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Protein Synthesis And Genetic Engineering Flashcards

1
Q

In what phase of the cell cycle does protein synthesis take place?

A

Protein synthesis occurs mainly in the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle.

G1 focuses on proteins for cell growth, while G2 produces proteins needed for mitosis.

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2
Q

What do we call the process of converting DNA to RNA?

A

Transcription.

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3
Q

Where does transcription occur in eukaryotes?

A

In the nucleus.

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4
Q

Where does transcription occur in prokaryotes?

A

In the cytoplasm.

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5
Q

What enzyme adds nucleotides to the template strand during transcription?

A

RNA polymerase.

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6
Q

What sugar does DNA contain?

A

Deoxyribose.

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7
Q

What sugar does RNA contain?

A

Ribose.

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8
Q

What base does DNA use that RNA does not?

A

Thymine.

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9
Q

What base does RNA use that DNA does not?

A

Uracil.

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10
Q

What is messenger RNA?

A

A type of RNA that carries instructions from DNA to the ribosome to make proteins.

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11
Q

What is ribosomal RNA?

A

A type of RNA that helps form ribosomes.

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12
Q

What are transfer RNAs?

A

Molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.

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13
Q

What process involves removing introns and splicing exons together?

A

RNA splicing.

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14
Q

What is a ribozyme?

A

An RNA molecule that can act as an enzyme.

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15
Q

What is RNA interference (RNAi)?

A

A process where RNA molecules block gene expression by targeting specific mRNA.

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16
Q

What do we call the process of converting RNA to proteins?

A

Translation.

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17
Q

What is the ratio of nucleotides to one amino acid?

A

3:1.

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18
Q

What is a codon?

A

A group of nucleotides on mRNA that codes for a single amino acid.

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19
Q

How many different ways can 4 letters be arranged in triplets?

A

64.

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20
Q

Why is the genetic code described as redundant?

A

Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid.

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21
Q

What is the start codon?

A

AUG.

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22
Q

How many stop codons are there?

A

Three: UAA, UAG, UGA.

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23
Q

Where are the ribosomal subunits put together in the cell?

A

In the nucleolus.

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24
Q

What is associated with the ribosome besides RNA?

A

Proteins.

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25
What are the three binding sites on a ribosome?
* A site * P site * E site
26
What type of RNA binds to the A site on the ribosome?
Messenger RNA.
27
What type of RNA binds to the P and E sites on the ribosome?
Transfer RNA.
28
What is the role of tRNA?
To carry amino acids to the ribosome.
29
What are the three nucleotides at the bottom of the tRNA that bind with the mRNA called?
Anticodon.
30
What are the three stages of translation?
* Initiation * Elongation * Termination
31
What codon appears on the A site during initiation?
The start codon (AUG).
32
What is the longest stage of translation?
Elongation, because it involves the repeated addition of amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
33
How much energy is used per peptide bond to make a protein?
Four ATP molecules.
34
At what stage does the protein release factor bind to the mRNA codon?
During the termination stage.
35
What is the difference between the protein release factor and other tRNAs?
It does not carry an amino acid.
36
Where in the cell does translation take place?
In the cytoplasm on the ribosomes.
37
What is a polyribosome?
A group of ribosomes working on the same mRNA molecule.
38
The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane continuous with what other membrane?
The nuclear envelope.
39
What do we call the endoplasmic reticulum that has ribosomes attached?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
40
Where do proteins go to get a small sugar attached after they are made?
To the Golgi apparatus.
41
In what structure do proteins travel from the ER to the Golgi body?
In vesicles.
42
What moves vesicles along microtubule tracks from the ER to the Golgi?
Motor proteins.
43
What is evidence for the 'RNA World' hypothesis?
RNA's ability to store genetic information and catalyze reactions.
44
What is a mutation?
A change in the DNA sequence.
45
What can cause a mutation?
Errors during DNA replication, environmental factors, or chemicals.
46
Define point mutation.
A change in a single nucleotide base in the DNA sequence.
47
Why is an insertion/deletion mutation worse than a substitution mutation?
It causes a frame-shift, altering the reading frame of codons.
48
What is the mutation rate in humans?
Approximately 1 in 100 million nucleotides per generation.
49
Why are most point mutations considered neutral?
Only about 1-2% of the human genome codes for proteins.
50
What is the role of mutations in evolution?
They create genetic variation necessary for natural selection.
51
What did Linus Pauling use the amino acid sequence of hemoglobin to figure out?
Mutation rates reveal how closely related species are.
52
Why are mitochondrial mutation rates used as evidence for human evolution?
They help trace maternal ancestry and genetic changes.
53
Does every cell in a multicellular organism transcribe the same genes?
No, different cells have specialized functions.
54
Give an example of a protein produced in pancreas cells but not in skin cells.
Insulin.
55
What is a transcription factor?
A protein that regulates transcription of specific genes.
56
What is an operon?
A group of genes controlled by a single promoter.
57
What is the promoter site in an operon?
The region of DNA where RNA polymerase binds to start transcription.
58
What attaches to the promoter site to transcribe the genes?
RNA polymerase.
59
What can block the promoter site?
A repressor protein.
60
What releases the repressor from blocking the promoter site?
An inducer molecule.
61
What is the 'on' switch for the lac operon?
The presence of lactose.
62
How many genes are in the lac operon?
Three genes.
63
What molecule attaches to a histone tail to prevent transcription?
Methyl groups.
64
What tool do scientists use to transfer small amounts of liquids?
A pipette.
65
What instrument is used to transfer 5 microliters of liquid?
A micropipette.
66
What tool do scientists use to separate DNA fragments by size?
Gel electrophoresis.
67
What is the gel used in gel electrophoresis typically made of?
Agarose.
68
What is the overall charge on a molecule of DNA?
Negative.
69
What pulls the DNA during gel electrophoresis?
An electric current.
70
What moves faster in gel electrophoresis, small or large fragments of DNA?
Small fragments.
71
Why do you include a DNA marker in gel electrophoresis?
To provide a reference for estimating the size of DNA fragments.
72
What is a plasmid?
A small, circular DNA molecule found in bacteria.
73
What do humans use plasmids for?
Gene cloning and genetic engineering.
74
What enzyme do scientists use to cut DNA at specific sites?
Restriction enzymes.
75
What is the first enzyme that cuts DNA discovered in E. coli?
EcoRI.
76
What gene do scientists include on a plasmid to isolate bacteria on a Petri dish with ampicillin?
Ampicillin resistance gene.
77
What gene do scientists attach to make a molecule glow red?
Red fluorescent protein
78
What do we call the process of putting foreign DNA into a bacterial cell?
Transformation.
79
What activates the expression of RFP in transgenic bacteria?
The presence of arabinose.

Bio honor (7 decks)

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