE guidelines suggest that conservative measures should be initiated and a foetal blood sample should be taken in order to determine the next step in management. Planning for delivery will be discussed with the consultant obstetrician after the foetal blood sample is obtained. While oxytocin may help to initiate contractions in order to move into the 2nd stage of labour, this should not be done until foetal well being is confirmed through foetal blood sample.

1735
Q

What are the characteristic levels for normal bladder function?

A

Should have a voiding detrusor pressure risk of <70cm

Peak flow rate of >15ml/s

High voiding detrusor pressure with low peak flow rate is indicative of bladder outflow obstruction

1736
Q

A 34-year-old woman attends a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation.
She has no significant past medical history but suffers with occasional frontal headaches.

She is noted to have a blood pressure of 148/76mmHg.

Urinalysis reveals;

pH6.5

Protein+1

Nitrates0

Leuc0

Blood0

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gestational hypertension

Pre-eclampsia

HELLP

Nephrotic syndrome

Chronic hypertension

A

The answer here is chronic hypertension.

At 16 weeks gestation, this lady is too early into her pregnancy to have developed any of the pregnancy related causes of hypertension. The small amount of protein in her urine may also indicate relatively long standing hypertension. Intermittent frontal headaches are a common occurrence and are not a sign of pre-eclampsia in this case.

Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension would only occur after 20 weeks gestation. Pre-eclampsia with significant proteinuria, gestational hypertension without.

Nephrotic syndrome would be associated with a larger degree of proteinuria.

1737
Q

A 35-year-old woman comes to see you in clinic with a 12 month history of heavy periods with clots and flooding. She does not experience any pelvic pain.

On examination she has a palpable bulky uterus.

You book her in for a transvaginal ultrasound scan and decide to start her on some treatment in the interim.

What is the most appropriate first line management?

Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system

Oral norethisterone

Combined oral contraceptive pill

Depot injection

Tranexamic acid

A

This is a question regarding management of menorrhagia.

In this scenario, this lady most likely has uterine fibroids and is therefore appropriately being sent for transvaginal ultrasound for further assessment.

NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries dictate that tranexamic acid or NSAIDs are the most suitable 1st line agents to use to manage symptoms while awaiting results of investigations. Since the patient does not have pelvic pain, tranexamic acid is most appropriate.

It would not be appropriate to insert a levonorgestrel releasing IUS before delineating the anatomy in someone whom you’re suspicious of fibroids.

1738
Q

A 21-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of nausea and severe constant pain localised since onset to the right iliac fossa. There is no fever nor diarrhoea and no vaginal bleeding. She is on the contraceptive implant that was placed 5 months ago. You suspect ovarian torsion. How would you definitively diagnosis this?

Laparotomy

Laparoscopy

CT abdomen pelvis with contrast

CT abdomen pelvis without contrast

Transvaginal and transabdominal ultrasound

A

Ovarian torsion can only be definitively diagnosed invasively. Laparoscopy (keyhole) is the usual method of surgery and allows diagnosis by visual inspection and also allows management with detorsion.

Laparotomy (open) is another option for surgery but is usually reserved for patients with suspected or confirmed malignancy to prevent seeding and malignant spread. Laparotomy may also be used for those patients in whom laparoscopy may be difficult, for example due to size, either obesity or small size in infants.

Ultrasound is the imaging modality of choice to confirm clinical suspicion of ovarian torsion, but cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. Combining transvaginal with transabdominal methods of ultrasound provides the best images of reproductive organs. Features on ultrasound include visualisation of the twisting of vessels (whirlpool sign), ovarian oedema, and reduced blood flow to and within the ovary when examining with colour Doppler. Diagnostic reliability of non-invasive imaging is also dependent on sonographer/radiologist expertise.

CT would show similar findings to ultrasound, but this is more costly and has the added risk of radiation. In a CT with contrast, there would be lack of enhancement of the affected ovary. A CT without contrast is appropriate for imaging renal stones but would not demonstrate ovarian torsion or structural changes within organs very well.

N.B. Differential diagnoses for this presentation would be appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy. These can be ruled out from the history.

Appendicitis:

Abdominal pain was localised since onset to the right iliac fossa rather than starting as diffuse and localising later on.
There is no diarrhoea.
There is no fever.

Ectopic pregnancy:

There is no vaginal bleeding.
This patient is on the contraceptive implant.

1739
Q

A 25-year-old para 1+0 presents at 36 weeks with painless vaginal bleeding. She reports that she has had intermittent spotting over the last 4 weeks, but they have increased in volume and frequency. Her blood pressure is 125/80mmHg and her heart rate is 85bpm. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and the fetal head is not engaged and high.

What examination should you perform to confirm your initial working diagnosis?

LFTs and urine dipstick

Vaginal examination

Abdominal ultrasound

Vaginal ultrasound

Cardiotocography of the fetus

A

The findings in this case are classical of placenta praevia.

  1. These investigations would be used to partly investigate pre-eclampsia
    2: Vaginal examinations should always be avoided in a pregnant woman with unexplained vaginal bleeding
    3: Correct, this should show a low-lying placenta
    4: Vaginal investigations should always be avoided in a pregnant woman with unexplained vaginal bleeding
    5: This would elicit any fetal distress, however would not confirm a diagnosis of placenta praevia
1740
Q

A 64 year-old obese lady presents to the rapid access clinic after one episode of post menopausal bleeding. She has an ultrasound scan which shows an endometrial thickness of 4mm. A pipelle biopsy comes back as negative.

What is the most appropriate management?

Serial ultrasound scans every 6 months

Follow up 1 year

Discharge

Hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy

Repeat pipelle 3 months

A

The correct answer here is discharge the patient back to her GP, while obviously telling the patient to report back if she has any further episodes of vaginal bleeding. The combination of the endometrium being thin on scan and there being no histological evidence of abnormal tissue is reassuring enough to say at the moment her risk of endometrial cancer is low.

Pipelle biopsies are shown to have a very high sensitivity in detecting endometrial cancer (>99%). Without any further episodes of vaginal bleeding repeating a pipelle in 3 months is not indicated. As the sensitivity of pipelle biopsy is so high, a hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy is not needed in this case. This is an invasive procedure, which is uncomfortable as an outpatient and therefore often needs a general anaesthetic, which carries further risks. Sometimes a hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy is needed, for example if the pipelle is not possible in the outpatient setting (e.g. due to patient not tolerating it, a stenosed cervix etc.) or if there is other pathology, for example polyps, which need to be visualised.

Ultrasound scanning has not been shown to be a reliable screening test for endometrial cancer, and therefore repeating the ultrasound scans is not helpful.

There is no need to follow the patient up in 1 year, as if she does not have any further episodes of bleeding the risk of endometrial cancer remains low. It is however very important to explain to the patient that even though this time she was low risk, she could be in early stages or still go on to develop endometrial cancer, and therefore she should see her GP immediately about any further episodes of vaginal bleeding.

1741
Q

A 76 year old woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding for the past 4 months. She is diagnosed with well-differentiated adeno-carcinoma (stage II) on endometrial biopsy. There is no evidence of metastatic disease. Which is the most appropriate treatment?

Transcervical endometrial resection

Total abdominal hysterectomy

Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate)

Wertheim’s radical hysterectomy

Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

A

Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is the treatment of choice for stage I and II endometrial carcinoma. Provera is a progesterone used as a hormonal treatment for endometrial carcinoma - it acts by slowing the growth of malignant cells in the endometrium. Wertheim’s radical hysterectomy includes removal of lymph nodes and is used to treat stage IIB endometrial carcinoma.

1742
Q

A 28-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis asks for advice about conception. Which one of the following statements is true?

Methotrexate may be continued during pregnancy as long as the woman takes folic acid 5mg daily

NSAIDs should be avoided in the first and second trimester

Woman with rheumatoid should be encouraged to conceive as soon as possible (ideally within 1 year) after diagnosis to minimise the risk of complications

TNF-α blockers are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

Hydroxychloroquine is considered safe during pregnancy

A

Hydroxychloroquine is considered safe during pregnancy

1743
Q

Methotrexate in pregnancy

A

methotrexate is not safe in pregnancy and needs to be stopped at least 3 months before conception

1744
Q

What is significant about anaesthetics in pregnant woman with RA?

A

patients should be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation

1745
Q

NSAIDs in pregnancy

A

NSAIDs may be used until 32 weeks but after this time should be withdrawn due to the risk of early close of the ductus arteriosus

1746
Q

Sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine in pregnancy

A

Considered safe

1747
Q

Leflunomide in pregnancy

A

Is not considered safe

1748
Q

A 32-year-old nulliparous female is induced into labour at 39 weeks gestation due to a history of pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction. Her cervix is favourable and she has undergone artificial rupture of membranes. On inspection of the partogram you note that there has been no uterine activity. What treatment is most suitable?

Syntometrine

Vaginal prostaglandin (PGE2)

No treatment required

Syntocinon

Caesarian section

A

Syntocinon is a synthetic oxytocin analogue and is the drug of choice for stimulating labour when the contractions are considered too weak.

1749
Q

A 33-year-old female presents to her GP as she missed her Noriday pill (progestogen only) this morning and is unsure what to do. She normally takes the pill at around 0900 and it is now 1230. What advice should be given?

Take missed pill as soon as possible and advise condom use until pill taking re-established for 48 hours

Take missed pill as soon as possible and omit pill break at end of pack

Perform a pregnancy test

Take missed pill as soon as possible and no further action needed

Emergency contraception should be offered

A

Take missed pill as soon as possible and advise condom use until pill taking re-established for 48 hours

1750
Q

A 27-year-old woman presents 1 week following a first trimester miscarriage with continued low abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is tearful and explains she had a previous miscarriage a year ago and wants this process to be over as soon as possible. A trans-vaginal ultrasound is performed and an incomplete miscarriage is suspected. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

Oral misoprostol

Admit for observation

Intravenous syntocinon infusion

Oral mifepristone

Vaginal misoprostol

A

An incomplete miscarriage occurs when some, but not all, of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. Retained products of conception pose an infection risk to the mother and so should be treated promptly. Bleeding in miscarriage can be serious and physiological signs of shock should not be missed.

The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that during an incomplete miscarriage, medical management of miscarriage should be offered where ‘expectant management’ is unacceptable to the patient. A single dose of misoprostol 600 micrograms as a vaginal pessary is first line medical management of an incomplete miscarriage. If this is not tolerated then oral administration is acceptable. Other management options include manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic and surgical management under general anaesthetic.

Medical management as opposed to expectant management is often offered to women who have previously had a traumatic experience of pregnancy, such as a previous miscarriage or still birth.

1751
Q

A 33-year-old woman is reviewed regarding her asthma control. You notice from her records that she has never had a cervical smear and raise this with her. She responds that she is a lesbian and has never had sex with a man. What is the most appropriate advice to give?

She does not need to have a smear

She may need to have a smear if her partner has previously had heterosexual relationships

She should have cervical screening as per normal

She does not need to have a smear but does need a one-off HPV test

She should be referred to colposcopy clinic for a case-based assessment

A

HPV, the causative agent of cervical cancer, can be transmitted during lesbian sex. Lesbian and bisexual women should therefore have cervical screening as normal. Unfortunately the uptake amongst lesbian women is around 10 times worse than the general female population, sometimes as a consequence of incorrect advice from healthcare professionals.

1752
Q

What is oxybutynin

A

Anti-muscarinic used in treatment of detrusor muscle over-activity

1753
Q

A 34-year-old woman from Zimbabwe presents with continuous dribbling incontinence after having her 2nd child. Apart from prolonged labour the woman denies any complications related to her pregnancies. She is normally fit and well.

A.Bladder diary for 3 days

B.Urodynamic studies

C.Bladder drill training for 6 weeks

D.Pelvic floor exercises 3 months

E.Oxybutynin

F.IV urography

G.Urinary dye studies

H.None of the above

A

Vesicovaginal fistulae should be suspected in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour and from a country with poor obstetric services. A dye stains the urine and hence identifies the presence of a fistula.

1754
Q

A 36-year-old with menorrhagia has is investigated and found to have a 1.5 cm uterine fibroid which is not distorting the uterine cavity. She has three children and wants ongoing contraception, but is using only condoms at the moment. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her menorrhagia?

Intrauterine system

GnRH agonist

Tranexamic acid

Refer for consideration of a myomectomy

Combined oral contraceptive pill

A

As the fibroid is less than 3 cm medical treatment can be tried. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend an intrauterine system initially, which will also provide contraception.

1755
Q

Treatment options for TTTS

A

Indomethacin to reduce foetal urine output

Laser obliteration of placental vascular communications

Selective foetal reduction

After birth, the donor may require blood transfusions to treat anaemia. The recipient twin may need exchange transfusions/ heart failure medications.

1756
Q

A 32-year-old woman comes to see her GP asking to be put on the combined oral contraceptive pill as she has recently started a new sexual relationship. She does not want any long acting contraceptives and has tried the progesterone only pill in the past and had side effects.

Which one of the following would be an absolute contraindications to prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill?

Migraine without aura

1st degree relative with a history of venous thromboembolism

Smoking 10 cigarettes a day

HIV positive and using antiretrovirals

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

When prescribing the oral contraceptive pill there are a number of risk factors that must be screened for. These risk factors are split into a four point scale with level 4 being considered an unacceptable health risk.

All answer except for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus are considered level 3 where the disadvantages generally outweigh the advantages but prescription can be given if deemed appropriate.

1757
Q

A 30-year-old who is currently 27 weeks pregnant comes to see you about a thin, white discharge. Swabs are taken and clue cells are seen on microscopy. Which treatment do you initiate?

Metronidazole 400mg bd for 7 days

Single dose of metronidazole 2g

Intravaginal clindamycin cream 2% od for 7 days

Intravaginal metronidazole gel 0.75% od for 5 days

Oral clindamycin 300mg bd for 7 days

A

Offer treatment to all pregnant women with symptomatic bacterial vaginosis (BV). If a pregnant woman is incidentally found to have BV and has no symptoms, discuss with the woman’s obstetrician whether treatment is appropriate. Oral metronidazole is the treatment of choice. High-dose regimens are not recommended during pregnancy. Intravaginal metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream are alternative choices if the woman prefers a topical treatment or is unable to tolerate oral metronidazole. Oral clindamycin is not widely recommended in primary care because of an increased risk of pseudomembranous colitis.

1758
Q

What are the most likely locations of ectopic pregnancy?

A

These are the various sites of ectopic pregnancy and their prevalence in % :

tubal ectopic: 93-97%

ampullary ectopic: most common ~70% of tubal ectopics and ~65% of all ectopics

isthmal ectopic: ~12% of tubal ectopics and ~11% of all ectopics

fimbrial ectopic: ~11% of tubal ectopics and ~10% of all ectopics

interstitial ectopic/cornual ectopic: 3-4%; also essentially a type of tubal ectopic

ovarian ectopic/ovarian pregnancy; 0.5-1%

cervical ectopic/cervical pregnancy; rare <1%

scar ectopic: site of previous Caesarian section scar; rare

abdominal ectopic: rare; ~1.4%

1759
Q

A 26-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner requesting contraception. She has a past medical history of severe Crohn’s disease. Her periods are regular with a 29 day interval and 5 days of bleeding. Her body mass index is 23kg/m² and she does not smoke.

Which of the following methods of contraception would it be most appropriate to prescribe?

Qliara (Dienogest with estradiol valerate)

Micronor (Norethisterone)

Microgynon 30 (Ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel)

Cerazette (Desogestrel)

Evra transdermal patch (Ethinylestradiol with norelgestromin)

A

Oral contraceptives should be used with caution in patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease affecting the small bowel due to the risk of malabsorption. There is no evidence to suggest that the efficacy of the Evra patch is reduced.

1760
Q

A 27-year-old woman attends colposcopy as she had moderate dyskaryosis on her recent cervical smear. On colposcopy she has aceto-white changes and a punch biopsy followed by cold coagulation. Histology of the biopsy shows CIN II. When should she next be offered cervical screening?

1 month

6 weeks

6 months

12 months

Return to normal screening, every 3 years

A

This woman has been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) at her colposcopy appointment. She requires follow-up to determine if the lesion has been adequately treated. Women who have been treated for CIN II should be offered cervical screening at 6 months and 12 months post-treatment. This should then be followed by annual screening for a total of 10 years.

If a woman has a positive-test after treatment they should return to colposcopy.

1761
Q

A 30 year old type 2 diabetic presents to the diabetics clinic advising that she wishes to become pregnant. The patient normally has good glycaemic control and is currently being treated with metformin and gliclazide. What advice should you give her about potential changes to her medication during pregnancy?

Patient may continue on metformin but gliclazide must be stopped

Patient can continue on both medications

Patient may continue on gliclazide but metformin must be stopped

Both drugs must be stopped and the patient must be switched to insulin

Both drugs must be stopped and the patient must be switched to liraglutide

A

The correct answer is that the patient may be continued on metformin but that the gliclazide must be stopped. In the management of type 2 diabetes in pregnancy ‘women with pre-existing diabetes can be treated with metformin, either alone or in combination with insulin’. While it is likely that the patient will be required to switch to insulin it is not an absolute requirement. Both gliclazide and liraglutide are contraindicated in pregnancy.

1762
Q

A 30-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and she receives a letter about her routine cervical smear. She asks her GP if she should make an appointment for her smear. All her smears in the past have been negative. What should the GP advise?

Reschedule the smear to occur at least 12 weeks post-delivery

Take the smear now

This smear can be missed, she will be re-entered for routine screening in 3 years

Perform a speculum exam to visualise the cervix for abnormalities

Seek advice of an obstetric consultant

A

NICE guidelines suggest that a woman who has been called for routine screening wait until 12 weeks post-partum for her cervical smear. If a smear has been abnormal in the past and a woman becomes pregnant then specialist advice should be sought. If a previous smear has been abnormal, a cervical smear can be performed mid-trimester as long as there is not a contra-indication, such as a low lying placenta.

1763
Q

A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with a positive pregnancy test following a missed period. Given her last menstrual period it is estimated that she is 4-5 weeks pregnant. Although the news is unexpected, she is happy to continue with the pregnancy, however she is a known epileptic and is concerned about her medication.

Which of the following medications are recommended for epileptics in pregnancy?

Sodium valproate

Phenytoin

Lamotrigine

Primidone

Phenobarbitone

A

Anti-epileptics in pregnancy can be a tricky subject. Many are known to cause severe congenital defects (both structural and intellectual) and as such the first line of care is good contraceptive advice and planning with the patient in question. This is however, not always possible and there will always be cases where a patient becomes pregnant whilst on anti-epileptic medication prior to consulting with a doctor.

The recent MBRRACE-UK and the NICE clinical guidelines both state that most women with epilepsy and of child bearing age are currently prescribed lamotrigine and during pregnancy this may require a dose increase. Phenytoin, phenobarbitone and sodium valproate are all known to have an adverse effect on cognitive abilities and therefore are usually avoided unless absolutely necessary.

Lamotrigine, carbamazepine and levetiracetam are known to have the smallest effects on the developing foetus, however all epileptics who are either pregnant or are planning to become pregnant should be referred to specialist care as soon as possible.

1764
Q

A 35-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents requesting contraception. She recently got married and says that she is likely to want to start trying for children with her husband in one year. She currently smokes between 15-20 cigarettes per day. Which of the following contraceptives would it be most appropriate to prescribe?

Mirena intrauterine device (Levonorgestrel)

Cerazette (Desogestrel)

Microgynon 30 (Ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel)

Nexplanon implant (Etonogestrel)

Depo-provera injection (Medroxyprogesterone acetate)

A

Microgynon 30 would be contraindicated in this lady as she is over 35 years old and smokes >15 cigarettes per day. Depo-provera could be used, but can be associated with prolonged amenorrhoea up to 1 year after discontinuation, which would not suit this lady who wants to try for a family in 1 year. The insertion of both Mirena and Implanon and subsequent removal in the space of a year is likely to be more of a burden to this lady than taking an oral contraceptive over the same time period.

Cerazette, a progesterone only pill, is not contraindicated and can easily be stopped in 1 year.

1765
Q

Heterotropic pregnancy

A

describes a very rare situation in which there are simultaneous ectopic and uterine pregnancies. It is usually treated by surgical removal of the ectopic pregnancy.

1766
Q

Mx of VZV in pregnancy

A

If any doubt about previous chickenpox- urgently check Ab titres

If the pregnant womanm is not immune she should be given VZIG which is effective up to 10 days post exposure

Should be prescribed oral acyclovir if present within 24h of rash onset

1767
Q

A 26-year-old primigravida presents at 39 weeks with rupture of membranes and bleeding. She describes a flood of cloudy fluid followed by continuous vaginal bleeding. She is very anxious but denies any localised pain or tenderness. Her pregnancy has so far been uncomplicated, but she has not attended her antenatal scans. Cardiotocography shows a resting rate of 105 beats per minute and late decelerations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Placental abruption

Bloody show

Placenta accreta

Vasa praevia

Placenta praevia

A

Vasa praevia describes a complication in which fetal blood vessels cross or run near the internal orifice of the uterus. The vessels can be easily compromised when supporting membranes rupture, leading to frank bleeding.

The classic triad of vasa praevia is rupture of membranes followed by painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia. Unlike placenta praevia, vasa praevia carries no major maternal risk but fetal mortality rates are significant. The two conditions may be difficult to distinguish in acute clinical situations, but for examination purposes a preceding rupture of membranes will usually be emphasised. Although ultrasound scans can detect vasa praevia, many cases are undetectable antenatally.

1768
Q

At her booking visit, a woman mentions to her midwife that she has been previously diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which procedure carries the greatest risk of haemorrhage in the newborn?

External cephalic version

Forceps delivery

Prolonged ventouse delivery

Fetal blood sampling

Caesarean section

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that can occasionally complicate pregnancies, especially if there is placental passage of maternal antiplatelet antibodies.

The high pressure exerted by the vacuum during a ventouse delivery can cause bleeding in the neonate. Cephalohaematoma or more severely, subgaleal haemorrhage, can be exacerbated in the context of neonatal thrombocytopenia. Fetal blood sampling and forceps might be used with caution but would not be as high-risk. A Caesarean section would pose a greater risk to the mother, rather than the neonate.

1769
Q

A 26 year old woman with long standing hypertension gives birth to a healthy male child. The patient advises that she wishes to breastfeed the child but is concerned about the medication affecting the baby. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs would NOT be safe for the patient to use while breast feeding?

Losartan

Enalapril

Nifedipine

Labetalol

Atenolol

A

The correct answer is Losartan. Losartan is an ARB which are contraindicated in pregnancy unless absolutely essential and not recommended in breast feeding. The other options; Enalapril, Nifedipine, Labetalol and Atenolol are all safer in breast feeding.

1770
Q

A 24-week pregnant woman attends the early pregnancy unit as she has been told that her uterus is small for this date. On ultrasound she is found to have oligohydraminos.

Which of the following options is a cause of oligohydraminos?

Duodenal atresia

Microcephaly

Trisomy 21

Bartter’s syndrome

Renal agenesis

A

Oligohydraminos is a conditions where there is a deficiency of amniotic fluid during pregnancy. This can often present as smaller symphysiofundal height.

Renal agenesis is a cause of oligohydraminos (abnormally low volume of amniotic fluid) as the amniotic fluid is mainly derived from foetal urine

1771
Q

A primiparous 25-year-old woman is in labour. The midwife co-ordinating delivery contacts you as she is concerned that labour is not progressing. She has just examined the cervix and tells you that it is not dilating at a satisfactory rate. What is the minimum acceptable rate of cervical dilatation in the established first stage of labour?

4cm in 4 hours

2cm in 4 hours

2cm per hour

1.5cm per hour

1cm in 4 hours

A

NICE define delay in the established first stage of labour as:

Cervical dilatation of less than 2cm in 4 hours for first labours

Cervical dilatation of less than 2cm in 4 hours or a slowing in the progress of labour for second or subsequent labours.

1772
Q

A 36-year-old woman who used to inject heroin has recently been diagnosed HIV positive. She is offered a cervical smear during one of her first visits to the HIV clinic. How should she be followed-up as part of the cervical screening program?

Attend colposcopy annually

6 monthly cervical cytology

Cervical cytology every three years (normal screening program)

Annual cervical cytology

Attend colposcopy every three years

A

Women who are HIV positive are at an increased risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer due to a decreased immune response and decreased clearance of the human papilloma virus. (1) HIV positive women who have low-grade lesions (CIN1) do not clear these lesions and these can progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even those women who are effectively treated with antiretrovirals have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative cytology. (1)

Women with HIV should be offered cervical cytology at diagnosis.. Cervical cytology should then be offered annually for screening.

1773
Q

A 13 week pregnant woman is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis (BV) following high vaginal swab results, which were taken due to offensive vaginal discharge. She is otherwise clinically well and has no drug allergies. Which of the following treatments is recommended?

No treatment required

Amoxicillin

Doxycycline

Cefalexin

Metronidazole

A

BV is characterised by an overgrowth of mainly anaerobic organisms. It is a common cause of vaginal discharge and is not considered to be a sexually transmitted infection.

Approximately 50% of women are asymptomatic. When symptoms are present, BV is characterised by a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge.

Symptomatic BV in pregnancy is associated with late miscarriage and preterm delivery.

Treatment should be offered to all pregnant woman who are symptomatic. This consists of oral metronidazole 400mg twice daily for 5-7 days (2grams stat dose is not recommended in pregnancy).

Treatment is considered on a individual basis for pregnant woman with BV who are asymptomatic. This is because evidence suggests that identification and treatment of asymptomatic pregnant women does not lower the risk of preterm births.

1774
Q

A 22 year old woman attends the family planning clinic enquiring about contraception. She is currently taking carbamazepine for epilepsy and her BMI is 39 kg/m². She has no other past medical history. Which of the following would be the most suitable contraceptive to offer her?

Progesterone only pill (POP)

Copper intrauterine device

Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

Progesterone injection (Depo-Provera)

Progesterone implant (Nexplanon)

A

All woman who are taking an enzyme-inducing drug (EID) (carbamazepine is an example of an EID) should be advised to use a reliable contraceptive that is unaffected by EIDs.

Examples of contraceptives that are unaffected by EIDs are:

Copper intrauterine device

Progesterone injection (Depo-provera)

Mirena intrauterine system

The copper intra-uterine device is usually the preferred option, as it is a non-hormonal method.

In the above scenario, the patient is obese with a BMI of 39 kg/m². Therefore, the contraceptive injection (Depo-Provera) would not be the most suitable option. This is because it is associated with weight gain (2-3kg over 1 year).

In patients on EIDs who wish to take the COCP (providing there are no contraindications) it is important to inform them that the effectiveness is decreased and there is an increased risk of pregnancy.
It is recommended that the dose of oestrogen is increased to 50mcg with no pill-free interval, or reduced to 4 days from 7 days (to reduce the chance of ovulation). In addition, barrier methods would also be advised. This applies when the patient is on an EID and for 4 weeks after stopping.

In patients on EIDs who wish to take the POP or progesterone implant, then additional barrier contraception would be required while using EIDs and for 4 weeks after stopping.

Note - rifampicin and rifabutin are potent EIDs and require longer periods of using barrier contraception after stopping (8 weeks).

If emergency contraception is required, the copper intra-uterine device is again the best option. If levonorgestrel (Levonelle) is used, then double the standard dose is recommended. Ulipristal acetate (ellaOne) is not recommended.

1775
Q

Nancy is a 29 year old lady who has given birth to a baby boy 3 days ago and is keen to discuss future contraception. She was previously on the combined pill but is keen to avoid using anything if she can. She is not breast-feeding. How long after giving birth does she not require any contraception?

Up to 28 days

She needs contraception immediately after giving birth

Up to 21 days

Up to 2 months

Up to 14 days

A

Prior to Day 21 postpartum no contraceptive methods are required. In non-breastfeeding
women, ovulation may occur as early as Day 28. As sperm can survive for up to 7 days in the
female genital tract, contraceptive protection is required from Day 21 onwards if pregnancy
is to be avoided.

1776
Q

A 17-year-old female comes to your GP clinic. She has recently travelled to Egypt to see her family, and now has come to visit as she is suffering with per vaginal bleeding and urinary incontinence.

She consents to examination with a chaperone present and you identify signs that suggest there have been recent trauma to the genitalia. You suspect this is a case of female genital mutilation.

What is the most appropriate course of action?

Report this to the police

Provide symptomatic treatment only

Refer to secondary care for further investigation

Contact child protection services

Call the family in for a discussion

A

Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a criminal act. The GMC has now issued guidance that all cases of FGM must be reported to the police in under 18s.

The mandatory duty does not apply in over 18s. It also does not apply if a doctor can identify that another doctor has already made a report to the police in connection with the same act of FGM.

Providing symptomatic treatment only would be in breach of GMC guidance and would put your registration at risk.

Calling in the family for discussion may not be appropriate and may lead to further distress for the patient. You would still need to make a police report.

Contacting child protection services may be an additional necessary step, but it is imperative that a police report is made in the first instance.

Referring to secondary care for investigation may be useful for treating any symptoms of FGM, but again a police report needs to be made.

1777
Q

Type 1 FGM

A

Partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce (clitoridectomy).

1778
Q

Type 2 FGM

A

Partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora (excision).

1779
Q

Type 3 FGM

A

Narrowing of the vaginal orifice with creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris (infibulation).

1780
Q

Type 4 FGM

A

All other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, for example: pricking, piercing, incising, scraping and cauterization.

1781
Q

A 49-year-old lady with a background of hypertension and previous DVT after a flight to Australia comes to see you about hot flushes. They are severely interfering with her sleep and her work as a retail manager. She last had a period 4 months ago and her husband has had a vasectomy. Which of these treatments would you recommend?

Cyclical oestrogen with progesterone

Oestrogen patches

Mirena intrauterine system

Clonidine

Tibolone

A

For a woman with a personal or family history of thromboembolic disease, offer lifestyle advice or non-hormonal therapies. For vasomotor symptoms, consider a 2 week trial of Paroxetine/ Fluoxetine/ Citalopram/ Venlafaxine or a 24 week trial of Clonidine. If these measures are inadequate and the woman requires treatment, refer to a specialist in thrombophilia.

1782
Q

Vitamin recommendation in overweight women

A

Vitamin D

1783
Q

Obese women and 3rd stage of labour

A

Offer active third stage due to the higher risk of PPH

1784
Q

GDM cut offs in pregnancy

A

Impaired glucose tolerance 2hour glucose greater than or equal to 7.8

Diabetes random gluocse greater than or equaly to 7 or 2 hour glucose greater than or equal to 7.8

1785
Q

Soft systolic flow murmur audible across the praecordium

A

Phyisological, due to dilatation across the tricuspid vavle causing mild regurgitant flow.

1786
Q

Warfarin and trimesters

A

First trimester: highest risk of teratogenicity- fetal warfarin syndrome

Still exists in mid and third triemsters

1787
Q

Nasal hypoplasia

Vertebral calcinosis

Brachydactyly

A

Fetal warfarin syndrome

1788
Q

CTG vs maternal BP in eclamptic fit

A

Mother should have BP checked before fetal CTG as it is not possible to deliver the fetus until the mother is stable

1789
Q

22w, unwell with chorioamnionitis mx

A

Antibiotics

Induce labour

No steroids

1790
Q

Can cause mid-treimester loss, early meconium and preterm labour

Food-borne infection

A

Listeriosis

1791
Q

Blistering condition, presents with febrile illness and if untreated can lead to maternal and fetal death

A

Impetigo herpetiformis

1792
Q

A blistering condition that starts at the umbilicus and spreads

A

Pemphiogid gestationis

1793
Q

A rash of the trunk and upper limbs with abdominal sparing

A

Prurigo gestationis

1794
Q

Blood sugar reference rangs in pregancny around meals

A

Pre-meal: <5.5

1 hour post meal <7.8