Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOC Book > Proteins & other Nitrogen-Containing Compounds (Chemistry) > Flashcards

Proteins & other Nitrogen-Containing Compounds (Chemistry) Flashcards

1
Q

The function of a serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to:

A) maintain colloidal osmotic pressure
B) increase antibody production
C) increase fibrinogen formation
D) maintain blood viscosity

A

A) maintain colloidal osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In a pleural effusion caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, the ratio of pleural fluid protein to the serum protein would likely be:

A) >0.6
B) >0.5
C) <0.3
D) <0.7

A

B) >0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The first step in analyzing a 24 hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is:

A) subculture the urine for bacteria
B) add the appropriate preservative
C) screen for albumin using a dipstick
D) measure the total volume

A

D) measure the total volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When performing a manual protein analysis on a xanthochromic spinal fluid, the technician should:

A) perform the test as usual
B) make a patient blank
C) centrifuge the specimen
D) dilute the specimen with deionized water

A

B) make a patient blank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The direction in which the proteins migrate (ie, toward anode or cathode) during electrophoretic separation of serum proteins, at pH 8.6, is determined by:

A) the ionization of the amine groups, yielding a net positive charge
B) the ionization of the carboxyl groups, yielding a net negative charge
C) albumin acting as a zwitterion
D) the density of the gel layer

A

B) the ionization of the carboxyl groups, yielding a net negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The protein that has the highest dye-binding capacity is:

A) albumin
B) alpha globulin
C) beta globulin
D) gamma globulin

A

A) albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends on the number of:

A) free amino groups
B) free carboxyl groups
C) peptide bonds
D) tyrosine residues

A

C) peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In protein electrophoresis, using agarose gel medium and pH 8.6 buffer, an unexpected protein band migrates between the beta and gamma region could most likely be due to:

A) oligoclonal proteins from multiple sclerosis
B) fibrinogen from incomplete clotting
C) bis-albumin
D) alpha-1 antitrypsin

A

B) fibrinogen from incomplete clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The relative migration rate of proteins on agarose gel is based on:

A) molecular weight and concentration
B) surface charge and molecular size
C) charge-to-mass ratio
D) molecular sieving

A

C) charge-to-mass ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The order of migration in serum protein electrophoresis at pH 8.6, beginning with the fastest migration is as follows:

A) albumin, alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin
B) alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin, albumin
C) albumin, alpha-2 globulin, alpha-1 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin
D) gamma globulin, beta globulin, alpha-2 globulin, alpha-1 globulin, albumin

A

A) albumin, alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following amino acids is associated with sulfhydryl group?

A) cysteine
B) glycine
C) serine
D) tyrosine

A

A) cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maple syrup urine disease is characterized by an increase in which of the following urinary amino acids?

A) phenylalanine
B) tyrosine
C) valine, leucine and isoleucine
D) cystine and cysteine

A

C) valine, leucine and isoleucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions?

A) nephrotic syndrome
B) acute hepatitis
C) chronic inflammation
D) dehydration

A

D) dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The following data was obtained from a cellulose acetate protein electrophoresis scan:

albumin area: 75 units
gamma globulin area: 30 units
total area: 180 units
total protein: 6.5 g/dL (65 g/L)

The gamma globulin content in g/dL is:

A) 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L)
B) 2.7 g/dL (27 g/L)
C) 3.8 g/dL (38 g/L)
D) 4.9 g/dL (49 g/L)

A

A) 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient is admitted with biliary cirrhosis. If a serum protein electrophoresis is performed which of the following globulin fractions will be most often be elevated?

A) alpha-1
B) alpha-2
C) beta
D) gamma

A

D) gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following serum protein fractions is most likely to be elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A) alpha-1 globulin
B) albumin
C) alpha-2 globulin and beta globulin
D) beta globulin and gamma globulin

A

C) alpha-2 globulin and beta globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A characteristic of the Bence Jones protein that is used to distinguish it from other urinary proteins is its solubility:

A) in ammonium sulfate
B) in sulfuric acid
C) at 40-60 degrees C
D) at 100 degrees C

A

D) at 100 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The electrophoretic pattern of plasma sample as compared to a serum sample shows a:

A) broad prealbumin peak
B) sharp fibrinogen peak
C) diffuse pattern because of the presence of anticoagulants
D) decreased globulin fraction

A

B) sharp fibrinogen peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At a pH of 8.6 the gamma globulins move toward the cathode, despite the fact that they are negatively charged. What is this phenomenon called?

A) reverse migration
B) molecular sieve
C) endosmosis
D) migratory inhibition factor

A

C) endosmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Analysis of CSF for oligoclonal bands is used to screen for which of the following disease states?

A) multiple myeloma
B) multiple sclerosis
C) myasthenia gravis
D) von Willebrand disease

A

B) multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The identification of Bence Jones protein is best accomplished by:

A) a sulfosalicylic acid test
B) urine reagent strips
C) immunofixation electrophoresis
D) immunoelectrophoresis

A

C) immunofixation electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

To assure an accurate ammonia level result, the specimen should be:

A) incubated at 37 degrees C prior to testing
B) spun and separated immediately, tested as routine
C) spun, separated, iced, and tested immediately
D) stored at room temperature until tested

A

C) spun, separated, iced, and tested immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Erroneous ammonia levels can be eliminated by all of the following except:

A) assuring water and reagents are ammonia-free
B) separating plasma form cells and performing test analysis as soon as possible
C) drawing the specimen in a prechilled tube and immersing the tube in ice
D) storing the specimen protected from light until the analysis is done

A

D) storing the specimen protected from light until the analysis is done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A critically ill patient becomes comatose. The physician believes the coma is due to hepatic failure. The assay most helpful in this diagnosis is:

A) ammonia
B) ALT
C) AST
D) GGT

A

A) ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

A) prolonged hypothermia
B) renal functional impairment
C) pregnancy
D) arrhythmia

A

B) renal functional impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In order to prepare 100 mL of 15mg/dL BUN (5.35 mmol/L) working standard from a stock standard containing 500 mg/dL (178.5 mmol/L) of urea nitrogen, the amount of stock solution that should be used is:

A) 3 mL
B) 5 mL
C) 33 mL
D) 75 mL

A

A) 3 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A patient with glomerulonephritis is most likely to present with the following serum results:

A) creatinine decreased
B) calcium increased
C) phosphorus decreased
D) BUN increased

A

D) BUN increased

28
Q

The principle excretory form of nitrogen is/are:

A) amino acids
B) creatinine
C) urea
D) uric acid

A

C) urea

29
Q

In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with:

A) alkaline sulfasalazine solution to produce an orange-yellow complex
B) potassium iodine to form a reddish-purple complex
C) sodium nitroferricyanide to yield a reddish-brown color
D) alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange-red complex

A

D) alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange-red complex

30
Q

Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:

A) tubular secretion of creatinine
B) glomerular secretion of creatinine
C) renal glomerular and tubular mass
D) renal glomerular and tubular mass

A

D) renal glomerular and tubular mass

31
Q

A blood creatinine value of 5.0 mg/dL (442.0 umol/L) is most likely to be found with which of the following blood values?

A) osmolality: 292 mOsm/kg
B) uric acid: 8 mg/dL (475.8 umol/L)
C) urea nitrogen: 80 mg/dL (28.56 mmol/L)
D) ammonia: 80 ug/dL (44 umol/L)

A

C) urea nitrogen: 80 mg/dL (28.56 mmol/L)

32
Q

Technical problems encountered during the collection of an amniotic fluid specimen caused doubt as to whether the specimen was amniotic in origin. Which of the following procedures would best establish that the fluid is amniotic in origin?

A) measurement of absorbance at 450 nm
B) creatinine measurement
C) lecithin/sphingoyelin ratio
D) human amniotic placental lactogen (HPL)

A

B) creatinine measurement

33
Q

Which of the following represents the end product of purine metabolism in humans?

A) AMP and GMP
B) DNA and RNA
C) allantoin
D) uric acid

A

D) uric acid

34
Q

The troponin complex consists of:

A) troponin T, calcium and tropomyosin
B) tropnin C, troponin I, and tropnin T
C) troponin I, actin, and tropomyosin
D) troponin C, myoglobin, and actin

A

B) tropnin C, troponin I, and tropnin T

35
Q

The presence of C-reactive protein in the blood is an indication of:

A) a recent streptococcal infection
B) recovery from a pneumococcal infection
C) an inflammatory process
D) a state of hypersensitivity

A

C) an inflammatory process

36
Q

Oligoclonal bands are present on electrophoresis of concentrated CSF and also on concurrently tested serum of the same patient. The proper interpretation is:

A) diagnostic for primary CNS tumor
B) diagnostic for multiple sclerosis
C) CNS involvement by acute leukemia
D) need further testing to rule out multiple sclerosis

A

D) need further testing to rule out multiple sclerosis

37
Q

90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:

A) transferrin
B) ceruloplasmin
C) albumin
D) cryoglobulin

A

B) ceruloplasmin

38
Q

Which of the following determinations is useful in prenatal diagnosis of open neural tube defects?

A) amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein
B) amniotic fluid estriol
C) maternal serum estradiol
D) maternal serum estrone

A

A) amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein

39
Q

Serum haptoglobin:

A) is decreased in patients with tissue injury and neoplasia
B) is increased in patients with prosthetic heart valves
C) can be separated into distinct phenotypes by starch-gel electrophoresis
D) binds heme

A

C) can be separated into distinct phenotypes by starch-gel electrophoresis

40
Q

“Laboratory A” measures maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) at 16-18 weeks’ gestation as a screen for fetal disorders. The 16-week MSAFP median for Lab A is 32 ug/L. a 37 year old woman has an MSAFP level of 34 ug/L at her 16th week. This result is consistent with:

A) a normal MSAFP level for 16 weeks’ gestation
B) possible nueral tube defect, including spina bifida
C) possible multiple birth (ie, twins)
D) possible trisomy disorder, including down syndrome

A

A) a normal MSAFP level for 16 weeks’ gestation

41
Q

In developing the reference for a new EIA for CEA, the range for the normal population was broader than that published by the vendor. Controls are acceptable with a narrow coefficient of variation. This may be explained by:

A: positive interference by another tumor marker
B) population skewed to a younger age
C) improper temperature control during assay
D) inclusion of nonsmokers and smokers in the study population

A

D) inclusion of nonsmokers and smokers in the study population

42
Q

Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:

A) screening for the presence of cancer
B) monitoring the course of a known cancer
C) confirming the absence of disease
D) identifying patients at risk for cancer

A

B) monitoring the course of a known cancer

43
Q

Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?

A) alpha-fetoprotein
B) carcinoembryonic antigen
C) prolactin
D) testosterone

A

A) alpha-fetoprotein

44
Q

Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most chracteristically associated with:

A) hepatocellular carcinoma
B) alcoholic cirrhosis
C) chronic active hepatitis
D) multiple myeloma

A

A) hepatocellular carcinoma

45
Q

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignancy involving the:

A) brain
B) testes
C) bone
D) colon

A

D) colon

46
Q

Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate?

A) total prostate-specific antigen
B) prostatic acid phosphatase
C) human chorionic gonadotropin
D) alpha-fetoprotein

A

A) total prostate-specific antigen

47
Q

Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers?

A) tumor markers are useful to screen asymptomatic patients for tumors
B) tumor markers are highly specific
C) tumor markers indicate the likelihood of an individual developing a tumor
D) tumor markers are useful in tracking the efficacy of treatment

A

D) tumor markers are useful in tracking the efficacy of treatment

48
Q

Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:

A) breast carcinoma
B) colon cancer
C) lung cancer
D) ovarian and endometrial carcinoma

A

D) ovarian and endometrial carcinoma

49
Q

In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) can occur due to:

A) aspirin therapy
B) exogenous steroid use
C) benign prostatic hyperplasia
D) statin therapy (cholesterol lowering drug)

A

C) benign prostatic hyperplasia

50
Q

In monitoring glomerular function, which of the following tests has the highest sensitivity?

A) urine sodium
B) BUN/creatinine ratio
C) creatinine clearance
D) urea clearance

A

C) creatinine clearance

51
Q

A 24 hour urine specimen (total volume = 1,136 mL) is submitted to the laboratory for quantitative urine protein. Calculate the amount of protein excreted per day, if the total protein is 52mg/dL.

A) 591 mg
B) 487 mg
C) creatinine clearance
D) urea clearance

A

A) 591 mg

52
Q

The following results were obtained:

urine creatinine: 90 mg/dL (7956 umol/L)
serum creatinine: 0.90 mg/dL (79.6 umol/L)
patients total body surface: 1.73 m^2 (average= 1.73 m^2)
total urine volume in 24 hours: 1500 mL

Given the data above, the patients creatinine clearance, in mL/min, is:

A) 104
B) 124
C) 144
D) 150

A

A) 104

53
Q

A 45 year old male of average height and weight was admitted to the hospital for renal function studies. He had the following lab results:

urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL (10680 umol/L)
serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL (132.6 umol/L)
total urine volume in 24 hours: 1800 mL

calculate the creatinine clearance for this patient in mL/min

A) 100
B) 144
C) 156
D) 225

A

A) 100

54
Q

The creatinine clearance (mL/min) is equal to:

A) urinary creatinine (mg/L)/[volume of urine (mL/min) x plasma creatinine (mg/L)]
B) [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/min)] / plasma creatinine (mg/L)]
C) urinary creatinine (mg/L) / [volume of urine (mL/hour) x plasma creatinine (mg/L)]
D) [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/hour)] / plasma creatinine (mg/L)

A

B) [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/min)] / plasma creatinine (mg/L)]

55
Q

An adult diabetic with renal complications has the following results:

sodium: 133 mEq/L (133 mmol/L)
glucose: 487mg/dL (26.8 mmol/L)
BUN: 84 mg/dL (30.0 mmol/L)
creatinine: 5 mg/dL (442.0 umol/L)

On the basis of these results, the calculated serum osmolality is:

A) 266 mOsm/kg
B) 290 mOsm/kg
C) 323 mOsm/kg
D) 709 mOsm/kg

A

C) 323 mOsm/kg

56
Q

The following results were obtained in a creatinine clearance evaluation:

urine concentration: 84 mg/dL
urine volume: 1440 mL/24 hr
serum concentration: 1.4 mg/dL
body surface area: 1.60 m^2 (average = 1.73 m^2)

The creatinine clearance in mL/min is:

A) 6
B) 22
C) 60
D) 65

A

D) 65

57
Q

In the International System of Units, serum urea is expressed in millimoles per liter (mmol/L)

substance: urea
chemical formula: NH2CONH2
atomic weight: N=14, C=12, O=16, H=1

A serum urea nitrogen concentration of 28 mg/dL would be equivalent to what concentration of urea in SI units?

A) 4.7 mmol/L
B) 5.0 mmol/L
C) 10.0 mmol/L
D) 20.0 mmol/L

A

C) 10.0 mmol/L

58
Q

Stray light can be detected in a spectrophotometer by utilizing a:

A) mercury vapor lamp
B) holmium oxide glass
C) potassium dichromate solution
D) sharp cutoff filter

A

D) sharp cutoff filter

59
Q

When separating serum proteins by cellulose acetate electrophoresis, using Veronal buffer at pH 8.6, beta globulin migrates:

A) faster than albumin
B) slower than gamma globulin
C) faster than gamma globulin
D) faster than alpha-2 globulin

A

C) faster than gamma globulin

60
Q

What is the proper pH for the buffered solution used to perform serum protein electrophoresis?

A) 5.6
B) 7.6
C) 8.6
D) 9.6

A

C) 8.6

61
Q

The buffer pH most effective at allowing amphoteric proteins to migrate toward the cathode in an electrophoretic system would be:

A) 4.5
B) 7.5
C) 8.6
D) 9.5

A

A) 4.5

62
Q

On electrophoresis, transient bialbuminemia or a grossly widened albumin zone is associated with:

A) dirty applicators
B) presence of therapeutic drugs in serum sample
C) endosmosis
D) prestaining with tracer dye

A

B) presence of therapeutic drugs in serum sample

63
Q

Which of the following serum proteins migrate with the beta-globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6?

A) ceruloplasmin
B) hemoglobin
C) haptoglobin
D) C3 component of complement

A

D) C3 component of complement

64
Q

Most chemical methods for determining total protein utilize which of the following reactions?

A) molybdenum blue
B) ferri-ferrocyanide
C) resorcionol-HCl
D) biuret

A

D) biuret

65
Q

Bromcresol purple at a pH of 5.2 is used in a colorimetric method to measure:

A) albumin
B) globulin
C) Bence Jones protein
D) immunoprotein

A

A) albumin

BOC Book (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions