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Radiography for Veterinary Technicians > Producing a Radiographic Image > Flashcards

Producing a Radiographic Image Flashcards

1
Q

List the multiple layers of X-ray film

A

-Polyester base layer
-Emulsion layer with silver halide crystals
-Thin protective layer

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2
Q

Films that contain an emulsion and protective coat on both sides of the film are considered ___ and are the most commonly used in veterinary medicine

A

Double-emulsion films

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3
Q

Describe the thin protective layer of X-ray film.

A

-Protective layer is made of a thin gelatin coating, which helps to protect both sides of the sensitive film emulsion layer during handling and processing of the exposed film.
-Durable, but will not prevent damage to the film if the film is mishandled.
-If the protective layer gets wet, it becomes vulnerable to scratching.

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4
Q

Describe the emulsion layer of X-ray film.

A

-Gelatin base contains silver halide crystals
-Having an emulsion layer on both sides of the film gives the film more sensitvity, speed, density, and contrast

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5
Q

In vet med, film that has greater speed allows for a ___ in exposure time required to produce an image, thus ___ the exposure to the patient and staff, as well as ___ the chance of motion or blur occurring on the film

A

-Decrease
-Decreasing
-Decreasing

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6
Q

The size of the crystal will affect the __ and __ of the image produced.

A

Speed and Quality

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7
Q

Films with very small, fine crystals produce ___, whereas films with larger crystals result in ___.

A

-Exceptional detail
-Loss of detail on the image

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8
Q

The term silver halide emulsion is used to describe the crystals used even though it is actually __ and __ crystals that are used.

A

-Silver bromide
-Silver iodide

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9
Q

The film emulsion contains approximately ___ silver bromide crystals and ___ silver iodide crystals.

A

-95%–99%
-5%–10%

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10
Q

Crystals are suspended in a gelatin material that allows for ___.

A

-The penetration of developer, fixer, and washer fluids
-Without the penetration of these chemicals, no permanent image would be produced

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11
Q

Describe the film base.

A

-Innermost portion of the film
-Support layer
-Must be thin enough that no reflection occurs during exposure, yet thick enough to hold its form while hanging from a view box
-Must also be sturdy enough to move through the automatic processor without being stretched or destroyed

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12
Q

What imaging modalities utilize single-emulsion film?

A

Computed tomography (CT) and Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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13
Q

Single-emulsion film will have a side that appears dull ( ___ side) and a shiny side ( ___ side)

A

-Emulsion side
-Anticurl/antihalation side

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14
Q

What is a latent image?

A

An image that is formed but not visible until processed

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15
Q

When is a latent image formed?

A

-When electromagnetic radiation is exposed to the silver halide crystals, which allows the crystals to become more sensitive to chemical changes.
-During the film processing stage in the developer, the latent image is reduced to black metallic silver
-Silver halide that has not been changed is removed during the fixing stage of development
-The reduction of silver halide to black metallic silver and the removal of the remaining silver halide results in several shades of black metallic silver and clear film base, which leads to the appearance of a latent image on the film as a visible radiographic image

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16
Q

What is believed to happen to silver halide crystals when they are exposed to electromagnetic radiation?

A

It’s believed they attach to sensitivity specks in the film, creating the latent image. The film is most vulnerable and easily destroyed at this stage.

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17
Q

The benefit of using screened film over non-screened film ___.

A

Radiation exposure time is decreased with screened film, which minimizes the potential for blurring due to patient motion

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18
Q

What are the 2 color types of screened film?

A

-Blue sensitive film
-Green sensitive film

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19
Q

Blue sensitive film is sensitive to screens that have ___. Green sensitive film is most sensitive to ___, which is usually found in intensifying screens with rare-earth emitting phosphors

A

-Blue-emitting phosphors
-Green-emitting phosphors

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20
Q

___ is the most common blue-emitting phosphor.

A

Calcium tungstate

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21
Q

Non-screened film is more sensitive to ____ than ___ produced with an intensifying screen

A

-Direct X-rays
-Light

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22
Q

Non-screened film requires a ___ exposure time as well as a ___ mA setting.

A

-Longer
-Higher

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23
Q

Most of the non-screened film is used with ___.

A

Dental radiography

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24
Q

Film speed is affected by the size of the ___. How are they generally rated?

A

-Silver halide crystals

Films are generally rated as high speed (fast), average speed (par), and slow (detailed) films

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25
Q

The larger the crystals the ___ the film, but the ___ detail and ___ grainy appearance of the image.

A

-Faster
-Less
-More

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26
Q

Smaller crystals produce a much ___ detailed image, but require a ___ mA and ___ exposure time.

A

-More
-Higher
-Longer

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27
Q

Describe appropriate film storage.

A

-Should be stored in a cool, dry environment
-Film is pressure sensitive
-Film should be stored in an upright position (on end) and never laid flat on its side
-Film tends to darken when it is not stored appropriately, is beyond its expiration, or has had pressure applied to it

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28
Q

What is the dry side of the darkroom used for?

A

-Loading and unloading film from the cassette and for the storage of unexposed films

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29
Q

What is the wet side of the darkroom used for?

A

Film processing and drying if using manual processing

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30
Q

What are the common sites for light leaks in the darkroom?

A

-Entry door
-Film pass-box
-Electrical outlets
-Fan covers
-Light fixtures

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31
Q

Fumes are not only a health concern for the individuals in the darkroom, but they can also cause ___ to occur to exposed and non-exposed film

A

Film fog

32
Q

What is the purpose of safelights?

A

Provide enough lighting in the darkroom to effectively function without causing film fogging to occur

33
Q

What is direct lighting?

A

When the safelight is hung from the wall facing the workbench

34
Q

In order to prevent the potential for film fog even with a safelight, direct lights should be at least ____ feet from the work area.

A

4

35
Q

What is indirect lighting?

A

Lighting that utilizes reflective ceiling paint to illuminate the room

36
Q

What is a benefit of indirect lighting?

A

Lights can be placed much closer to the workbench area without causing film fogging, although it is best to position these as high as possible

37
Q

Blue sensitive film requires a safelight that filters ___ and ___ colors from the light spectrum.
Green sensitive film requires that the safelight removes both ___ and ___ from the light spectrum.

A

-Blue and ultraviolet
-Blue and green

38
Q

Frosted lightbulbs of ___ watts are most commonly recommended for safelights.

A

7-10

39
Q

Lights with greater wattage ___ the chances of film fog being present on the film.

A

Increase

40
Q

An exposed film is ___ times more likely to react to film fogging.

A

8-10 times

41
Q

Red light does not work in the darkroom because ___.

A

Light is only colored and does not provide the appropriate filtering needed

42
Q

What is the purpose of the developer?

A

To convert sensitized silver halide crystals into black metallic silver

43
Q

What 6 components are present in the developer?

A

-Developing agents
-Activator
-Restrainer
-Preservative
-Hardener
-Solvent

44
Q

Developing agents used in most developers are ___and ___.

A

-Phenidone
-Hydroquinone

45
Q

What does prednisone do?

A

-Used to produce the gray densities in film
-Works very quickly, is stable, and has a long life

46
Q

What does hydroquinone do?

A

-Increases the contrast of the image and produces the black areas on the film
-Sensitive to temperature, oxygen, and age of the chemical

47
Q

The activator is commonly ___, which is used to assist in maintaining the pH of the developer

A

-Sodium bicarbonate

48
Q

The pH for the developer is between 9.8–11.4, which makes it ___.

A

Highly alkaline

49
Q

The restrainer used is ___. What does it do?

A

-Potassium bromide
-Prevents the developing agents from affecting the silver halide crystals that were not activated by the electromagnetic radiation

50
Q

___ and ___ are commonly used as preservatives, which helps decrease the risk of oxidation over time

A

-Sodium
-Potassium sulfite

51
Q

Some developers contain a hardener that serves to ___.

A

-Adhere the emulsion in the film to the base of the film
-Helps to prevent scratching and distortion during the processing stage

52
Q

Developers come in what 2 forms?

A

Liquid or powder

53
Q

The solvent used is ___.

A

-Water, ideally distilled or filtered
-Used to prevent contamination of the developer

54
Q

Water makes up approximately ___ of the entire developer.

A

95%–98%

55
Q

What is the function of the fixer?

A

-To remove unchanged silver halide crystals from the emulsion layer on the film, thus stopping the developing process
-Black metallic silver is left behind, resulting in the image

56
Q

In addition to the removal of silver halide, the fixer serves to ___.

A

Harden the emulsion onto the film

57
Q

The fixer has what 5 ingredients?

A

-Fixing agent
-Acidifier
-Preservative
-Hardener
-Solvent

58
Q

Fixing agent is commonly made from either ___ or ___, which ___.

A

-Sodium
-Ammonium thiosulfate
-Removes the unexposed silver halide from the film

59
Q

What acid is used as the acidifier? What does it do?

A

-Acetic or sulfuric acid
-Works to completely stop the development of the film and allows the fixer to remain slightly acidic by neutralizing the alkalinity from the developer that remains on the film

60
Q

___ acid is more commonly used as the acidifier because ___ acid has a high level of reactivity.

A

-Acetic
-Sulfuric

61
Q

Preservative ___ is the same chemical that is found in the developer and prevents a negative reaction between the fixing agent and acidifier.

A

Sodium sulfite

62
Q

Hardener is either ___ or ___. What does the hardener do?

A

-Potassium aluminum sulfate
-Aluminum chloride
-Prevents the emulsion from swelling and decreases the drying time

63
Q

As with the developer, the solvent is ___, which makes up about ___% of the fixer solution

A

-Water
-98-99%

64
Q

After developing and fixing, the film must be ___ to prevent ___

A

-Washed thoroughly
-Staining or fading

65
Q

___ should move through the processor or dip tanks to prevent a buildup of fixer

A

Clean water

66
Q

When the films emerge from the dryer, they should be completely dried to prevent ___ being left on the films

A

Scratching or fingerprints

67
Q

All automatic processors consist of a ___.

A

-Film tray
-Developer
-Fixer
-Wash baths
-Dryers
-Rollers
-Basic gears
-Replenishing pumps

68
Q

The ideal temperature for the developer, fixer, and wash bath is ___.

A

68 °F

69
Q

With the chemicals at the ideal temperature of 68 °F, developing time is ___ minutes, fixer time is ___ minutes, and wash time is ___ minutes.

A

-4 minutes
-8 minutes
-12 minutes

70
Q

Anytime a radiograph is taken, what information should be documented?

A

-Animal name
-Date
-Anatomical location
-Measurement
-Settings
-Results

71
Q

If the imaging tube head is too close to the structure being radiographed, there will be ___.

A

-Magnification and loss of distinction of the margins of the structure

72
Q

If the tube head is moved too far away from the structure, there will be a ___.

A

Reduction in beam intensity resulting in a non-diagnostic image due to lack of penetration

73
Q

The greater the focal spot, the ___ detail present on the film.

A

Less

74
Q

In order to minimize the focal spot, it is best to place the structure being radiographed as ___ the film as possible

A

Close to

75
Q

When the image being radiographed is farther away from the film, the result is ___, which results in ___.

A

-Magnification and distortion
-A lack of detail of the image

76
Q

The density of the image refers to the ___.

A

-Degree of blackness of the image

Radiography for Veterinary Technicians (7 decks)

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