Psych Flashcards

1
Q

Components of a psych history

A

Introduciton and PC: name, age, occupation, ethnic origin, circumstances of referral and whether voluntary or compulsory

HPC: NOTEPAD ICE. Impact on life/work. Mood, sleep, appetite, Risk. +Collateral

PPHx: dates, hospitalisations

PMH/SHx

DHx and allergies

FHx: mental health. If deceased close relative: cause of death and time in patients life.

Personal Hx: Early life and development (pregnancy and birth, any serious illness, bereavements, abusde, separation, developmental delay. Regligious background)

Educational Hx: school, relationship with peers. Bullying

Occupational Hx: job titles and durations and reasons for change of work.

Relationship hx: marriages etc.

Drug Hx and ETOH use + Smoking

Forensic Hx: any arrests/ imprisonments

SHx

Premorbid personality: how would you describe yourself before you became unwell?

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2
Q

Components of MSE

ASEPTIC

A

Appearance and behaviour

Speech

Emotion: mood and affect

Perception: hallucination and illusion

Thought content and process

Insight and judgement

Cognition

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3
Q

Factors of note in apperance

A

General appearnce and personal hygiene. Dress

Manner, rapport, eye contact, facial activity

Motor activity (psychomotor agitation or retardation)

Abnormal movements

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4
Q

Abnormal movements

A

Tremor

Braykinesia: slowness of movement

Akathisia

Tardive dyskinesia

Dystonia

Tics

Chorea

Stereotpyp

Mannerisms

Gait abnormalities

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5
Q

Bradykinesia

A

Slowness of movements

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6
Q

Akathisia

A

Restlessness

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7
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A

Usually affects the mouth, lips and tongue. Roling of the tongue or licking the lips

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8
Q

Dystonia

A

Muscular spasm causing abnormal face and body movement or posture

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9
Q

Factors of note in speech

A

Tone, rate and volume

Pressure of speech: increased rate and volume

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10
Q

Normal speech

A

Spontaneous, logical, relevant and coherent

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11
Q

Circumstatnial

A

Speech that takes a long time to get to the point

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12
Q

Perseveration

Sign of?

A

Repeating words or topics

Frontal lobe impairment

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13
Q

Neologisms

Seen in

A

Invention of words

Schizophrenia

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14
Q

Variations in thought form

A

Normal

Flight of ideas: abnormal connection between statements

Looseness of association: no discernible link between statements

Thought block

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15
Q

Mood and affect

A

Mood= climate

Affect= weather

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16
Q

Mood

Subjective/objective

A

Underlying emotion

Objective described as dysthymic, euthymic, hyperthymic

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17
Q

Different types of affect

A

Blunted/unreactive (e.g. negative symptoms in Schizophrenia)

Labile

Irritable (mania and depression)

Perplexed

Suspicious

Incongruous

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18
Q

Normal affect described as

A

Reactive

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19
Q

Disorders of thought content

A

Negative (depressed) cognitions e.g. guilt, hopelessness

Ruminations (persistent, disabling preoccupations)

Obsessions

Depersonalisation or derealisation (NB not psychotic)

Abnormal beliefes: overvalued ideas, ideas of reference (not held with delusional intensity)

Delusions: fixed, false, firmly held beliefs

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20
Q

Depersonalisation

A

Feeling detatched, unreal watching oneself from the outside

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21
Q

Derealisation

A

“The world is made out of cardboard”

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22
Q

Different delusional types

A

Persecutory: someone/something interfering with person in a malicious/destructive way

Grandiose: being famous/supernatural power or wealth

Of reference: actions of other people, events, media are referring to the person/communciating a message

TI/TW/TB

Passivity: actions feelings/impulses can be controlled by outside influence

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23
Q

TI/TW/TB

A

Thought insertion

Withdrawal

Broadcast

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24
Q

Assessing suicide risk

A

Thoughts

Do you evel feel that life is so bad you don’t want to live anymore?

Plans

Have you ever reached a point where you have thought you might harm yousrelf

Intent

Do you think you would actually do this?

Protective factors

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25
Q

Components of perception

A

Have you seen or head thing sthat other people can’t see or hear

Illusions

Hallucinations

Pseudo-hallucinations

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26
Q

Illusions

A

Misinterpretations of normal perceptions: can occur in healthy people

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27
Q

Hallucinations

A

Perceptions in absence of abnromal stimulus, experienced as true and coming from the outside world

Can take any medium, though auditory and visual are most common

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28
Q

Pseudo-hallucination

A

Internal perceptions with preserved insight

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29
Q

Cognition

GOAL-CRAMP

A

Can be tested formally using MMSE

Should test:

G- general: Alertness and Co-operation
O- orientation: Time and Place
A- attention: WORLD backwards and Serial Sevens
L- language: Naming and Repetition
C- calculation: Division and Subtraction
R- right Hemisphere Function: Intersecting pentagons and Clock-face
A- abstraction: Proverbs and Similarities
M- memory: Short term and Long-term memory
P- praxis: Wave good-bye and Comb hair

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30
Q

Insight

A

Patient’s understanding of their own condition and its cause

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31
Q

Difference between a discriminating and characteristic symtpoms

A

Discriminating: occur commonly in a defined syndrome but rarely in other syndromes

Characteristic: occur frequently in the defined syndrom eubt also occur in other syndormes

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32
Q

Risk assessment

A

Self-harm

Harm to others (including children!!)

Risk of self-neglect and accidental harm

Vulnerability to abuse

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33
Q

Risk of Self harm

A

Risk of self harm: current thoughts and plans

Protective factors

Previous episdoes

Factors predisposing to deliberate self-harm/suicide:

  1. Fhx
  2. Social isolation
  3. Substance Misuse

Any Hx of previous disengagemnt from support services

In MSE: thoughts of hopelessness and worthlessness. Command hallucinations inciting self harm

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34
Q

Risk of harm to others

A

Acts/threats of violence

Deliberate arson

Sexually inappropritae behaviour

Epsiodes of containemnt

Extent of compliance

Increased risk if:

  • Recent discontinuation of Rx
  • Change in use of recreational drugs
  • Alcohol or drug misuse (or other disinhibiting factors)
  • Impulsive/unpredictable behaviour
  • Recent stressful life events

In MSE look for:

  • Expressed violent intentions or threats
  • Irritability, disinhibition, suspiciousness
  • Persecutory delusions
  • Delusions of control/passivity
  • Command hallucinations

Risk to children

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35
Q

Risk to vulnerable adults: HOW SAFE

A

HOme safety

Wandering

Self-neglect

Abuse, neglect, crime vulnerability

Eating (malnutirition)

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36
Q

Suicide

DIEA

A

Intentional self- inflicted eath

1/10,000 p annum

M>F (older men)

RFs:

  • Availability of means
  • Social support
  • Life events
  • Mental illness:
  • Depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • Substance misuse
  • Emotionally unstable or antisocial personality disorder
  • Eating disorder

Chronic painful illnesses

FHx

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37
Q

Deliberate self harm

DIEA

A

Intentional non-fatal self-inflicted harm

2-3/1000 pa

F>M (younger women

RFs:

  • Availability of means
  • Social support
  • Life events
  • Mental illness:
  • Depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • Substance misuse
  • Emotionally unstable or antisocial personality disorder
  • Eating disorder

Unemployed, divorce
Socio-economic deprivation

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38
Q

Psychiatric disorders implicated in suicide

A

Depression

Bipolar

Schizophrenia

Alcoholism

Substance misuse

Prsonlaity disorder (persent in 30-60% of completed suicides especially emotionally unstable/borderline

Anorexia nervosa

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39
Q

Psychosis

A

Misinterpretation of thoughts and perceptions that arise from the patient’s own mind/imagination as reality and include delusions and hallucinations

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40
Q

Psychotic disorders include

A

Schizophrenia

Schizoaffective disorder

Delusional disorder

Brief psychotic episodes

BPAD

Drug-induced

Psychotic depression

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41
Q

Epidemiology of schizohprenia

A

15-20/100000

0.7% lifetime risk

Men>Women

Peak incidence in late teens or early adulthood

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42
Q

First Rank Symptoms

A
  • Third-person auditory hallucinations (discussion/giving running commentary)
  • Thought echo (hear own thoughts out loud)
  • Delusional perception (a bunch of flowers->therefore I knew terrorists were after me)
  • TI/TB/TW
  • Passivity
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43
Q

Rank symptoms

A

First rank are discriminatory: also occur in 8% of patients with BPAD, whil 20% with chronic schizophrenia never show them

Second rank sympomts: characteristics, include catatonic behaviour and 2nd person auditory hallucinations

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44
Q

Schizophrenia: diagnostic criteria

A

First Rank symptom or persistent delusion

Present for at least a month (ICD10) (6 monhts in DSM)

No drug intoxication, withdrawal, organic disease or prominent affective symptoms

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45
Q

Common delusions in schizophrenia

A

Persecutory

Delusions of reference

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46
Q

Thought disorder often seen in schizophrenia

A

Loosening of associations

Neologisms

Concrete thinking (inability to deal with abstract ideas)

Word salad

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47
Q

Symytom triad in schizophrenia

A

Positive (hallucinations/delusions)

Negative (poverty of speech, flat affect, poor motivation, social withdrawal)

Cognitive (poor attention and memory)

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48
Q

Subtypes of schizophrenia

A

Paranoid

Cataotnic

Hebephrenic (disorganised)

Residual

Undifferentiated (simple)

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49
Q

Paranoid schizophrenia

A

Most common, delusions and auditory hallucinations

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50
Q

Catatonic schizophrenia (7%)

A

Typical symptoms:

Psychomotor disturbances (alternating between morot immobility and excessive activity)

Rigidity

Abnormal posturing

Echolalia (copying speech)

Echopraxia (copying behaviours)

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51
Q

Hebephrenic schizophrenia

A

(Disorganised)

Early onset and poor prongosis. Behaviour is irresponible and unpredictable

Mood inappropriate and incongruous affect.

Thought incoherence, fleeting delusions and hallucinations occur

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52
Q

Resdiual schizophrenia

A

Falls into one of the other types but negative symptoms predominate

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53
Q

Undifferentiated schizophrenia

A

Negative symptoms without preceding over psychotic symptoms

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54
Q

What are the characteristics of the prodromal period for acute psychotic illness

A

Anxiety, depression and ideas of reference

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55
Q

Aetiology of schizophrenia

A

Genetics: FHx/sibling hx specifically

Neurodevelopmental hypothesis:

  • (increased rates associated with winter births, obstetric complications, developmental delay, soft neurological signs, temporal lobe epilpepsy, smoking cannabis in adolescence.)
  • Social factors: socioeconomic deprivation, urban area, excess of life events.
  • High er in Afrocarribean

Neurochemical:

  • Dopamine excess in mesolimbic pathways
  • Increased serotonin activity
  • Decreased glutamate activity.
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56
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

Affective and schizophrenic symptoms occur together and with equal prominence

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57
Q

Delusional disorder

A

Fixed delusion or delusional system with other areas of thinking and funcitoning well preserved

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58
Q

Brief psychotic episodes

A

Last less time than required for schizophrenia diagnosis.

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59
Q
  1. Mental state
    a Derealisation
    b Compulsion
    c Delusion
    d Illusion
    e Hallucination
    f Obsession
    g Overvalued idea
    h Pseudohallucination
    i Rumination
    What psychiatric sign is being described in these examples? Choose
    one option.

1 A man tries unsuccessfully to keep violent, sexual images from
entering his head.

2 A 52-year-old man spends over an hour checking the gas is
turned out on the stove before leaving the house.
3 A woman describes hearing a voice that frightens her inside her
head.
4 A woman complains that she feels as if the world is lifeless, as
if made out of cardboard.
5 A man gazing at the sky starts to see the face of a goblin in the
clouds.
6 A man is becoming increasingly worried that his neighbours are
monitoring him. He sees them out so often it feels like ‘more
than just a coincidence’. He acknowledges he might be wrong
about this, although thinks it unlikely.
7 An anxious man continually reviews the events leading to him
losing his job.

A

1 f (obsessional images)
2 b
3 h
4 a
5 d
6 g
7 i

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60
Q
  1. Delusions
    a Delusional perception
    b Thought withdrawal
    c Delusion of reference
    d Grandiose delusion
    e Nihilistic delusion
    f Folie à deux
    g Persecutory delusion
    h Somatic passivity
    Which delusion is being described in these examples? Choose one
    option.

1 A man believes the government removes his thoughts.

2 A woman believes she can feel her blood temperature rising and
that it must be being controlled using lasers by an outside force.

3 An 84-year-old lady and her learning disabled son are refusing
to pay their rent because they believe the council are winding
the meter on remotely to extract more money from them.

4 A 34-year-old lady is detained by police for causing a public
nuisance. She believes she has been invested with special healing
powers, and that God has told her she is the next Messiah.

5 A man with depression erroneously believes he has lost all his
possessions and his house has been destroyed.

6 A man fled the country after seeing a red car parked outside his
house. He was convinced this was a sign left for him by the FBI
that they wanted him dead.

A

2 Delusions
1 b
2 h
3 f
4 d
5 e
6 a

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61
Q
  1. A full assessment of a patient newly admitted to a psychiatric
    unit can be complete without:
    A A full history and mental state examination
    B A risk assessment
    C A physical examination
    D Psychometric testing
A

D

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62
Q
  1. According to the diagnostic hierarchy, where patients potentially
    meet criteria for two disorders, precedence should be
    given to a diagnosis of:
    A Borderline personality disorder rather than depression
    B Generalised anxiety disorder rather than hyperthyroidism
    C Acute psychotic episode rather than dementia
    D Schizophrenia rather than mood disorder
A
  1. D; Psychotic disorders take precedence over mood disorders.
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63
Q
  1. Doctors should always break confidentiality if:
    A A victim of domestic abuse refuses help
    B A victim of elder abuse refuses help
    C A patient threatens to kill his cousin
    D A patient admits to regular shoplifting
A
  1. C; There is always a duty when you are made aware of a specific
    risk to a named indvidual. For A and B, whether to do so would
    depend on whether the victim had capacity to make decision to
    refuse help. For D, there is a duty to disclose information that
    may help prevent or detect serious crime, but not all crime.
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64
Q
  1. Safe management of a person seen in A+E after an overdose
    must include:
    A At least a brief period of psychiatric admission for
    assessment
    B A medical assessment
    C An assessment by the Crisis Resolution Team (CRT)
    D A collateral history
A
  1. B; All may be useful, but only B is essential in all cases. Patients
    may underestimate or not disclose the full extent of their
    overdose.
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65
Q
  1. The most common subtype of schizophrenia is:
    A Paranoid schizophrenia
    B Hebephrenic schizophrenia
    C Catatonic schizophrenia
    D Simple schizophrenia
A
  1. A.
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66
Q
  1. Psychosis is best described as:
    A An illness characterised by symptoms such as depersonalisation
    and illusions
    B A mild form of schizophrenia
    C Loss of the ability to distinguish reality from fantasy
    D A split personality
A
  1. C; Note it is hallucinations, not illusions, that are characteristic
    of psychosis.
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67
Q

What is the first line treatment for the majority of patietns with depression?

Examples

What is used post-MI

What is used in children and adolescents?

A

SSRIs

Citalopram and fluoxetine

Sertraline as there is more evidence for safe use in this situation

Fluoxetine

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68
Q

What are the common adverse effects of SSRI?

What is an important consideration in a patient taking NSAIDs

For what should patients be vigilant?

Which SSRIs have a higher propensity for ADIs

A

GI symptoms

Increased risk of GI bleed therefore a PPI should be co-prescribed

Patients should be counselled to be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation

Fluoxetine and paroxetine

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69
Q

What is a significant safety issue with Citalopram

What is the consideration that should be made?

What is the maximum daily dose?

A

Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependant QTI prolongation

Should not be used in patients with congenital long QT, known pre-exisiting QT interval prolongation or in combination that prolong the QT intrval

40mg for adults

20mg for >65y/o or those with hepatic impairment

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70
Q

What are the drug interactions of SSRIs

A

NSAIDs (not normally recommended, if necessary add PPI)

Warfarin/heparin, avoid SSRI and consider mirtazapine

Aspirin (as above)

Triptans: avoid SSRIs

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71
Q

Mirtazapine drug class

Common SEs

A

Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepresssant

Constipation, dry mouth, increased appetiete

Somnolence

Weight gain

ALT

raised TGs

Dizziness

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72
Q

When stopping an SSRI what is the timescale

What are the common discontinuation symptoms

A

Tapered over 4 weeks

Increased mood change

Restlenssness

Difficulty sleeping

Unsteadiness

Sweating

GI symptoms

Paraesthesia

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73
Q

What is the mechanism of St John’s Wort

A

P450 Inducer.

Effective as TCA in treatment of mild-moderate depression

Thought to be similar MOA to SSRIs.

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74
Q

Adverse effects of St John’s Wort

A

Can cause serotonin syndrome

P450 inducer, may also reduce effectiveness of OCP

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75
Q

Should St John’s Wort use be advised?

A

No as uncertainty about dose, variation in preparations and potential serious ADIs.

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76
Q

Factors associated with risk of sucidie following episode of DSH?

A

Effforts to avoid discovery

Planning

Note

Fina acts e.g. will

Violent method

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77
Q

What should happen following SSRI Rx?

A

R/v at 2 weeks (

If a patient makes a good response they should continue on treatment for at least 6 months as this reduces risk of relapse

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78
Q

What are the advantages of atypical antipsychotics

What are the important adverse effects

A

Reduciton in extra-pyramidal side effects

Weight gain

Clozapine is associated with agranulocytosis

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79
Q

What are the important considerations of atypical antispsychotics in the elderly

A

Increased risk of stroke (espedcially olanzapine and risperidone)

Increased risk of VTE

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80
Q

Which atypical antipsychotics are most significantly associated with increased risk of stroke in elderly patients?

A

Olanzapine and risperidone

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81
Q

Give 5 examples of atypical antipsychotics

A

Clozapine

Olanzapine

Risperidone

Quetiapine

Amusulpride

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82
Q

When is clozapine used?

What are its adverse effects

A

Should only be used in patients with psychosis that is resistant to other antipsychotics

Agranulocytosis and neutropenia

Reduced seizure threshold: can induce seizures in up to 3%

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83
Q

What are the common side effects of TCAs?

A

Drowsiness

Dry mouth

Blurred vision

Constipation

Urinary retnetion

Due to anti-muscarininc effects

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84
Q

What are the more sedative TCAs?

Less sedative?

A

Amitryptilline, clompiramine, dosulepine, trazodone

Imipramine, lofepramine, nortriptyline

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85
Q

What are the side effects most commonly associated with imipramine?

A

Blurred vision and dry outh?

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86
Q

When is low-dose imipramine commonly used?

A

Management of neuropathic pain and headache prohpylaxis

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87
Q

What are the most dangerous TCAs in OD?

Safest?

A

Amitryptilline and dosulepin

Loferpramine

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88
Q

What are the MMSE cut offs?

A

no cognitive impairment=24-30;

mild cognitive impairment=18-23;

severe cognitive impairment=0-17

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89
Q

What are the clinical features of anorexia?

A

Reduced BMI

Bradycardia

Hypotension

Enlarged salivary glands

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90
Q

What are the physiological abnormalities in AN?

A

Hypokalaemia

Low FSH, LH and sex hormones

Raised cortisol and GH

IGTT
Hypercholesterolaemia

Hypercartoniaemia

Low T3

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91
Q

Whata are the features of PTSD?

A

Flashbacks

Avodiance

Hyperarousal

Emotional numbing

Derpession, drug or ETOH misues, anger, unexplained physical symptoms

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92
Q

What is the management of PTSD?

A

Mild symptoms

CBT and EMDR used in more severe

Drug treatment is not first line

If drug treatment used: paroxetine or mirtazapine recommende

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93
Q

Section 2

A

28d not renewable

AMHP makes application on recommendation of 2 doctors

One of the 2 doctors must be Section 12 approved

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94
Q

Section 3

A

Admisison for treatment up to 6 months, renewable

AMHP and 2 doctors both of whom should have seen patient in last 24

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95
Q

Section 4

A

Emergency order in community

72hr assessment order

GP, AMHP or NR

Often changed to section 2 on hospital arrival

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96
Q

Section 5(2)

A

Voluntary patient can be detained by a doctor for 72 hours

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97
Q

Section 5(4)

A

As for 5 (2) but nurse for 6 hours

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98
Q

Section 17a

A

Comminuty treatment order

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99
Q

Section 135

A

Court order allowing police to break into a property to remove person to place of safety

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100
Q

Section 136

A

someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder can be taken by the police to a Place of Safety

Next question

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101
Q

Somatisation disorder

A
  • multiple physical SYMPTOMS present for at least 2 years
  • patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
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102
Q

Hypochondrial disorder

A

persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious DISEASE, e.g. cancer

patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

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103
Q

Conversion disorder

A

typically involves loss of motor or sensory function

the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering)

patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder - la belle indifference - although this has not been backed up by some studies

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104
Q

Dissociative disorder

A

dissociation is a process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness

in contrast to conversion disorder involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. Amnesia, fugue, stupor

dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the new term for multiple personality disorder as is the most severe form of dissociative disorder

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105
Q

Munchausen’s syndrome

A

also known as factitious disorder

the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms

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106
Q

Malingering

A

fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain

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107
Q

Features of neuroleptic malignant sydnrome

A

10% mortality

Occurs with atypical antipsychotics. May also occur with dopaminergic drugs, usually occurs when drug is suddenly stopped or dose reduction

More common in young males

Onset in first 10d of treatment

Pyrexia

Rigidity Tachycardia

Raised CK and leukocytosis

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108
Q

Management of NMS

A

Stop antipsychotic

IV fluids to prevent renal failure

Dantrolene in selected cases

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist) may also be used

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109
Q

Extra-pyramidal side effects

A

Parkinsonism

acute dystonia (e.g. torticollis, oculogyric crisis)

akathisia (severe restlessness)

tardive dyskinesia (late onset of choreoathetoid movements, abnormal, involuntary, may occur in 40% of patients, may be irreversible, most common is chewing and pouting of jaw)

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110
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics

A

Extra-pyramidal

Increased risk of stroke and VTE in elderly

Other side-effects

antimuscarinic: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation

sedation, weight gain

raised prolactin: galactorrhoea, impaired glucose tolerance

neuroleptic malignant syndrome: pyrexia, muscle stiffness

reduced seizure threshold (greater with atypicals)

prolonged QT interval (particularly haloperidol)

Clozapine: agranulocytosis/neutropenia + increased seizure activity

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111
Q

What is the importance of early intervention in schizophrenia?

A

° The longer the period between symptom onset and effective treatment (Duration of Untreated Psychosis), the worse the average outcome. ° The first few years after onset can be particularly distressing with a high risk of suicide. ° Therefore, in many developed countries, specialist Early Intervention in Psychosis teams support people in the first few years of their illness

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112
Q

What is important WRT to monitoring of antipsychotics?

A

AEs include weight gain, cardiac arrythmias and DM. Therefore regular monitoring of weight, lipid, glucose profiles + ECGs

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113
Q

When is there a risk of relapse WRT schizophrenia?

A

If antipsychoic mediacation is stopped

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114
Q

General approach to psychiatric illness

A

Meical

Psychological

Social

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115
Q

Prognosis for first psychotic episode

A

70% well within a year

80% relapse within 5 years

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116
Q

Adherence to antipsychotic medication

A

75% will discontinue within the first 18 months and those that do are 5x more likely to relapse over this period.

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117
Q

Good prognostic factors for schizophrenia

FINDING PLANS

A

Female

In relationship, good social support

No negative symptoms

aDheres to medication

Intellgience

No stress

Good premorbid personality

Paranoid subtype

Late onset

Acute onset

No substance misuse

Scan normal (CT/MRI)

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118
Q

When is the risk of suicide higher in Schizophrenia?

A

Young men

First few years of illness

Persistent hallucinations or delusions

History of illicit drugs

Previous suicide attempts

Lifetime risk in schizophrenics is 10%

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119
Q

What is a consideration re smoking and schizophrenia

A

Potenital impact on the metabolism, particulalry colazpine and olanzapine whena patient stop smoking

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120
Q

When is there a risk of developing psychosis?

A

Person is distressed and haqs had a decline in social functioning and:

  • transient/attenuated psychotic symptoms or
  • other experiences or behaviour suggestive of possible psychosis
  • or first-degree relative with psychosis or schizophrenia

Refer to specialist assessment for early intervention

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121
Q

What are the treatment options to prevent psychosis

A

CBT +/- family intervention and offer interventions for people with any of the anxiety , depression, emerging personality disorder, or substance misuese

Do not offer antipsychotics

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122
Q

Treatment of first episode of psychosis:

A

Oral antipsychotic in conjunction with psychological interventions

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123
Q

Adverse effects of antipsychotic medication

Metabolic

Extrapyramidal

CV

Hormonal

Other

A

Weight gain/DM

Akathisia, dyskinesia and dystonia

QT prolongation

Raised plasma prolactin

Unpleasant subjective experiences

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124
Q

What should be done before starting antipsychotics

A

Baseline investigations

Weight

Waist circumference

Pulse and BP

Fasting blood glucose, HbA1c, lipid profile and prolactin

Assessment of movement disorders

Assessment of nutritional status, diet and level of physical activity

+/- ECG if indicated, either by CV exam or on SPC.

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125
Q

Monitoring of antipsychotic resposne

A

Resposne

Side effects

?Movement disorders

Weight, 6w, 12w, 1y

Waist circumference annualy

Pulse and BP at 12w, 1y then annualy

FBG and HBA1c at 12w then annualy.

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126
Q

What is an ADR specifically assocaited with chlorpromazine?

A

Skin photosensitivity

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127
Q

Treatment of people whose schizophrenia has not responded adequately to treatment

A

R/V diagnosis and adherence. Engagement with psychological therapy. Consider other causes of non-response

If 2 sequential antipsychotics have been used at appropriate dose (at least 1 of which should ne non-cloazpine-second generation antipsychotic) use clozapine (4-6 week trial of each)

If clozapine at opitmised dose does not lead to respond, consider adding a second antipsychotic.

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128
Q

What is used to assess post-partum mental health?

What is the score?

A

Edinburgh post-natal depression scale

>13/30 indicates a derpessive illness of varying severity

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129
Q

What are features of baby-blues?

Management?

A

60-70% of women

3-7d post-partum

Anxious, tearful and irritable

Reassurance and support

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130
Q

What are the features of postnatal depression?

Management?

A

10% of women, starts within 1m and peaks at 3m

Similar smyptoms to depression

Reassurance and support.

SSRIs may be used if symptoms are severe. Paroxetine or Sertraline. (Paroxetine has low milk/plasma ratio)

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131
Q

Why do the SIGN guidelines preferentially recommend paroxetine for postnatal depression?

A

Due to low milk/plasma ratio

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132
Q

What are the features of puerpal psychosis

Management

A

0.2% of women

2-3w following birth

Severe mood swings and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations).

Admission to hospital

Px: 20% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies

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133
Q

What differentiates mania from hypomania?

A

Psychotic symptoms: delusions of grandeur, auditory hallucinations

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134
Q

What are the symptoms common to both hypomania and mania?

A

Mood: elevated, irritable

Speech and thought: pressured, flight of ideas, poor attention

Behaviour: insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite

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135
Q

What is the most common psychiatric problems in Parkinson’s?

A

Depression

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136
Q

What is the classical triad of features in PD?

A

Bradykinesia, tremor and rigidity

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137
Q

What are the medications of choice in psychosis in pt with dementia?

A

Haloperidol or olanzapine

NB in PD, all antipsychtoics can aggravate symptoms.

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138
Q

How should you switch from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another SSRI?

A

the first SSRI should be withdrawn* before the alternative SSRI is started

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139
Q

Switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI

A

withdraw then leave a gap of 4-7 days (as it has a long half-life) before starting a low-dose of the alternative SSRI

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140
Q

Switching from a SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

A

cross-tapering is recommend (the current drug dose is reduced slowly, whilst the dose of the new drug is increased slowly)

  • an exceptions is fluoxetine which should be withdrawn prior to TCAs being started
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141
Q

Switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine

A

cross-taper cautiously. Start venlafaxine 37.5 mg daily and increase very slowly

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142
Q

Switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine

A

withdraw and then start venlafaxine at 37.5 mg each day and increase very slowly

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143
Q

What are the classical symtpoms of depression?

Some other common symptoms

A

Low mood, anhedonia, anergia

  • Reduced concentrationa and ttention
  • Decreased self-esteem and confience
  • Guilt/worthlessness
  • Bleak/pessimisticabout future
  • Ideas or acts of self-harm
  • Disturbed sleep
  • Diminished appetite and weight losee
  • Psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • Loss of libido.
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144
Q

What are the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria for a mild depressive episode?

A

At least 2 of the main symptoms and at least 2 of the other symtpoms. None of which should be present to an intense degree

>2w.

Should be able to continue work and social functioning

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145
Q

What are the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria for a moderate depressive episode?

A

At least 2 of the main 3. And >3-4 of the other symptoms

>2w

Individuals will usually haev considerable difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning

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146
Q

What are the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria for a severe depressive episode?

A

All 3 of the main +4 of the other which should be of severe intensity.

>2w but if particularly severe, appropriate to make early diagnosis

May be evdience of psychosis

Individuals show severe distress and or agitation.

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147
Q

What are the two screening questions for depression?

A

‘During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless?’

‘During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?’

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148
Q

What does NCIE use to grade depression?

A

DSM-IV

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149
Q

What are the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression

A

All should be for most of the day or nearly every day:

  • Depressed mood
  • Anhedonia
  • Significant weight gain
  • Insomnia or hypersomnia
  • Psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • Fatigue or oloss of energy
  • Feelings of worhtlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt
  • Diminished ability to think or concentrate

Recurrent thoughts of death and thoughts about suicide

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150
Q

Mild depression DSM

A

>5 symptoms but mild with minor functional impairment

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151
Q

Moderate depression DSM

A

Symptoms or funcitonal impairmeent are between mild and severe

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152
Q

Severe depression DSM

A

Most symptoms and the symtpoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms

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153
Q

What is the risk of developing schizophren if

MZ?

Parent

Sibling

No relatives

A

50%

10-15%

10%

1%

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154
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for agranulocytosis

A

FBC with neutrophil count

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155
Q

What are some drug classes that can cause agranulocytosis?

A
  • Antipsychotics (predominantly Clozapine)
  • Antiepileptics
  • Antithyroid Drugs (Carbimazole)
  • Antibiotics (Penicillin, Chloramphenicol and Co-Trimoxazole)
  • Cytotoxic Drugs
  • Gold
  • NSAIDs (Naproxen, Indomethacin)
  • Allopurinol
  • Mirtazapine
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156
Q

What is an oral tranquiliser if a patient is prescribed a regular antipsychotic?

If not on a regular antipsychotic?

A

lorazepam or promethazine

Olanzopine, quetiapine, risperidone or haloperidol (avoid using more than one)

Buccal midazolam can also be used to avoid IM treatment

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157
Q

What are the IM treatment options for tranquilsation?

A

Lorazepam, promaethazine, aripriprazole, haloperidol

Consider IV diazepam

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158
Q

How are extrapyramidal SEs managed?

A

Procylcidine

Can also be used for acute dystonia

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159
Q

Treatment of akahisia

A

Propanalol +/- cyproheptadine

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160
Q

Treatment of tardive dyskinesia

A

May be irreversible but try tetrabenzine

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161
Q

Rank the atypicals in terms of likelihood of EPSEs

A

Quitiepine

Clozapine

Aripriprazole

Zotepine

Occur at high dosese of olanzapine, amisulpride and risperidone

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162
Q

Which atypicals have no impact on serum prolactin?

Which does at high doses?

A

Aripiprazole, clozapine and quetiapine

Olanzapine

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163
Q

What is a significant SE of antipsychotics that contributes to noncompliance?

A

Sexual dysfunction (ED, anorgasmia, libido etc)

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164
Q

What additional therapy may reduce negative side effects

A

Minocycline

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165
Q

What is aconsideration of dual therapy in failure to resond?

A

Aripriprazole and non-clozapine atypicals may worsen psychosis

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166
Q

TWEAK

+ve?

A

Tolerance

Worry about drinking

Eye opener

Amnesia

Attempts to Cut down

>2= +ve for dependance

?more sensitive than CAGE

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167
Q

What are the features of childhood depression not seen in adults?

A

Defiance- running away from home

Separation anxiety and school refusal

Boredom

Antisocial behaviour

Insomnia (early rather than EMW)

Hypersomnia

Eating problems

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168
Q

Core symptoms of depression

A

Low mood, anhedonia, anergia

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169
Q

What is Beck’s cognitive tria?

A

The Self

The World

The Future

Guilt/worthlessness

Death or Sucidide

Are also common depressive thoughts

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170
Q

What is diurnal variation?

A

Maximal lowering of mood in the morning

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171
Q

What are the features of atypical depression

A

Initial anxietry related insomnia

Subsequent oversleeping

Increased appetite and a relatively bright, reactive mood.

More common in adolescence

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172
Q

Whata re the mood-congruent features of depressive psychosis?

A

Nihilistic delusions

Hallucinations are usually auditory, in second person and accusing/condemning or urging the individual to commit suicide

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173
Q

What differentiates psychotic depression from schizophrenia?

A

Temporal sequence and the basis of thought content (i.e. mood congruent psychosis)

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174
Q

Epidemiology of depression

A

10-20% with rates almost doubled in women

Typically in third decade (earlier for bipolar disorder)

Strongly associated with socio-economic deprivation

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175
Q

What is thought to be the final common physiological pathway in depression

A

Reduced BDNF which results from hypercortisolaemia (hypo in aypical) and decreased NAdr and 5-HT

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176
Q

When is psychiatric referral for depression indicated?

A

High suicide risk

Severe derpession

Unresponsive to initial treatment

Bipolar or recurrent

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177
Q

Mx of depression

A

Mild- CBT

Moderate/Severe: CBT + antidepressant

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178
Q

What Rx may resistant depression respond to?

A

Combining antidepressant with lithium, an atypical or another antidepressant (e.g. mirtazapine)

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179
Q

What is antidepressant augmentation?

A

When an antidepressant is used with a non-antidepressant

Combination is two anti-depressants used together

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180
Q

What should be done when prescribing lithium

A

Monitor renal and thyroid function before treatment and every 6 months during treatment (more often if renally impaired)

Consider ECG monitoring in those at increased risk of CV disease

Monitor [Li] 1w after initiation and each dose change until stable and every 3 months thereafter

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181
Q

How are the individual epsidoes of BPAD calssified?

A

Depressive

Manic

Hypomanic

Mixed (both present or rapid alternation)

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182
Q

DSM IV classification of BPAD

BPAD 1

BPAD2

Cyclothymci disorder

A

One or more manic or mixed epsidoes and usually one or more major depressive episodes

Recurrent major depressive and hypomanic (BUT NOT MANIC) episodes

Chronic mood fluctuations over at least 2 years with epsidoes of depression and hypomania of insufficient severity to meet diagnostic criteria

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183
Q

What are the cardinal features of mania/hypomania

A

Alteration in mood: elated and expansive

May be characterised by intense irritabilty

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184
Q

What are the assocaited features of mania

A

Increased psychomotor activity

Exagerrated optimism

Inflated self-esteem

Disinhibtion: sexual, spending, driving, business/religious or political intitiatives.

Heightened sensory awareness

Rapid thinking and speech: Pressured. Flight of ideas

Mania only: mood-congruent delusions and hallucinations (usually auditory)

Insight often absent

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185
Q

What is the peak age of onset for BPAD?

A

Early 20s, often starts in childhood and adolescene

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186
Q

Management of mania/hypomania if patient is taking an antidepressant as monotherapy

A

Consider stopping antidepressant and offer antipsychotic (regardless of whether the antidepressant is stopped)

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187
Q

Mx of acute mania/hypomania and not taking mood stabiliser or antipsychotic

A

Offer atypical (olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone or haloperidol)

If doesn’t work consider an alternative from the drugs listed above

If alternative not sufficiently effective at the maximum licensed dose off Lithium (if patient refuses Li due to blood monitoring, consider valproate)

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188
Q

If someone is already taking lithium and develops (hypo)mania

If already taking VPA

A

Check [plasma]

Consider adding haloperidol, onalzapine, quetiapine or risperidone)

Consider increasing to maximum livesned dose, if no improvement consider adding one of the above.

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189
Q

Mc of Bipolar depression if not taking mood stabiliser

If taking mood stabiliser?

A

Psychological: CBT, interpersonal therapy

Pharmacological:

If someone develops moderate or severe bipolar depression offer fluoxetine combined with olanzapine or quetiapine on its own

Check plasma level, increase if not at maximal. If at maximal add eithe fluoxetine combined with olanazapine or quetiapine on its own

Same for VPA

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190
Q

What is the long-term treatment of BPAD to preent relapse?

A

Lithium as first line (if ineffective consider adding VPA)

If cannot tolerate Li, switch to VPA or olanzapine

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191
Q

What is a consideration in women of child bearing age in terms of mood stabilisation?

A

Teratogenic so should ideally be avoided

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192
Q

What is the prognosis for BPAD in those with rapid cycling

A

Seldom respond to lithium, respond bettwer to anti-epileptic mood stabilisers.

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193
Q

What is the prognosis for cyclothymia

A

30% risk developing full blown BPAD

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194
Q

What are some manifestations of acute dystonia?

A

Torticollois, oculogyric crisis

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195
Q

What is associated with a poor prognosis in schizophrenia?

A

Strong FHx

Gradual onset

Low IQ

PRemorbid history of social withdrawal

Lack of obvious precipitant

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196
Q

What are the common side-effects of ECT?

When is it used?

What is the only absolute CI?

A

Headache

Nausea

STM impairment

Memory loss of events prior to ECT

Arrythmias

LT: impaired memory

In severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms

Raised ICP

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197
Q

What are the features of ADHD

A

Extreme restlessness

Poor concentration

Uncontrolled activity

Impulsiveness

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198
Q

Mx of ADHD?

What is ADHD called in UK?

A

Specialist assessment

Food diary- ?link with certain foods

Methylphenidate (atomoxetine)

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199
Q

What are the side effects of methylphenidate?

A

Abdo pain

Nausea

Dyspepsia

Growth should be monitored

?Psychaitric disorders should be monitored

BP/ pulse every 6 months

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200
Q

Features of atypical grief reactions include

A

Delayed grief: sometimes said to occur when more than 2 weeks passes before grieving begins

prolonged grief: difficult to define. Normal grief reactions may take up to and beyond 12 months

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201
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

symptoms: 6-12 hours
seizures: 36 hours

delirium tremens: 72 hours

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202
Q

Different types of stress reation and input

A

Adjustment disorder: life adversities

Grief/abnormal grief reaction: bereavement

Acute stress reaction: exceptional stress; can lead to ->

PTSD: exceptional stress

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203
Q

Features of adjustment disorder

Treatment

A

Life adversity e.g. job loss, house move, divorce

Onset within weeks, last

Symptoms: depression, anxiety, autonomic arousal

Practical support: ventilate feelings, problem solving, CBT

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204
Q

Features of normal grief reaction

DAGDA

A

Lasts up to 2 years

Stages:

Denial

Anger

Guilt

Depression

Acceptance

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205
Q

Features of abnorml grief reaction

A

Categroised as adjustment disorder

Delayed onset, greater intensity and duration

More likely when: difficult relationship with deceased, death was sudden, there are constraints to normal grieving

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206
Q

Features of acute stress reaction

Treatment

A

Eceptional stress e.g. accident, war, rape

Onset: minutes to hours

Lasts

Mixed symptoms: dazed/perplexed, intense anxiety

Give practical support:

reorientate

brief CBT

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207
Q

Features of PTSD

Treatment

A

Can be precipitated by acute stress reaction

Weeks to months

Symptoms >1m:

Intrusive thoughts/flashbacks/nightmares

Avoidance

Numbing/detachment

Increased arousal

Trauma focused CBT

EMDR

Antidepresssants

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208
Q

What predicts increased risk of PTSD in acute stress reaction?

A

Dissociative symptoms

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209
Q

Characteristic features for PTSD

Risk

Vulnerability factors

A

Persistent intrsuive thinking/re-experiencing

Avoidance

Numbing, detachment and enstrangement/loss of interest in significant activites

Increased arousal: autonomic symptoms, hypervigilance,

ETOH/substance misuse

Depression may be comorbid or 2o to PTSD

Proportional to magnitude of the stressor.

Vulnerability factors: lac of social support, presence of other adversities and pre-morbid personalityy

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210
Q

Treatment of PTSD

>3m

First line

Rx?

Rx if failed on first Rx

A

Mild symptoms: watchful waiting, with 1m follow up

PTSD within 3m of event: psychological therapy, drug treatment e.g short term hypnotic Rx.

PTSD for >3m after event: trauma focussed psychological therapy. Rx not first line However:

Mitrazapine/Paroxetine for general use.

Amitriptyline or phenelzine (mental health specialists)

Rx should be offered to PTSD sufferers who cannot start psychological therapy e.g. due to ongoing threat of further trauma eg domestic violence

Rx should be offered if comorbid depression/severe hyperarousal

Alternative class or adjunctive olanazpine.

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211
Q

Considerations for Rx PTSD

A

Suicide risk

Akathisia

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212
Q

Treatment of PTSD in children

A

Psychological therapy

Rx should not be routinely considered

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213
Q

What are the anxiety disorders?

A

GAD

Panic disorders

Phobias

OCD

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214
Q

Epidemiology of anxiety disorders

A

Women, younger adults and middle aged

Less prevalent in men and the elderly

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215
Q

Aetiology of anxiety

A

Reduced GABA

Heigthened amydala activation

ETOH and BZD may cause attacks

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216
Q

What are the childhood associations for anxiety?

A

Abuse

Separations

Demands for high achievement

Excessive conformity

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217
Q

Features of panic disorder

A

Recurrent episodic anxiety attacks which are not restricted to any particular situation.

At least 3 panic attacks in a 3 week period for Dx

Characteristic symptoms

May also develop anticipatory fear.

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218
Q

Classical symptoms of panic attack

A

Autonomic: palpitations, breathlessness, sweating, trembling, breathlessness

Feeling of choking

Chest pain/discomfort

Nausea/abdo pain

Dizziness, paraesthesia

Chills and hot flushes

Derealisation/depersonalisation

Fear of losing control

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219
Q

Management of panic disorder

A

SSRI and CBT

TCA where SSRI ineffective

BZD not recommended.

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220
Q

Features of GAD

A

Generalised, persistent, excessive anxiety or worry about a number of events that the individual finds difficult to control lasting at least 3 weeks (ICD10) or >6m (DSM-IV)

Usually associated with apprehension, increased vigilance, restlessness, sleep dififculty (initial/middle insomnia, fatigue on waking), motor tension (tremor), autonomic hyperactivity

May be comorbid with other anxiety disorders, depression, ETOH and drug abuse

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221
Q

Rx of GAD

A

SSRI and CBT

SNRI

Pregabalin

BSD not to be used.

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222
Q

Mx of agoraphobia

Social phobia

Specfic phobias

A

CBT (+/- SSRI)

CBT, Rx not first line, SSRI can be used

Graded exposure therapy and response prevention. ST BZD eg foor flying can be considered

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223
Q

Features of OCD

A

2-3% prevalence

M=F

Dx= obsessions and compulsions for >1h/d for >2w + distressing impact on life

Rx: SSRIs, CBT

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224
Q

Features of Anakastic PD

A

Obsessional and compulsive life symptoms but not egodystonic, not resisted

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225
Q

Features of body dysmorphic disorder

A

Obsessional preoccpation with imagined or mild phsyical defects

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226
Q

What are obsessions

A

Unwelcome, persistent, recurrent, intrusnive, senseless and uncomfortable to the individual who attempts to suppress them and recognises them as absurd (egodystonic)

May be: thoughts, images, impulses, ruminations, doubts

Different from volitional fantasies which are not displeasurable (egosyntonic)

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227
Q

What are compulsions

A

Repetitive, purposeful physical or metnal behaviours performed with reluctance in response to an obsessions

Carried out in a stereotyped fashion and are designed to neutralise/prevent discomfort

Not connected to the trigger in a realistic way

Individual realises the behaviour is unreasonable

Can include: hand washing, counting, touching and rearranging onjects to achieve symmetry, mental compulsions, hoaridng, arithmomania, onomatomania, folie du pourquoi (irresistable habit of seeking explanations for commonplace facts), inappropriate and excessive tidiness

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228
Q

What happens if an individual resists and obsession or compulsion?

A

Anxiety increases until the compulsive activity is performed.

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229
Q

What are the 4 OCD subtpyes

What are the complications?

A

Obsessions and compulsions concerned with contamination

Checking compulsions

Obsessions without overt compulsive acts

Hoarding

Depression and abuse of anxiolytics or ETOH.

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230
Q

What is PANDAS

A

Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disrders associated with Streptococci

OCD and related disorders occuring suddenly in children following streptococcal infection

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231
Q

Mx of OCD and BDD

First line Rx in OCD

BDD?

Second line?

Third line?

In children?

A

CBT (including Exposure Response Prevention)

SSRI (fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline or citalopram)

BDD should be fluoxetine (more evidenc)

Can be either or dependant on degree of functional impairment and ability to engage in CBT

Combination therapy in those with more severe functional impairment

Clomipramine should be considered in the treatment of adults with OCD or BDD after an adequate trial of at least one SSRI has been ineffective or poorly tolerated, if the patient prefers clomipramine or has had a previous good response to it.

If clomipramine fails can consider additional CBT, adding antipsychotic to SSRI or clomipramine or combinaing clomipramine and citalopram.

If combination Rx fails, buspirone.

If unable/unwilling to undertake psychological therapy. Rx with SSRI with careful monitoring.

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232
Q

Features of anankastic PD

A

Rigidity of thinking

Perfectionsim that may interfere with task completion

Preoccupation with rules

Objectively high standards are seldom achieved and tendency to hoard

Excessive cleanliness and orderliness

Emotional coldness

Egosyntonic traits

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233
Q

Definition of A nervosa

A

Morbid fear of fatness, distorted body image, delibrate weight loss, amenorrhoea, BMI

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234
Q

Definition of B nervosa

A

Morbid fear of fatness, distorted body image.

Craving for good and uncontrolled binge-eating

Purging/vomiting/laxative abuse

Fluctuating weight (normal/ecessive)

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235
Q

Epidemiology of A + B Nervosa

A

13-20

Men later

F:M 3:1

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236
Q

Kleine-Levin Syndrome (Sleeping beatuy syndrome)

A

Hypersomna and cogntiive or mood changes

Hyperphagia and hypersexuality,

Recurrent episodes (1w-1m but resolve spontaneously)

KLS is a diagnosis of exclusion

Li may be helpful

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237
Q

Klüver–Bucy syndrome

A

Syndrome resulting from bilateral lesions of the medial temporal lobe

Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperoralitiy, visual agnosia and docility

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238
Q

Prognosis of AN

A

40% recover

35% improve

20% become chronic

5% death

LT risk of osteoporosis

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239
Q

Px of BN

A

Poor if low BMI, high frequency of purgring

30-40% remission with CBT/IPT

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240
Q

What is the diagnosis if there is a mixed Anorexic/bulimic picture?

A

Easting disorder NOS

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241
Q

ICD Dx of AN

A

a morbid fear of fatness

° deliberate weight loss

° distorted body image

° Body Mass Index (BMI, weight [kg]/ht [m]2 )

° amenorrhoea (primary prepubertally, or secondary; oral contraceptive pill may still cause vaginal bleeds)

° loss of sexual interest and potency in men; in prepubertal boys development will be arrested.

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242
Q

Associated clinical features of AN

A

Preoccupation with food

Self-consciousness about eating in public

Vigorous exercise

Constipation

Cold intolerance

Depressive and OC symtpoms

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243
Q

What are the physical complications/signs associated with AN?

A

Emaciation

Dry/yellow skin

Lanugo hair on the face and trunk

Bradycardia and hypotension

Anaemia and leucopenia

Consequences of repeated vomiting: hypokalaemia, alkalosis, pitted teeth, parotid swelling and scarring of the dorsum of the hand

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244
Q

What is Russel’s sign?

A

Scarring of the dorsum of the hand

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245
Q

What are appropriate screening questions for AN?

A

Do you think you have an eating problem?

Do you worry excessively about your weight?

NB screen young people with T1DM and poor treatment adherence for the presence of an eating disorder

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246
Q

Mx of AN

Rx

Physical

When to admit?

A

Psychological intervention: Cognitive analytic therapy (CAT) CBT, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions

Rx for comorbid conditions

Medication should not be used as sole or primary treatment for AN

NB SFx, particulalry cardiac related.

Physical managment: 0.5-1kg weight gain in-patient should be aim. Reglar physical montiroing with multi-vitamin supplementation. TPN should not be used in absence of significant GI dysfunction.

Moderate to high physical/suicid risk, where patient has not improved despite appropraite out-patient treatment.

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247
Q

Mx of BN

Physical:

A
  1. Self-help programme/SSRI- fluoxetine (60mg/daily, higher than depression) (alternative/additional)
  2. CBT (+ other psychological therapy if CBT-BN has not worked), IPT can be offered but takes longer to get resuts.

No other pharmacological therapy recommended

Physical:

Fluid/electrolyte balance

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248
Q

What is the threshold for high risk of fatal arrhythmia or hypoglycaeia?

A

BMI

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249
Q

What are the associated clinical features of BN?

A

Normal or excessive fluctuant weight

Loss of control during bingeing

Intense self-loathing and associated depression

Multi-impulsive bulimia: ETOH and drug misuse, deliberate self-harm, stealing/sexual disinhbition co-exist

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250
Q

Phsical signs of BN

A

Amenorrhoea

Hypokalaemia

Signs of excessive vomiting (acute oesophageal tears can occur during forced vomiting)

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251
Q

Management of paracetamol poisoning:

otherwise

A

Activated charcoal

N-acetylcysteine

Liver transplant

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252
Q

Mx of salicylate poisoning

A

Haemodialysis

(urinary alkalinisation

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253
Q

How can you divide the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Auditory hallucinations

Thought disorders

Passivity phenomena

Delusional perceptions

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254
Q

What are the typical features of post-concussion syndrome?

A

Headache

Fatigue

Anxiety/depression

Dizziness

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255
Q

When is the best time to monitor Li levels?

What is the range?

A

12hrs post-dose

0.4-1mmol/l

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256
Q

When is the best time to monitor digoxin levels

A

6hrs post-dose

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257
Q

When is the best time to monitor ciclosporin levels

A

Trough levels immediately before dose

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258
Q

When is the best time to monitor phenytoin levels?

When should they be checked?

A

Do not need routine monitoring

Adjustment of dose, suspected toxicity, detection of non-adherence

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259
Q

A 65-year-old female with a history of ischaemic heart disease is noted to be depressed following a recent myocardial infarction. What would be the most appropriate antidepressant to start?

A

Sertraline is the preferred antidepressant following a myocardial infarction as there is more evidence for its safe use in this situation than other antidepressants

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260
Q

Cluster A PD

(Mad)

A

Paranoid

Schizoid

Schizotypal

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261
Q

Cluster B PD

(Bad)

A

Borderline (DSM)/ EUPD (ICD)

Histrionic

[Narcissistic- DSM only]

Antisocial (DSM)/ Dissocial (ICD)

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262
Q

Cluster C PD

Sad

A

Avoidant (DSM)/ Anxious PD

Dependent PD

Anankastic (DSM)/ OC PD

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263
Q

Features of paranoid PD

A

Cold affect

Pervasive distrust and suscpiciousness

Preoccupied by mistrust of friends or spouse

Bears grudges

Reluctance to confide

Interprets remarks negatively

Hypersensitivity to rejection

Grandiose sense of personal rights

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264
Q

Schizoid PD

A

Social withdrawal

Restricted emotional range

Restricted pleasure

Lacks confidants

Indifference to praise or criticism

Aloof

Insensitivity to social norms

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265
Q

Schizotypal PD

A

Pervasive social and interpesronal deficits

Ideas of regerence

Magical thinking

Unusual perception

Vague/circumstantial/tangential thinking

Inappropriate/constricted affect

Eccentricity/suscpiciousness

Excessive social anxiety

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266
Q

Borderline/EUPD

A

DSM/ ICD

Unstable and intense interpersonal relationships, self image, affect

Self-damaging impulsivity: criminal, sex, substance abuse, binge-eating

Identity confusion

Chronic anhedonia

Recurrent suicidal or self-mutilating behaviour

Transient Paranoid ideation

Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment

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267
Q

Histrionic PD

A

Excessive shallow emotionality

Attention-seeking

Suggestibility

Shallow/labile affect

Inappropriate sexual seductiveness but immaturity

Narcissism

Grandiosity

Exploitative actions

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268
Q

Narcissistic PD

A

Pervasie grandiosity

Lack of empathy

Need for praise

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269
Q

Antisocial/dissocial PD

A

Persistent disregard for rights/safety of others

Gross irresponsiblity

Incapacity to maintain relatoinships

Irritability

Low threshold for frustration and aggression

Incapacity to experience guilt

Deceitfulness

Impulsivity

Disregard for personal safety

Proneness to blame others

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270
Q

Avoidant/anxious PD

A

Persistent feelings of tension and inadequacy

Social inhibitions

Unqillingness to become involved with people unless certain of being liked

Restriction in lifestyle to maintain physical security

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271
Q

Dependant PD

A

Excessive need to be taken care of

Fear of separation

Excessive advice to make decisions

Difficulty in expressing disagreement

Needs others to assume responsiblity

Low selflconfidence

Undue compliance with others wishes

Unwilling to make demands on people

Preoccupation with fears of being left alone

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272
Q

Anankastic/OC PD

A

Excessive doubt, caution, rigidity and stubborness

Preoccupation with details

Perfectionism leading to interference with task completion

Excessive conscientiousness

Excessive pedantry

Obsessional thoughts or impulses without resistance

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273
Q

Hierarchy of diagnosis in psychiatry

A

Organic

Psychosis

Affective

Neurosis

PD

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274
Q

Mx of borderline PD

A

Adapated CBT, DBT and mentalisation based treatments

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275
Q

What PD is associated with increased risk of BPAD?

A

Borderline

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276
Q

Which PDs predispose to OCD? (also to depression)

A

OC PD

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277
Q

Which PD increase risk of psychosis?

A

Paranoid

Schizotypal

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278
Q

How can psychosexual disorders be subdivided?

A

Disorders of function

preference

identity

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279
Q

What is a paraphilia?

A

Disorder of sexual preference

Can be classifiied into variations of sexual object or variation of sexual act

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280
Q

Capgras’ syndrome

A

Delusional misindentification syndrome (psychotic)

Belief that a person known to the patient has been replaced by an imposter who is their exact double

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281
Q

Fregoli’s syndrome?

A

Delusional misidentification syndrome (psychotic)

Strangers or other people patient meets are the patient’s persecutors indisguise

Seen in schizophrenia, affective disorders, dementia or other organic illness.

Treat the primary disorder.

NB Risk

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282
Q

Ekbom’s syndrome

A

Delusional parasitosis

W>M (2:1)

Believe that insects are colonising their body, including skin and eyes. Claim to feel sensations and see bugs.

Delusions may be circumscribed or part of a schizophrenic/depressive ilnness

Rx Antipsychotics

283
Q

Folie a deux

A

A delusional belief that is shared by >2 people of whom only one has a psychotic illness

Delusion is usually persecutory or hypochondriacal

Principle diagnosis is schizophrenia but may also be affective/dementia

284
Q

De Clerambault’s syndrome

A

Erotomania

Patient has the unfounded and delusional belief that someone is in love with her

Patient makes inappropriate advances to the person and becomes angry when rejected

May be part of affective (manic) disorder or more rarely schizophrenia.

Rx treatment of underlying disease/ antipsychotics

285
Q

Othello syndrome

A

Morbid/pathological jealousy

Usually male, convinced partner is being unfaithful.

May occur in LT ETOH abuse, dementia, schizophrenia, cocaine addiction and a side effect of dopamine agonism in PD.

Risk of violence/homicide

286
Q

Cortard’s syndrome

A

Nihilistic delusions in which ptients believes parts of his or her body are decaying/rotting/don’t exist.

Patients may also believe they are dead/unable to die

Psychotic depression

ECT often required due to the severity of the associated depression

287
Q

Munchausen’s syndrome

A

Factitous disorder

Deliberately feinged symptomatology, usually physical but sometimes psychiatric

Multiple presentations to A&E

May use multiple aliases, have no fixed GP

Characteristically occurs in severe PD

288
Q

DDx for Munchausen’s

A

Somatisation

Dissociative

Undiagnosed illlness

289
Q

Couvade syndrome

A

Experience of symptoms resembling pregnancy (abdo swelling, N&V) in expectant fathers

Anxietry and psychosomatic symptoms also common

290
Q

Ganser’s syndrome

A

Apporximate, absurd and inconsistent answers to simple questions

Clouding of consciousness

True/pseudo-hallucinations

Somatic symptoms

Dissociative disorder against intolerable stress

291
Q

How does the ICD-10 classify substance abuse

What are the categories?

A

Substance and type of disorder

Acute intoxication

Harmful use

Dependance

Withdrawal state

Psychotic disorder

Amnesic disorder

Residual and late onset psychotic disorders

292
Q

What are the signs of dependance?

C

A

N

T

S

T

O

P

A

Compulsion to take

Aware of harms but persist

Neglect other activities

Tolerance

Stopping causes withdrawal

Time preoccupied with substance

Out of control of use

Persistent futile wish to cut down`

293
Q

What are the early and late withdrawal symptoms of opiate abuse?

A

Craving, flu-like, sweating and yawning, (24-48h)

Mydriasis, abdo pain, diarrhoea, agitation, restlessness, piloerection and tachycardia occur later (7-10d)

294
Q

What are the Rx options for opiate detoxification

Relapse prevention?

OD?

A

Methadone (agonist)/ buprenorphine (partial agonist) are first line

Lofexidine sometimes used for short detox treatments

Naltrexone used to prevent relapse

Naloxone used for OD

295
Q

Options

A. Akathisia
B. Parkinsonism
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Mannerisms
E. Stereotypies
F. Tics
G. Compulsions
H. Catatonia
I. Intention tremor
J. Dystonia

GE is a 46 year old man who has been treated for paranoid schizophrenia for the last 12 years. His family have noticed that recently he has been grimacing and pulling faces. This seems to be getting worse and they are concerned that he is reacting to hallucinations again.

A

Learning points :

•Answer : C . Contrast acute EPSE’s (Parkinsonism, acute dystonias etc) to chronic side effects like TD. Tardive dyskinesias (TDs) are involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities that occur in patients exposed to long-term dopaminergic antagonists (commonly first generation antipsychotics ). Note that even a single exposure to a dopamine antagonist in people with brain disorders i.e. LD or fetal alcohol syndrome can precipitate it. Older patients and women with chronic psychotic illness are particularly susceptible.

296
Q

Options

A. Akathisia
B. Parkinsonism
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Mannerisms
E. Stereotypies
F. Tics
G. Compulsions
H. Catatonia
I. Intention tremor

J. Dystonia

ES is a 24 year old woman who was admitted with an acute psychotic episode and has been taking Risperidone for 3 weeks. You are a senior house officer working on her ward, and have been asked to see her by nursing staff, since she “keeps pacing by the door”. Staff are concerned that she is trying to abscond. During the consultation you notice that she seems on edge and unable to settle. On several occasions she rises from her seat to pace up and down.

A

Learning points :

  • Answer : A. Akathisia is most commonly experienced in the first few weeks of treatment then generally reduces in intensity or wears out completely. In a minority, it starts later on in treatment cycle.
  • may also be involved with disrupted NMDA channel
  • increased levels of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine

  • Propranolol
  • Clonazepam
297
Q

Options :

A. Sodium valproate
B. Cognitive behavioural therapy
C. Sertraline
D. Minimise cardiovascular risk factors
E. Donepezil
F. Olanzapine
G. Lithium
H. Levothyroxine
I. Diazepam
J. Encourage to avoid crowded places

A

•Answer is D. On the basis of this history, vascular dementia is a concern, though delirium must be excluded first. The evidence for using anticholinesterases for VD is reasonable (despite what NICE say) , in practice differentiating VD from Alzheimer’s is quite tough .This gentleman needs to minimise his cardiovascular risk factors as a first line of treatment by addressing his smoking, concordance and diabetic management.

298
Q

A. Sodium valproate
B. Cognitive behavioural therapy
C. Sertraline
D. Minimise cardiovascular risk factors
E. Donepezil
F. Olanzapine
G. Lithium
H. Levothyroxine
I. Diazepam
J. Encourage to avoid crowded places

The son of an 80 year old woman asks you to conduct a home visit as he is concerned that his mother’s memory “isn’t what it was”. She has not been dressing herself in the morning and no longer reads or does the crossword. She has put on weight, become increasingly withdrawn, lethargic; her movements are slowed. Her only significant past medical history is T2 N0 M0 carcinoma of the larynx, successfully treated with radiotherapy 4 years ago.

A

Answer is H. The slowed thoughts and movements, lethargy , weight gain , self neglect could all suggest depression with atypical features, but in the context of her medical history, hypothyroidism should be excluded as cause of her affective and cognitive symptoms. If her TFTs are normal, atypical depression would be the next diagnosis to consider.

299
Q

Options :

A. Sodium valproate
B. Cognitive behavioural therapy
C. Sertraline
D. Minimise cardiovascular risk factors
E. Donepezil
F. Olanzapine
G. Lithium
H. Levothyroxine
I. Diazepam
J. Encourage to avoid crowded places

The daughter of a 72 year old man asks you to see him at home as he has been losing weight and no longer leaves the house. When you visit he appears disheveled. You know him well as you were involved in the palliative care of his wife who died last year, however he doesn’t recognise you. He is orientated to time but not place, and scores 16 / 25 on the MMSE, saying he “doesn’t know” and becoming frustrated with your questioning. He has been feeling very lethargic and sleeps poorly.

A

•Answer is E. This is likely to be Dementia with Lewy Bodies (suggested by new parkinsonian signs, vivid visual hallucinations). Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used in both DLB and Alzheimer’s disease. Revise the presenting features of DLB. The full Parkinson’s syndrome is tremor, rigidity , bradykinesia and postural instability.

•There is eveidence for Donepezil’s benefit in these patients: Donepezil for Dementia with Lewy Bodies: A Randomized, Placebo-Controlled Trial, Ann Neurol. Jul 2012; 72: 41–52.

300
Q

2.You are in A&E assessing a man with a known diagnosis of schizophrenia. He is extremely difficult to talk to and says things like… “The train rain brained me. He ate the skate, inflated yesterday’s gate toward the cheese grater”

A.Dysarthria B. Dysphasia

C.Clang associations D. Punning

E.Pressure of speech F. Perseveration

G.Loosening of assoc. H. Poverty of speech

A

C

301
Q

•3. A 73 year old woman is on the medical ward after a fall. She has a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies. When you ask her how she is feeling, she replies… “Not too bad, I don’t really know who you are though, are you sure you’re a doctor, doctor, doctor, doctor?”

A.Dysarthria B. Dysphasia

C.Clang associations D. Punning

E.Pressure of speech F. Perseveration

G.Loosening of assoc. H. Poverty of speech

A

F

302
Q

A.Amisulpride B. Citalopram

C.Moclobamide D. Haloperidol

E.Lithium F. Donepezil

G.Lorazepam H. Propranolol

•For each of the side-effects listed below, choose which drug from the list above is most likely to be responsible…

Loss of outer third of eyebrows

Cogwheel rigidity

HT Crisis

Anxiety

A

E

D

C

B

303
Q

A.Catatonic schizophrenia

B.Hebephrenic schizophrenia

C.Paranoid schizophrenia

D.Persistent delusional disorder

E.Post-schizophrenic depression

F.Residual schizophrenia

G.Schizotypal disorder

  1. An 18 year-old man has a Hx of shallow affect, mannerisms, multiple somatic complaints and incoherent speech. He is withdrawn and describes hearing multiple voices
  2. A 40 year-old woman has been on an antipsychotic for 7 months. Her delusions and hallucinations have resolved. She has developed low mood, feelings of hopelessness and low energy levels for the last six weeks.
  3. A 24 year-old man has a 6 month Hx of talking and laughing to himself. he hears voices talking to him and neglects his personal hygiene. He is uncommunicative most of the time. He has also damaged property and assaulted strangers for no apparent reason. Often he assumes uncomfortable postures for hours.
A

1.An 18 year-old man has a Hx of shallow affect, mannerisms, multiple somatic complaints and incoherent speech. He is withdrawn and describes hearing multiple voices

B

2.A 40 year-old woman has been on an antipsychotic for 7 months. Her delusions and hallucinations have resolved. She has developed low mood, feelings of hopelessness and low energy levels for the last six weeks.

E

  1. A 24 year-old man has a 6 month Hx of talking and laughing to himself. he hears voices talking to him and neglects his personal hygiene. He is uncommunicative most of the time. He has also damaged property and assaulted strangers for no apparent reason. Often he assumes uncomfortable postures for hours.

A

304
Q

A.Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

B.HIV dementia

C.Huntington’s disease

D.General paralysis of insane

E.Parkinson’s dementia

F.Multi-infarct dementia

G.Pick’s disease

  1. 50 year-old male has developed rapidly progressing dementia for the last 30months which is associated with tremor, rigidity, myoclonus and triphasic waves on the EEG.
  2. 55 year-old woman has a slow progressive dementia of 9 years duration with choreiform movements of the face and hands and has abnormal gait. There is a positive family history of the same.
  3. 60 year-old man has a Hx of impaired cognitive functions that are unevenly impaired associated with Hx of hypertension, emotional lability and transient episodes of delirium.
A

1.50 year-old male has developed rapidly progressing dementia for the last 30months which is associated with tremor, rigidity, myoclonus and triphasic waves on the EEG.

A

2.55 year-old woman has a slow progressive dementia of 9 years duration with choreiform movements of the face and hands and has abnormal gait. There is a positive family history of the same.

C

  1. 60 year-old man has a Hx of impaired cognitive functions that are unevenly impaired associated with Hx of hypertension, emotional lability and transient episodes of delirium.

F

305
Q

What are the ICD classification of alcohol abuse disorders?

A

Acute intoxication

Alcohol withdrawal

Alcohol dependance

Psychotic disorders (alcoholic hallucinations, jealousy)

Amnesiv syndrome

Residual and late onset disorders: include depression and dementia

306
Q

What are the signs of alcohol dependanc?

CANTS STOP

A

Compulsion/strong desire to drink

Aware of physical/psychological harms

Neglect of other activites

Tolerance

Stopping causes withdrawal

Stereotyped pattern of drinking

Time preoccupied with alcohol

Out of control use

Persistent, futile wish to cut down.

307
Q

CAGE questionnaire

A

Cut down

Annoyed by suggesting you do so

Guilty about drinking

Eye-opener

308
Q

What is the scoring system for FAST?

A

>2= hazardous drinking

309
Q

What are the features of Wernicke’s?

A

Confusion

Ataxia

Opthlamoplegia

310
Q

What are the features of Korsakoff’s?

A

Profound anterograde STM loss

Confabulation

311
Q

What is the treatment of alcohol dependance?

Acute detox?

Psychological?

Pharmacological?

A

Acute detoxiciation: tapering chlordiazepoxide/diazepam

Delerium tremens treated with lorazepam or antipschotics

Rehydration, correction of electrolye disturbance and oral/parenteral thiamine

Motivational; interiewing, psychological therapies, self-help groups

Disulfiram: increased acetaldehyde accunulation

Acamprosate: acts on GABA to reduce cravings and risk of relapse

312
Q

Give 5 examples of atypical antipsychotics?

Typical?

A
313
Q

What is the only antipsychotic to have demonstrated superior efficacy to other antipsychotics?

A

Clozapine: reduces overall mortality from schizophrenia due to reduction in the rate of suicide.

314
Q

What is the location of action of atypical antipsychotics

A

D2/D3 antagonists. (Aripriprazole is a partial D2 agonist, full binding decreases dopamine availability by 30%.

Most atypicals are also potent 5hT-2A antagonists

315
Q

What isthe location of action for typicals?

A

D2/D3.

Also potent antagonists at cholinergic, adrenergic and histaminergic Rs.

316
Q

Which atypicals are licensed for the treatment of acute mania?

A

Risperidone, olanzapine and quetiapine

317
Q

Which antipsychotic can be used for treatment of violent/agitated behaviour that doesn’t respond to de-escalation?

A

Haloperiodl in combination with a BZD

318
Q

What are the side effects assocaited with both atypical and typical antipsychotics?

Cardiac

Anti-cholinergic

Anti-histaminergic

Anti-adrenergic?

A

Cardiac: prolonged QTc

Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, confusion

Sedation

Postural hypotension

AND: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

319
Q

What are the features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Hyperpyrexia

Autonomic instability/confusion

Hypertonia

Raised serum CK

320
Q

What are the side effects seen more commonly in atypicals?

Metabolic?

Clozapine?

A

Weight gain, impaired GT, dyslipidaemia

Clozapine: hypersalivation, constipation, hypo/HTN, weight gain, fever, nausea, noctuneral enuresis

Seizures. Agranulocytosis

321
Q

What are the symptoms more commonly seen in typical antipsychotics

Anti-dopaminergic?

Phenothiazines?

A

Movement disorders: parkinsonism, akathisia

Acute dystonic reactions: torticollis, oculogyric crisis

Tardive dyskinesia

Hyperprolactinaemia: amenorrhea, galactorrheoa, sexual dysfunction, increased risk of breast cancer

Blood dyscrasias

Retinal pgimentation

Photosensitvity

Cholestatic jaundice

322
Q

What can be used to treat acute dystonia and parkinsonism?

Why?

A

Procyclidinge.

Reflect drug-induced dopamine/acetylcholine imbalance

323
Q

What can be used to treat akathisisa?

A

Beta blockers

BZD

324
Q

What is the Px for tardive dyskinesia?

What is a potential treatment option?

A

Irreversible in 50%

Clozapine may treat tardive dyskinesia as well as psychosis

325
Q

What are the considerations for relapse on antipschotics?

A

98% relapse if discontinue after 2 years

If patients discontinue medication, taper over at least 3 weeks as stopping suddenly doubles the relapse risk.

326
Q

What are the tests required prior to commencing antipsychotics?

A

BMI

ECG

Blood tests: FBC, U&E, lipids, LFT, glucose, prolactin

327
Q

What class of drug is

Fluoxetine Citalopram Paroxetine Sertraline Fluvoxamine

A

SSRI

328
Q

What class of drug is

Venlafaxine

Duloxetine?

A

SNRI

329
Q

What are the side effects common to SSRI and SNRI?

A

Headache

Anorexia

Nausea

Indigestion

Anxiety

Sexual dysfunction

Increased suicidal ideation (not recommended

Withdrawal syndrome

330
Q

What are the side effects more commonly associated with SSRIs?

A

GI bleeding

Hyponatraemia in older?

331
Q

What are the side effects more commonly associated with Venlafaxine?

A

HTN/hypotension

Cardiotoxic in OD?

332
Q

What class of antidepressant is mirtazapine?

What are some side effects?

A

NSST (noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant)

Dry mouth, drowsiness and weight gain?

333
Q

Give 4 examples of TCA

What are the common side effects?

A

Amitriptyline, dothiepine, imipramine, lofepramine

Anticholinergic, antiadrenergic, cardiac arrhythmia, seizures

334
Q

What are 2 examplers of MAOI and their side effects?

A

Phenelzine, tranylcypromine

Anticholinergic, antiadrenergic, tyramine reaction

335
Q

What is an example of a melatonergic agonist?

What are the side effects?

A

Agomelatine

N, diarrhoea, constipation abdo pain

Increased serum transaminases

Headache, dizziness, drowsiness, anxiety, insomnia, fatigue

Back pain, sweating

336
Q

AMTS

Orientation (5)

Memory (5)

Score?

A

Age?

Time?

Year?

Where are we?

Who am I, who is that?

Remember this address: 42 West Street (recall at end)

What is your date of birth?

Who is the prime minister?

When did the 2nd world war end?

Can you count down from 20 to 1?

7-8/10: impairment

337
Q

What to ask about in psychiatric assessment of children

A

Current behavioural/emotional difficulty

School behaviour and academic perfromance

Daily routine

Family structure and function

Look for signs of abuse or neglect

338
Q

What is the aetiology of child abuse

Child

Parent

A

Chil:

Low birthweight, intellectual or physical impairment, persistently restless or crying

Parents:

Young/single, disadvantaged, isolated, own history of abuse, didn’t want child, unrealistic discipline

339
Q

What are the signs of childhood abuse?

Physical

Sexual

Other

A

Unexplained injuries

Age inappropriate sexual talk/behaviour, secondary enuresis, STI, nightmares

Withdrawal/fearful of parents, failure to thrive

340
Q

What are the effects of child abuse?

Chidhood

Adulthood

A

Childhood: emotional, conduct, developmental disorders

Adulthood: depression, PD, conversion disorders, deliberate self harm, child-rearing problems

341
Q

What to do if ?child abuse

A

Report suspicions to UK social services

Involve police if neede

Individual/family therapy

342
Q

Disorders specific to childhood:

Behavioural and emotional

A

Hyperkinetic disorders

Conduct: socialised, unsocialised, oppositional defiant

Emotional: separation anxiety, social anxiety, sibling rivalry disorder

Social functioning: Elective mutism, reactive attachment disorder

Other: enuresis, encopresis

343
Q

Disorders specific to childhood:

Disorders of psychological development

A

Pervasive developmental: autism, asperger’s, childhood disintegrative disorder

Specific developmental disorder

344
Q

What are the disordesr with onset in childhood or adulthood?

A

Depression

Anxiety: phobias, OCD

Adjustment: bereavement

Psychotic

Sleep problems

345
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for ADHD

A

Core symptoms present for at least 6 months:

Short attention span

Distractibility

Overactivity

Impulsivity

Almost always present by age 7 and present in at least two settings (home/school)

346
Q

With what comorbidities does ADHD frequently coexist?

A

Conduct disorder

Anxiety/depression

Language delay

Specific reading retardation

Antisocial behaviour

Clumsiness

Comorbidity has a poorer prognosis (those with comorbid conduct disorde are at particular risk of substance disorders in adolescence)

347
Q

What is the aetiology of hyperkinetic syndrome

A

Genetic loading

Social adversity

Parental ETOH abuse

Dietary constituents

Tranquiliser exposure

348
Q

Management of ADHD

Prsechoold children

School-age and young people (moderate)

Severe

A

Parent-training/education problems are first line, drugs not recommended.

Group-based parent training/education usually first line. May include CBT/social skills training. Individual psychological therapy may be more appropriate in older children.

Drug treatment next line (reserved for those with severe symptoms and moderate levels of impairment)

Drug treatment first line. (if refused- group-parent training/education.

Methylphenidate, atomoxetine or dexamfetamine

349
Q

What should be done before starting Rx in ADHD?

A

History of: syncope, breathlessness and other CV symptoms

HR and BP

Height and weight

FHx of CVD and CV exam

(ECG if FHx of CVD/sudden death)

(Risk assessment for substance misuse)

350
Q

Methylphenidate indications

A

ADHD without significant comorbidity/conduct disorder

351
Q

Methylphenidat or atomoxetine

A

When tics/tourette’s, anxiety, substance misues or stimulat diversion are present

352
Q

What is second line Rx for ADHD

What is an adequate trial of methylphenidate?

A

Atomoxetine

6 weeks

353
Q

What is the Mx of ADHD in adults

A

Methylphenidate

If control inadequate/symptoms persist consider second line/CBT if there is persistnet functional impairment

354
Q

What is the differnece between socialised and unsocialised conduct disorder

A

Socialised: viewed as normal within peer group or family

Unsocialised: solitary with peer and parental rejection

355
Q

What is the Mx of conduct disorders

A

Group/individual parent-training/education programmes

CBT and social skills therapies may target child’s aggressive behaviours or poor social interactions

356
Q

What is the difference between conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder

A

Characterised by persistent, angry and defiant behaviours

Similar but withoutsevere aggressive or dissocial acts

357
Q

Rx for OCD in childhood?

A

Fluoxetine may be prescribed cautiously

358
Q

What are the 3 peaks of school refusal

A

5-6y: separation anxiety

10-11y: school transition

Adolescents: low self-esteem and depression

359
Q

Definition of Enuresis

A

Non-organic, involuntary bladder emptying after the age of 5

Secondary if there had been a period of urinary continence

360
Q

What is the Mx of enuresis?

A

Exclusion of physical pathology (UTI)

Addressing excessive or insufficient fluid intake or abnormal toilating patterns

Reward system for adherence to programme rather than dryness

Enuresis alarms: sense moisture and alert child of need to go

Rx: desmopressin (synthetic ADH) or imipramine (TCA)

361
Q

Definition of encoporesis

A

Deposition of stool in inappropriate places in the presence of normal bowel control.

Voluntary faecal retention with subsequent overflow is present in some cases

362
Q

Mx of encopresis

A

Exclude organic causes e.g. Hirschprung’s or pain on defecation

Treatment aims to restore normal bowel habits and restore normal parental child relationships. Parents encouraged to ignore soiling and not punish child.

363
Q

What are the essential diagnostic features of autism?

What may affected children exhibit?

A

Pervasive failure to make social relationshipships (aloofness, lack of eye contact, poor empathy)

Major difficulties with verbal and non-verbal communication/language development.

Resistance to change with associated ritualistic and or manneristic behaviours.

Inappropriate attachments to unusual objects, restricted range of interests, stereotyped behaviours, unpredictable outbusts

95% have IQ

364
Q

What is the DDx for autism?

A

LD, deafness and childhood schizophrenia

365
Q

What are the aetiological associations of autism?

A

Fragile X

Tuberous sclerosis

Perinatal complications

366
Q

Mx of autism

A

Specialist, intensive behavioural treatments (>25 hours a week)

Family support and counselling

Consider antipsychotic medication for managing behaviour that challenges in children and young people with autism when psychosocial or other interventions are insufficient or could not be delivered because of the severity of the behaviour. Start low and slow

367
Q

Childhood disintegrative disorder

A

Characterised by normal initial development and the subsequent onset of a dementia with socail, language and motor regression with prominent stereotypes.

Aetiology includes infections (especially subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) and neurometabolic disorders

368
Q

Features of childhood schizophrenia

A

May be acute in onset (better prognosis) or have a prodroe of apparent developmental delay.

As in adulthood, presentation is with hallucinations, delusions and thought disorder but with a greater preoponderance of motor disturbance (particulalry catatonia).

Antipsychotics are the mainstay

NB INCREASED RISK OF WEIGHT GAIN AND METABOLIC SYNDROME.

369
Q

ADR chlorpromazine

A

Skin photosensitivity, advise using sunscreen

370
Q

What are the common presentations of psychiatric disorders in adolescnece?

A

Emotional upset, identiy issues, conflict with parents, delinquent behaviour and poor school performance

Comorbidity is even more common than in adults

371
Q

Mx of conduct disorder in adolesence

A

Psychosocial intervention should be first line

Medciation may be used cautiously if problems are severe:

Atypcial antipschotics (risperidone) may reduce aggressive behaviour, especially in the context of coexisiting PDD (e.g. autism)

SSRI may reduce impulsivity, irritability and lability of mood

372
Q

Mx of depression in adolescents

A

Family therapy

Individual psychotherpay (particulalry CBT)

Antidepressants, only fluoxetine is generally recommended due to increase in risk of suicidal thoughts and self-harm in young people on SSRIs

373
Q

When is the peak age of onset of schizophrenia?

What is the usual presentation?

In younger adolescents?

A

Late adolescence

Deteriorating school pefromance

Similar clinical presentation

Bizarre behaviour, social withdrawal and anxiety, fleeting first rank symptoms

374
Q

DDx of schizophrenia in adolescents

A

Organic states, mood disorder, drug-induced psychosis, adolescent crises and schizoid personality

375
Q

Indications of Lithium

A

Prophylaxis in recurrent affective disorder

Acute treatment of mania

Augmentation of antidepressants in resistant depression

Schizoaffective illness

Control of aggression

376
Q

MOA Lithium

A

Unknown

Interacts with biological systems in which sodium, K, Ca or Mg involved

At therapeutic blood levels it has effects on neurotransmission

Its interference with cAMP linked receptors explains it action on the thyroid and kidney

377
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Li

What should be monitored

A

0.4-1mmol/l

Thyorid and renal function prior to starting and every 6 months whilst taking it

Serum Li levels initially weekly, therafter every 12 weeks. Bloods taken 12 hours after last dose

378
Q

What are the side effects of Li

A

nausea

fine tremor

weight gain

oedema

polydipsia and polyuira

exacerbation ofpsoriasis and acne

Hypothyroidism

379
Q

What are the signs of Li toxicity?

A

>1mmol/l

Vomiting

Diarrhoea

Coarse tremor

Slurred speech

Ataxia

Drowsiness and confusion

Convlusions and coma

380
Q

What is the treatment of Li toxicity or overdose?

A

Fluid therapy to restore GFR

381
Q

Contraindications of Li

A

Should be avoided in renal, cardiac, thyroid and Addison’s disease

382
Q

What can lead to lithium toxicity?

What are the adverse interactions with other drugs?

A

Dehydration and diuretics

NSAIDs, CCV and some antibiotics

383
Q

What is an issue with mood stabilisng drugs?

A

Carbamezapine, litihum and valproic acid are teratogenic nd should be avoided during pregnancy (especially first trimester) and lactation

May affect metabolism of other drugs including OCP necessitating other contraceptive precautions

384
Q

WWhat are two other antimanic drugs?

A

Valproic acid (sodium valproate) and carbemazepine

385
Q

What are te main side effects of carbamazepine?

A

Nausea

Drowsiness

Dizziness

Blood dyscrasia (monitor FBC every 6 months and warn that unexplained sore throat may herald agranulocytosis)

386
Q

What are the main side effects of Valproic acid

A

Nausea

Gastric irritation

Diarrhoea

Weight gain

387
Q

What are the indications for BZDs?

A

Anxiolytic, sleep inducing, anticonvulsant and muscle relaxants

Insomnia

ST use in GAD but not phobias or panic disorders

Alcohol withdrawal states

Control of violent behaviour

Also used as 2nd line drugs in refractory epilepsy

388
Q

What are the uses of zopiclone and zolpidem

A

Hypnotics without anticonvulsant or msucle relaxing properties

389
Q

What are the long acting BZDs?

Shorter acting?

A

Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide, nitrazepam

Lorazepam, oxazepam and temazepam

390
Q

What is a BZD used in ST treatment of anxiety?

A

Buspirone

391
Q

What is the MOA of BZDs?

A

Potentiate the inhibitory effects of GABA

Buspirone is a 5HT1a partial agonist

392
Q

What are the side-effects of BZDs

A

Drowsiness

Ataxia

Amnesia

Dependance

Disinbinition

Ptoetniate alcohol and other sedatives

393
Q

What are the signs of BZD overdose?

Mx

A

Respiratory depression

Drowsiness

Dysarthria and ataxia

Flumazenil- a selective BZD antagonist (can be hazardous in mixed OD e.g. with TCA or in BZD-dependant patients)

394
Q

What are the features of BZD withdrawal?

A

Marked anxiety

Shakiness

Abdo cramps

Perceptual disturbance

Persecutory delusions

Seizures

395
Q

What are the side effects of stimulants

A

Decreased appetite and weight loss

Anxiety

Agitation

Insomnia

396
Q

What drugs are currently available to treatt AD, LBD and PD dementia?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors: donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine

Glutamate antagonist: memantine

Rivastigmine can be fiven as a transdermal patch

397
Q

What are the common side-effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

GI: ND anorexia

Dizziness, syncope, bradycardia

Rash

Muscle cramps

Urinary incontinence (and potentially retention)

398
Q

What are the common side effects of memantine

A

Constipation

HTN

Dyspnoea

Headache

Dizziness

Drowsiness

399
Q

Genetic basis of DS

A

Chromosome 21

95% trisomy

5% translocation

400
Q

Genetic basis of fragile X

A

X linked dominant condition. accounts for 8% of males with LD

M>F

401
Q

Features of DS

LT

A

Flat occiput

Oblique palpebral fissures

Small mouth

High arched palate

Broad hands, single transverse palmar crease

50% have caridac septal defects

15% have mild LD, other moderate or severe

5% have autistic traits

Alzheimers develops after age 50

Hypothyroidism

402
Q

Features of Fraglie X

A

Most males and a third affected females have LD

15-55% have autism

Large head and ears

Poor eye contact

Abnormal sppech

Hypersensitivity to touch, auditory, visual stimuli

Hand flapping

Hand biting

403
Q

What are the two most common specific causes of LD?

A

DS and Fragile X

404
Q

What is the definition of LD?

A

Low intellectual performance

Onset at birth or in early childhood

Reduced lifeskills

405
Q

What are some genetic causes of LD?

Chromosomal

X0linked

Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

What else?

A

Chromosomal: DS

X-linked: Fragile X, Lesch Nyhan

AD: Tuberose scelrosis, neurofibromatosis

AR: usually metabolic disorders e.g. PKU

Autism is usually associated with LD

406
Q

What are some antenatal causes of LD?

A

Infective: toxoplasma, rubella and CMV

Hypoxic or toxic or related to maternal disease

407
Q

What are some perinatal causes of LD?

A

Prematurity, hypoxia, intracerebral bleed

408
Q

What are some post natal causes of LD?

A

Infection, injury, malnutirtion, hormonal, metabolic, toxic, epileptic

409
Q

How is LD classified?

Proportion of LD?

A

Mild: 50-70 80%

Moderate: 35-49 %12

Severe: 20-34 %7

Profound

410
Q

What are the causes of mild vs other classifications of LD?

A

Mild is usually due to limited social/learning opportunities and genetic low IQ

Moderate-Profound LD is more typically associated with a specific biological cause

411
Q

Self care for different classifications of LD?

A

MIld: can live independently and have employment May have difficulty coping with stress and more complex social functioning.

Moderate: usually need supported accomodation

Severe-Profound, very limited skills

412
Q

Language, motor and sensory abnormalities in different classifications of LD?

A

Mild: slight or absent, 6% have epilepsy

Moderate: Limited but useful language

Severe-Profuound: very limited language, 1/3rd have epilepsy, 10% incontinent, 15% cannot walk

413
Q

What is the prevalence of psychiatric disorders in LD?

Why?

A

Increased in people with LD

Genetic, organic (esp. epilepsy), psychological and social factors eg stigma

414
Q

Why is making a psychiatric diagnosis difficult in LD?

A

Diagnostic overshadowing

415
Q

What are some disorders with increased prevalence in LD?

A

Behavioural disorder (increases with severity of LD)

Depression (diagnosis relies on motor or and behavioural changes rather than verbal expressions of distress)

Anxiety disorders (eg. OCD and phobias)

Dissociative symptoms

Schizophrenia (3% prevalence in LD, presents with simple and repetitive hallucinations and unelaborated, usually persecutory delusions

Mania: usually presents as overly irritable behaviour

416
Q

What is Makaton?

A

A communication system used in LD using signs and gestures

417
Q

What is the prevalence of depression in pregnant women?

When is it more common?

How does pregnancy effect the risk of psychosis?

What about other mental illnesses?

A

10%

More common in those with, PPHx, conflicting feelings about the pregnancy, a history of sexual abuse as a child, USS showing fetal anomalies

Only increased if prophylactic medication is stopped, e.g due to teratogenicity.

Substance misuse decreases, suicide also decreases (those that occur often associated with substance misuse)

418
Q

What is the risk of recurrence of serious mood disorder postpartum? (either affective or affective psychosis)

A

1/

2-1/3

419
Q

What are the features of postpartum blues?

A

First 10 days postpartum, 50-70% of delivers

Symptoms: emotional lability, crying, irritability and worries about coping with the baby

Self-limiting but severe blues increases risk of depression

No intervention required apart from reassurance although if symptoms persist, assess for depression

420
Q

Features of postpartum depression

A

Cllinical features for depression but incudes

guilt and anxiety re baby

feelings of inadequate mothering

unreasonable fears for the baby’s health

reluctance to hold/feed the baby

thoughts of harming the baby.

Can persist for a year or more

421
Q

What are the risk factors for post-partum depression

A

Mother: Hx of depression, low monthly income, no post-16 education, unemployment

Relationships: unmarried, relationship dissatisfaction, domestic violence, few confiding relationships

Baby: premature, severe cardiac defects, multiple births

422
Q

What is a consideration for pregnant women taking an antipsychotic

A

Metabolic syndrome/gestational diabetes

423
Q

What is the Mx for a women with mild-moderate depression in preganancy or the postnatal period?

A

Facilitated self help

424
Q

Mx for a woman with a history of severe depression who initially presents with mild depression in pregnancy or the postantal period?

A

Conisder, TCA, SSRI or SNRI

425
Q

Mx of a woman with moderate or severe depression in pegnancy or the post natal period?

A

High intensity psychological intervention i.e. CBT

TCA/SSRI/SNRI

426
Q

What should be done if a woman taking TCA, SSRI or SNRI for anxiety/depression becomes pregnant?

A

Stopping medication gradually

Continuing medication if she understands risk

Chaning medication

Combining medication with a high intensity psychological intervention

427
Q

If a pregnant woman develops mania or psychosis and is not taking psychotropic medication?

A

Offer antipsychotic

428
Q

If a woman with bipolar disorder becomes pregnant, action

A

Offer antipsychotic if she is stopping lithium or plans to breastfeed.

Consider psychological intervention

429
Q

For pregnant women with severe depression, severe mixed affective states or mania, or catatonia, whose physical health or that of the fetus is at serious risk, Mx?

A

ECT

430
Q

Risk of Li to fetus

A

Increased risk of teratogenicity, we are not sure of degree of risk

431
Q

Mx of postpartum psychosis

A

Usually hospitalisation, should be with baby to a specialist mother-and-baby unit

Treatment is usually with antipsychotics

ST prognosis is excellent

432
Q

What is a consideration for breast feeding women and psychotropic medications?

A

Should be advised to time feeds to avoid peak drug levels in milk and how to recognise ADRs in child

433
Q

What antidepressants are indicated in pregnancy and why?

A

TCAs have lower known risks during pregnancy however most have a higher fatal toxicity index than SSRIs

Sertraline has the lowest known risk during pregnancy (avoid paroxetine as associated with fetal heart defects and neonatal pulmonary HTN), SSRIs are associated with a neonatal behavioural syndrome

434
Q

Which antidepressants are found in breast milk?

A

Imipramine, nortiptyline and sertraline are present in breast milk and relatively low levles.

Citalopram and fluoxetine at relatively high levels

435
Q

What type of antipsychotics have lowest known risks in pregnancy?

A

Typical antipsychotics e.g. haloperiodl, chlorpromazine or trifluoperazine

436
Q

What can BZD cause in pregnancy?

A

Cleft palate and other fetal malformations

437
Q

What is premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Symptoms include low mood, insomnia, poor concentration, irritability, poor impulse control, food craving and physical complaints

Onset after ovulation with rapid relief within 24 hours of the onset of menstrual flow.

438
Q

With what symtpoms of depression are older adults more likely to present?

A

Disturbed sleep

Multiple physical problems for which there is no obvious cause

Motor disturbance

Dependancy having been previously independant

439
Q

MX for depression in older people

A

SSRI, (TCA shouldn’t be started in primary care, although amitryptilline often prescribed for those with chronic pain, shoulnd’t coprescribe SSRI and TCA)

Mirtazepine is useful when poor sleep and anxiety and main symptoms

Psychological therapies

Physical activity e.g exercise

Psycho-social interventions

440
Q

Why are TCAs often avoided in older people?

A

Due to risk of postural hypotension and subsequent falls

441
Q

What is an issue with depression and dementia?

A

There is some evidence that antidepressants are not effective in dementia, so consider other treatment first unless severe depression/risk of suicide

442
Q

What are some secondary treatment options in the treatment of depression in an older person?

A

Trial SSRI for 4 weeks, if inadequate resposne consider switching to alternative class. NB can take up to 8 weeks to have an effect.

Lithium augmentation is effective in some patients with refractory depression

ECT is very effective in more severe depression, particulalry in patients with delusions, psychomotor retardatio or those refusing food or fluid in whom the risk of irreversible physical deterioriation is high

443
Q

Px of depression in older people?

A

Depression doubles mortality rate due to increased medical morbidity and increased risk of suicide

Prognosis improves with early intervention, there is high risk of chronicity and of relapse.

Secondary prevention, i.e. continuing antidepressant therapy to prevent relapse is highly effective

444
Q

What is seen in about 20% of cases of new onset mania in older age?

A

Precipitated by acute physical illness such as stroke

445
Q

What are the features of mania presenting in older age?

A

1/10 of new onset mania in >60.

Overt elation tends to be less present although patient has grandiose ideation.

The clinical picture more commonly consists of irritability, lability of mood and perplexity, much like deleirum but distinguishable by clear consciousness

446
Q

What are the considerations for the Mx of mania in older patients?

A

Antipsychotics effective as acute treatment and some, e.g. Olanzapine are effective at preventing relapse.

Atypicals should be used with caution due to increased risk of VTE or stroke

Lithium may also be used although 25% of older people develop neurotoxicity (particulalry in those with PD or dementia), therapeutic and toxic levels may be lower

447
Q

When is the second peak for the incidence of schizohprenia?

A

40-60= late onset

>60= very late onset

448
Q

What are the aetiological factors in schizophrenia first occuring in an older person?

A

Genetic component

Sensory deprivation eg deafness

Social isolation

Brain imaging abnormalities

Organic brain disease

449
Q

What is a consideration for typical antipsychotics in older patients?

A

At incresed risk for tardive dyskinesia

450
Q

ICD-10 defintiion of somatoform disorder

A

>2 years of multip[le physical symptoms with no physical explanation

GI and skin complaints are the most common

W>>M

451
Q

What are dissociative convulsions?

A

Non-epileptic seizures (NB can co-iccur with epileptic seizures)

452
Q

Ganser syndrome

(aka nonsense snydrome, balderdash syndrome, syndrome of approcximate answers, pseudodementia, or prison psychosis)

A

Rare dissociative disorder

Nonsensical or wrong answers to questions or doing things incorrectly, other dissociative symptoms such as fugue, amnesia or conversion disorder, often with visual pseudohallucinations and a decreased state of consciousness

Reaction to extreme stress although can be grouped with fictitious disorders

453
Q

What are the features that suggest organic problems?

FLAVOUR

A

Fluctuating symptoms

Localised specific cognitive deficits

Associated neurological signs

Vague or transient paranoid delusions

Olfactory or visual hallucinations

Untypical symptoms of a functional disorder

Record of cognitive disorder before other psychiatric symptoms

454
Q

What are the acute effects of brain injuries and stroke?

A

Disturbance of consciousness

Amnesia

Behavioural disorders

455
Q

In TBI/CVA what is associated with worse cognitive outcomes?

A

Longer duration of post-traumatic amnesia (loss of memories about the injury and subsequent events)- more accurate than retrograde amneisa

Duration of LOC >24h

456
Q

What is the aetiology of hte psychiatric sequalae of CVA and TBI?

A

Direct neurophysiological effects e.g. cognitive disorders, temporal lobe injuries and psychosis.

Psychosocial impact of sudden disbility-> anxiety and depression

Lability of mood and apathy may be particulalry prominent

457
Q

What are the categoires for psychiatric symptoms in people with focal neurological disorders?

A

Personlaity and behavioural changes

Depression and anxiety

Cognitive disorders

Psychiatric disorders

458
Q

What are personlaity/behavioural changes seen in focal neurological disorders?

A

Frtonal lobe injury: disinhibition, aggression, impullsivity, apathy

Catastrophic reactions: bursts of aggression, anxiety, crying and uncontrolled crying or laughing (20% post stroke)

459
Q

What are the cognitive disorders seen following focal neurological disorders?

A

Punch drunk syndrome: e.g. in boxers

Vascular dementia from CVA

Chrnic cognitive impairment: visuospatial neglect, impaired learning, decreased attention, apraxia

460
Q

Dementia pugilistica

A

Punch drunk syndrome

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy: neurodegenterative disease with features of dementia.

Symptoms include dementia, problems with memory, ataxia, parkinsonism

May be prone to inappropriate or explosive behaviour

461
Q

What are the psychotic disorders associated with TBI?

A

BPAD: especially rapidly cycling which is increased after TBI

Psyhcosis common after temporal lobe injury

462
Q

What are the affective disorders seen after TBI?

A

Depression in 1/3

Anxiety in 1/4

Increased risk of suicide (5% after TBI)

463
Q

What are the features of post-concussional syndrome?

A

Anxiety, irritability, insomnia, reduced concentration, depression, emotional lability, hypersensitivity to noise/light, chronic tiredness.

Maybe organic basis

No specific treatment

464
Q

What is the UK prevalence of epilepsy?

Epidemiology?

A

0.5-1%

M>F

Onset

Most common type is complex focal

Present in 25% of people with LD

465
Q

What are some aetiologies of epilepsy?

A

Cerebrovascular disease (15%)

Cerebral tumours (6%)

Alcohol related seizures (6%)

Post-traumatic seizures

466
Q

What are the psychiatric aspects of epilepsy, categorised by stage in seizure?

A

Pre-ictal: depression can occur, psychosis rare

Ictal: depression can occur, psychosis rarely occurs as part of simple, partial, complex parital or absence seizures

Post-ictal: depression is relatively common, psychosis in 6-10% with intractable epilepsy, begins months

Inter-ictal (disturbances are chronic and not related to the ictal electrial discharge): depression very common, psychosis can develop in those with recurrent post-ictal episodes, usually associated with temporal lobe epilepsy, symptoms very similar to schizophrenia

467
Q

Features of depression in epilepsy

Aetiology

Mx?

A

Affects 30-50% of people with epilepsy at some point

Aetiology includes: demoralisation/stigma, possibly lesion location, anti-epileptic drugs (phenobarbitone and vigabatrin, FHx of depression), adverse life effents

Depression can indirectly increase seizure frequency through the mechanism of sleep deprivation.

Careful Rx with antidepressants, SNRIs and SSRIs are recommended as lower seizure threshold.

ECT if necessary

Carbamezapine and lamotrigine are anti-epileptic agents that may also improve mood

468
Q

Which SSRI is recommended in the treatment of depression in epileptics?

A

Citalopram as it is least likely to interact with anti-epilepsy drugs

469
Q

What are the features of post-ictal psychosis

A

Most common form of pschosis in epilepsy

Should be distinguished from delerium

Can occur up to a week after seizure.

Symptoms include delusions, depressive or mani psychhosis, bizarre thoughts and behaviour, visual hallucinations are common.

470
Q

What is the treatment of psychosis in epilspy?

A

Rx with antipsychotis, preferably those with least effect on seizure threshold e.g. sulpiride and haloperiodl

471
Q

What are pseudo seizures?

A

AKA dissociative convulsions

Can simulatem real seizures and occur in 20-30% of people with chronic treatment-resistant epilepsy

Frequent, occur when other people are present, have an emotional precipitant, associated with a history of childhood sexual abuse

EEG is normal during the attack

472
Q

What are the psychiatric complications of MS?

A

Cognitive deficits, dementia (demyleniation)

Depression (stress rather than disease process, or drug treatment: steroids, baclofen, beta interferon)

Mania: disease process, drugs e.g. steroids, baclofen

Euphoria/elation, emotional lability, pathological laughing/crying: disease process

Affective disorders increased but nonaffective psychosis is no more common.

Those with psychosis are more likely to have plaques in bilateral temporal horn areas

473
Q

What are the psychiatric complications in SLE?

A

Cognitive impairments: disease process, usually acute confusional states (due to CNS vasculitis/encephalopathy

Depression: psychoscoial stress, disease process, iatrogenic (e.g. steroids)

Psychosis uncommon

474
Q

What is the pathogenesis of PD?

A

Deficient striatal dopaminergic activity

475
Q

What are the psychiatric complications of PD

A

Depression and anxiety (40%): diease process (dopaminergic, serotonergic, cholinergic limbic pathway dysfunction), psychosocial factors

Dementia (30%): disease process

Other cognitive impairments: disease process, iatrogenic or related to depression

Psychosis (25%): iatrogenic, disease process

Apathy (40%): disease process

Impulsivity (

476
Q

What are the features of psychosis in PD?

A

Visual hallucinations and persectuory delusions, sometimes with pathological jealousy.

More common in people with cognitive impairment and on increasing antiparkinsonian medication

477
Q

Rx of depression and pschosis in PD?

A

Drugs with a relatively low risk of extrapyramidal SEs

e.g. quetiapine

citalopram

478
Q

Features of psychiatric considerations for HD?

A

Cerebral atrophy and reduced GABA resulting in dopamine hypersensitivity.

Songitive impariments usually progress to subcortical dementia.

Psychiatric disturbances are common in HD. Depression can preced other symptoms

Increased risk of suicide (

Treatment is symptomatic and dpression and psychoses should be treated with standard medications.

Atypicals preferred due to reduced impact on motor symptoms

479
Q

Hepatolenticular degeneration

Psychiatric complications

A

Wilson’s Disease

Cognitive impairments that usually progress to subcortical dementia (disease process)

Irritablity/aggresion (inability to communicate, executive dysfunction

Apathy: iatrogenic, depression

Depression: psychosocial stress, disease process

Mania and psychosis: disease process

480
Q

Cause of Wilson’s?

Rx?

A

Excess Cu deposition in the lenticular nuclei (autosomal recessive)

Penicillamine

481
Q

Symptoms of narcolepsy

Mx

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, hypnogogic hallucinations

Methylphenidate or modafinil

482
Q

Features of REM sleep disorder

A

Individuals act out dreams due to lack of atonia during rem sleep

Treatment with clonazepam and making sleep environment safe

Can be idiopathic or associated with PD, LBD or GB

483
Q

Coprolalia

Copropraxia

A

Involunatry swearing

Involuntary rude sign

484
Q

Difference between stereotypy and mannerism

A

Stereotypy: involuntary patterned, coordinated repetitive, rhythmic and nonreflexive features. Tend to occur in clusters and are asoociated with periods of stress, excitement fatigue or boredom- suppressible

Mannerism: odd, idiosyncratic METHOD OF PERFORMING A TASK that is unique to an individual and serves no apparent function (ie, a person who cocks an arm in a peculiar way in order to drink from a cup; a ballplayer who performs ritualistic acts “for luck.”).

Note that stereotypies have no function/purpose while mannerisms are a purposeful movement.

485
Q

Treatment of tourettes?

A

Psychoeducation

Medication: antipsychotics for tics, clonidine +/- stimulants for ADHD

Behavioural therapy

486
Q

Why is there a sizeable populaton of people suffering from both HIV and psychiatric illness?

A

HIV increases the likelihood of psychiatric illness e.g. crises following diagnoses

Impulsive behaviour associated with some mental illnesses may lead to HIV infection

487
Q

What are the psychiatric considerations for HIV patients?

A

Depression is common at all stages. Dx may be difficult: apathy and fatigue may be due to retroviral therapy. Fatigue and weight loss may be due to progression/decline in CD4 count/

AIDS-related dementia may also present as a depression like illness. Occurs with a very low CD4 count, thought to be a direct manifestation of HIV infection in the brain. Opportunistic infections may also contribute to the dementia syndrome

488
Q

What is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in the Wst?

What are the psychiatric consideratoins

A

Herpes simplex

Presentation ussually with severe headache, vomiting and reduced consciousness but occasionally can present with psychosis, seizures of delerium.

At least 50% of survivors experience disturbed behaviour, concentration or social adjustment. Some with chronic cognitive impairment

489
Q

What is a type of tertiary syphillis? Symptoms?

What is the diagnostic test and Rx?

A

General paralysis of the insane: personality changes (disinhibition, irritability, lability), cogntive changes (poor concentration), dementia, depression, grandiosity and rarely mania and schizophrenic-like psychoses.

VDRL

IM penicllin

490
Q

What is the presentation of prion disorders?

A

Rapidly fatal dementia associated with myoclonic jerks.

sCJD presents with physical symptoms

vCJD presents more frequently with psychiatric symptoms (mood swings, fatigue, social withdrawal)

491
Q

What is a psychiatric consideration for acute intermittent prophyria?

A

Clinical presentation may be abdominal or neurological. Psychiatric distrubances can include delerium, depression, emotional lability and schizophrenia like psychoses.

492
Q

What is a psychiatric consideration for B12 deficiency?

A

Pernicious anaemia which may be accompanied by subacute degenration of the spinal cord

Psychiatric symptoms include slowing of mental processes, confusion, memory problems, intellectual impairment, depression and paranoid delusions

493
Q

How can hyperthyroidism present?

Depression/anxxiety

Behavioural disturbance

Psychosis

Cognitive changes

A

Anxiety/depression

Irritability, apathy and poor appetite in older people

Psychotic depression reported

N/A

494
Q

How can hypothyroidism present

Depression/anxxiety

Behavioural disturbance

Psychosis

Cognitive changes

A

Depression/anxiety

Acute aitation

Hallucinations

Dementia/delerium

495
Q

How can hyperparathyroidism present?

Depression/anxxiety

Behavioural disturbance

Psychosis

Cognitive changes

A

Depression

apathy/emotional lability

Hallucinations occasionally reported after parathyroidectomy

Occasionally memory deficits, poor concentration, cognitive impairment, delerium after parathyroidectomy

496
Q

How may hypercorisolaemia present (usually iatrogenic)

A

Depression, mania

497
Q

How may hypocortisolaemia present?

A

Depression, apathy

498
Q

How may hypopituitarism present?

A

Depression, iritability, impaired memory

499
Q

How may phaeochromocytoma present?

A

Episodic anxiety

500
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for delerium?

A

Impaired consciousness and attention

+

perceptual disturbance (usually visual hallucinations or distortions of perception (macro/micropsia)

or cognitive disturbance (decreased concentration, memory, orientation, thinking slow or muddled, distractible with incoherent/difficult to follow speech)

+

Developed over short period of time and fluctuant (often worse at night)

+

Evidence it may be related to a physical cause

501
Q

What are the three subtypes of delerium?

What are the other features?

A

Hypoactive

Hyperactive

Mixed

Mood and affect may fluctate and may be accompanied by irritability/perplexity or apathy and depression

Transient delusions are common, may be secondary to abnromal perceptions and often persecutory with associated ideas of reference.

Sleep/wake cycle distrubance

502
Q

What are the at risk groups for delerium?

A

>65 y/o

People with diffuse brain disease e.g. demetnia

People with current hip fracture

Severely ill

503
Q

What is an important consideration for the ddx for delerium?

Other possible diagnoses?

A

Difficult to distinguish from LBD in which cognition typically fluctuates

Functional psychiatric conditions (mania, depression and late-onset schizophrenia)

Response to major stress

Dissociative disorders

504
Q

What are the clinical features that differentiate delerium and dementia?

A

Rapid vs slow

Fluctuant vs progressive

Clouded vs alert consciousness

Vivid complex and muddled thought content vs impoversihed

Hallucinations very common and predominantly visual vs auditory or visual in 1/3

505
Q

DDx

D
E

L

E

R

I

U

M

S

A

Drugs

Eyes, ears and other sensory deficits

Low O2 states (i.e. heart attack, stroke and PE)

Infection

Retention of urine/stool

Ictal state

Underhydration/undernutrition

Metabolic causes (DM, post-operative state, Na abnrormalities)

Subdural haematoma

506
Q

Ddx Delerium

I

W

A

T

C

H

D

E

A

T

H

A

Infection: HIV, sepsis, pneumonia

Withdrawal: ETOH, barbiturate, sedative-hypnotic

Acute metabolic: acidosis, alkalosis, electrolyte disturbance, hepatic failure, renal failure

Traemua: closed-head injury, heat stroke, postoperative, severe burns

CNS pathology: Abscess, haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, SDH, infection, seizures, stroke, tunmours

Hypoxia: Anaemia, CO poisoning, hypoTN, pulmonary or cardiac failure

Deficiencies: B12, folate, niacin, thiamine

Endocrinopathies, hyper/hypoadrenocorticism, hyper/hypoglycaemia, myxoedema, hyperPTH

Acute vascular: hypertensive encephalopathy, stroke, arrythmia, shock

Toxins/drugs: prescription durgs, illicit drugs, pesticides, solvents

Heavy metals: lead, Mn, mercury

507
Q

Ix Delerium

A

Collateral history: premorbid level of function

MSE

Physical examination, focal neurology

Breathalyser

MSU, pregnancy test, urine drug screen

CXR

CT/MRI Head

Bloods:

FBC: anaemia, macrocytosis, leucocytosis

ESR/CRP

U&Es: dehydration, electrolye imbalance

Glucose

TFT

LFT

Ca

Folate and B12

VDRL

Consider EEG if epilepsy is ddx

508
Q

How to prevent delerium

A

Maximise orientation: treat senosry impairment, clear signage, clocks and calendars, appropriate lighting

Prevent causes of deleirum: polypharmacy, constipation and dehydration, infection (avoid unnecessary catheterisation), assess for hypoxia and maximise O2 sats

Promote well-being: encourage mobilisation, good pain control, diet, sleep hygiene, social interaction.

509
Q

Mx of delerium

What is a consideration for PD or LBD?

A

Treat underlying cause(s)

If person is distressed/risk to him-self and not responding to verbal de-escalation consider using pharamcology: low dose and ST antipsychotics: haloperidol and antipsychotics.

Do not use antipschotics in individuals with PD or LBD

510
Q

What is CAM?

A

Confusion Assessment Method

A: acute onset and fluctuating course

B: inattention

C: disorganised thinking

D: altered level of consciousness

511
Q

Px of delerium

A

Increases risk of dementia

Mortality

Length of hospital stay

Risk of new admission to LT care

512
Q

Diagnostic criteria for dementia

What is often present?

A

Multiple cognitive deficits e.g. memory, orientation, lanuage, comprehension, reasoning, judgement

+

Resulting impairment in ADLs

+

Clear consciousness

Behavioural proglems, depression and anxiety, psychotic symptoms, sleep problems

513
Q

What is the epidemiology of dementia?

A

25% >90

514
Q

What factors increase the risk of later life dementia?

A

Low educational attainment

Obesity

Untreated systolic HTN

Depression

Mental, social and physical inactivity

515
Q

What are the relative prevalences of the most common types?

A

AD 55%

Mixed AD and vascular 25%

LBD 10%

Frontotemporal dementia 5%

Other 5%

516
Q

How can dementias be classified?

A

Cortical or subcortical altough usually pathology involves both areas and the clinical features overlap

517
Q

What areas of the brain are affected in Cortical dementia

Eg?

Typical symptoms?

A

Cerebral cortex

AD, LBD, frontotemporal

Memory impairment, dysphasia, visuo-spatial impairment, problem-solving and reasoning deficits

518
Q

What are the areas of the brain affected in subcortical dementias?

Eg?

What are the typical symptoms?

A

BG, thalamus

PD, HD, AIDs dementia, ETOH-related dementia

Psychomotor slowing, impaired memory retrieval, depression, apathy, executive dysfuntion, personality change, language relatively preserved

519
Q

Features of AD?

A

Gradual onset usually with memory loss

520
Q

Features of vascular dementia

A

Patchy cognitive impairment, focal neurological symptoms that appear in a stepwise fashion rather than continuous deterioriation

NB many people have a mixed picture

521
Q

What are the considerations for vascular dementia and stroke

A

Stroke-> 9x increased risk of dementia in the following year

522
Q

What are the vascular risk factors for VD and AD?

A

HTN

Hypercholesterolaemia

DM

Smoking

523
Q

What are the features of LBD?

A

Fluctuating cognition and alertness, vivid visual hallucinations, spontaenous parkinsonism, sensitivity to neurlopetics and sleep disorder

Associated with LB and neurites in the basal ganglia and the cerebral cortex

524
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease dementia?

A

Where Parkinson’s disease predates the dementia by more than a year

525
Q

What are the features of frontotermporal dementia?

A

Younger mean age of onset, characterised by early personality changes and relative intellectual sparing.

526
Q

What are the features of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

May be idiopathic or due to SAH, head injury or meningitis

Marked mental slowness, apathy, wide-based gait and urinay incontinence.

Ventriculoatrial shunting leads to frequent complications and tends to benefit only patients with prominent neurological signs and mild dementia

527
Q

What is seen in motor neuron disease

A

Dementia is FTD

528
Q

Mx of dementia (AD)

A

Exclude treatable cause, NB superimposed acute confusional state, depression sometimes precedes or complicates established dementia and has a poor SSRI response. Control vascular risk factors

Structured group cognitive stimulation programme.

Rx: AChE inhibitors for management of mild-moderate AD: donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine

Memantine: NMDAR antagonist indicated in those with moderate AD who have intolerance to AChE or in severe AD

529
Q

What are the consideration in people with Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia or mixed dementias with mild-to-moderate non-cognitive symptoms

A

Should not be prescribed antipsychotic drugs due to the possible increased risk of CVA

530
Q

What is pseudodementia

A

Severe depression in old age which may present with prominent forgetfulness and self-care

531
Q

What are the features of supportive therapies

Indications

A

Unstructured

6-10 sessions

Establishing rapport, facilitating emotional expression, reflection, reassurance

Non-directive problem solving

e.g. for adjustment disorders, stress, bereavement, mild depression or anxiety

532
Q

Feature of CBT

Indications

A

Structure

Explicit

Time limited 6-12 sessions

Cognitive: identify automatic negative thoughts and core beliefs, behavioral graded exposure, activity scheduling

Behavioural therapy: ABC (antecedents, beaviour, consequences

e.g. for depression, anxiety, eating disorders, personality disorders, psychotic disorders

533
Q

Features of psychodynamic therapies

Indications

A

Unstructured

Often for years

Freee association

Transference (the redirection to a substitute, usually a therapist, of emotions that were originally felt in childhood (in a phase of analysis called transference neurosis)

Counter-transference (Countertransference occurs when a therapist transfers emotions to a client. It is often a reaction to transference, a phenomenon in which a client redirects his or her feelings for others onto the therapist.)

PD

534
Q

Features of DBT

A

1 year. BPD

535
Q

What is the aim of CBT?

A

To help individuals identify and challenge automatic thoughts and then to modfiy any abnormal underlying core beliefs.

536
Q

What are the basis of behavioural therapy

A

Operant condition: support (reinforcement), witholding reinforcement (negative)

537
Q

Criteria for giving ECT in England (MCA)

A

Patient consents (before every treatment)

Patient lacks capacity and it does not conflict with advance decision

It’s an emergency and independant consultant has not yet assessed or agrees

538
Q

What are the indications for ECT?

A

Severe depressive illness

Prolonged, severe episode of mania that hasn’t responded to treatment

Catatonia

Moderate depression that has not responded to mltiple drug/psychological treatments

539
Q

What is a consideration following CT

A

Patients would need subsequent treatment for depression to prevent relapse e.g. with psychological and pharmacological therapy

540
Q

What are the realtive contraindications to ECT?

A

Raised ICP

Recent stroke

Recent MI

Crescendo angina

(No absolute contraindications

541
Q

What are the adverse effects of ECT?

What is the Mx of these?

A

Patients have reported that it can cause cognitive impairment.

Anaesthetic complications

Dyshythmias due to vagal stimuation

Post-ictal headache.

Confusion

Retrograde and anterograde amnesias

Cognitive function should be assessed before, during and after course of treatment.

If there is evidence of any significant cognitive impairment at any stage consider chaning from

bilateral to unilateral electrode placement

stimulus dose

stopping treatment

542
Q

What are the only two neurosurgical psychiatric procedures currently performed?

Indications?

A

Bilateral anterior capsulotomy or anterior cingulotomy are performed

Severe treatment-resistant depression and OCD

40-60% success rates reported

543
Q

What proportion of primary care consultations relates to mental health?

How do mental health issues impact on the likelihood of a primary care consultation?

A

1/4

Doubles tthe likelihood

544
Q

What is IAPT and its function?

A

Improving access to psychological therapies

To increase the avaialbility of psychological therapies for depression and anxiety either through computer-aided CBT or are stepped up to CBT or other evidence based psychological treatments

545
Q

What constitutes a CMHT?

A

Psychiatrists, community pschiatric nurses, social workers, OTs and psychologists

546
Q

What is the CPA?

How is it reviewed?

A

Care Programme Approach

CPA meetings take place every 6 months to devise a care plan documenting those involved in patient’s care, the treatment plan, early relapse indicators and a crisis plan should the patient’s mental health deteriorate

Each patient has a care coordinator who implements the plan, sees the pt monthly and monitors their metnal state

547
Q

What are the three main types of supported accomodation

Who runs them?

A

Residential care

Supported housing

Floating outreach

Social services, voluntary and independent sector organisations.

548
Q

What determiens the level of support a patient receives?

A

Their ability to self-care and the nature of their illness

549
Q

What is STaR

A

Support, Time and Recovery, help service users to access a range of daytime activities

550
Q

What is the function

Service

For Whom

Aim

of CRT

A

Intensive home support

People in MH crisis

To prevent admissions and support early discharge

551
Q

What is the function

Service

For Whom

Aim

of AOTs?

A

Assertive outreach teams provide treatment and support in the community

People who are chronically unwell with a history of disengaging from mental health services

To provide care in a difficult to reach treatment group

552
Q

What is the function

Service

For Whom

Aim

of EIS

A

Early Intervention in psychosis provide inensive treatment for the first 2-3 years of illness with a focus on promoting return to employment and education

Patients newly diagnosed with psychosis.

Promoting recovery in early stage of psychotic illness where evidence suggests treatment may be most effective

553
Q

What is the function

Service

For Whom

Aim

of Community rehabilitation team

A

Provide treatment and support for adults with especially complex mental health needs

554
Q

What is the function

Service

For Whom

Aim

of Memory services

A

To aid with diagnosis and management of dementia in people with memory problems

To increase diagnosis of dementia (

555
Q

What increases the risk of violent crime in schizophrenia?

A

Substance abuse

556
Q

How can risk of violence be assessed?

A

Important for assessing compulsory detention

Distinguish between:

Crime against property and violence against person

Crimes occuring during periods of illness and those during remission

Precursors to past violence and the risk of recurrence.

557
Q

What are the criteria for capacity?

A

Understand information relevant tot he decision

Retain, use and weight that information

Communciate that decision

558
Q

What does the MCA allow?

A

If capacity: advance decision, LPA

and

says how to decide if someone has capacity

and

For adults without capacity allows professionals to

act in best interests

consult family/friends about decisions

appoint IMCA for important decisiosn

Apply DoLs to anyone deprived of liberty

559
Q

What are the criteria for DoL?

A

>18y/o

It would not conflict with LPA,Court of Protection or advanced decision

Person lacks capacity to decide whether to be admitted

Suffering from mental disorder

Not detained under MHA

Application is not to enable mental health treatment in a hospital (should be under MHA0

It is in person’s best interests and necessary and proprotionate to prevent harm

2 assessors must agree

R/V at least annually. Patient or representative may appeal

560
Q

Compulsory admission (Section 2,3 (4))

A

A patient is judged to have a mental health disorder sufficiently severe to need detention i hospital in the interests of hisher own health/safety or for the protection of others.

For those detained under longer sections, appropriate medical treatment must be available to them

People cannot be detained due to LD alone, must be associated with dangerous conduct

561
Q

Process of sectioning

A

Appliation made by AMHP (social workers, nurse, psychologist, OT, NR)

Application is made on the recommendation of two approved clinicans (Section 12 approved- can be doctors, doctors with previous knowledge of the patient can make the recommendation even if they are not section 12 approved)

For section 3 the AMHP has to consult NR and if they disagree the responsible clinician takes legal action to displace the NR.

562
Q

Features of CTO

A

Treatment in community of patient previously detained under 3/37.

6 months

563
Q

Section 4

A

Urgent assessment from community with no time to arrange section 2

1 doctor (AC)

72 hours

564
Q

5(2)

A

Urgent detention of in-patient. (not A&E)

1 doctor

72 hours

565
Q

5(4)

A

Urgent detention of psychiatric inpatient in absence of doctor

RMN

6 hours

566
Q

Section 135

A

Removal from home to place of safety.

Police officer

72 hours

567
Q

Section 136

A

Removal from public place to place of safety

Police office

72 hours

568
Q

Process after 5(2)

A

Must either be assesssed for section 2/3 or discharged to become an informal patient

569
Q

Guardianship (sections 7 and 8)

A

A guardian (usually an AMHP) nominated by local authority is empowered to ensure that an individual resides at a pecific palce, attends specific places for treatments etc and allows specified people access to their residence

570
Q

Discharge from a section 2/3 before its expiration

A

Section 17 requires that patients on compulsory sectiosn can only have leave subject to the RC’s specific instrcution.

Patients can be fully discharged from a section before its expirationb y the RC, a MHRT (to whom patients can appeal within 14d for Section 2 or at any time during the first 6 m of a section 3). By a Mental Health Act managers (community members who act as nonexecuitve directors of a hospital) if patient appeals to them. By NR if not overuled by RC.

571
Q

Section 35

A

Remands an accused person to hospital for a report

1 doctor

Crown/magistrates court

28d

572
Q

Section 36

A

Remans accused person to hospital for treatment

2 doctors

Crown court

28d

573
Q

Section 37

A

Orders hospital admission or guardainship of a person convicted of imprisonable offences (except murder)

2 doctors

MC/Crown Court

6m

574
Q

Section 38

A

Sends convicted pesron to hospital to treatment prior to senetencing

2 doctors

CC/MC

28 days

575
Q

Section 41

A

Applies restriction that patient on another hospital section may notbe given leave, transferred or discharged without the Home Secretary’s consent

1 doctor

Crown Court

Duration of section

576
Q

Section 47

A

Transfers sentenced prisoner to hospital for treatment

2 doctors

Home office

6 months

577
Q

What are the emergency sections?

Can patients be treated without consent?

A

5(2), 135, 136, 4

No except in an emergency

578
Q

What are the provision for treatment under section 2 and 3

A

May be given medication for first 3 months

Section 58, may be given medication/ after 3 months only with patient consent or an independent second opinion approved doctor agrees treatment after interviewing patient and discussing treatment with RC and two other professionals involved in the patients treatment

SOAD also required for ECT if given to patients without capacity

ECT cannot be given to patients with capacity without consent

579
Q

Section 57

A

Psychosurgery/surgical hormone implants

Needs both consent and SOAD

580
Q

Section 62

A

Life-saving treatment

Exempt from 58 and 57

581
Q

Diagnosis
a 1 week
b 2 weeks
c 3 weeks
d 1 month
e 6 months
f 1 year
g 18 months
h No time duration specified

1 ICD-10 requires that symptoms are present for at least
_________ for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.

2 DSM-IV-TR requires that symptoms are present for at least
_________ for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
3 ICD-10 requires that symptoms are present for at least
_________ for a diagnosis of a depressive episode.
4 ICD-10 requires that symptoms are present for at least
_________ for a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder.
5 ICD-10 requires three panic attacks in _________ for a diagnosis
of panic disorder.
6 ICD-10 requires that symptoms are present for at least
_________ for a diagnosis of a specific phobia.

A

1 d
2 e
3 b
4 c
5 c
6 h

582
Q

a Obsessive–compulsive disorder (OCD)
b Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
c Panic disorder
d Agoraphobia
e Social phobia
f Complicated grief
g Specific phobia
h Acute stress reaction
1 Avoiding crowded places is a common symptom.
2 The phobic disorder most commonly referred to secondary care.
3 Often associated with depersonalisation or derealisation.
4 A phobic disorder that is equally common in men and women.
5 Disorder with an increased prevalence among those with
Tourette’s syndrome.
6 Onset is typically rapid (e.g. within hours).

A

1 d
2 d
3 c
4 f
5 a
6 h

583
Q
  1. Personality disorders
    a Anankastic
    b Narcissistic
    c Avoidant
    d Dependent
    e Dissocial
    f Borderline
    g Paranoid
    h Schizoid
    i Schizotypal
    Which personality disorders are described below? Choose one
    option.
    1 Not included as a diagnosis in ICD-10.
    2 A middle-aged man is referred by Social Services because his
    hoarding of newspapers is a fire hazard. He has kept every
    newspaper he has bought for the last 30 years. They are piled in
    the kitchen. He is preoccupied by cleanliness and the flat smells
    of bleach. He used to work as a picture editor for a newspaper
    but lost his job because his work was impractically slow.
    3 A 72–year-old lady has been unable to cope with life since the
    death of her husband ten years ago. She has always hated being
    alone. She lived with her parents until she married. Her husband
    made all the decisions and she never disagreed, because she did
    not like upsetting him. She is fit and well but is asking to move
    to a nursing home.
    4 A 28-year-old man presents to A+E after slashing his wrists. He
    has self-harmed on over 50 previous occasions. He describes
    chronic feelings of emptiness, and feels he doesn’t always know
    who the real he is.
    5 A personality disorder that is more common among those with
    relatives who have schizophrenia.
    6 The personality disorder that is most prevalent among male
    prisoners.
A

1 b
2 a
3 d
4 f
5 i
6 e

584
Q
  1. Unusual syndromes
    a Fregoli syndrome
    b Capgras syndrome
    c Ekbom’s syndrome
    d Cotard’s syndrome
    e Folie à deux
    f Othello’s syndrome
    g De Clerambault’s syndrome
    h Munchausen’s syndrome
    i Couvade’s syndrome
    j Ganser’s syndrome
    Which of these syndromes are described below? Choose one
    option.
    1 Symptoms are consciously produced
    2 Also known as delusional parasitosis.
    3 Seen in expectant fathers.
    4 Usually seen in psychotic depression.
    5 Classified as induced delusional disorder in ICD-10.
    6 Can be a side effect of Parkinson disease treatment.
    7 May carry an increased risk of violence to members of general
    public.
A

1 h
2 c
3 i
4 d
5 e
6 f
7 a (the patient believes that their persecutors are taking the form
of other people so may be aggressive to a member of the public
they believe to be their persecutor in disguise)

585
Q

alcohol misuse
7. Substance misuse
a Alcohol
b Amphetamines
c Benzodiazepines
d Cannabis
e Cocaine
f Ecstasy (MDMA)
g Heroin
h Khat
i LSD
j Solvents
To which drug do these statements most apply? Choose one
option.
1 Paradoxical aggression is a known side-effect.
2 Methadone replacement is a common treatment.
3 There is good evidence that adolescents using this drug are more
likely to develop schizophrenia in adult life.
4 A red rash around the mouth is a common sign of abuse.
5 Deaths from hyponatraemia caused by drinking too much water
after taking this drug have been reported.
6 The substance that most commonly causes mild cognitive
impairment.

A
1 c (see Chapter 36)
2 g

3 d
4 j
5 f
6 a

586
Q
  1. Diagnoses in childhood and early adulthood
    a Birth
    b 3 months
    c Age 2
    d Age 5
    e Age 8
    f Age 15
    g Age 22
    h Age 26
    Which of these ages would be the most typical time for the following
    disorders to be diagnosed? Choose one option.
    1 Encopresis
    2 Oppositional defiant disorder
    3 Attention-deficit and hyperactivity disorder
    4 Emotionally unstable personality disorder
    5 Bulimia nervosa
    6 Anorexia nervosa
    7 Autism
A

1 d
2 e
3 e
4 h
5 g
6 f
7 c

587
Q
  1. Epidemiology of psychiatry of demographic groups
    a 0.1%
    b 1%
    c 6%
    d 10%
    e 25%
    f 30%
    g 50%
    h 60%
    i 80%

Which of these most accurately estimates? Choose one option.
1 The percentage of the prison population who have an IQ of 85
or more.
2 The percentage of rough sleepers who use illicit drugs.
3 The percentage of rough sleepers with mental illness.
4 The percentage of women who experience significant depression
or anxiety during pregnancy.
5 The percentage of births that are followed by puerperal
psychosis.
6 The percentage risk of cardiac malformations in neonates born
to mothers taking lithium.

A

1 g
2 g
3 h
4 d
5 a
6 c

588
Q
  1. Cognitive impairment
    a Alzheimer’s disease
    b Mild cognitive impairment
    c Acute confusional state
    d Alcohol withdrawal
    e Vascular dementia
    f Lewy body dementia
    g Normal pressure hydrocephalus
    h Frontotemporal dementia
    i Parkinson’s disease dementia
    j Depressive disorder
    Which of these would be the most likely diagnosis in the following
    situations? Choose one option.
    1 Three-year gradual onset of memory loss. The patient now
    forgets to eat without prompting. No abnormal findings on
    physical examination and dementia blood screen. CT head scan
    shows mild involutional change but no other findings.
    2 A patient’s husband describes onset in last six months of poor
    concentration, forgetfulness, apathy and urinary incontinence.
    You notice a wide-based gait on examination. MRI head scan
    shows enlarged ventricular system.
    3 The patient presents with concerns about her memory, forgetting
    where she has put things. The forgetfulness dates from the
    loss of her husband nine months ago. She reports poor sleep and
    loss of appetite. She is tearful and low in mood with anxiety
    about her memory loss. Objective clinical cognitive tests are
    within the normal range.
    4 A patient presents with forgetfulness and disorientation to time
    and place with associated impairment in activities of daily living.
    Relatives date the onset to a documented cerebrovascular accident
    two years ago. CT head scan shows a mature infarct in the
    caudate nucleus and internal capsule.
    5 A patient presents with gradual onset of forgetfulness, with a
    poor memory for recent events. This has not interfered with his
    daily life, although he now writes a shopping list rather than
    relying on his memory. Objective clinical cognitive tests are in
    the borderline range, below those expected given his high educational
    attainment.
    6 A 56-year-old lady is brought to the GP by her husband, who
    reports a change in her behaviour over the last year. She has
    become more extrovert, making inappropriate jokes and on one
    or two occasions acting aggressively towards him. She has noc oncerns, although when asked did admit to word-finding
    difficulties. Clinical cognitive tests demonstrated poor performance
    on verbal fluency and executive functioning.
    7 A patient being treated for a urinary tract infection is noted to
    have poor concentration. Her speech is confused and rambling
    and she appears to be visually hallucinating. The nurses report
    fluctuations in her confusion
A

1 a
2 g
3 j
4 e
5 b
6 h
7 c

589
Q
  1. Psychiatric disorders and physical symptoms
    and signs
    a Somatisation disorder
    b Factitious disorder
    c Hypochondriacal disorder
    d Munchausen disorder by proxy
    e Dissociative disorder
    f Dysmorphophobia
    g Ganser’s syndrome
    h Depressive disorder
    i Panic disorder
    Which of these are best described below? Choose one option.
    1 Someone with this disorder may typically reply to the question
    ‘What is 2+2’ with the answer ‘Five’.
    2 A possible differential in a child repeatedly presenting with haematuria
    of unknown cause.
    3 Might typically involve a presentation to A+E with complete
    memory loss for personal information including name and
    identity.
    4 A patient is discovered to be consciously feigning a left-sided
    weakness.
    5 Often presents first to plastic surgeons.
    6 Ten times more common in people with chronic obstructive
    airways disease.
A

1 g
2 d
3 e
4 b
5 f
6 i (see Chapter 11, aetiology section)

590
Q
  1. Psychological therapies
    a Cognitive–behavioural therapy (CBT)
    b Interpersonal psychotherapy
    c Behavioural activation
    d Behavioural management therapy
    e Dialectical behaviour therapy
    f Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing
    g Psychodynamic psychotherapy
    h Therapeutic community
    i Cognitive analytic therapy
    j Person-centred counselling
    Which of these are best described below? Choose one option.
    1 A residential therapy.
    2 A therapy for which transference and counter-transference are
    key therapeutic tools.
    3 Mostly used to treat PTSD.
    4 Designed for treatment of borderline (emotionally unstable)
    personality disorder.
    5 A useful intervention in severe dementia, in which the therapy
    would primarily be conducted with the carer.
    6 Focuses on activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach
    activities that they are avoiding.
A

1 h
2 g
3 f
4 e
5 d
6 c

591
Q
  1. Treatment of psychosis and depression
    a 2 weeks
    b 3 weeks
    c 4 weeks
    d 3 months
    e 6 months
    f 2 years
    g 10 years
    1 Risk of relapse is increased significantly if antipsychotics are not
    continued for _____________after recovery from a psychotic
    episode.
    2 Maintenance antidepressant medication after recovery from
    depressive episode is typically recommended for _____________.
    3 Antidepressants usually take ___________ to manifest their
    clinical effectiveness.
    4 A typical duration of treatment for psychoanalytic psychotherapy
    is __________.
    5 A typical duration of CBT treatment is __________.
    6 Depot antipsychotic medication is typically administered with a
    frequency of between once a week and every ________.
A

1 f
2 e
3 c
4 g

+5 d
6 c

592
Q
  1. Treatment in psychiatry
    a Antipsychotic medication
    b Benzodiazepine
    c CBT alone
    d Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
    e Family therapy
    f Mood stabiliser
    g Psychodynamic psychotherapy
    h Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and CBT
    i SSRI only
    j Cholinesterase inhibitor
    Which of these would be the most appropriate treatment for the
    following situations? Choose one option.
    1 An 85-year-old lady diagnosed with mild Alzheimer’s disease.
    2 A 64-year-old man has been severely depressed for several
    months, and his condition is deteriorating despite treatment
    with antidepressants. He is very distressed, suicidal and refusing
    to eat.
    3 A 31-year-old mother of a two-month-old baby asks her GP for
    help. Her GP diagnoses mild depressive disorder.
    4 A 28-year-old man with severe OCD. He is no longer able to go
    to work because it takes him several hours to get dressed every
    morning as a result of his compulsive rituals.
    5 A 34-year-old lady seeks help from her GP. She is concerned
    that she has problems in intimate relationships due to sexual
    abuse that she experienced as a child. She feels this is making
    her very anxious.
A

1 j
2 d
3 c
4 h
5 g
6 e

593
Q
  1. Psychiatry and the English law
    a Mental Capacity Act
    b Deprivation of Liberty safeguards
    c Mental Health Act (MHA), section 2
    d MHA, section 3
    e MHA, section 5(2)
    f MHA, section 17
    g MHA, section 37
    h MHA, section 58
    i MHA, section 135
    j MHA, section 136
    Which legal act, or section of legal act, is most appropriate to use
    in these situations?
    Choose one option.
    1 A man who is actively suicidal asks to self-discharge. The
    medical team contact you, the psychiatry Foundation Year 2,
    to ask advice; they need to do something immediately to prevent
    him leaving.
    2 A woman with a known diagnosis of schizophrenia has been
    shouting at neighbours that they are trying to poison her. When
    the mental health team visit, she refuses to open the door. They
    think she needs a psychiatric assessment.
    3 You are called to assess a woman with dementia who is refusing
    potentially life-saving intravenous antibiotics for treatment of
    cellulitis. She does not believe she is ill.
    4 You assess a man with no previously documented psychiatric
    history who was brought to A+E by his wife. He has threatened
    to set fire to next door’s house because he believes MI5 are using
    it as a monitoring station. He wants to go home.
    5 A consultant psychiatrist treating a man for a psychotic episode
    under Section 3 of the MHA wants to send him home on leave
    for a few hours.
    6 A 28-year-old woman was arrested after attacking a passer-by,
    whom she believed was possessed by a demon that was trying
    to kill her. The courts find her guilty of grievous bodily
    harm, and accept the recommendation that she should be
    detained in a psychiatric hospital for treatment of a psychotic
    disorder.
    7 A man with moderately severe learning disabilities who is not
    allowed to leave his group home alone for his own safety persistently
    bangs on the front door in the morning saying he wants
    to go for a walk.
A

1 e
2 i
3 a
4 c
5 f
6 g
7 b

594
Q
  1. When initiating antipsychotics in a patient with a new diagnosis
    of schizophrenia:

A Consider clozapine
B Start with a typical antipsychotic
C Start at lowest recommended dose for your choice of drug
D Consider that it is often preferable to use depot medication
to prevent relapse once well

A

C; Clozapine is only used when two other antipsychotics have
failed because of side-effects (page 76); depot is only used where
specifically indicated (e.g. because of patient preference or very
poor adherence; NICE recommends commencing new patients
on an atypical antipsychotic.

595
Q
  1. First-line treatments for mild depression do not usually include:
    A Antidepressants
    B Self-help group
    C Computer-aided CBT
    D Advice about decreasing alcohol intake
A

A; Antidepressants are generally only recommended for moderate
and severe depression

596
Q
  1. Bipolar affective disorder is more common in:
    A Men
    B People from lower socioeconomic groups
    C Pregnant women
    D People with a history of sexual abuse
A

D; It is more common in women, with high rates postpartum but
not during pregnancy, and in higher socio-economic groups.

597
Q
  1. An appropriate initial treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder
    would be:
    A Debriefing
    B Eye movement desensitisation therapy
    C Quetiapine
    D Lorazepam
  2. Symptoms that often occur in recently bereaved people
    without mental illness include:
    A Hearing the voice of the deceased
    B Suicidal intent
    C Agoraphobia
    D Recurrent panic attacks
A
  1. B (page 75).
  2. A (page 27).
598
Q
  1. First-line treatments for panic disorder do not usually include:
    A CBT
    B SSRIs
    C Benzodiazepines
    D Self-help materials along CBT principles
A
  1. C; Benzodiazepines are not recommended.
599
Q
  1. A patient tells you he is concerned he may jump in front of a
    train. He is terrified of doing so, does not want to die but
    cannot get the thought out of his head. Is this symptom most
    likely to be:
    A Suicidal ideation
    B An obsessional impulse
    C Anxious rumination
    D A compulsion
A
  1. B; It is egodystonic (the thought is unwelcome and recognised
    as alien; it is not what he thinks).
600
Q
  1. In the treatment of anorexia nervosa, hospitalisation is almost
    always indicated if:
    A There is an absence of insight
    B The patient does not comply with treatment
    C The patient has a Body Mass Index of below 13.5
    D The patient has suicidal ideation
A
  1. C.
601
Q
  1. Borderline (emotionally unstable) personality disorder:
    A Is the most prevalent personality disorder in the general
    population
    B Is usually a lifelong condition
    C Is associated with bulimia nervosa
    D Can be expected to worsen with age
A
  1. C.
602
Q
  1. In the context of sexual identity disorders, which of the following
    is not true:
    A Boys who show gender atypical behaviour usually grow up
    to be homosexual
    B Pre-surgery psychotherapy is associated with a favourable
    outcome to gender reassignment therapy
    C Transsexual people believe their biological sex is inappropriate
    D Cross-dressing is not associated with sexual excitement
A
  1. A; They usually grow up to be heterosexual.
603
Q
  1. Munchausen’s syndrome is synonymous with:
    A Somatisation disorder
    B Dissociative disorder
    C Hypochondriacal disorder
    D Factitious disorder
A
  1. D (page 39).
604
Q
  1. Drugs often used to treat opiate dependence include:
    A Buprenorphine
    B Bupropion
    C Naloxone
    D Morphine
A
  1. A.
605
Q
  1. Which of the following is true:
    A Alcohol dependence is no longer more common in men
    B A quarter of primary care attendees have an alcohol use
    problem
    C The CAGE questionnaire is a useful means of diagnosing
    alcohol dependence
    D Increasing the cost of alcoholic drinks is an effective means
    of reducing alcohol dependence in a population
A
  1. D; Not the CAGE is a useful screening, not diagnostic, test.
606
Q
  1. Before the age of ten, girls and boys are equally likely to suffer
    from:
    A Tourette’s syndrome
    B Autism
    C Enuresis
    D Depression
A
  1. D (see Chapter 19).
607
Q
  1. With regard to autism:
    A Onset is usually before nine months
    B Around half of patients have normal intelligence
    C It is more common in girls
    D It is more common in higher social classes
A
  1. D (page 46).
608
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of a 15-year-old:
    A They may consent to a serious operation if a doctor judges
    they have capacity to do so
    B They may be detained under the Mental Health Act
    C They may be given treatment that neither they nor their
    parent consents to if they are made a ward of court and the
    court agrees it is in their best interests
    D They can be detained under the Mental Capacity Act (in
    England) so long as Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards
    procedures are followed
A
  1. D (see Chapter 40; the Mental Capacity Act applies to those
    aged 18 and over).
609
Q
  1. People with mild learning disability:
    A Often have sensory impairments
    B Rarely live independently
    C Are usually diagnosed by three years of age
    D Usually have parents with low IQ
A
  1. D.
610
Q
  1. The prevalence of schizophrenia is higher in African Caribbean
    people. Possible reasons do not include:
    A Higher rates of socio-economic disadvantage in African
    Caribbean people living in the UK
    B A genetic predisposition to psychosis in African Caribbean
    people
    C The stress of migration
    D The stress of racism
A
  1. B; This cannot be true, because rates of schizophrenia in the
    Caribbean are similar to those in the UK among the indigenous
    populations
611
Q
  1. Which is true of prisoners with severe mental illness:
    A May require treatment in the prison hospital wing under
    the Mental Health Act
    B Can be transferred to a secure psychiatric unit without the
    consent of the court for urgent treatment
    C Are more likely to have a learning disability than people
    with severe mental illness in the community
    D Are less likely to commit suicide than people with severe
    mental illness in the community because of high levels of
    observation
A
  1. C; Treatment under the Mental Health Act may not be given in
    prison; transfer always requires court approval; prisoners with
    mental illness are at high risk of suicide
612
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of prescribing psychotropic
    medication in pregnancy:
    A Sertraline and lithium carry similar risks to the foetus
    B Prescribing psychotropic medication in pregnancy should
    always be avoided
    C Benzodiazepines are generally safer than antidepressants
    D Sodium valproate and carbemazepine are among the most
    teratogenic psychotropic drugs
A
  1. D; The risks of prescribing and not prescribing need to be carefully
    weighed; lithium is more likely to be teratogenic than
    sertraline.
613
Q
  1. Compared with depression in younger people, an incident case
    of depression in a 65-year-old man is:
    A More likely to be treated
    B More likely to have a strong genetic component
    C Less likely to be associated with brain imaging
    abnormalities
    D Likely to have a higher risk of mortality
A
  1. D; Incident depression in older age is more likely to be associated
    with brain imaging abnormalities, less likely to be associated
    with a positive family history, and less likely to be treated
    compared with depression in a younger person.
614
Q
  1. Compared with dissociative disorders, somatisation disorders
    are:
    A Less common
    B More likely to present with symptoms than clinical signs
    C More likely to have complaints that involve the nervous
    system
    D More likely to have symptoms that are deliberately feigned
A
  1. B; They are more common than dissociative disorders; dissociative
    disorders generally involve the nervous system; in neither
    disorder are symptoms deliberately feigned; if so, factitious disorder
    would be the correct diagnosis.
615
Q
  1. A single ischaemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is unlikely
    to cause the onset of:
    A Tourette’s syndrome
    B Vascular dementia
    C Delirium
    D Depression
A
  1. A; The others are more common after CVA
616
Q
  1. Which of the following endocrine disorders is more likely to
    present with episodic anxiety than with depression:
    A Phaeochromocytoma
    B Hypothyroidism
    C Hypopituitarism
    D Hypocortisolaemia
A
  1. A.
617
Q
  1. Useful preventative strategies to avoid delirium on an acute
    hospital ward do not include:
    A Benzodiazepines for poor sleep
    B Family photos and other familiar objects around the bed
    C Clear signage
    D Regular visits from family and friends
A
  1. A; Benzodiazepines can contribute to or cause confusion.
618
Q
  1. In Alzheimer’s disease, a treatment associated with beneficial
    cognitive effects is:
    A Electroconvulsive therapy
    B Memantine
    C Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors
    D Antipsychotics
A
  1. B (pages 72, 81); Note that antipsychotic use is associated with
    cognitive decline.
619
Q
  1. Psychodynamic psychotherapy is usually contraindicated in
    patients with:
    A A history of sexual abuse
    B Narcissistic personality disorder
    C Alcohol dependence
    D Psychopathic personality disorder
A
  1. C; It is often used as a treatment for the others. It is important
    that substance misuse problems are under control before initiating
    psychodynamic psychotherapy, because exposing unconscious
    conflicts can increase stress in the short term and this
    could lead to increased substance misuse as an unhelpful coping
    strategy.
620
Q
  1. Antipsychotics:
    A Are usually given as depot injections to increase
    adherence
    B Usually take four weeks to demonstrate an effect
    C Should be continued for ten years after a severe psychotic
    episode
    D If atypical, are commonly associated with metabolic sideeffects
A
  1. D; Most authorities recommend continuing for 2–5 years after
    a psychotic episode; they generally demonstrate some effect
    within a week; they are usually taken orally.
621
Q
  1. Antidepressants are not usually used to treat:
    A Anorexia nervosa
    B Psychotic depression
    C Obsessive–compulsive disorder
    D Bulimia nervosa
A
  1. A.
622
Q
  1. Lithium:
    A Has a wide therapeutic window
    B Must never be prescribed to pregnant women
    C Should not be started without a full assessment including
    liver function tests
    D Reduces the risk of suicide
A
  1. D (page 80); It is teratogenic so female patients should always
    be advised to consult their doctor if planning a pregnancy
    because usually they will be changed to safer medication;sometimes patient and doctor decide the risks of stopping
    (relapse with increased risk of self-harm, accidents and stress)
    outweigh those of continuing to take it when pregnant.
623
Q
  1. Which of these treatments requires no local or general
    anaesthetic?
    A Eye movement desensitisation therapy
    B Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
    C Deep brain stimulation
    D Anterior cingulotomy
A
  1. A (see also Chapter 33).
624
Q
  1. Around 15% of the general population have at some time
    experienced:
    A Mental illness
    B Suicidal ideation
    C Psychosis
    D Personality disorder
A
  1. B; Psychosis ( common; mental illness is more common (25%); see Chapter
    38.
625
Q
  1. Shoplifting is not known to be more common than in the
    general population among people with:
    A Substance misuse
    B Learning disability
    C Emotionally unstable personality disorder
    D Generalised anxiety disorder
A
  1. D.
626
Q
  1. The Mental Capacity Act (England and Wales) does not give
    the legal authority to give the following treatment to a person
    without capacity to consent:
    A An antidepressant to a person with learning disability in a
    residential home
    B Antibiotics to a psychiatric inpatient detained under the
    Mental Health Act

C Life-saving treatment to a medical inpatient
D Urgent ECT to a psychiatric inpatient detained under the
Mental Health Act

A
  1. D; If a patient is detained under the MHA they receive psychiatric
    treatment under it
627
Q
  1. To be detained under a Community Treatment Order:
    A The patient must be detained under Section 2 or 3
    B The approved mental health professional (AMHP) must
    agree to it
    C The patient must agree to it
    D The patient must be over the age of 18
A

B

628
Q

What is he template for generating a treatment plan?

A

Bio-psycho-scoial with considerations for predisposing, precipitating and perpetuating factors

Include a risk management plan making use of all available statuatory and nonstatutory resoruces

629
Q

What are BPSD?

A

Behavioural and psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD) refer to the often distressing non-cognitive symptoms of dementia and include agitation and aggressive behaviour.

he spectrum of BPSD includes: (Adapted from5)

Aggression

Agitation or restlessness; screaming

Anxiety

Depression

Psychosis, delusions, hallucinations

Repetitive vocalisation, cursing and swearing

Sleep disturbance

Shadowing (following the carer closely)

Sundowning (behaviour worsens after 5pm)

Wandering

Non-specific behaviour disturbance e.g. hoarding

630
Q

Age of treatment consent in psych

Parental responsibility?

Implications for treatment of 18

A

16, under 16s can be made by someone with Gillick competence or someone with parental responsibility

Ends at 18.

Under 18s can rarely refuse treatment as it is often not in their best interests (4th Gillick criteria).

Under 18s refusal with parents can be overturned by courts

Over 18s refusal is finalas long as they have competence

Under 16s who are not Gillick competence may have their confidentiality breached. Confidentiality can be breached up to 18 if in child’s best interests.

631
Q

Advance decision can only be?

Features of advance decision?

A

Refusal rather than demand of treatment

  • Have to be seen by the doctor
  • Informed, competent, voluntary
  • Can be oral
  • Can’t refuse nursing care, oral hydration/nutrition
  • Inapplicable if there’s a large change in circumstances e.g. pregnancy
  • Inapplicable if there’s been a large change in treatment given (e.g. AIDS) since decision was made. So it should be kept up to date
  • If there are doubts over validity/applicability , it can be overridden in an emergency

Withdrawal may be oral

  • Have to be seen by the doctor
  • Informed, competent, voluntary
  • Can be oral
  • Can’t refuse nursing care, oral hydration/nutrition
  • Inapplicable if there’s a large change in circumstances e.g. pregnancy
  • Inapplicable if there’s been a large change in treatment given (e.g. AIDS) since decision was made. So it should be kept up to date
  • If there are doubts over validity/applicability , it can be overridden in an emergency

Withdrawal may be oral

632
Q

What is Beck’s cognitive triad?

A

Negative views about the world

->

Negative views about the future

->

Negative views about oneself

-> cycle

633
Q

Mx of a dangerous psychotic patient

A

De-escalation: call for help, reasssure, talk calmly, use simple language, non-hostile, don’t invade personal space, remove weapons, separate from other patients

Offer oral medication: antipsychotics, BZDs

IM rapid tranquilisation: lorazepam, haloperidol + promethazine (to prevent dystonia)

Seclusion

Post-incident review

634
Q

1st and 2nd line treatment of dangerous pt with acute confusiona state

A

IM haloperidol (risk of ESPEs)

BZDs (2nd line): NB can cause paradoxical increase in confusion

635
Q

Reversible types of demenita

A

Hypothyroidism

B12

Syphillis (argyll-robertson pupils, accomodate but don’t react to light)

Lyme disease

Pellagra (niacin, nictonic acid, B3 deficiency): dermatitis+diarrhoea+dementia, sunlight hypersensitivity

636
Q

MMSE cut off points?

A

19-24= mild

637
Q

Dementia screening questionnaires

A

MMSE

MoCA

Addenbrookes Cogntiive Examination (/100)

AMTS: /10,

638
Q

What are the features of the psychotherapies in dementia?

A

Cognitive stimulation therapy: memory training

Validation therapy: respecting the patient’s reality

Reminiscence therapy: allowing them to talk about the past

Multisensory therapy: variety of stimuli in specialised room

639
Q

Social methods in dementia

A

Home adaptation: notes, dictaphone, ID, contact number, dosset boxes, change from gas to electric

Keep mind stimulates

Social services

Involve therapy

Plan for deterioration

640
Q

Pathophysiology of AD

A

Cerebral atrophy: hippocampal esp

Amyloid plaques

NFTs

Cholinergic longs

641
Q

4As of AD

Other syptoms

A

Amnesia, Aphasia, Agnosia, Apraxia

Wandering, personality changes, mood lability, apathy, poor insight, aggression

642
Q

AD Px

A

5-10y survival

643
Q

Dx of Vascular dmentia

A

Hachinski’s ischaemic score, MRI

644
Q

Hachinski Ischaemic score

A

Used in the diagnosis of vascular dementia

645
Q

What are Lewy bodies?

A

Eosinophllic cytoplasmic inclusions, clumps of alpha synuclein

646
Q

Pathophysiology of Pick’s disease

A

Frontal and temporal lobe atrophy

Pick bodies made of Tau

647
Q

Frontal lobe tests

Set shifting/response inhibition

Luria test

Abstract thinking

Verbal fluency

Cognitive estimates

Clock drawining

A

Tap on table, ask them to rais finger, stop tapping and they still raise finger

Fist, edge, pal, repeat

Interpret a proverb

Name words beginning with S

What is the best paid job in Britain?

Clock drawing

648
Q

Pulvinar sign

Dx of vCJD?

A

The pulvinar sign refers to bilateral FLAIR hyperintensities involving the pulvinar thalamic nuclei. It is classically described in variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD). It is also described in other neurological conditions:

Fabry disease (although the hyperintense signal is seen on T1WI)

bilateral thalamic infarcts

ADEM

Tonsi biopsy

649
Q

What is AUDIT?

A

Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (10 question test by WHO)

650
Q

What are the Stages of Change Model

A

Pre-contemplation

Contemplation (acceptane)

Preparation

Action

Maintenance

Relapse: common part of learning process, not a sign of failure

651
Q

Formication

A

Sensation like inescts crawling over the skin, seen in delerium tremens.

652
Q

ARMS for schizophrenia

A

At Risk Mental State

Mild psychotic symptoms

Brief limited intermittent psychotic symptoms (BLIPs)-

653
Q

Good Pxic factors for Schizophrenia

A

Precipitating cause

Intelligent

Acute

Normal premorbid personality

High social class

Female

Late onset

654
Q

Poor Pxic factors for Schizophrenia

A

Gradual onset

Young

Negative symptoms

Fhx

Low IQ

Social withdrawal before

Lack of obvious precipitant

655
Q

DDx for Schizophrenai

A

Organic

Acute and transient psychosis

Depression/BPAD

Schizoaffective disorder

Persistent delusional disorder

Schizotypal/Schizoid PD

656
Q

Features and Rx of atypical depression

A

Reactive mood, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, heavy limbs, rejection sensitivity

MAOIs e.g. phenelzine

657
Q

Plan for Rx resistant depression

A

* Review diagnosis

o Consider co-morbid conditions

* Check compliance e.g. blood test

* Check for substance misuse

* Change dose

* Change or augment medication

* Review psycho-social management

* ECT

658
Q

Mx of SAD

A

Ligth therapy

CBT

SSRis

659
Q

Cut of Edinburgh PDS

A

>13/30 indicates depression

660
Q

Risk assessment in Suicide

Past

Present

Future

A

o Past

* Trigger?

* Planned or impulsive?

* Method?

* Final acts?

* Did you isolate yourself?

* Efforts to avoid discovery?

* Suicide note?

* Who called the ambulance?

* Did you believe it would kill you?

o Present

* How do you feel about trying to harm yourself?

* Do you regret trying to kill yourself?

* Do you regret failing to kill yourself?

* Has anything changed since the attempt?

o Future

* How do you see the future?

* Do you have any plans to harm or kill yourself?

* Do you think you might kill yourself?

* Can you think of anything that might stop you?

661
Q

Dx if GAD

A

GAD7 score (/21)

662
Q

Symptoms of panic attack

A

Hyperventilation

Palpitations

Dizziness/faints

Tingling lips

Tinnitus

Sweating

Depersonalisation/derealisation

Sense of doom

663
Q

Personality traits

OCEAN

A

* Openness

o Curious vs cautious

* Conscientiousness

o Organised vs impulsive

* Extraversion

o Extrovert vs introvert

* Agreeableness

o Friendly vs detached

* Neuroticism

o Insecure vs secure

664
Q

Charles Bonnet Syndrome

A

Complex visual pseudohallucinations due to visual impairment

665
Q

Name of dxic questionnaire in hyperkinetic disorder

A

Conner’s questionnaire

666
Q

Types of attachment disorder

A

Inhibited/reactive: fail to respond to social interactions

Disinhibited: overly friendly to strangers, danger of abuse, socially inappropriate behaviour

667
Q

Features of ME

A

* Extreme fatigue, aches and pains

* >6 months

* Usually follows viral infection

* Management

o Set realistic exercise goals

o CBT

668
Q

How to reduce EPSEs in antipsychotics

A

Lower dose

Switch from depot

Switch to different

Procyclidine: worsens anti-cholinergic side effects + tardive dyskinesia

669
Q

Effect of procyclidine on tardive dyskinesia

A

Worsens

Mx of TD- lower dose

670
Q

What are the dopamine pathways

A

Mesolimbic: emotion- antipsychotics reduce positive symptoms

Mesocortical: cognition- antipsychotics reduce negative symptoms

Tubulo-infundibular- endocrine: antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinaemia due to reduced dopamine inhibition of prolactin

Nigrostriatal- movement: antipsychotics cause EPSEs

671
Q

SSRI drug interactions

NSAID

Warfarin

Tryptans

A

Rx PPI

Avoid SSRIs, mirtazapaine instead

Avoid due to risk of serotonin syndrome

672
Q

Side effects of SSRIs

A

N+V

Gastric ulcers

Anxiety

Insomnia

Increased suicidal ideation

Sexual dysfunction

Hyponatraemia (SIADH in elderly)

Anticholinergic

Loss of appetite

Platelet dysfunciton: increased bleeding

673
Q

Mx of serotonin syndrome

A

Stop SSRIs

5HT antag: cyproheptadine

IV fluids

BZDs

Cooling blankets

674
Q

Buspirone features and indications

SEs

A

5HT agonist, indicated for ST treatment of anxiety disordesr

Compared to BZDs: doesn’t cause tolerance or dependence, less powerful, slower acting

Side effects include headaches, dizziness, drowsiness

675
Q

Why is propanolol CIed in DM?

A

Reduces hypo symptoms

676
Q

How is ACh increased by antipsychotics?

A

Because dopamine antagonists reduce dopamine inhibition of ACh

677
Q

How can delusions be classified?

A

Mood congruent: BPAD

Mood incongruent: schizophrenia

Systematised: delusions which revolve around a cental theme e.g. government

Unsystematised: delusions which are disconnected/unrelated.

Primary/autochthonous: sudden, out of the blue with no obvious cause

Secondary: understandable in context of patients mood

678
Q

Classification of hallucinations

A

Functional: normal stimulus that activates same sensory modality e.g. voice when tap is running

Reflex: stimulus in one sense triggers hallucination in another e.g. face when tap is heard

Extracampine: outside the normal range of sensory perception e.g. hearing voices 2 miles away

679
Q

Description of auditory hallucinations

A

2nd person: talking to patient

3rd person: talking about patient to each other

Though echo

Command hallucinations

Running commentary

680
Q

Thought process=

A

Formal thoguht disorder

681
Q

Circumstantiality

A

Long sidetrack leading back to original point

682
Q

Tangentiality

A

Patient goes of on tangent failing to return to original point

683
Q

Flight of ideas

A

Thinking moving rapidly between loosely related topics manifested by pressure of speech i.e. BPAD

684
Q

Knight’s move/derailment/loosening of association

A

Changing topic randomly with every sentence

Schizophrenia

685
Q

Thought block

A

Patient’s thought stop mid-sentence

Schizophrenia

686
Q

Echolalia

A

Patient repeats back what is said to them

Schizophrenia

687
Q

Perseveration

A

Repeating same word or gesture and being unable to stop@ organic brain disease

Palilalia= whole word

Logoclonia= last syllable

688
Q

Word salad

A

Random words forming meaningless sentences

Schizo/BPAD

689
Q

Circulocutions

A

Vague phrases used instead of words e.g. whatsits

Schizophrenia, dementia

690
Q

Clanging

A

Words used are related by sound rather than meaning

BPAD

691
Q

Alexithymia

A

Inability to describe mood

ASD, eating disorders, depression (esp somatisation)

692
Q

Features of CBT

A

Pragmatic, goal based, thought diary

Collaborative effort

Challenges NATs

693
Q

Splitting

A

Black and white thinking

694
Q

Personalisation

A

Deeming failures to be caused by self

695
Q

Overgeneralisation

A

Making generalisations based on past experiences

696
Q

Labelling

A

Calling oneself names

697
Q

Selective abstraction

A

Dwelling on insignificant detail

698
Q

Magnification/minimalisation

A

Dwelling on bad, ignoring good

699
Q

What are some CBT techniques

A

Graded exposure

Response prevention

Relaxation techniques

Thought stopping- interrupting thought e.g. elastic band

Flooding

Aversion therapy

700
Q

Features of DBT

A

Acceptance

Address coping mechanisms- replace maladaptive behaviours with more appropriate ones

Individual and group therapy

BPD

701
Q

Uses of family/systemic therapy

A

CAMHS

Schizo

Eating disorders

BPAD

Substance misuse

702
Q

Gerstman’s syndrome

A

Particular syndrome of parietal lobe injury:

Left-right disorientation

Dyscalculia

Finger agnosia

Agraphia

703
Q

Anton syndrome

A

Cortically blind but continues to confirm ademantly that they can see

704
Q

of amnesia and confabulation are very typical of tumours
involving

A

the wall or floor of the third ventricle