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Professional Nursing Concepts I Nursing: N2320 > Professional Development (Exam Five) > Flashcards

Professional Development (Exam Five) Flashcards

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1
Q

Client teaching is not only an expectation, but it also what?

A

An ethical and legal requirement

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2
Q

Describe health literacy.

A

Ability to find, read, comprehend, and use health-care information during decision making

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3
Q

The ability to follow directions from providers concerning treatment is known as what?

A

Health literacy

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4
Q

The nurse should always document what in regard to patient education?

A
  • What the nurse taught patient/patients family
  • How the nurse taught patient/patients family
  • Patient understanding of what was taught
  • Patient response to teaching
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5
Q

What system helps track when the teaching standards recommended by TJC and the IOM have been met?

A

The electronic health record (EHR)

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6
Q

Describe the Joint Committee Standard.

A

Provide patient education and training based on each patient’s needs and abilities

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7
Q

What tool allows patients to increase their own level of responsibility for their health care?

A

Internet

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8
Q

When utilizing technology to teach a patient, the nurse knows to ensure what?

A

The teaching source is reliable or credible

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9
Q

When working with the internet, providers are often faced with what type of patients?

A

Patients who self-diagnose and request expensive tests or inappropriate medication

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10
Q

What document focuses on accessing preventative care and developing healthy lifestyle habits?

A

Healthy People 2020

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11
Q

The need for enhanced __________ has created a new emphasis on health promotion.

A

Communication

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12
Q

What is one of the most important responsibilities of contemporary nurses?

A

Helping patients learn about and develop healthy lifestyles and choices

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13
Q

Constructive interpersonal encounters exist when they are culturally what?

A
  • Sensitive
  • Caring
  • Collaborative
  • Relationship centered
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14
Q

What two components are essential to an effective educator?

A
  • Good communication skills

- Ability to establish a caring relationship

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15
Q

Teaching will only fall on deaf-ears unless the nurse is able to understand what?

A
  • The stage of grief the patient is in

- Empathize with the patient

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16
Q

List the techniques used to teach adult learners.

A
  • Demonstration

- Repetition

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17
Q

The nurse should do what for patients with short hospital stays?

A

Assess what is most important for the patient to know

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18
Q

Before attempting to teach a client, the nurse should ascertain what?

A
  • Patients level of motivation to learn

- Factors that will motivate the client to learn

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19
Q

Patients with a higher education level are more likely to have what when it comes to learning?

A

Higher motivation

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20
Q

______ ________ are derived from the patients goals and guide the teaching plan of the patient.

A

Learning objectives

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21
Q

The only way a behavior or action can be observed and measured is if it can be ______, ________, or _______ by the nurse.

A
  • Seen
  • Felt
  • Heard
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22
Q

What type of questions are essential during the assessment phase of the teaching-learning process?

A

Open-ended questions

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23
Q

It is important for the nurse to separate what two factors when educating a patient?

A

What the patient needs to know versus what might be nice for them to know

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24
Q

What type of learning yields poor outcomes and does not change the patients attitude or behaviors?

A

Passive learning

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25
Q

When does the most effective learning occur?

A

When the patient is actively involved in the learning process

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26
Q

What are the only ways to make sure a patient understands the information that was taught?

A
  • Have patient repeat it

- Have patient show nurse how procedure is done

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27
Q

What method provides the nurse with a concrete measurement of the effectiveness of their teaching?

A
  • Teach-back

- Return demonstration

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28
Q

What is considered a moral imperative for nurses?

A

Patient education

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29
Q

A successful teaching plan will include what?

A
  • Visual aids

- Videos

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30
Q

Testing is not a reliable method to evaluate a patients understanding of what has been taught due to what?

A

Test anxiety

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31
Q

When determining the patients goals, the goals must be what?

A
  • Measurable

- Timely

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32
Q

Describe the affective domain.

A

Focuses on feelings and emotions

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33
Q

What is the main goal of the affective domain?

A

Decrease stress

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34
Q

Which type of domain is more difficult to measure?

A

Affective domain

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35
Q

What key term will indicate the domain being used is a cognitive domain?

A

Knowledge level

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36
Q

What is the main goal of the cognitive domain?

A
  • To teach

- To learn

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37
Q

Describe the psychomotor domain.

A

Demonstrating and modeling

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38
Q

A change in diet is considered what type of domain?

A

Psychomotor domain

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39
Q

Providing education that would be nice for the patient to know is considered what type of learning?

A

Passive learning

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40
Q

List the learner characteristics that are assessed during the teaching-learning process.

A
  • Cultural background
  • Health literacy
  • Education level
  • Age
  • Gender
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41
Q 
In a community clinic, Renee, the RN, is preparing to teach LaTisha how to test her blood sugar at home. LaTisha, a 13-year-old honors student has been recently diagnosed with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which of the following teaching methods would be appropriate for Renee to use with this client? (SATA) 
A. Live demonstration 
B. Discussion 
C. Posters
D. Modeling and teach-back
E. Trial and error 
F. Role-playing 
G. Video demonstration
A

A, D, G

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42
Q

___________ is a collaborative skill that the nurse can use to encourage clients to commit themselves to change and involve them in the selection of risk factors to eliminate.

A

Cheerleading

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43
Q

Why is health literacy among clients more important now than ever before? (SATA)
A. Hospital stays are short, so there is less time for client teaching
B. Clients or their families are expected to manage self-care during recovery at home
C. Health-care providers are less willing to explain clients’ health conditions nowadays
D. The managed-care model expects clients to make informed decision about their own health
E. Health literacy allows clients to take steps to prevent or reverse some chronic conditions through nonmusical means, such as diet and exercise

A

A, B, D, E

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44
Q

Provide the simple definition of a disaster.

A

A catastrophic event that leads to major property damage, a large number of injuries, displaced individuals and major loss of life

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45
Q

Provide the Red Cross definition of a disaster.

A

An occurrence such as a hurricane, tornado, storm, flood, high water, wind driven water, tidal wave, earthquake, drought, blizzard, etc., or other situations that cause human suffering or create human needs that victims cannot alleviate without substantial assistance

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46
Q

How do the simple definition of a disaster and the Red Cross definition of a disaster differ?

A

Red Cross addresses how a community and society can handle the disastrous event

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47
Q

An injured health-care provider is just another _______ who needs help.

A

Victim

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48
Q

List the four steps in preparation for a disaster suggested by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

A
  • Get informed
  • Make a plan
  • Assemble a kit
  • Update the plan and the kit
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49
Q

What is the most important thing to do during the Make A Plan step in preparing for a disaster?

A
  • Create list of phone numbers of possible contact person(s)

- Establish an out-of-town contact person

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50
Q

How many exit routes should be established to get out of a town or out of a building?

A

Two

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51
Q

If forced to evacuate, it is recommended that people do what with their pets?

A

Take the pet with them

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52
Q

Homeowner insurance does not routinely cover what type of damage and natural disaster?

A
  • Flood damage

- Earthquakes

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53
Q

How does FEMA suggest people create an inventory of valuables and personal belongings?

A

Taking photos or videos with a cell phone

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54
Q

How often should preparation kits be updated and reassessed?

A

Every 6 months

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55
Q

Where should important records and documents be stored in the event of a natural disaster?

A
  • Safe-deposit box at a bank

- Fire and waterproof home safes or strongbox

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56
Q

Disasters are divided into what three basic phases?

A
  • Preimpact phase
  • Impact phase
  • Postimpact phase
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57
Q

Disaster phases are not ___________ of each other, they can overlap.

A

Independent

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58
Q

The focus of this impact phase is on the preparation for the aftereffects of the event or disaster?

A

Preimpact phase

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59
Q

The Preimpact Phase is also known as the _________ period/phase.

A

Warning

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60
Q

Which disaster phase is most important for first-responders and health-care providers?

A

Preimpact phase

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61
Q

Describe the Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT).

A

Group of frontline medical professionals, including nurses, who provide health care after a disaster

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62
Q

What is the primary goal during the impact phase?

A

Reduce the long term effects of the disaster as much as possible

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63
Q

What is an effective tool in bringing some order to the confusion surrounding a disaster?

A

Incident Management System (IMS)

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64
Q

Protecting the lives and health of ____________ takes priority over rescue efforts and __________.

A
  • First responders

- Victims

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65
Q

When does the post-impact phase begin?

A

As soon as 2 hours after the impact phase

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66
Q

How long can the post-impact phase last?

A

Years

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67
Q

What is the most vital step during the post-impact phase?

A

Evaluation of disaster preparations and what could be improved

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68
Q

When is an incident classified as a mass casualty?

A

Number of injured is greater than 1,000

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69
Q

In the midst of a disaster, those with critical injuries will receive what type of care?

A

Palliative care

70
Q

The medical disaster response (MDR) system is designed to do what?

A

Quickly evaluate and classify victims who cannot be evacuated immediately after a disaster

71
Q

What is the goal of the medical disaster response (MDR) system?

A
  • Maximize victim survival

- Make best use of existing resources

72
Q

What assessments are included in the START method of assessing victims?

A
  • Palpate radial pulse
  • Assess respiratory rate
  • Basic neurological assessment (responsive or not)
73
Q

Describe the secondary assessment of victim endpoint (SAVE) system triage.

A

Developed to better use limited resources on victims most likely to survive

74
Q

Under the SAVE triage system a victim must have what percentage of survival to receive treatment?

A

50% or greater

75
Q

What is the key to a successful SAVE triage system?

A

Identify and treat Category 3 victims as soon as possible

76
Q

Victims of which categories will only receive palliative care?

A
  • Category 1

- Category 2

77
Q

A white colored tag is indicative of what type of victim?

A

Require no treatment to save life or limb

78
Q

A black colored tag is indicative of what type of victim?

A
  • No chance of survival

- Deceased

79
Q

A green colored tag is indicative of what type of victim?

A

Will survive with minimal treatment

80
Q

A red colored tag is indicative of what type of victim?

A
  • Need ABC assistance

- Unresponsive

81
Q

A yellow colored tag is indicative of what type of victim?

A
  • Unable to walk

- Can delay treatment

82
Q

Victims with a green tag are also known as what?

A

The walking wounded

83
Q

Victims will use the most resources if they have what color tag?

A

Red

84
Q

Under normal circumstances, victims who are tagged yellow would be treated ___________.

A

Immediately

85
Q

Besides injury, what other factors are considered when tagging a victim?

A
  • Age
  • Preexisting conditions
  • Glascow Coma score <5
  • Patient is on anticoagulants
86
Q

If preexisting conditions do not exist, burn victims are generally tagged what color?

A

Yellow

87
Q

A victim who is breathing but does not have a radial pulse would be tagged what color?

A

Red

88
Q

Why should victims be reassessed frequently?

A

Conditions and status can change quickly

89
Q

Describe a biological weapon.

A

Any organism or toxin found in nature used to kill or injure people

90
Q

Describe bioterrorism.

A

Use of microorganisms with the deliberate intent of causing infection to achieve military or political gain

91
Q

Biological weapons are ________ _______ and ______ ___ __________.

A
  • Very accessible

- Inexpensive to produce

92
Q

How are biological weapons spread?

A
  • Air
  • Water
  • Food
  • Drones
  • Suicide coughers
93
Q

What is the key to having an effective response in the event of a bioterrorist attack?

A

Early recognition

94
Q

The majority of biological agents used by bioterrorists are ________.

A

Viruses

95
Q

_______ are often the first to catch lethal illnesses.

A

Birds

96
Q

What is the nurses role in a biological attack?

A

They are frontline first responders

97
Q

What is the first indication of a biological attack?

A

Increase in number of individuals seeking care from public health agencies, PCPs, and EDs

98
Q

Ebola, lassa, small pox, anthrax, plague, and botulism are what category of biological agents?

A
  • Category A

- Highest immediate risk

99
Q

What is the first step after bioterrorism has been identified?

A

Call CDC

100
Q

What must be known about a biological agent in order to have an effective response?

A
  • Modes of transmission
  • Incubation periods
  • Symptoms
  • Communicable periods
101
Q

What are the most commonly used groups of chemical weapons?

A
  • Nerve agents
  • Blister agents
  • Choking agents
102
Q

The spread of chemical weapons is dependent upon what?

A

The environment

103
Q

Chemical weapons will initially cause what symptom?

A

Respiratory failure

104
Q

List the groups of chemical agents.

A
  • Nerve
  • Blister
  • Choking
  • Blood
105
Q

Which chemical weapons are considered the most toxic?

A

Nerve agents

106
Q

Nerve agents specifically impact which cranial nerve?

A

Vagus nerve (CN X)

107
Q

What is the primary treatment for a patient exposed to a nerve agent?

A

IV atropine sulfate

108
Q

Atropine sulfate is effective for the treatment of nerve agent exposure up until when?

A

Until paralysis occurs

109
Q

T/F: Atropine sulfate can reverse paralysis in a patient affected by a nerve agent.

A

False. Atropine sulfate cannot reverse paralysis

110
Q

If a patient has been exposed to a nerve agent but has not shown immediate symptoms, how long should the nurse monitor them?

A

18 hours

111
Q

List the treatment options for a nerve agent.

A
  • Immediate decontamination
  • Atropine sulfate IV
  • Pralidoxime chloride
  • Duodote
112
Q

List the types of nerve agents.

A
  • Tabun
  • Sarin
  • Soman
  • Cyclosarin
  • Methylphosphonothioic acid
113
Q

How do nerve agents work within the body?

A
  • Inhibit the production of acetylcholinesterase

- Paralysis of smooth muscles

114
Q

Blister agents are also known as what?

A

Vesicants

115
Q

What is the oldest blistering agent?

A

Mustard gas

116
Q

What occurs if there is a latent period when affected with mustard gas?

A

Effects are more predominant and long lasting

117
Q

A drop of mustard gas can cause blistering to the skin within _________.

A

Minutes

118
Q

What is the treatment method for blistering agents?

A

Immediate decontamination

119
Q

List the types of blistering agents.

A
  • Sulfur mustard
  • Nitrogen mustard
  • Lewisite
  • Phosgene oxime
120
Q

What is the most common complication of blister agents?

A

Infection

121
Q

T/F: There is no effective treatment for mustard gas, even today.

A

True

122
Q

Choking agent cause what immediate symptom?

A

Massive pulmonary edema

123
Q

What is the most common choking agent?

A

Phosgene

124
Q

What happens if phosgene is inhaled at high concentrations?

A

Causes agonizingly painful death

125
Q

If phosgene is inhaled at low concentrations, victims will usually die within ___ to ____ hours.

A

12 to 24 hours

126
Q

If a victim survives a choking agent, what is likely to occur?

A

Respiratory infection

127
Q

If a victim of a choking agent survives the first 24 hours, they are likely to survive ______ ______.

A

Long-term

128
Q

List the types of choking agents.

A
  • Phosgene
  • Diphosgene
  • Chlorine
  • Chloropicrin
129
Q

What are the treatment options for a choking agent?

A
  • No specific antidote or treatment

- Manage respiratory complications

130
Q

How long should a hazmat suit be worn?

A

Until source of contamination is completely eliminated

131
Q

T/F: Victims automatically become hot zones.

A

True

132
Q

What is the first step in decontamination?

A

Removing all clothes and jewelry

133
Q

What is the most common type of exposure experienced by first responders and emergency department personnel?

A

Secondary exposure

134
Q

Because many bioterrorism agents mimic viruses, they are often mistaken for what common illness?

A

Influenza

135
Q

Being aware of ones surroundings and noticing any unusual or suspicious objects, people or behaviors is known as what?

A

Situational awareness

136
Q

What is the golden rule for survival of an active shooter event?

A

Get out of the building

137
Q

What type of hazmat suit is worn for possible exposure of chemical weapons?

A

Full level D hazmat suit

138
Q

How are biological agents identified?

A
  • Sniffers
  • Blood tests
  • Cultures
139
Q

What type of plan should be in place for disabled family members during a disaster?

A
  • Mobility items
  • Several day supply of important medications
  • Alternate power source
140
Q

It is important for the nurse to know which category a biological agent belongs to because?

A

Identifies which organisms are most likely to be used in a bioterrorist attack

141
Q

List the three imperative actions when dealing with an active shooter.

A
  • Run
  • Hide
  • Fight
142
Q

Victims identified as the walking wounded and tagged green fall into which category?

A

Category 2

143
Q

What is the overriding goal of a disaster?

A

Provide the best care possible for the greatest number of victims

144
Q

After an explosion at a chemical plant, the local emergency department is preparing to receive eight victims with chemical injuries. No other details are available at this time. Which of the following should the nurse staff do immediately to prepare for clients with chemical injuries? (SATA)
A. Set up a decontamination area
B. Gather necessary equipment for drawing blood samples
C. Ensure that everyone who will be in contact with clients dons personal protective equipment
D. Gather intubation and oxygen-deliver equipment
E. Locate the CDC decision tree on chemical exposures and their treatments

A

A, C, D, E

145
Q

The physical and chemical removal of toxic agents from people’s skin, clothing, equipment, and any environmental surfaces where they were disseminated is called ____________.

A

Decontamination

146
Q

Brittany, a nursing student in Oklahoma, decides that her family needs a disaster-preparedness plan. Which of the following elements should her plan include? (SATA)
A. A disaster supply kit that includes nonperishable food, water, clothing, and medications among other things
B. Flotation devices in case of storm surge or flooding
C. Verification that everyone in the family who is old enough takes first aid and CPR classes
D. An evacuation plan that includes their cat Penny
E. Locating escape routes from the home and agreeing on a place to meet

A

A, B, D, E

147
Q

After a devastating hurricane in a neighborhood state, Cedric, an RN, wants to help. How can Cedric legally practice nursing in a state in which he is not licensed? (SATA)
A. Join the Medical Reserve Corps (MRC)
B. Get a waiver from the neighboring state’s board of nursing
C. Fully disclose to the coworkers and clients he is helping that he is not licensed in that state
D. Use his State Compact license because both stated belong to the agreement
E. Look for victims to help on his own, away from other first responders

A

A, B, C

148
Q

The transition from nursing school to registered nurse is referred to as what?

A

Reality shock

149
Q

Which role does a nursing student often graduate with?

A

Perceived role

150
Q

Describe the perceived role.

A
  • Individuals own definition of the role

- More realistic than the ideal role

151
Q

Describe compassion fatigue.

A

Nurse no longer caring about their assigned patients

152
Q

Burnout is less likely to occur if what?

A

Nurses feel fulfilled in their duties

153
Q

The ideal role is often measured against which other role?

A

Perceived role

154
Q

Describe cognitive dissonance.

A

Knowing what the nurse should have done yet being prevented from doing it

155
Q

A student who works with a _________ is assigned to one RN for supervision for most of the semester.

A

Preceptor

156
Q

What is an institutions first contact with a nurse seeking employment?

A

Resume

157
Q

In regard to listing information on a resume, the most current information is listed where?

A

First

158
Q

What is the most difficult part of the application process?

A

Waiting for a reply

159
Q

How long does it take for new graduate nurses to master the skills necessary to be at the same level of an experienced nurse?

A

12 or more months

160
Q

What program allows nursing school students to make a smooth transition into the nursing field?

A

Nurse residency programs

161
Q

Porfolios are often used to do what?

A
  • Impress potential employer

- Reach larger employment pool

162
Q

What is a form of nurse-on-nurse violence?

A

Cyberbullying

163
Q

How should cover letters address the receiver?

A
  • By their specific name

- Avoid generalizations

164
Q

What is likely to set an interviewee apart from other candidates?

A

Knowing the facilities mission statement

165
Q

____ of managers or employers will look up candidates on the internet.

A

77%

166
Q

How should the nurse accept or decline a position?

A

In a written statement

167
Q

What types of nurses tend to get burnout?

A
  • Hardworking
  • Idealistic
  • Perfectionist
  • More intelligent
168
Q

Khadija, a nursing student, wants to improve her time-management skills. Which is the FIRST step she must take to better manage her time?
A. Learn how to multitask
B. Set priorities
C. Delegate household duties to her roommates
D. Overcome her tendency to procrastinate

A

B. Set priorities

169
Q

Brians unit manager suspects that Brian may be starting to experience burnout. What factors would lead the manager to this conclusion? (SATA)
A. They work in a neonatal intensive care unit
B. Brian has always been a hard worker and a perfectionist
C. Brian is a team player and assists other staff when he is able to
D. The manager overhears Brian asking for another nurse’s advice about a client
E. The hospital has had auto freeze staff salaries and cancel bonuses due to financial problems
F. Brian requests additional training to improve his skills

A

A, B, E

170
Q 
Which elements of a job search can you wonk on while you are in nursing school? (SATA) 
A. Creating a resume 
B. Building a portfolio 
C. Writing a cover letter 
D. Arranging an interview 
E. Following up
A

A, B

171
Q

___________ is the transition from nursing student to registered nurse.

A

Reality shock

Professional Nursing Concepts I Nursing: N2320 (9 decks)

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