Processes

Question 1

According to the Project Management Institute (PMI)®, a good project manager spends how much time communicating?

90 percent
100 percent
75 percent
50 percent

Answer 1

90%

According to PMI, a good project manager spends up to 90 percent of their time communicating. Communication skills are essential for a successful project manager.

Question 2

Status review meetings are an important tool for informing stakeholders (and others) of the status of the project. All of the following are true regarding status review meetings except for which one?

1. They are a form of communication and include verbal and written material.
2. Face-to-face meetings are more effective for team members than status review meetings because you’ll learn of potential risks and problems more quickly.
3. You might have multiple status review meetings, each intended for different audiences.
4. Verbally communicating at a status meeting is less complicated and more easily understood than written communication.

Answer 2

Face-to-face meetings are effective, but this statement is not true regarding status review meetings.

Question 3

You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises using a hybrid model to manage projects. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. The project objectives should include which of the following?

1. Quantifiable criteria, including elements such as cost, schedule, and quality measures
2. A brief summary of the product description, including measurable, quantifiable product requirements that will help measure project success
3. Quantifiable criteria derived from value engineering, value analysis, or function analysis
4. A description of the business need that brought about this project

Answer 3

1. Quantifiable criteria, including elements such as cost, schedule, and quality measures

The project objectives should include quantifiable criteria that can be used to help measure project success. Project objectives should include schedule, cost, and quality measurements.

Question 4

You have decomposed the deliverables for your project as follows: Project Management, Design, Build, and Test. The Design deliverable is further decomposed to include these deliverables: product design document, blueprints, and prototype. Adequate cost and schedule estimates have been applied to all the deliverables. Which of the following has occurred?

Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables with the exception of the Design deliverable.
All the steps of decomposition have been performed.
Steps 1, 2, 3, and 4 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables.
Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for the Design deliverable.

Answer 4

Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for the Design deliverable.

The five steps of decomposition are to identify major deliverables, organize the WBS, decompose the WBS components into lower-level components, assign identification codes, and validate the WBS. No mention was made in the question of assigning identification codes or validating the correctness of decomposition, so not all of the steps have been performed. The first three steps of the decomposition process for the Design deliverable have been performed

Question 5

Which of the following statements are true? Select 3

A highly adaptive life cycle has continuous involvement and frequent feedback from stakeholders.
A highly predictive life cycle has reduced risk and costs due to detailed plans.
A highly predictive life cycle contains requirements that are ambiguous.
A highly adaptive life cycle performs Initiating activities regularly throughout the project.

Answer 5

A highly predictive (waterfall) life cycle typically has detailed specifications, while a highly adaptive life cycle (Agile) has requirements that are progressively elaborated. All other statements are true.

Question 6

You are a project manager for Community Trends, a nonprofit organization. Your project has come about because of a social need. You’re calculating performance measurements and using actual costs to date, and you assume that ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate. You know the following information: BAC = 900, ETC = 65, PV = 500, EV = 475, and AC = 425. Which of the following is the correct expected total cost at completion, given this situation?

875
804
850
379

Answer 6

Since EAC is based on actual costs to date and assuming ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate, the equation to use for EAC is EAC = AC + (BAC – EV). In this case, your formula looks like this: $425 + ($900 – $475) = $850.

Question 7

Which of the following characteristics do all project life cycles share?

Degree of uncertainty
Degree of planning
Degree of work sequencing
Degree of unfinished work

Answer 7

Degree of planning

According to the Agile Practice Guide, all project life cycles share the element of planning. What differs across predictive, iterative, incremental, and Agile life cycles is the degree to which planning is done, and when.

Question 8

You are using the critical chain method to construct your schedule, and there are variances in your critical path tasks. Which of the following is true?

Delays to the noncritical path tasks won’t cause any further issues for the critical path.
You should compare the amount of buffer needed to what’s remaining to help assess if the schedule is on track.
Your schedule is not at risk yet, but you should monitor both critical and noncritical path tasks for further delays or variances.
You should use preventive actions to get the project back on track.

Answer 8

If the critical path tasks have variances, your schedule is at risk. You will use corrective actions at this point (not preventive actions) to get the project back on track, such as adjusting the amount of buffer. Significant delays to noncritical-path tasks can make them become part of the critical path.

Question 9

Midway through the delivery of development services, a customer requested that new requirements be incorporated. When asked to submit a change request to modify the terms of the contract, the customer refused and insisted that the changes be implemented at no cost. After multiple discussions, neither party changed their stance on the situation. What technique will the project manager likely use to address this situation?

Conflict management
Inspection
Claims administration
Alternative dispute resolution

Answer 9

Claims administration is a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process. Claims administration involves addressing contested changes between the buyer and seller, which then converts into a claim.

Question 10

A project manager works with the project team to identify lessons learned. The information captured will then be archived and summarized within the project’s final report. What activity is the project team engaged in?

Conducting a project meeting
Updating the lessons learned register
Capturing work performance information
Administrative closure

Answer 10

Administrative closure

The project team is performing administrative closure activities associated with the Close Project or Phase process. While information captured will be added to the lessons learned register, administrative closure is a broader choice that captures additional activities noted in the question, such as archiving information and creating the final report.

Question 11

Which of the following describes who is responsible for the quality assurance of the project?

Project manager and project team members
Project team members, project manager, and stakeholders
Project manager
Stakeholders

Answer 11

The project team members, project manager, and the stakeholders are all equally responsible for the quality assurance of the project.

Question 12

A project manager for a software development project has collected the work performance data and used the requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix to generate the work performance information regarding variances in the project work compared to the baseline. What process is the project manager performing?

Validate Scope
Control Scope
Direct and Manage Project Work
Manage Quality

Answer 12

To answer this question correctly, it is important to understand how work performance data is transformed into work performance information. Work performance data is produced as a result of project execution. The work performance data can then be analyzed during various controlling processes to produce work performance information (see the image below). Work performance information is only produced as an output during the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. In this scenario, the question suggests that a variance analysis has been performed using work performance data in order to produce work performance information. Thus, it can be concluded that the process underway is part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, and the two answer choices representing executing processes can be eliminated.

Both the Validate Scope and Control Scope processes produce work performance information as an output. However, only the Control Scope process uses variance analysis to produce work performance information regarding variances in the project work compared to the scope baseline. Therefore, of the available choices, the project manager must be executing the Control Scope process.

Question 13

What action can a project manager take if the selected risk response strategy turns out not to be fully effective?

Actively accept the risk
Develop and implement a fallback plan
Update the risk register with the outcome
Document and respond to a secondary risk

Answer 13

A fallback plan, also referred to as a contingency plan, is a risk response strategy that is used when the initial response is not fully effective.

Question 14

How are quality improvements implemented?

By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action
By submitting a change request and/or implementing a preventive action
By completing quality audits
By completing a quality audit and identifying gaps or shortcomings in the process

Answer 14

By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action

Completing a quality audit may lead you to the conclusion that a change request is needed, but you must submit a change request and/or take corrective action to implement the quality improvement.

Question 15

The characteristics of project life cycles vary and should be considered when determining which life cycle is the best fit for a project. Match the delivery life cycle approach based on where it falls on the continuum when considering frequency of delivery and degree of change.

Answer 15

Predictive and iterative life cycles tend to have low frequencies of delivery, whereas incremental and agile have a high frequency of finished deliverables; both predictive and incremental experience few changes, while iterative and Agile experience very frequent changes based on customer feedback.

Question 16

Which of the following project management documents records challenges, problems, realized risks, and opportunities?

Risk register
Project documents
Issue log
Lessons learned register

Answer 16

The lessons learned register, created out of the Manage Project Knowledge process, records information about situations that have occurred within the project, including recording challenges, problems, realized risks and opportunities, and other information relevant for future reference. While “project documents” is a technically accurate answer, “lessons learned register” is a more specific answer.

Question 17

The project processes are iterative, are results oriented, and interact with each other. Shewhart and Deming developed a concept that reflects this idea. Which of the following is the name of this cycle?

Strategize-Justify-Choose-Execute-Control
Plan-Do-Check-Act
Initiate-Requirements-Execute-Close
Select-Plan-Monitor-Act

Answer 17

The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle was developed by Shewhart and later refined by Deming. It reflects the iterative, results-oriented, and interactive nature of the project process groups.

Question 18

You are managing a project to develop a new robot for a mining rescue company. You are currently performing a monitoring and controlling project activity, and you have discovered that some of the project work has not been performed according to the plan. If these issues are not fixed before the next customer inspection, your project might be canceled. You have analyzed the situation, and the corrective action will only require a minor adjustment to a configuration element. What should you do first?

Implement the corrective actions
Delay the scheduled customer inspection
Submit a change request
Consult the project sponsor

Answer 18

All of the available answers seem like possible options in this scenario, but the question is specifically asking what you should do ‘first’. Although you have already analyzed the situation and you know what corrective actions are required, you must follow the proper change control procedure. A configuration element is a project artifact that has been placed under configuration control. Any change to a configuration element should be formally controlled and will require a change request. Since the question describes a situation requiring a change to a configuration element, the first thing you should do is submit a change request and have it approved before you can implement the changes.

Question 19

The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is concerned with which of the following?

1. Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project
2. Ensuring timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information
3. Identifying, combining, unifying, and coordinating the various processes and project management activities
4. Ensuring the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully

Answer 19

The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is the only Knowledge Area that has processes across all five process groups. It contains the high-level processes that bring the results of the remaining Knowledge Areas together, unifying and coordinating all project management activities.

Question 20

Emma is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Several manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Emma needs. She will use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing from among the vendors. Which of the following is true regarding this question?

Emma will include delivery and setup charges as part of the purchase price criterion.
Emma must use purchase price alone as the sole criterion for evaluation because multiple vendors are involved.
Emma will review the procurement documents and teaming agreements as some of the inputs to this process.
Emma will use the advertising tool and technique of this process to let vendors know about this opportunity

Answer 20

When using price alone as a criterion for selection, there should be more than one vendor who can supply the goods or services you are procuring. However, that doesn’t mean you can’t use additional criteria for source selection. You should include costs such as delivery and setup in the purchase price criterion.

Question 21

Which of the following best describes overall project risk?

The effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty.
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a negative effect on one or more project objectives.
The effect of uncertainty on a project objective, arising from all sources of uncertainty.
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

Answer 21

According to the PMBOK® Guide, there are two levels of risk: individual project risk and overall project risk. An overall project risk is the effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty.

Question 22

You work within a team that uses a feature-driven development approach to manage software projects. As the senior project manager on the team, you know from experience the criticality of communication. You often coach other project managers on the various elements of communication, which are incorporated within the models of communication exchange. Which of the following best explains these communication elements?

1. The elements of communication include senders, receivers, and messages, and the communication model includes encode, transmit, acknowledge, and feedback/ response.
2. The elements of communication include encode, transmit, acknowledge, and feedback/response, and the communication model includes verbal and written.
3. The elements of communication include encode, transmit, acknowledge, and feedback/response, and the communication model includes senders, receivers, and messages.
4. The elements of communication include senders, receivers, and messages, and the communication model includes verbal and written.

Answer 22

The elements of communication involve senders, receivers, and messages. The communication model, a tool and technique of the Manage Communications process, includes encoding, decoding, acknowledging, and feedback/response. Verbal and written are forms of communication.

Question 23

Your project has kicked off, and you are beginning a series of overview sessions with key users to determine requirements for a new enterprise resource software implementation. One of your stakeholders is exceptionally contentious and throws obstacles up at every turn. One of the problems she has described does seem to be legitimate. There is an issue with the data from the legacy system that needs to be resolved before moving forward. The PMO you report to practices phase sequencing and requires closure of each phase before the next phase can begin. What is this process called?

Phase exit
Stage review
Gate exit
Phase review

Answer 23

Remember that all questions on the exam will refer to specific terminology used in the PMBOK® Guide – Sixth Edition. Although the other options presented may seem correct, the PMBOK® Guide calls this process by any of these names: stage gates, phase reviews, phase gates, phase exit, or kill points.

Question 24

A project manager facilitated a meeting with the product manager and project team to discuss the results of the latest iteration. As part of the meeting, the project manager also reviewed the budget consumed to date on the project, highlighting appraisal costs. Which of the following best describes appraisal costs?

Costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met
Costs associated with satisfying customer requirements by creating a product without defects
Costs when things don’t go according to plan
Costs that occur externally, when the customer determines that the requirements have not been met

Answer 24

Appraisal costs are associated with the cost of quality and are the costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met. Inspection and testing are examples of appraisal costs.

Question 25

You are the project manager for an outdoor concert event scheduled for one year from today. You’re working on the procurement documents for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You’ve decided to contract with a professional services company that specializes in writing custom software programs. You want to minimize the risk to the organization and want a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price. You have agreed to pay the vendor a bonus if they complete the program at least 30 days earlier than scheduled, so you’ll opt for which contract type? CPIF CPFF FFP FPIF

Answer 25

Fixed-price incentive fee contracts are the best option when you need a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price and are including a bonus or incentive for early completion or exceeding expectations.

Question 26

Which quality theorist is responsible for the theory that promotes doing it right the first time? W. Edwards Deming Joseph Juran Philip Crosby Walter Shewhart

Answer 26

Philip Crosby is the quality theorist behind the Zero Defects practice, which promotes doing it right the first time.

Question 27

A sponsor meets with the project manager to better understand when the team will complete the project. The project manager notes that the team is completing an average of 40 story points per sprint, and as a result, they would complete the project within five iterations. She shows the sponsor a chart that reflects the projection and includes a date for each iteration. What chart is the project manager and sponsor reviewing? Gantt chart Burndown chart Burnup chart Velocity chart

Answer 27

Velocity refers to the total story points that the team is completing on average per iteration. Velocity allows the team to forecast the rate at which they are burning down the work of the project. A velocity chart shows the sum of the estimates of work delivered across all iterations.

Question 28

The project manager is trying to get sign off for a series of marketing materials. The work is rejected by the stakeholders responsible for sign off because of incorrect use of marketing standards. What should the project manager do before sending materials to the stakeholders again? Validate the scope before performing quality control Validate scope before communicating the project status Perform quality control checks before validating the scope Create a work breakdown structure before validating the scope

Answer 28

The scenario involves two processes: the Validate Scope process and the Control Quality process. The two processes are "linked" by verified deliverables. Verified deliverables are an output from the Control Quality process and an input into the Validate Scope process. The Control Quality process ensures the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. The Validate Scope process formally accepts the completed project deliverables and results in accepted deliverables as its output. In the scenario, the work is being validated by the stakeholders, but there are quality concerns noted by the incorrect use of standards. Ideally, the Control Quality process should be completed before the scope can be validated. It is unclear from the scenario whether or not this process has been carried out at all. Regardless, now, when the issues have been found during scope validation, it is essential that before repeating the Validate Scope process for this work, the project manager and the project team conduct the Control Quality process to ensure correctness and proper adherence to the marketing quality standards. Then the scope can be validated based on both correctness and completeness.

Question 29

You are managing the development of a new blood pressure cuff for a customer who provided you with the objectives and description of the cuff. You and your team are decomposing the customer's high-level requirements to the level of detail needed to design the blood pressure cuff and therefore define the scope of the product. In what activity are you involved? Define Activities Create WBS Product analysis Technical performance analysis

Answer 29

The scenario implies you are in the Define Scope process. Product analysis is among the tools and techniques of this process and can be used to define products and services. By asking questions about a product and forming answers to those questions, a description of the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects can be determined about the product that is going to be delivered. In product analysis, requirements are captured at a high level and decomposed to the level of detail needed to design the final product which is what described by the scenario, making product analysis the best answer to the question asked. Examples of product analysis techniques include product breakdown, requirements analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, value analysis, and value engineering.

Question 30

You are the director of the PMO for your organization. Terri, an employee from another department, has approached you about a new project that is being talked about in her department. Terri would like the opportunity to head up this project and wants to convince you of her knowledge of project management and that she can do this job. Terri’s objective statement for the project says the following: “Convert all our distribution centers in the United States to radio frequency identification (RFID) tags. This new technology will improve inventory management by giving us a real-time view of demand for the products we sell. It will also help reduce theft and reduce stock-outs. The electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed. This new technology will require the installation of readers at each warehouse gate.” Which of the following statements are correct regarding Terri’s objective statement? Select 3 Objectives describe what it is the project is trying to produce or accomplish, and requirements are specifications of the objective or deliverable. This statement describes the objectives of the project adequately; however, requirements have been added into the statement. This statement describes an overview of the project, but it cannot be considered an objective statement because it’s missing some important elements. Requirements have been mixed into the statement Terri wrote. One of the requirements in this statement is that “electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed.”

Answer 30

This statement does describe some objectives but not adequately. Objectives are quantifiable criteria used to measure project success and should include schedule, cost, and quality metrics. There are no measures of time, cost, or quality mentioned in this statement. Requirements describe the specifications of the objectives and typically wouldn’t be mixed into an objective statement. The objective should be clear and concise.

Question 31

Brad works as a project manager for a prominent law firm. His latest project involves an office move that will accommodate a 10 percent growth in staff over the next two years. Because of an unexpected increase in infrastructure costs, he calculates that he will be $2,000 over budget. What document can Brad reference to determine whether this falls within the allowable threshold for budget overages? Cost baseline Project funding requirements Cost management plan Contingency reserve

Answer 31

The cost management plan contains the approved approach for determining the budget, managing it, and controlling it. It also captures additional key details, such as the rules of performance measurement, control thresholds, units of measure and levels of precision used, and so on.

Question 32

Match the quality theorist with the theory they are responsible for. W. Edwards Deming Joseph Juran Philip Crosby Walter Shewhart

Answer 32

Philip Crosby is the quality theorist behind the Zero Defects practice, which promotes doing it right the first time; Joseph Juran popularized the Pareto Principle, also referred to as the 80/20 principle; W. Edwards Deming popularized the Shewhart Cycle, which he evolved into the Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle. Walter Shewhart is considered to be the grandfather of TQM; he developed statistical tools to examine when a corrective action must be applied to a process.

Question 33

A risk manager convened with the project manager to discuss the progress of the project. The risk manager shared concerns about feedback received regarding the low likelihood that the team would achieve their go-live date successfully. What activity is the project manager likely to perform next? Submit a change request in the form of preventive action. Work with the risk manager to apply immediate changes to the plan. Nothing, since a new issue or risk has not been officially raised. Submit a change request in the form of corrective action.

Answer 33

Since an issue has not occurred as of yet, the project manager is likely to take preventive actions. Preventive actions are submitted through a change request, which is then evaluated and dispositioned through the project’s change control board.

Question 34

Managing quality is sometimes called what Quality assurance Quality adherence Quality management Plan-Do-Check-Act

Answer 34

Quality assurance

Question 35

A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subjectmatter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome? Make-or-buy analysis Market research Advertising Source selection analysis

Answer 35

Make-or-buy analysis

Question 36

Marysil is an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire. To date, she has identified risks, analyzed them, and developed risk responses for her project. Now, she and the team are executing the work and responding to risk triggers. What project management artifact will they need? Contingency plan Risk report Fallback plan Risk register

Answer 36

Risk register The risk register contains the list of identified risks and all information documented about them, including the risk response plans. As risk triggers occur, they will need to refer to the risk register for information about the risk response plans.

Question 37

Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and is the project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss resource utilization on the project. He expresses concern after recently hearing that resources have been unavailable as planned. Sally admits that this has been the case and that it has set the project back unexpectedly. What action should Sally take to remedy the situation? Procure additional resources to take the place of those who became unavailable after the project work began. Perform data analysis to determine what corrective action may be taken to get back on track with the plan. Talk to the functional managers to ensure the unavailable resources receive poor performance reviews. Review the schedule to identify what resource gaps currently exist within the project.

Answer 37

When performing activities relating to controlling resources, data analysis may be used to evaluate what alternatives exist to completing activities with resources, such as alternate resources. Data analysis also includes performing cost-benefit analysis, performance reviews, and trend analysis

Question 38

Alyssa is a project manager tasked with managing an infrastructure project that will consolidate five data centers into one. She is currently facilitating the estimating process to calculate the duration of the project’s activities. Alyssa knows that she has reliable information and is therefore planning on using an estimating technique that will yield a highly accurate estimate with minimal effort expended. What estimating technique is she planning on using? Top-down estimating Three-point estimating Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating

Answer 38

Parametric estimating is a quantitatively based estimating method that multiplies the quantity of work by the rate or uses an algorithm in conjunction with historical data to determine cost, budget, or duration estimates. When the information is reliable, it yields an estimate that is high in accuracy.

Question 39

Nicolas is the project manager of a project that has been described as revolutionizing the mobile fitness tracking industry. He recently finalized and published the scope. A key subject-matter expert on his team asks to see the list of acceptance criteria. What document will Nicolas reference to get this information? Business case Scope management plan Project scope statement Requirements documentation

Answer 39

The project scope statement contains the project scope description, project deliverables, acceptance criteria, and project exclusions

Question 40

Change-driven life cycles are also known by what other name? Predictive life cycle Plan-driven life cycle Adaptive life cycle Hybrid life cycle

Answer 40

Adaptive life cycle

Question 41

David is a project manager working for a prominent book publishing company. As part of his latest project, he uses an approach that yields frequent smaller deliverables throughout the span of the project. What type of project life cycle is David using? Waterfall Incremental Predictive Agile

Answer 41

Incremental Incremental life cycles focus on speed of delivery as an optimization method. In this type of life cycle, the project yields frequent smaller deliverables to avoid waiting for everything to be completed before a solution exists. In other words, a subset of the overall solution becomes available sooner.

Question 42

You use a predictive approach to managing projects and have just completed your cost baseline. Next, you begin working on determining funding requirements. Which of the following is true? Funding requirements are derived from the activity costs. Management reserves are the difference between the funding requirements and the cost baseline. The management reserve is released in a lump sum at the beginning of the project. Funding requirements are an output of the Estimate Costs process.

Answer 42

Management reserves are the difference between the funding requirements and the cost baseline.

Question 43

A project manager is performing closing activities and is getting ready to release project resources. What document can they reference for guidance on how resources are to be released? Project documents Project schedule Project management plan Release plan

Answer 43

The project management plan contains the resource management plan, which addresses how resources will be obtained, managed, and released.

Question 44

You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. One of your stakeholders requests a change to the product scope description. The stakeholder has filled out a change request form indicating that the change affects the project scope and that it’s essential for a successful project. The change request is approved, and the project scope statement is updated to reflect this change. Which of the following statements are true? Select 3 Change requests are evaluated against the project scope statement, and if a change request is outside the bounds of the original project scope, the change should be denied. Product analysis converts the product description and objectives into deliverables and requirements. The product scope description, which is also a component of the project charter, is used to define the project’s scope. The project scope statement directs the project team’s work and is the basis for future project decisions.

Answer 44

1. Change requests are evaluated against the project scope statement, and if a change request is outside the bounds of the original project scope, the change should be denied. 2. Product analysis converts the product description and objectives into deliverables and requirements. 3. The project scope statement directs the project team’s work and is the basis for future project decisions.

Question 45

Contract phases are closely related to the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area processes. Which of the following are true? Select 3 1. Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process. 2. The requisition stage, where responses to procurement documents are reviewed, is related to the Conduct Procurements process. 3. The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process. 4. The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.

Answer 45

Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process. The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process. The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.

Question 46

A project manager performing Closing activities is currently focused on addressing the highest business value items first. What life cycle is she using to deliver her project? Highly predictive Waterfall Highly adaptive Adaptive

Answer 46

Highly adaptive The project manager is using a highly adaptive (Agile) life cycle, where Closing activities involve addressing the highest business value items first versus closing out the project or phase as in a highly predictive life cycle

Question 47

You are part of the project team designing a new type of subway car. You have completed the last work package for the braking system; however, you are not sure what the acceptance criteria are for this particular work package. Where can you find that information? The project management plan The requirements documentation The project scope statement The WBS dictionary

Answer 47

The WBS dictionary A work package is the lowest level of the WBS and typically provides a brief description of the work to be completed by this work package. The WBS dictionary supports the WBS by including more detailed information for each WBS work package or other WBS components. The WBS dictionary is an output of the Create WBS process and provides information such as the description of work, schedule milestones, quality requirements, and acceptance criteria for each work package. Therefore, if you are not sure of the acceptance criteria for the work package you just completed, you should look for that information at the WBS dictionary.

Question 48

Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them.

Question 48

Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them. ``` Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management ```

Answer 48

Project Stakeholder Management

Question 49

Contains the activities to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project ``` Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management ```

Answer 49

Project Resource Management

Question 50

Contains the activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the various process groups ``` Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management ```

Answer 50

Project Integration Management

Question 51

Contains the activities required to manage the timely completion of the project ``` Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management ```

Answer 51

Project Schedule Management

Question 52

Contains the activities necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team ``` Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management ```

Answer 52

Project Procurement Management

Question 53

Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss the current budget estimate. Roshoud expresses his concerns to Sally over the budget being far greater than originally anticipated and asks her to course-correct. What produces the greatest expense on most projects? Vendors Resources Materials Travel

Answer 53

The greatest expense for most projects is resources, both human and material and supplies.

Question 54

While carrying out the Monitor and Control Project Work process, a project manager analyzes performance data to determine whether any corrective or preventive action is needed. Which of the following is a valid input that can assist the project manager in performing this activity? Work performance information Variance analysis Expert judgment Work performance data

Answer 54

Work performance information Work performance information is a key input that the project manager needs to evaluate performance against the plan (another key input in and of itself). Work performance data, on the other hand, represents raw data that is used in executing the work; it later becomes information as it is analyzed against baselines through other processes that belong to the Monitoring and Controlling process group. The remaining two options are tools and techniques of the process, not inputs.

Question 55

A project manager has just closed out a procurement, which produced the final deliverable of the project. What is the project manager likely to do next? Release the remaining project resources Finalize any open claims Celebrate Perform administrative closure

Answer 55

Perform administrative closure Since the scenario outlined that the final deliverable of the project was completed, it implies that closing activities would follow. Administrative closure, which occurs as part of the Close Project or Phase process, consists of activities such as ensuring that exit criteria have been met and contractual agreements were properly closed out, measuring stakeholder satisfaction, and ensuring that ongoing operational or sustainment activities are transferred to operations.

Question 56

Roshoud is serving as the project sponsor for a high-visibility project within the Galactic Kidz corporation. During a weekly executive status meeting, he expresses concern regarding quality assurance and requests an update. Quality assurance is most concerned with what? Documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality management activities to assess project performance Identifying quality requirements and/or standards of the project and its deliverables Using processes effectively and assuring stakeholders that the end result will meet their needs

Answer 56

According to the PMBOK® Guide, quality assurance is most concerned with using project processes effectively. This includes assuring stakeholders that the end result of the project will meet their needs and expectations.

Question 57

Phase endings are characterized by which of the following? Deliverables quality analysis and written sign-off Deliverables review and written sign-off Completion, quality analysis, and approval of deliverables Completion, review, and approval of deliverables

Answer 57

Phase endings are characterized by the completion, review, and approval of a deliverable.

Question 58

A new project manager is brought on the project. She wants to understand the process by which this particular project formally accepts deliverables. Which of the following will she have to reference? The scope management plan The requirements management plan The quality management plan The stakeholder management plan

Answer 58

The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that contains information and guidance on how the scope and the scope-related processes are to be managed. What is included varies, but should contain procedures and processes specifying how the formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained. Acceptance of project deliverables is influenced by other project management plans, such as the stakeholder management plan and the quality management plan. Nevertheless, the scope management plan is what specifies the process most directly.

Question 59

You are working on the risk management plan for your current project and need to document how the risk activities will be recorded for the benefit of future projects. Which part of the risk management plan addresses these issues? Tracking Reporting format Lessons learned Thresholds

Answer 59

Tracking

Question 60

You have devised some proposal evaluation criteria based on past performance, contract compliance, and quality ratings to select a seller. Your organization has used two of the three vendors that bid on this project on previous projects, so you are comfortable using whichever one is selected. Which of the following is one of the most important criteria in evaluating the responses to your proposal? Predefined performance criteria or a set of defined minimum requirements Determining whether the vendor has a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do The financial records of the potential vendor to determine their fiscal ability to perform the services Information about the seller such as past performance, delivery, contract compliance, and quality ratings

Answer 60

One of the most important criteria for evaluating sellers is to determine whether they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do or perform. Information such as past performance, financial records, and predetermined performance criteria are also important, but only after you are sure they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do.

Question 61

You are a project manager working on manufacturing a new product. The operational process is very detailed. One of the components of the product must measure 1 centimeter by 1 centimeter. Reliability is measured using a machine that samples one part in every hundred to assure the measurements are correct. Which of the following does this question describe? This is statistical sampling, which is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process. This is a prevention cost, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This describes a quality audit, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This describes a quality baseline, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process

Answer 61

Statistical sampling involves taking a sample number of parts from the whole population and inspecting them to determine whether they fall within acceptable variances.

Question 62

A visual representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox

Answer 62

Burndown chart

Question 63

A visual representation of the work completed toward the release of a produc

Answer 63

Burnup charts

Question 64

When is a project considered successful? When the project budget is consumed and the schedule milestones are achieved When the project budget is consumed, the scope is developed, and the schedule milestones are achieved When project benefits are realized and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met When objectives are achieved and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met

Answer 64

When objectives are achieved and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met

Question 65

A project manager has just wrapped up a successful project in an environment that uses a streamlined hybrid approach to project delivery. Who is responsible for writing the project’s final report? Project sponsor All stakeholders Project manager Executive sponsor

Answer 65

The project manager is typically responsible for authoring the final report. The project’s final report contains a summary of what occurred on the project and may include information on scope, cost, schedule/burn down of work, risk, and quality outcomes.

Question 66

You are a project manager working in an organization that is considered to be a weak matrix organizational type. You are two months into a four-month project when the functional manager for half of your most critical resources announces that she will be reallocating them to another project. You explain to her that this will result in early closure of your project and that resources should not be redirected. If the functional manager succeeds in reallocating the resources, what type of ending will the project experience? Addition Integration Starvation Extinction

Answer 66

Integration occurs when the resources of the project are distributed to other areas in the organization or are assigned to other projects. In this case, the functional manager is reassigning resources to another project.

Question 67

Which of the following statements best describes the product scope? The work performed to deliver a product, service, or results with the specified features and functions A description of the behaviors of the product, including actions and interactions that the product should execute The features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole and the reasons why a project has been undertaken

Answer 67

The product scope defines the features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project.

Question 68

With the start of project execution, a project manager needs to acquire the development team. However, the project sponsor indicates that of those developers who were planned for the project, one is unavailable as she is currently completing another project. What should the project manager do to understand the proposed team member's future availability? Contact the team member's functional manager Look at the project documents Review the resource requirements Examine the resource breakdown structure

Answer 68

The scenario implies that the project manager is about to start the Acquire Resources process and needs to understand the availability of the project team members. The project documents include the resource calendars which serve as an input to the Acquire Resources process. A resource calendar identifies the working days, shifts, start and end of normal business hours, weekends, and public holidays when each specific resource is available. Information on which resources are potentially available during a planned activity period is used for estimating resource utilization. Resource calendars also specify when and for how long identified team and physical resources will be available during the project. Of the available choices, looking at the project documents, which includes the resource calendars, provides the best source of information for the project manager about the availability of a particular team member to perform project work.

Question 69

A project manager is leading the construction of a new office building. The project sponsor asks the project manager to email him a project document that was presented during the last project status meeting. The project sponsor states that he has forgotten the name of the document, but he remembers it contained the description, owner, source, priority, and status of product requirements. Which project document is the project sponsor requesting? The requirements management plan The requirements traceability matrix The work breakdown structure (WBS) The scope management plan

Answer 69

In this scenario, the project sponsor requested a document that provides specific information about the product requirements of your current project. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverable that satisfy them. Typical attributes used in the requirements traceability matrix may include a unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status, and status date. Additional attributes to ensure that the requirement has met stakeholders' satisfaction may include stability, complexity, and acceptance criteria.

Question 70

What do functional requirements describe? The behaviors of the product The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole The needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group The environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective

Answer 70

The behaviors of the product

Question 71

You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true? Select 2 1. You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose. 2. The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part. 3. You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project. 4. The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award.

Answer 71

The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.

Question 72

Which of the following best describes the purpose of carrying out activities associated with planning stakeholder engagement? To identify project stakeholders regularly and analyze and document relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success To monitor project stakeholder relationships and tailor strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans To communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement To develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project

Answer 72

According to the PMBOK® Guide, the purpose of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process is to develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project. This is the second process of the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area.

Question 73

Kaylee is a risk manager working in collaboration with Alyssa, a project manager, and both work for a top healthcare company. They currently follow a feature-driven development approach to managing software-based projects. They work together to analyze risk, noting that of the 20 risks identified, 5 are deemed to be low priority. Where will these risks be documented? The project management plan A watch list The risk management plan The risk report

Answer 73

Low-priority risks are added to a watch list within the risk register, where they will be monitored for possible changes.

Question 74

A project manager is carrying out activities associated with the Manage Communications process. What result will these activities produce? Ensuring timely and appropriate collection, distribution, and the ultimate disposition of project information Developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities Communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations Ensuring that the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met

Answer 74

The Manage Communications process is concerned with ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.

Question 75

Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of what? Risk register Risk report Project documents Risk management plan

Answer 75

Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of the risk management plan. Other areas covered by the plan include the following: risk-related funding, timing, risk categories, stakeholder risk appetite, definitions of risk probability and impacts, probability and impact matrix, reporting formats, and tracking.

Question 76

A project manager facilitates the voting process for decision-makers who have convened to review a major deliverable that has been completed. The intent of the meeting is to vote on whether to approve and accept the deliverable. What key input will the committee need to reference to vote? Work performance information Verified deliverables Accepted deliverables Deliverables

Answer 76

Verified deliverables The project manager is performing the Validate Scope process in this scenario, where a key output is the accepted deliverables. To accept deliverables, the committee would need to confirm that they have been verified through quality control activities. Verified deliverables is an input of the process.

Question 77

The project team recently participated in a working session to determine the costs associated with individual activities. To produce a more accurate estimate, they broke each activity down further into smaller chunks. What will this activity yield? Cost baseline Basis of estimates Project budget Cost estimates

Answer 77

The project team is participating in bottom-up estimating, which will produce activity cost estimates. This activity is associated with the Estimate Costs process. Basis of estimates may also be generated through this session; cost estimates, however, are the primary end outcome of the activity.

Question 78

A project manager facilitates a meeting with the project team to review an assessment of risks recently completed. During this meeting, they evaluate options for responding to the risks. It is decided that two risks will not receive any action and that they will deal with the consequences at the time of occurrence, should they occur. What type of risk response is this? Passive acceptance Avoidance Mitigation Active acceptance

Answer 78

There are two types of risk acceptance in which no proactive risk response strategy is selected: passive and active acceptance. Passive acceptance means that no action will be taken other than to periodically monitor the risk.

Question 79

As part of the process to develop the scope statement for the project you are leading, you specify the deliverables for the project, include the requirements under which the deliverables will be accepted, and explicitly state what is out of project scope. What should you do next? Describe product scope in the scope statement Obtain approval of the project scope statement Include the acceptance criteria in the scope statement Determine who decides the project is successful

Answer 79

The scenario describes the development of the project scope statement which is an output of the Define Scope process. The project scope statement is the description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. The entire scope, including project and product scope, is documented in the scope statement. The detailed project scope statement includes the following: Product scope description which progressively elaborates the characteristics of the product, service, or result described in the project charter and requirements documentation. Deliverables which describe any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Acceptance criteria which are a set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted. Project exclusions which explicitly identify what is excluded from the project. The product scope description is missing from the list of details you have included in the scope statement. Therefore, of the available choices, including product scope description, or in other words, describing product scope is what you should do next.

Question 80

A project manager is performing quantitative risk analysis. What tangible result is likely to be produced? A priority level for each individual project risk An assessment of overall project risk exposure An assessment of probability and impacts for each individual risk A list of potential risk responses

Answer 80

As part of carrying out the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, updates are made to the risk register. Among the updates are an assessment of overall project risk exposure and detailed probabilistic analysis of the project.

Question 81

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Monitoring and Controlling process group? Formulating and revising project goals and objectives and creating the project management plan Bringing the project or phase to a formal, orderly end Putting the project management plan into action Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan

Answer 81

Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan

Question 82

In a pharmaceutical project, human trials are to start soon. The CEO is thrilled about the success of the trials up to this point. She announces that the size of the patient pool for the trials should double from the one originally planned and results tracked in the new system launching this week. What should the project manager do first? Communicate the change of direction with the stakeholders Adjust the scope baseline to reflect the increased trial size Ramp up production to match the demand of the CEO Consider what might be included in a change request

Answer 82

Managing changes to the project by following the organization's change control process established for the project is important in keeping the project under control and operating effectively. Changes to scope, like in the scenario of doubling the size of the patient pool as well as tracking the results in the new system, require evaluation, agreement, and approval. Who makes those approvals is up to the project organization and its change management plans. But before any changes are implemented or communicated, the change request must be submitted per the project's procedure and approved by those authorized to do so. A CEO's declaration of what should happen in the project does not substitute for the project's change control procedures and the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Question 83

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Monitoring and Controlling process group? Select one Mark question Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan Formulating and revising project goals and objectives and creating the project management plan Bringing the project or phase to a formal, orderly end Putting the project management plan into action

Answer 83

The Monitoring and Controlling process group is where project performance measurements are taken and analyzed to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan.

Question 84

``` You are part of the project team designing a new type of subway car. You have completed the last work package for the braking system; however, you are not sure what the acceptance criteria are for this particular work package. Where can you find that information? Select one Mark question The project management plan The WBS dictionary The requirements documentation The project scope statement ```

Answer 84

A work package is the lowest level of the WBS and typically provides a brief description of the work to be completed by this work package. The WBS dictionary supports the WBS by including more detailed information for each WBS work package or other WBS components. The WBS dictionary is an output of the Create WBS process and provides information such as the description of work, schedule milestones, quality requirements, and acceptance criteria for each work package. Therefore, if you are not sure of the acceptance criteria for the work package you just completed, you should look for that information at the WBS dictionary.

Question 85

You are working on the communications management plan for your project and have considered the timing and need for updated information by you and your four stakeholders. Your organization has modern, up-to-date technology that your stakeholders and staff have used before, so you anticipate that supplying the information and updates to your stakeholders and team members will be a breeze. Which of the following is true? Select one Mark question There are 5 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements. There are 20 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology. There are 10 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements analysis. There are 12 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.

Answer 85

There are 10 channels of communication, which is taken into consideration when using the communications requirement analysis tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process. The formula for this is 5(5 - 1) ÷ 2.

Question 86

``` Yasmin is the project manager of a project that will produce a new line of widgets for the company. She guides the project team in defining the project requirements in detail before moving into production. Because of compliance requirements that must be met, she maintains a rigid change control process for changing requirements. What method is Yasmin using to manage the project? Select one Mark question Agile Waterfall Iterative Scrum ```

Answer 86

Yasmin is using a Waterfall approach, which involves a greater level of up-front planning during the early stages of the project life cycle. In this approach, changes to requirements tend to follow a change control process.

Question 87

``` Yasmin is the project manager of a project that will produce a new line of widgets for the company. She guides the project team in defining the project requirements in detail before moving into production. Because of compliance requirements that must be met, she maintains a rigid change control process for changing requirements. What method is Yasmin using to manage the project? Select one Mark question Agile Waterfall Iterative Scrum ```

Answer 87

Yasmin is using a Waterfall approach, which involves a greater level of up-front planning during the early stages of the project life cycle. In this approach, changes to requirements tend to follow a change control process.

Question 88

You are a project manager with a new company. You started less than 30 days ago. Your boss has told you it’s urgent that resources are obtained and assigned to the project as soon as possible. This is your top priority. In addition, the quality assurance team needs to be assembled. All of the following are true regarding this situation except for which one? Select one Mark question Project team members, the project manager, and stakeholders are responsible for the quality assurance of the project. The project manager will have the greatest impact on quality during this process. You should follow the Acquire Project Team processes to obtain the new resources. Quality assurance is generally provided by a third party.

Answer 88

Quality assurance may be provided by a third party from outside the organization, by an internal QA department, or by the project team. There is no general rule that it is generally provided by outside sources. According to the PMBOK® Guide, project managers have the greatest impact on quality during this process.

Question 89

``` Marysil is an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire. To date, she has identified risks, analyzed them, and developed risk responses for her project. Now, she and the team are executing the work and responding to risk triggers. What project management artifact will they need? Select one Mark question Contingency plan Fallback plan Risk register Risk report ```

Answer 89

The risk register contains the list of identified risks and all information documented about them, including the risk response plans. As risk triggers occur, they will need to refer to the risk register for information about the risk response plans.

Question 90

``` A project has the highest probability of completing successfully at which stage of the project? Select one Mark question During project initiation During project planning During project closure During project execution ```

Answer 90

During Closing, a project has the highest probability of completing successfully.

Question 91

``` Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and the project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss how they will respond to the risks identified. For one risk in particular, he asks Sally to facilitate the purchase of insurance to protect against a liability. What type of risk response is this? Select one Mark question Mitigate Transfer Share Avoid ```

Answer 91

Purchasing insurance is an example of the transfer risk response. This involves shifting ownership of a threat to a third party to manage the risk and to own the impact if the threat occurs.

Question 92

``` A project manager facilitates the voting process for decision-makers who have convened to review a major deliverable that has been completed. The intent of the meeting is to vote on whether to approve and accept the deliverable. What key input will the committee need to reference to vote? Select one Mark question Verified deliverables Accepted deliverables Work performance information Deliverables ```

Answer 92

The project manager is performing the Validate Scope process in this scenario, where a key output is the accepted deliverables. To accept deliverables, the committee would need to confirm that they have been verified through quality control activities. Verified deliverables is an input of the process

Question 93

A project manager is meeting with Sally, the program manager, to review the decomposed deliverables for a new product. Sally reviews the work breakdown structure and requests it to be arranged in the order the work should be performed. Is Sally correct saying that the work breakdown structure should be ordered according to how the work will be performed? Select one Mark question Sally is correct. Since she has superiority, the WBS should be ordered the way she wants it to be done. Sally is correct. When decomposing the work, the order of tasks must be considered. Sally is wrong. Work is decomposed and sequenced in the Define Activities process. Sally is wrong. The chronological order of tasks is defined in the Sequence Activities process.

Answer 93

Being able to distinguish the difference between a deliverable and work package from the schedule and activities is required to determine the correct answer. The project manager should inform Sally that the work packages are further decomposed into schedule activities that are then sequenced to obtain the greatest efficiency given all the project's constraints. The Create WBS process provides a framework of 'what' has to be delivered but does not involve sequencing.

Question 94

Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and is the project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss resource utilization on the project. He expresses concern after recently hearing that resources have been unavailable as planned. Sally admits that this has been the case and that it has set the project back unexpectedly. What action should Sally take to remedy the situation? Select one Mark question Talk to the functional managers to ensure the unavailable resources receive poor performance reviews. Review the schedule to identify what resource gaps currently exist within the project. Perform data analysis to determine what corrective action may be taken to get back on track with the plan. Procure additional resources to take the place of those who became unavailable after the project work began.

Answer 94

When performing activities relating to controlling resources, data analysis may be used to evaluate what alternatives exist to completing activities with resources, such as alternate resources. Data analysis also includes performing cost-benefit analysis, performance reviews, and trend analysis.

Question 95

``` A project manager facilitates a meeting to provide updated information regarding the progress of the project. What type of meeting is this? Select one Mark question Planning meeting Status review meeting Risk review meeting Change control meeting ```

Answer 95

Status review meetings occur throughout the Monitoring and Controlling phase of the project. The purpose of these meetings is to provide stakeholders with updated information on the progress of the project in a formal manner. Attendees may include a variety of predetermined stakeholders, such as the sponsor, project team members, users, or customers.

Question 96

``` Grant hesitantly knocks on his project sponsor’s door to notify her of a budget overage that has occurred. Because of a vendor error, he shared that a critical piece of equipment would cost $30,000 more than originally estimated. Fortunately for Grant, the sponsor understood the situation and approved the use of funds set aside for unexpected events. From where will Grant pull the funds to cover the equipment? Select one Mark question Management reserves Funding limit reconciliation Contingency reserves Cost baseline ```

Answer 96

Management reserves are funds set aside for unexpected situations and are used at the discretion of management (hence the name). Management reserves are not considered to be part of the cost baseline but are part of the overall project budget.

Question 97

You have devised some proposal evaluation criteria based on past performance, contract compliance, and quality ratings to select a seller. Your organization has used two of the three vendors that bid on this project on previous projects, so you are comfortable using whichever one is selected. Which of the following is one of the most important criteria in evaluating the responses to your proposal? Select one Mark question Determining whether the vendor has a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do Predefined performance criteria or a set of defined minimum requirements The financial records of the potential vendor to determine their fiscal ability to perform the services Information about the seller such as past performance, delivery, contract compliance, and quality ratings

Answer 97

One of the most important criteria for evaluating sellers is to determine whether they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do or perform. Information such as past performance, financial records, and predetermined performance criteria are also important, but only after you are sure they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do.

Question 98

You are assigned to a software development project, and you are conducting a product review with an important client. Although the deliverables were previously verified, the client detects a defect and rejects one of the deliverables. What should you do? Select one Mark question Submit a change request to fix the deliverable Refund the customer for the value of the deliverable Begin the claims administration process Ask the project team to repair the defect

Answer 98

The question states that the deliverables have been previously verified implying the Control Quality process has been completed and resulted in verified deliverables as its output. In the scenario described, you are performing the Validate Scope process which is the process of formalizing acceptance of completed and verified project deliverables. One of the tools and techniques associated with this process is an inspection. The inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and validating to determine whether the work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. A product review is an example of an inspection. In this scenario, the client performed a test which exposed a software bug and caused a deliverable to be rejected. Unless stated otherwise in the question text, deliverables are always placed under configuration control. Therefore, an approved change request is required to modify the deliverable and repair the defect. If the individual or group responsible for reviewing change requests believes the deliverable meets the contractual requirements, the change request could be rejected but still might be approved just to avoid a dispute with the client. Therefore, of the available choices, the best course of action is to submit a change request to fix the deliverable.

Question 99

``` Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Quality, and Conduct Procurements are processes belonging to what project management process group? Select one Mark question Executing Closing Monitoring and Controlling Planning ```

Answer 99

Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Quality, and Conduct Procurements are 3 of the 10 processes that make up the Executing process group.

Question 100

``` Which of the following methods should you use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty? Select one Mark question Analogous estimating Bottom-up estimating Three-point estimating Expert judgment ```

Answer 100

Three-point estimating is the technique to use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty.

Question 101

``` Using the estimates provided, calculate the beta distribution: most likely estimate (ML) = 72, optimistic estimate (O) = 55, pessimistic estimate (P) = 85. Round to one decimal point. Select one Mark question 70.7 72 71.3 70.0 ```

Answer 101

A beta distribution calculation involves giving a greater weight to the most likely estimate. Simply multiply the most likely estimate by four, add the result with the other two estimates, and divide by six: (4 × (ML) $72 + (O) $55 + (P) $85) ÷ 6 = $71.3.

Question 102

``` A project manager works with the project team to identify lessons learned. The information captured will then be archived and summarized within the project’s final report. What activity is the project team engaged in? Select one Mark question Conducting a project meeting Capturing work performance information Updating the lessons learned register Administrative closure ```

Answer 102

The project team is performing administrative closure activities associated with the Close Project or Phase process. While information captured will be added to the lessons learned register, administrative closure is a broader choice that captures additional activities noted in the question, such as archiving information and creating the final report.

Question 103

You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true? Select two Mark question The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part. You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose. The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award. You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project

Answer 103

The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.

Question 104

A project manager facilitated a meeting with the product manager and project team to discuss the results of the latest iteration. As part of the meeting, the project manager also reviewed the budget consumed to date on the project, highlighting appraisal costs. Which of the following best describes appraisal costs? Select one Mark question Costs associated with satisfying customer requirements by creating a product without defects Costs that occur externally, when the customer determines that the requirements have not been met Costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met Costs when things don’t go according to plan

Answer 104

Appraisal costs are associated with the cost of quality and are the costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met. Inspection and testing are examples of appraisal costs.

Question 105

Marysil, an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire, is in the process of sequencing activities with her team to develop the project schedule. One team member noted that when the next-generation prototype cup is cauterized, it will need to sit for a period of two days before it can be hand-painted. How will Marysil reflect this within the schedule? Select one Mark question By adding a two-day lead between the two activities By adding a two-day project buffer to the project By adding a two-day lag between the two activities By adding a two-day buffer between the two activities

Answer 105

Marysil will need to add a lag between the activities. A lag occurs when time must elapse between two activities, where the delay is added to the successor activity. A lead, on the other hand, speeds up the successor activity.

Question 106

Which of the following is true? Select one Mark question There are five project management process groups, and they are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. There are five project management process groups, and they are Initiating, Planning, Managing, Monitoring, and Closing. There are 55 project management processes, which can be grouped by process group or Knowledge Area. There are 10 project management Knowledge Areas, whose processes are performed sequentially.

Answer 106

The PMBOK® Guide describes 49 project management processes that can be grouped in five process groups, which are as follows: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

Question 107

You are a senior project manager for a company that produces mobile phone applications. In your latest project, you have teamed up with another project manager, who will manage a subset of the project. She tells you that the work packages have been decomposed and milestones captured for her deliverables. Together, you review her list of milestones, the first of which reads “Finish GUI: 30 Days.” What is wrong with this scenario? Select one Mark question The project manager is unclear as to the definition of a milestone. A milestone cannot contain the word GUI. Two project managers cannot be associated with one project. Work packages should not be decomposed.

Answer 107

The duration of a milestone is zero, marking a significant point in time—typically the start or completion of a major deliverable. Therefore, “Finish GUI” is not a milestone.

Question 108

Match the name of the Project Management Knowledge Area with its description Matching Mark question Project Stakeholder Management - Contains the activities required to manage the timely completion of the project Project Resource Management - Contains the activities to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project Project Schedule Management - Contains the activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the various process groups Project Procurement Management - Contains the activities necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team Project Integration Management - Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them

Answer 108

There are a total of 10 Project Management Knowledge Areas. The best indicator of its description is identifying key words that tie it back to the name of the Knowledge Area.

Question 109

What action can a project manager take if the selected risk response strategy turns out not to be fully effective? Select one Mark question Document and respond to a secondary risk Develop and implement a fallback plan Update the risk register with the outcome Actively accept the risk

Answer 109

A fallback plan, also referred to as a contingency plan, is a risk response strategy that is used when the initial response is not fully effective.

Question 110

What do functional requirements describe? Select one Mark question The behaviors of the product The needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group The environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole

Answer 110

Functional requirements describe the behaviors of the product, including actions, processes, data, and interactions that the product should execute.

Question 111

``` Julie is a product manager responsible for a line of smart water bottles that connect to a mobile app to capture data and provide suggestions regarding your drinking habits. In preparation for the upcoming sprint, she meets with the team to ensure that stories are clear and appropriately sized. What activity is Julie performing with the team? Select one Mark question Release planning Backlog preparation Backlog refinement Roadmap grooming ```

Answer 111

Backlog refinement, also referred to as backlog grooming, is where the product owner works with the team to ensure that the stories are prepped and ready for the upcoming iteration. Stories should be clear enough for the team to understand the work, and they should be appropriately sized relative to each other.

Question 112

The characteristics of project life cycles vary and should be considered when determining which life cycle is the best fit for a project. Match the delivery life cycle approach based on where it falls on the continuum when considering frequency of delivery and degree of change. Matching Mark question Incremental - High frequency of delivery and low degree of change Iterative - Low frequency of delivery and low degree of change Predictive - Low frequency of delivery and high degree of change Agile - High frequency of delivery and high degree of chang

Answer 112

Predictive and iterative life cycles tend to have low frequencies of delivery, whereas incremental and agile have a high frequency of finished deliverables; both predictive and incremental experience few changes, while iterative and Agile experience very frequent changes based on customer feedback.

Question 113

``` Change-driven life cycles are also known by what other name? Select one Mark question Hybrid life cycle Plan-driven life cycle Adaptive life cycle Predictive life cycle ```

Answer 113

Change-driven life cycles are also known as Agile or adaptive life cycles.

Question 114

``` You are the project manager for a project that will produce a mobile phone application that sends alerts when UV rays are at dangerous levels, alerting users to stay indoors. You are in the process of managing the schedule and use a chart to track the work that remains to be completed within the iteration backlog. What is this chart called? Select one Mark question Iteration chart Velocity chart Iteration burndown chart Scrum chart ```

Answer 114

An iteration burndown chart is a data analysis tool and technique of the Control Schedule process. This chart is used to track the remaining work to be completed against the backlog.

Question 115

Match the name of the Project Management Knowledge Area with its description Matching Mark question Project Procurement Management - Contains the activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the various process groups Project Resource Management - Contains the activities to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project Project Stakeholder Management - Contains the activities necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team Project Integration Management - Contains the activities required to manage the timely completion of the project Project Schedule Management - Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them

Answer 115

There are a total of 10 Project Management Knowledge Areas. The best indicator of its description is identifying key words that tie it back to the name of the Knowledge Area.

Question 116

``` You are the project manager for a project that will produce a mobile phone application that sends alerts when the UV rays are at dangerous levels, alerting users to stay indoors. As you move into the final closing stages of the project, you review communications generated for and by stakeholders as a method of analyzing feedback. What document will you reference to review this feedback? Select one Mark question Quality reports Lessons learned register Project communications Change log ```

Answer 116

Project communications is an input of the Close Project or Phase process as part of project documents. It includes all communications that have been generated throughout the project.

Question 117

``` Grant hesitantly knocks on his project sponsor’s door to notify her of a budget overage that has occurred. Because of a vendor error, he shared that a critical piece of equipment would cost $30,000 more than originally estimated. Fortunately for Grant, the sponsor understood the situation and approved the use of funds set aside for unexpected events. From where will Grant pull the funds to cover the equipment? Select one Mark question Cost baseline Management reserves Funding limit reconciliation Contingency reserves ```

Answer 117

Management reserves are funds set aside for unexpected situations and are used at the discretion of management (hence the name). Management reserves are not considered to be part of the cost baseline but are part of the overall project budget.

Question 118

``` A project manager has just closed out a procurement, which produced the final deliverable of the project. What is the project manager likely to do next? Select one Mark question Perform administrative closure Celebrate Finalize any open claims Release the remaining project resources ```

Answer 118

Since the scenario outlined that the final deliverable of the project was completed, it implies that closing activities would follow. Administrative closure, which occurs as part of the Close Project or Phase process, consists of activities such as ensuring that exit criteria have been met and contractual agreements were properly closed out, measuring stakeholder satisfaction, and ensuring that ongoing operational or sustainment activities are transferred to operations.

Question 119

``` A project manager facilitates a meeting to provide updated information regarding the progress of the project. What type of meeting is this? Select one Mark question Status review meeting Planning meeting Risk review meeting Change control meeting ```

Answer 119

Status review meetings occur throughout the Monitoring and Controlling phase of the project. The purpose of these meetings is to provide stakeholders with updated information on the progress of the project in a formal manner. Attendees may include a variety of predetermined stakeholders, such as the sponsor, project team members, users, or customers.

Question 120

You are the director of the PMO for your organization. Terri, an employee from another department, has approached you about a new project that is being talked about in her department. Terri would like the opportunity to head up this project and wants to convince you of her knowledge of project management and that she can do this job. Terri’s objective statement for the project says the following: “Convert all our distribution centers in the United States to radio frequency identification (RFID) tags. This new technology will improve inventory management by giving us a real-time view of demand for the products we sell. It will also help reduce theft and reduce stock-outs. The electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed. This new technology will require the installation of readers at each warehouse gate.” Which of the following statements are correct regarding Terri’s objective statement? Select three Mark question 1. Requirements have been mixed into the statement Terri wrote. One of the requirements in this statement is that “electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed.” 2. Objectives describe what it is the project is trying to produce or accomplish, and requirements are specifications of the objective or deliverable. 3. This statement describes an overview of the project, but it cannot be considered an objective statement because it’s missing some important elements. 4. This statement describes the objectives of the project adequately; however, requirements have been added into the statement.

Answer 120

This statement does describe some objectives but not adequately. Objectives are quantifiable criteria used to measure project success and should include schedule, cost, and quality metrics. There are no measures of time, cost, or quality mentioned in this statement. Requirements describe the specifications of the objectives and typically wouldn’t be mixed into an objective statement. The objective should be clear and concise.

Question 121

``` You are the project manager for an outdoor concert event scheduled for one year from today. You’re working on the procurement documents for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You’ve decided to contract with a professional services company that specializes in writing custom software programs. You want to minimize the risk to the organization and want a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price. You have agreed to pay the vendor a bonus if they complete the program at least 30 days earlier than scheduled, so you’ll opt for which contract type? Select one Mark question FFP CPIF CPFF FPIF ```

Answer 121

Fixed-price incentive fee contracts are the best option when you need a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price and are including a bonus or incentive for early completion or exceeding expectations.

Question 122

``` Which of the following represents a definitive range of estimates? Select one Mark question -10 percent to +10 percent -25 percent to +75 percent -50 percent to +50 percent -5 percent to +10 percent ```

Answer 122

According to the PMBOK® Guide, a definitive range of estimates is -5 percent to +10 percent.

Question 123

``` Which of the following methods should you use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty? Select one Mark question Expert judgment Bottom-up estimating Three-point estimating Analogous estimating ```

Answer 123

Three-point estimating is the technique to use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty.

Question 124

You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises using a hybrid model to manage projects. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. The project objectives should include which of the following? Select one Mark question A description of the business need that brought about this project A brief summary of the product description, including measurable, quantifiable product requirements that will help measure project success Quantifiable criteria, including elements such as cost, schedule, and quality measures Quantifiable criteria derived from value engineering, value analysis, or function analysis

Answer 124

The project objectives should include quantifiable criteria that can be used to help measure project success. Project objectives should include schedule, cost, and quality measurements.

Question 125

``` Kaylee is a risk manager working in collaboration with Alyssa, a project manager, and both work for a top healthcare company. They currently follow a feature-driven development approach to managing software-based projects. They work together to analyze risk, noting that of the 20 risks identified, 5 are deemed to be low priority. Where will these risks be documented? Select one Mark question The project management plan The risk report The risk management plan A watch list ```

Answer 125

Low-priority risks are added to a watch list within the risk register, where they will be monitored for possible changes.

Question 126

The project manager is trying to get sign off for a series of marketing materials. The work is rejected by the stakeholders responsible for sign off because of incorrect use of marketing standards. What should the project manager do before sending materials to the stakeholders again? Select one Mark question Validate the scope before performing quality control Perform quality control checks before validating the scope Validate scope before communicating the project status Create a work breakdown structure before validating the scope

Answer 126

The scenario involves two processes: the Validate Scope process and the Control Quality process. The two processes are "linked" by verified deliverables. Verified deliverables are an output from the Control Quality process and an input into the Validate Scope process. The Control Quality process ensures the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. The Validate Scope process formally accepts the completed project deliverables and results in accepted deliverables as its output. In the scenario, the work is being validated by the stakeholders, but there are quality concerns noted by the incorrect use of standards. Ideally, the Control Quality process should be completed before the scope can be validated. It is unclear from the scenario whether or not this process has been carried out at all. Regardless, now, when the issues have been found during scope validation, it is essential that before repeating the Validate Scope process for this work, the project manager and the project team conduct the Control Quality process to ensure correctness and proper adherence to the marketing quality standards. Then the scope can be validated based on both correctness and completeness.

Question 127

All of the following are true statements except for which one? Select one Mark question Daily stand-ups are used to ensure work is progressing well. Daily stand-ups are a critical component of planning. Daily stand-ups are used to uncover problems. Daily stand-ups last no more than 15 minutes.

Answer 127

The purpose of the daily stand-up meetings, one of three key meetings used within Scrum, is not planning. Instead, daily stand-up meetings are used to uncover any obstacles to committed work and as a way to ensure that work is progressing smoothly.

Question 128

``` You are managing the development of a new blood pressure cuff for a customer who provided you with the objectives and description of the cuff. You and your team are decomposing the customer's high-level requirements to the level of detail needed to design the blood pressure cuff and therefore define the scope of the product. In what activity are you involved? Select one Mark question Technical performance analysis Create WBS Product analysis Define Activities ```

Answer 128

The scenario implies you are in the Define Scope process. Product analysis is among the tools and techniques of this process and can be used to define products and services. By asking questions about a product and forming answers to those questions, a description of the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects can be determined about the product that is going to be delivered. In product analysis, requirements are captured at a high level and decomposed to the level of detail needed to design the final product which is what described by the scenario, making product analysis the best answer to the question asked. Examples of product analysis techniques include product breakdown, requirements analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, value analysis, and value engineering.

Question 129

``` Which of the following project management Knowledge Areas involve every team member and stakeholder on the project? Select one Mark question Project Quality Management Project Resource Management Project Communications Management Project Scope Management ```

Answer 129

Project Communications Management involves every member of the project team, including all the stakeholders. Everyone involved in the project will send or receive project information or both. Project Resources involve all the human and physical resources assigned to the work of the project. Although all the folks working on the project are involved, only the project manager and perhaps a few others are involved in performing the processes within this Knowledge Area.

Question 130

``` Midway through the delivery of development services, a customer requested that new requirements be incorporated. When asked to submit a change request to modify the terms of the contract, the customer refused and insisted that the changes be implemented at no cost. After multiple discussions, neither party changed their stance on the situation. What technique will the project manager likely use to address this situation? Select one Mark question Alternative dispute resolution Claims administration Inspection Conflict management ```

Answer 130

Claims administration is a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process. Claims administration involves addressing contested changes between the buyer and seller, which then converts into a claim.

Question 131

Which of the following statements best describes the product scope? Select one Mark question The work performed to deliver a product, service, or results with the specified features and functions The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole and the reasons why a project has been undertaken A description of the behaviors of the product, including actions and interactions that the product should execute The features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project

Answer 131

The product scope defines the features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project.

Question 132

``` A project manager meets with the team to discuss how they will measure budget performance moving forward. What activity is the team engaged in? Select one Mark question Taking corrective action Developing the cost management plan Evaluating performance Developing the project budget ```

Answer 132

The project manager is putting together the cost management plan, which is an activity carried out through the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan documents the rules of performance measurement, level of precision and accuracy, units of measure, organizational procedures links, control thresholds, reporting formats, process descriptions, and other budget-related details necessary to develop, manage, and control the budget.

Question 133

In a pharmaceutical project, human trials are to start soon. The CEO is thrilled about the success of the trials up to this point. She announces that the size of the patient pool for the trials should double from the one originally planned and results tracked in the new system launching this week. What should the project manager do first? Select one Mark question Adjust the scope baseline to reflect the increased trial size Consider what might be included in a change request Communicate the change of direction with the stakeholders Ramp up production to match the demand of the CEO

Answer 133

Managing changes to the project by following the organization's change control process established for the project is important in keeping the project under control and operating effectively. Changes to scope, like in the scenario of doubling the size of the patient pool as well as tracking the results in the new system, require evaluation, agreement, and approval. Who makes those approvals is up to the project organization and its change management plans. But before any changes are implemented or communicated, the change request must be submitted per the project's procedure and approved by those authorized to do so. A CEO's declaration of what should happen in the project does not substitute for the project's change control procedures and the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Question 134

You are a project manager working on manufacturing a new product. The operational process is very detailed. One of the components of the product must measure 1 centimeter by 1 centimeter. Reliability is measured using a machine that samples one part in every hundred to assure the measurements are correct. Which of the following does this question describe? Select one Mark question This is statistical sampling, which is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process. This is a prevention cost, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This describes a quality audit, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This describes a quality baseline, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process.

Answer 134

Statistical sampling involves taking a sample number of parts from the whole population and inspecting them to determine whether they fall within acceptable variances.

Question 135

You use a predictive approach to managing projects and have just completed your cost baseline. Next, you begin working on determining funding requirements. Which of the following is true? Select one Mark question Funding requirements are an output of the Estimate Costs process. Management reserves are the difference between the funding requirements and the cost baseline. Funding requirements are derived from the activity costs. The management reserve is released in a lump sum at the beginning of the project.

Answer 135

The funding requirements are derived from the cost baseline. Management reserve is released in increments throughout the project, and the funding requirements are an output of the Determine Budget process.

Question 136

Emma is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Several manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Emma needs. She will use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing from among the vendors. Which of the following is true regarding this question? Select one Mark question Emma will include delivery and setup charges as part of the purchase price criterion. Emma must use purchase price alone as the sole criterion for evaluation because multiple vendors are involved. Emma will use the advertising tool and technique of this process to let vendors know about this opportunity. Emma will review the procurement documents and teaming agreements as some of the inputs to this process.

Answer 136

When using price alone as a criterion for selection, there should be more than one vendor who can supply the goods or services you are procuring. However, that doesn’t mean you can’t use additional criteria for source selection. You should include costs such as delivery and setup in the purchase price criterion.

Question 137

``` Which of the following estimate ranges represents a rough order of magnitude? Select one Mark question -25 percent to + 75 percent -50 percent to + 50 percent -5 percent to + 10 percent -10 percent to + 25 percent ```

Answer 137

A rough order of magnitude ranges from –25 percent to +75 percent, whereas a definitive range spans –5 percent to +10 percent.

Question 138

``` The project team recently participated in a working session to determine the costs associated with individual activities. To produce a more accurate estimate, they broke each activity down further into smaller chunks. What will this activity yield? Select one Mark question Project budget Cost baseline Cost estimates Basis of estimates ```

Answer 138

The project team is participating in bottom-up estimating, which will produce activity cost estimates. This activity is associated with the Estimate Costs process. Basis of estimates may also be generated through this session; cost estimates, however, are the primary end outcome of the activity.

Question 139

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Monitoring and Controlling process group? Select one Mark question Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan Bringing the project or phase to a formal, orderly end Formulating and revising project goals and objectives and creating the project management plan Putting the project management plan into action

Answer 139

The Monitoring and Controlling process group is where project performance measurements are taken and analyzed to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan.

Question 140

``` You are a project manager for Community Trends, a nonprofit organization. Your project has come about because of a social need. You’re calculating performance measurements and using actual costs to date, and you assume that ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate. You know the following information: BAC = 900, ETC = 65, PV = 500, EV = 475, and AC = 425. Which of the following is the correct expected total cost at completion, given this situation? Select one Mark question 850 379 875 804 ```

Answer 140

Since EAC is based on actual costs to date and assuming ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate, the equation to use for EAC is EAC = AC + (BAC – EV). In this case, your formula looks like this: $425 + ($900 – $475) = $850.

Question 141

``` Reasons to Lyv is the top customer of a large marketing firm. Trudy is the president of Reasons to Lyv and has decided to launch a product that leverages new GPS tracking technology. She sits down with Roy, the project manager on the project, to review and evaluate whether a sufficient amount of funds remains to address known risks. What activity are they performing? Select one Mark question Technical performance analysis Risk review Reserve analysis Audit ```

Answer 141

Reserve analysis is a data analysis technique of the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis compares the amount of contingency reserve remaining to address the risk that remains. Contingency reserves (used to deal with known risks) are considered part of the project budget, while management reserves (used to deal with unknown risks) are not.

Question 142

You are working on the communications management plan for your project and have considered the timing and need for updated information by you and your four stakeholders. Your organization has modern, up-to-date technology that your stakeholders and staff have used before, so you anticipate that supplying the information and updates to your stakeholders and team members will be a breeze. Which of the following is true? Select one Mark question There are 10 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements analysis. There are 12 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology. There are 5 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements. There are 20 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.

Answer 142

There are 10 channels of communication, which is taken into consideration when using the communications requirement analysis tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process. The formula for this is 5(5 - 1) ÷ 2.

Question 143

``` Kaylee is a risk manager working in collaboration with Alyssa, a project manager, and both work for a top healthcare company. They partner to facilitate a session to determine how the project team can best exploit an opportunity that was recently identified. Kaylee and Alyssa are performing activities associated with what project management Knowledge Area? Select one Mark question Project Scope Management Project Integration Management Project Procurement Management Project Risk Management ```

Answer 143

The question describes activities associated with risk management. Kaylee and Alyssa are determining how best to address a positive risk (opportunity) that has been identified.

Question 144

``` While carrying out the Monitor and Control Project Work process, a project manager analyzes performance data to determine whether any corrective or preventive action is needed. Which of the following is a valid input that can assist the project manager in performing this activity? Select one Mark question Variance analysis Work performance information Work performance data Expert judgment ```

Answer 144

Work performance information is a key input that the project manager needs to evaluate performance against the plan (another key input in and of itself). Work performance data, on the other hand, represents raw data that is used in executing the work; it later becomes information as it is analyzed against baselines through other processes that belong to the Monitoring and Controlling process group. The remaining two options are tools and techniques of the process, not inputs.

Question 145

``` A project manager is working with a risk manager to prioritize individual project risks. What project management process is associated with this activity? Select one Mark question Plan Risk Management Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis Identify Risks Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis ```

Answer 145

The purpose of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is to prioritize individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics.

Question 146

``` Alyssa is a project manager tasked with managing an infrastructure project that will consolidate five data centers into one. She is currently facilitating the estimating process to calculate the duration of the project’s activities. Alyssa knows that she has reliable information and is therefore planning on using an estimating technique that will yield a highly accurate estimate with minimal effort expended. What estimating technique is she planning on using? Select one Mark question Bottom-up estimating Top-down estimating Parametric estimating Three-point estimating ```

Answer 146

Parametric estimating is a quantitatively based estimating method that multiplies the quantity of work by the rate or uses an algorithm in conjunction with historical data to determine cost, budget, or duration estimates. When the information is reliable, it yields an estimate that is high in accuracy.

Question 147

The project processes are iterative, are results oriented, and interact with each other. Shewhart and Deming developed a concept that reflects this idea. Which of the following is the name of this cycle? Select one Mark question Select-Plan-Monitor-Act Strategize-Justify-Choose-Execute-Control Initiate-Requirements-Execute-Close Plan-Do-Check-Act

Answer 147

The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle was developed by Shewhart and later refined by Deming. It reflects the iterative, results-oriented, and interactive nature of the project process groups.

Question 148

Earned value analysis, iteration burndown chart, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis are all types of what? Select one Mark question Data representation tools and techniques Schedule compression tools and techniques Project management information systems Data analysis tools and techniques

Answer 148

Data analysis is a tool and technique of multiple project management processes, including the Control Schedule process, where it encompasses the use of earned value analysis, iteration burndown charts, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis.

Question 149

``` You’ve taken over a project that’s currently in trouble. You’ve held a meeting with the key stakeholders to demonstrate the new product prototype. They came prepared with the product requirements and upon inspection inform you that this prototype is not what the customer specified. Your boss instructs you to get the prototype corrected and make it match the requirements the customer specified before holding a demo with the customer. She also warns you to take a look at the work of the project. She’s concerned that things aren’t happening as planned and that the last project manager was not paying close enough attention to the project plan. Corrections might be needed. What Knowledge Area does this describe? Select one Mark question Project Integration Management Project Scope Management Project Schedule Management Project Risk Management ```

Answer 149

Project Scope Management is concerned with product scope and project scope. Product scope is concerned with the characteristics of the product or service of the project and is measured against the project requirements. Project scope is concerned with the work of the project and is measured against the project plan.

Question 150

How are quality improvements implemented? Select one Mark question By completing a quality audit and identifying gaps or shortcomings in the process By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action By completing quality audits By submitting a change request and/or implementing a preventive action

Answer 150

Completing a quality audit may lead you to the conclusion that a change request is needed, but you must submit a change request and/or take corrective action to implement the quality improvement.

Question 151

A small sample of your project’s PERT calculations is shown here. What is the total duration of the project? ``` Activity Pessimistic 1 2 3 Optimistic 10 20 3 Pessimistic 14 30 3 Likely Expected Value 12 23 3 ``` ``` Select one Mark question 37 38 47 33 ```

Answer 151

To determine the total duration of the project, you add up the expected value for each activity. Note, you calculate expected value only for activities that have zero float.

Question 152

``` Which of the following characteristics do all project life cycles share? Select one Mark question Degree of work sequencing Degree of unfinished work Degree of uncertainty Degree of planning ```

Answer 152

According to the Agile Practice Guide, all project life cycles share the element of planning. What differs across predictive, iterative, incremental, and Agile life cycles is the degree to which planning is done, and when.

Question 153

``` Using the earned-value analysis technique, a project manager calculates a schedule performance index of 0.75 and a cost performance index of 1.25. To bring the schedule back on track, the project manager decides to allocate additional resources to critical activities in order to complete them faster. What technique are they using to control the schedule? Select one Mark question Crashing Leads and lags Resource optimization Fast tracking ```

Answer 153

Schedule compression uses fast-tracking or crashing compression techniques to bring delayed activities back in line with the plan. Allocating additional resources to critical activities describes the crashing technique; fast-tracking is where you complete two activities in parallel in order to complete the work faster.

Question 154

You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true? Select two Mark question The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award. You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project. The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part. You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose.

Answer 154

The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.

Question 155

Status review meetings are an important tool for informing stakeholders (and others) of the status of the project. All of the following are true regarding status review meetings except for which one? Select one Mark question Face-to-face meetings are more effective for team members than status review meetings because you’ll learn of potential risks and problems more quickly. Verbally communicating at a status meeting is less complicated and more easily understood than written communication. They are a form of communication and include verbal and written material. You might have multiple status review meetings, each intended for different audiences.

Answer 155

Face-to-face meetings are effective, but this statement is not true regarding status review meetings.

Question 156

``` A method of managing projects in small, incremental portions of work that can be easily assigned and completed within a short period of time describes what methodology? Select one Mark question Waterfall Lean Agile Iterative ```

Answer 156

Agile project management is a method of managing projects in small, incremental portions of work that can be easily assigned, easily managed, and completed within a short period of time

Question 157

``` Marysil is an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire. To date, she has identified risks, analyzed them, and developed risk responses for her project. Now, she and the team are executing the work and responding to risk triggers. What project management artifact will they need? Select one Mark question Risk report Risk register Fallback plan Contingency plan ```

Answer 157

The risk register contains the list of identified risks and all information documented about them, including the risk response plans. As risk triggers occur, they will need to refer to the risk register for information about the risk response plans.

Question 158

``` Leticia is a project manager working for Dancing Apron, a company that combines cooking with simple children’s cooking recipes and music. Her latest project involves the release of the company’s first digital product that parents will be able to purchase and download online. Kip, who is the sponsor of the project, asks her to calculate the EAC assuming that the work will be accomplished at the planned rate. Leticia knows that they have spent $15,000 to date of the $20,000 budgeted and that the earned value of the project has already been calculated at $18,000. What is the EAC that she will communicate to Kip? Select one Mark question $17,000 $20,000 $13,000 $15,000 ```

Answer 158

To calculate EAC when the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate, use the following formula: AC + BAC – EV. Plug in the values provided in the question to arrive at the following: $15,000 + $20,000 – $18,000 = $17,000

Question 159

``` You are a project manager working in an organization that is considered to be a weak matrix organizational type. You are two months into a four-month project when the functional manager for half of your most critical resources announces that she will be reallocating them to another project. You explain to her that this will result in early closure of your project and that resources should not be redirected. If the functional manager succeeds in reallocating the resources, what type of ending will the project experience? Select one Mark question Integration Starvation Extinction Addition ```

Answer 159

Integration occurs when the resources of the project are distributed to other areas in the organization or are assigned to other projects. In this case, the functional manager is reassigning resources to another project.

Question 160

``` Which quality theorist is responsible for the theory that promotes doing it right the first time? Select one Mark question Philip Crosby W. Edwards Deming Joseph Juran Walter Shewhart ```

Answer 160

Philip Crosby is the quality theorist behind the Zero Defects practice, which promotes doing it right the first time.

Question 161

These processes are responsible for distributing information about the project to the stakeholders and satisfying the needs of the stakeholders by managing communications with them, respectively. Select one Mark question Information Distribution and Manage Stakeholder Engagement Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Manage Communications Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Information Distribution

Answer 161

This question describes the Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement processes, respectively. There is no process called Information Distribution.

Question 162

Which of the following describes who is responsible for the quality assurance of the project? Select one Mark question Project team members, project manager, and stakeholders Project manager Stakeholders Project manager and project team members

Answer 162

The project team members, project manager, and the stakeholders are all equally responsible for the quality assurance of the project.

Question 163

``` A short, time-bound period of work is also referred to as which of the following? Select one Mark question Lag Buffer Sprint Lead ```

Answer 163

Within the Agile methodology, a sprint or iteration refers to a short, time-bound period of work, which always starts with a sprint-planning meeting. It is also known as an iteration.

Question 164

``` You work within a project management office, and the new PMO director has adjusted project assignments to accommodate a large strategic project that the company has undertaken. You sit down with the previous project manager of your new project to review stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and the list of project-related meetings. What document will you use to get this information? Select one Mark question Resource management plan Communications management plan Project management plan Stakeholder engagement plan ```

Answer 164

The best answer is the communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the project management plan. While project management plan is also a correct answer, the communications management plan is a more specific choice and therefore a better answer. Stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and methods for receiving/obtaining information are all elements addressed within the communications management plan.

Question 164

``` You work within a project management office, and the new PMO director has adjusted project assignments to accommodate a large strategic project that the company has undertaken. You sit down with the previous project manager of your new project to review stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and the list of project-related meetings. What document will you use to get this information? Select one Mark question Resource management plan Communications management plan Project management plan Stakeholder engagement plan ```

Answer 164

The best answer is the communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the project management plan. While project management plan is also a correct answer, the communications management plan is a more specific choice and therefore a better answer. Stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and methods for receiving/obtaining information are all elements addressed within the communications management plan.

Question 165

The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is concerned with which of the following? Select one Mark question Ensuring the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully Identifying, combining, unifying, and coordinating the various processes and project management activities Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project Ensuring timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information

Answer 165

The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is the only Knowledge Area that has processes across all five process groups. It contains the high-level processes that bring the results of the remaining Knowledge Areas together, unifying and coordinating all project management activities.

Question 166

``` As part of kicking off a project, the product manager meets with the project team to review the team charter and establish team norms. The product manager also stresses the importance of quality and sets the expectation that it will be integrated into every iteration. Managing quality is sometimes called what? Select one Mark question Plan-Do-Check-Act Quality assurance Quality adherence Quality management ```

Answer 166

Managing quality is sometimes referred to as quality assurance. Manage Quality is a process within the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the term manage quality is meant to encompass a broader meaning, including representing nonproject work.

Question 167

Contract phases are closely related to the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area processes. Which of the following are true? Select three Mark question The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process. The requisition stage, where responses to procurement documents are reviewed, is related to the Conduct Procurements process. Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process. The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.

Answer 167

The requisition stage is where the procurement documents are prepared (not the responses to them) and is associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. The two outputs that become inputs are procurement documentation and source selection criteria.

Question 168

You are assigned to a software development project, and you are conducting a product review with an important client. Although the deliverables were previously verified, the client detects a defect and rejects one of the deliverables. What should you do? Select one Mark question Refund the customer for the value of the deliverable Submit a change request to fix the deliverable Begin the claims administration process Ask the project team to repair the defect

Answer 168

The question states that the deliverables have been previously verified implying the Control Quality process has been completed and resulted in verified deliverables as its output. In the scenario described, you are performing the Validate Scope process which is the process of formalizing acceptance of completed and verified project deliverables. One of the tools and techniques associated with this process is an inspection. The inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and validating to determine whether the work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. A product review is an example of an inspection. In this scenario, the client performed a test which exposed a software bug and caused a deliverable to be rejected. Unless stated otherwise in the question text, deliverables are always placed under configuration control. Therefore, an approved change request is required to modify the deliverable and repair the defect. If the individual or group responsible for reviewing change requests believes the deliverable meets the contractual requirements, the change request could be rejected but still might be approved just to avoid a dispute with the client. Therefore, of the available choices, the best course of action is to submit a change request to fix the deliverable.

Question 169

``` Yasmin is a project manager tasked with putting together the project charter for a project that will produce a new line of widgets for the company. After meeting with various key stakeholders, she sits down to draft the document. Yasmin is likely to include all of the following elements within the project charter except for which one? Select one Mark question Preapproved budget List of detailed risks Purpose of the project List of key stakeholders ```

Answer 169

Information included within the project charter is high level versus detailed. While the charter may include a list of high-level risks, it is unlikely that a detailed list can be compiled at this early stage of the project.

Question 170

``` A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subjectmatter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome? Select one Mark question Source selection analysis Market research Advertising Make-or-buy analysis ```

Answer 170

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process.

Question 171

Your project sponsor has reviewed the initial project schedule you created for the project. She is not happy with the project end date because it doesn’t match the promise date she gave the customer. You decide to use some compression techniques first. Which of the following statements should you keep in mind (and know to be true) regarding duration compression? Select one Mark question Schedule compression shortens the project schedule but doesn’t change the project scope. Crashing is a compression technique that typically produces a viable alternative. Crashing is a compression technique that typically results in increased risk. Fast-tracking is a compression technique that typically results in increased costs.

Answer 171

Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope. Crashing doesn’t always give you a good alternative and typically increases project costs. Fast-tracking typically increases risk and necessitates rework.

Question 172

``` David is a project manager working for a prominent book publishing company. As part of his latest project, he uses an approach that yields frequent smaller deliverables throughout the span of the project. What type of project life cycle is David using? Select one Mark question Agile Predictive Waterfall Incremental ```

Answer 172

Incremental life cycles focus on speed of delivery as an optimization method. In this type of life cycle, the project yields frequent smaller deliverables to avoid waiting for everything to be completed before a solution exists. In other words, a subset of the overall solution becomes available sooner.

Question 173

``` You are managing a project to develop a new robot for a mining rescue company. You are currently performing a monitoring and controlling project activity, and you have discovered that some of the project work has not been performed according to the plan. If these issues are not fixed before the next customer inspection, your project might be canceled. You have analyzed the situation, and the corrective action will only require a minor adjustment to a configuration element. What should you do first? Select one Mark question Implement the corrective actions Consult the project sponsor Delay the scheduled customer inspection Submit a change request ```

Answer 173

All of the available answers seem like possible options in this scenario, but the question is specifically asking what you should do 'first'. Although you have already analyzed the situation and you know what corrective actions are required, you must follow the proper change control procedure. A configuration element is a project artifact that has been placed under configuration control. Any change to a configuration element should be formally controlled and will require a change request. Since the question describes a situation requiring a change to a configuration element, the first thing you should do is submit a change request and have it approved before you can implement the changes.

Question 174

``` A project manager facilitates a meeting with the project team to review an assessment of risks recently completed. During this meeting, they evaluate options for responding to the risks. It is decided that two risks will not receive any action and that they will deal with the consequences at the time of occurrence, should they occur. What type of risk response is this? Select one Mark question Avoidance Mitigation Active acceptance Passive acceptance ```

Answer 174

There are two types of risk acceptance in which no proactive risk response strategy is selected: passive and active acceptance. Passive acceptance means that no action will be taken other than to periodically monitor the risk.

Question 175

You are a project manager for Time Will Tell, an international watch manufacturer. Your project entails developing a watch with global positioning satellite (GPS) capabilities. Kit is a junior staff member with two years of experience in GPS technology. Carrie is a senior staff member with five years of experience working with GPS technology. You are developing the activity duration estimates for the project activities. You are trying to determine an estimate for a particular activity that involves GPS skills and knowledge. Carrie has worked on activities similar to this in the past. She tells you the activity will likely take 45 days. All of the following statements are true regarding the information in this question except which one? Select one Mark question The technique Carrie used can also be used to estimate project duration because of the amount of information available about the details of the project. Carrie used a technique that is a form of expert judgment to estimate this activity. The activities are similar in fact, not just appearance, and Carrie has the needed expertise to provide this estimate, so you can rely on the estimate being reasonably accurate. Carrie used an analogous estimating technique to come up with the 45-day estimate for this activity.

Answer 175

Carrie used the analogous estimating technique, which is a form of expert judgment. It is a tool and technique of the Estimate Activity Durations process. Analogous estimating bases estimates on previous activities that are similar in fact, and they require the person estimating them to have expertise in the activity. Analogous estimating techniques are typically used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of information about the project

Question 176

``` A new project manager is brought on the project. She wants to understand the process by which this particular project formally accepts deliverables. Which of the following will she have to reference? Select one Mark question The scope management plan The quality management plan The stakeholder management plan The requirements management plan ```

Answer 176

The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that contains information and guidance on how the scope and the scope-related processes are to be managed. What is included varies, but should contain procedures and processes specifying how the formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained. Acceptance of project deliverables is influenced by other project management plans, such as the stakeholder management plan and the quality management plan. Nevertheless, the scope management plan is what specifies the process most directly.

Question 177

Which of the following best describes individual project risk? Select one Mark question The effect of uncertainty on a project objective, arising from all sources of uncertainty An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives The effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a negative effect on one or more project objectives

Answer 177

According to the PMBOK® Guide, there are two levels of risk: individual project risk and overall project risk. An individual project risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

Question 178

``` Your project has kicked off, and you are beginning a series of overview sessions with key users to determine requirements for a new enterprise resource software implementation. One of your stakeholders is exceptionally contentious and throws obstacles up at every turn. One of the problems she has described does seem to be legitimate. There is an issue with the data from the legacy system that needs to be resolved before moving forward. The PMO you report to practices phase sequencing and requires closure of each phase before the next phase can begin. What is this process called? Select all right Mark question Stage review Phase exit Phase review Gate exit ```

Answer 178

Remember that all questions on the exam will refer to specific terminology used in the PMBOK® Guide – Sixth Edition. Although the other options presented may seem correct, the PMBOK® Guide calls this process by any of these names: stage gates, phase reviews, phase gates, phase exit, or kill points.

Question 179

A project manager is performing quantitative risk analysis. What tangible result is likely to be produced? Select one Mark question A priority level for each individual project risk An assessment of probability and impacts for each individual risk An assessment of overall project risk exposure A list of potential risk responses

Answer 179

As part of carrying out the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, updates are made to the risk register. Among the updates are an assessment of overall project risk exposure and detailed probabilistic analysis of the project.

Question 180

You are a project manager planning a project to develop a new payroll system, and you are currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A project stakeholder has suggested that it would be helpful to have a visual depiction showing how people and other systems will interact with the new payroll system. You like the idea and want to address it. What is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion? ``` Select one Mark question Design an affinity diagram Build a matrix diagram Create a fish-bone diagram Develop a context diagram ```

Answer 180

The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A context diagram is one of the tools and techniques that might be used during the Collect Requirements process. A context diagram is a visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it. Of the available choices, developing the context diagram is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion.

Question 181

When is a project considered successful? Select one Mark question When project benefits are realized and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met When the project budget is consumed, the scope is developed, and the schedule milestones are achieved When the project budget is consumed and the schedule milestones are achieved When objectives are achieved and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met

Answer 181

A project is considered successful when it achieves its objectives and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met.

Question 182

``` A project manager is in the process of assembling the final report of the project. What project document are they likely to reference to view the completion date of major project deliverables? Select one Mark question Milestone report Final report Schedule baseline Milestone list ```

Answer 182

The milestone list contains the final dates that the project milestones have been accomplished. This is used as an input to the Close Project or Phase process, which is where the final report is produced.

Question 183

``` A project manager has structured his project in a way that will allow for the planning of the project to occur during the early phases of the life cycle, with minimal changes thereafter. This approach is associated with which development life cycle? Select one Mark question Iterative Predictive Adaptive Incremental ```

Answer 183

In a predictive life cycle, the project’s scope, time, and cost are determined during the early phases of the project, meaning that the majority of planning occurs up front. Changes are closely managed following a change control process.

Question 184

You are the project manager for a project that will produce a mobile phone application that sends alerts when UV rays are at dangerous levels, alerting users to stay indoors. You are in the process of managing the schedule and use a chart to track the work that remains to be completed within the iteration backlog. What is this chart called? Select one Mark question Iteration chart Velocity chart Scrum chart Iteration burndown chart

Answer 184

An iteration burndown chart is a data analysis tool and technique of the Control Schedule process. This chart is used to track the remaining work to be completed against the backlog.

Question 185

What do functional requirements describe? Select one Mark question The needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group The environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective The behaviors of the product The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole

Answer 185

Functional requirements describe the behaviors of the product, including actions, processes, data, and interactions that the product should execute.

Question 186

``` A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subjectmatter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome? Select one Mark question Make-or-buy analysis Source selection analysis Market research Advertising ```

Answer 186

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process.

Question 187

``` Your project has kicked off, and you are beginning a series of overview sessions with key users to determine requirements for a new enterprise resource software implementation. One of your stakeholders is exceptionally contentious and throws obstacles up at every turn. One of the problems she has described does seem to be legitimate. There is an issue with the data from the legacy system that needs to be resolved before moving forward. The PMO you report to practices phase sequencing and requires closure of each phase before the next phase can begin. What is this process called? Select all right Mark question Gate exit Phase review Stage review Phase exit ```

Answer 187

Remember that all questions on the exam will refer to specific terminology used in the PMBOK® Guide – Sixth Edition. Although the other options presented may seem correct, the PMBOK® Guide calls this process by any of these names: stage gates, phase reviews, phase gates, phase exit, or kill points.

Question 188

You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true? Select two Mark question The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part. The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award. You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project. You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose.

Answer 188

The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.

Question 189

Which of the following best describes the purpose of carrying out activities associated with planning stakeholder engagement? Select one Mark question To identify project stakeholders regularly and analyze and document relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success To develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project To monitor project stakeholder relationships and tailor strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans To communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement

Answer 189

According to the PMBOK® Guide, the purpose of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process is to develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project. This is the second process of the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area.

Question 190

Your project sponsor has reviewed the initial project schedule you created for the project. She is not happy with the project end date because it doesn’t match the promise date she gave the customer. You decide to use some compression techniques first. Which of the following statements should you keep in mind (and know to be true) regarding duration compression? Select one Mark question Schedule compression shortens the project schedule but doesn’t change the project scope. Crashing is a compression technique that typically produces a viable alternative. Crashing is a compression technique that typically results in increased risk. Fast-tracking is a compression technique that typically results in increased costs.

Answer 190

Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope. Crashing doesn’t always give you a good alternative and typically increases project costs. Fast-tracking typically increases risk and necessitates rework.

Question 191

``` Which of the following methods should you use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty? Select one Mark question Expert judgment Three-point estimating Analogous estimating Bottom-up estimating ```

Answer 191

Three-point estimating is the technique to use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty.

Question 192

A project manager facilitated a meeting with the product manager and project team to discuss the results of the latest iteration. As part of the meeting, the project manager also reviewed the budget consumed to date on the project, highlighting appraisal costs. Which of the following best describes appraisal costs? Select one Mark question Costs that occur externally, when the customer determines that the requirements have not been met Costs when things don’t go according to plan Costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met Costs associated with satisfying customer requirements by creating a product without defects

Answer 192

Appraisal costs are associated with the cost of quality and are the costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met. Inspection and testing are examples of appraisal costs.

Question 193

How are quality improvements implemented? Select one Mark question By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action By completing a quality audit and identifying gaps or shortcomings in the process By completing quality audits By submitting a change request and/or implementing a preventive action

Answer 193

Completing a quality audit may lead you to the conclusion that a change request is needed, but you must submit a change request and/or take corrective action to implement the quality improvement.

Question 194

``` A sponsor meets with the project manager to better understand when the team will complete the project. The project manager notes that the team is completing an average of 40 story points per sprint, and as a result, they would complete the project within five iterations. She shows the sponsor a chart that reflects the projection and includes a date for each iteration. What chart is the project manager and sponsor reviewing? Select one Mark question Burndown chart Burnup chart Velocity chart Gantt chart ```

Answer 194

Velocity refers to the total story points that the team is completing on average per iteration. Velocity allows the team to forecast the rate at which they are burning down the work of the project. A velocity chart shows the sum of the estimates of work delivered across all iterations.

Question 195

``` You are working on the risk management plan for your current project and need to document how the risk activities will be recorded for the benefit of future projects. Which part of the risk management plan addresses these issues? Select one Mark question Tracking Lessons learned Thresholds Reporting format ```

Answer 195

Tracking includes a description of how you’ll document the history of the risk activities for the current project and how the risk processes will be audited. This section of the risk management plan is also helpful for lessons learned.

Question 196

``` Leticia is a project manager working for Dancing Apron, a company that combines cooking with simple children’s cooking recipes and music. Her latest project involves the release of the company’s first digital product that parents will be able to purchase and download online. Kip, who is the sponsor of the project, asks her to calculate the EAC assuming that the work will be accomplished at the planned rate. Leticia knows that they have spent $15,000 to date of the $20,000 budgeted and that the earned value of the project has already been calculated at $18,000. What is the EAC that she will communicate to Kip? Select one Mark question $15,000 $17,000 $13,000 $20,000 ```

Answer 196

To calculate EAC when the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate, use the following formula: AC + BAC – EV. Plug in the values provided in the question to arrive at the following: $15,000 + $20,000 – $18,000 = $17,000.

Question 197

You are a project manager for Fly Me to Miami travel services. You need to obtain some services for your project on contract and have published an RFP. You are in the Conduct Procurements process and know that all of the following statements are true except for which one? Select one Mark question This process is used for obtaining goods or services, whether internal or external to the organization. Several techniques can be used to evaluate proposals. Bidder conferences are used during this process to answer questions regarding the RFP. Vendors may be required to be on a qualified seller list to participate in the bid.

Answer 197

This process is used only if you are obtaining goods and services outside the organization.

Question 198

You are working on the communications management plan for your project and have considered the timing and need for updated information by you and your four stakeholders. Your organization has modern, up-to-date technology that your stakeholders and staff have used before, so you anticipate that supplying the information and updates to your stakeholders and team members will be a breeze. Which of the following is true? Select one Mark question There are 20 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology. There are 10 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements analysis. There are 5 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements. There are 12 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.

Answer 198

There are 10 channels of communication, which is taken into consideration when using the communications requirement analysis tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process. The formula for this is 5(5 - 1) ÷ 2.

Question 199

116 of 14002:44:03 You are a project manager working on manufacturing a new product. The operational process is very detailed. One of the components of the product must measure 1 centimeter by 1 centimeter. Reliability is measured using a machine that samples one part in every hundred to assure the measurements are correct. Which of the following does this question describe? Select one Mark question This describes a quality audit, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This is a prevention cost, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This is statistical sampling, which is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process. This describes a quality baseline, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process.

Answer 199

Statistical sampling involves taking a sample number of parts from the whole population and inspecting them to determine whether they fall within acceptable variances.

Question 200

Contract phases are closely related to the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area processes. Which of the following are true? Select three Mark question The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process. Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process. The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process. The requisition stage, where responses to procurement documents are reviewed, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.

Answer 200

The requisition stage is where the procurement documents are prepared (not the responses to them) and is associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. The two outputs that become inputs are procurement documentation and source selection criteria.

Question 201

You are a project manager planning a project to develop a new payroll system, and you are currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A project stakeholder has suggested that it would be helpful to have a visual depiction showing how people and other systems will interact with the new payroll system. You like the idea and want to address it. What is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion? ``` Select one Mark question Develop a context diagram Build a matrix diagram Design an affinity diagram Create a fish-bone diagram ```

Answer 201

The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A context diagram is one of the tools and techniques that might be used during the Collect Requirements process. A context diagram is a visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it. Of the available choices, developing the context diagram is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion.

Question 202

``` You’ve taken over a project that’s currently in trouble. You’ve held a meeting with the key stakeholders to demonstrate the new product prototype. They came prepared with the product requirements and upon inspection inform you that this prototype is not what the customer specified. Your boss instructs you to get the prototype corrected and make it match the requirements the customer specified before holding a demo with the customer. She also warns you to take a look at the work of the project. She’s concerned that things aren’t happening as planned and that the last project manager was not paying close enough attention to the project plan. Corrections might be needed. What Knowledge Area does this describe? Select one Mark question Project Integration Management Project Schedule Management Project Risk Management Project Scope Management ```

Answer 202

Project Scope Management is concerned with product scope and project scope. Product scope is concerned with the characteristics of the product or service of the project and is measured against the project requirements. Project scope is concerned with the work of the project and is measured against the project plan.

Question 203

``` Julie is a product manager responsible for a line of smart water bottles that connect to a mobile app to capture data and provide suggestions regarding your drinking habits. In preparation for the upcoming sprint, she meets with the team to ensure that stories are clear and appropriately sized. What activity is Julie performing with the team? Select one Mark question Roadmap grooming Backlog preparation Release planning Backlog refinement ```

Answer 203

Backlog refinement, also referred to as backlog grooming, is where the product owner works with the team to ensure that the stories are prepped and ready for the upcoming iteration. Stories should be clear enough for the team to understand the work, and they should be appropriately sized relative to each other.

Question 204

Earned value analysis, iteration burndown chart, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis are all types of what? Select one Mark question Project management information systems Schedule compression tools and techniques Data representation tools and techniques Data analysis tools and techniques

Answer 204

Data analysis is a tool and technique of multiple project management processes, including the Control Schedule process, where it encompasses the use of earned value analysis, iteration burndown charts, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis.

Question 205

Story points - A visual representation of the work completed toward the release of a product Burndown chart - The sum of story point sizes for features actually completed during the iteration Velocity - A unit-less measure used in relative user story estimation techniques Burnup charts - A visual representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox

Question 206

``` A project manager has just closed out a procurement, which produced the final deliverable of the project. What is the project manager likely to do next? Select one Mark question Perform administrative closure Finalize any open claims Release the remaining project resources Celebrate ```

Answer 206

Since the scenario outlined that the final deliverable of the project was completed, it implies that closing activities would follow. Administrative closure, which occurs as part of the Close Project or Phase process, consists of activities such as ensuring that exit criteria have been met and contractual agreements were properly closed out, measuring stakeholder satisfaction, and ensuring that ongoing operational or sustainment activities are transferred to operations.

Question 207

You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. One of your stakeholders requests a change to the product scope description. The stakeholder has filled out a change request form indicating that the change affects the project scope and that it’s essential for a successful project. The change request is approved, and the project scope statement is updated to reflect this change. Which of the following statements are true? Select three Mark question The product scope description, which is also a component of the project charter, is used to define the project’s scope. Change requests are evaluated against the project scope statement, and if a change request is outside the bounds of the original project scope, the change should be denied. The project scope statement directs the project team’s work and is the basis for future project decisions. Product analysis converts the product description and objectives into deliverables and requirements.

Answer 207

The product scope description is a component of the project charter and of the project scope statement, but it is not an input to this process.

Question 208

``` Change-driven life cycles are also known by what other name? Select one Mark question Adaptive life cycle Plan-driven life cycle Predictive life cycle Hybrid life cycle ```

Answer 208

Change-driven life cycles are also known as Agile or adaptive life cycles.

Question 209

``` A project manager is in the process of assembling the final report of the project. What project document are they likely to reference to view the completion date of major project deliverables? Select one Mark question Milestone report Schedule baseline Final report Milestone list ```

Answer 209

The milestone list contains the final dates that the project milestones have been accomplished. This is used as an input to the Close Project or Phase process, which is where the final report is produced.

Question 210

``` Reasons to Lyv is the top customer of a large marketing firm. Trudy is the president of Reasons to Lyv and has decided to launch a product that leverages new GPS tracking technology. She sits down with Roy, the project manager on the project, to review and evaluate whether a sufficient amount of funds remains to address known risks. What activity are they performing? Select one Mark question Reserve analysis Technical performance analysis Risk review Audit ```

Answer 210

Reserve analysis is a data analysis technique of the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis compares the amount of contingency reserve remaining to address the risk that remains. Contingency reserves (used to deal with known risks) are considered part of the project budget, while management reserves (used to deal with unknown risks) are not.

Question 211

All of the following are true statements except for which one? Select one Mark question Daily stand-ups are a critical component of planning. Daily stand-ups are used to uncover problems. Daily stand-ups last no more than 15 minutes. Daily stand-ups are used to ensure work is progressing well.

Answer 211

The purpose of the daily stand-up meetings, one of three key meetings used within Scrum, is not planning. Instead, daily stand-up meetings are used to uncover any obstacles to committed work and as a way to ensure that work is progressing smoothly.

Question 212

``` 129 of 14002:44:03 All of the following processes belong to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area except for which one? Select one Mark question Close Project or Phase Identify Stakeholders Manage Project Knowledge Monitor and Control Project Work ```

Answer 212

Identify Stakeholders belongs to the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area. The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area contains the following processes: Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor and Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Changed Control, and Close Project or Phase.

Question 213

``` Which of the following characteristics do all project life cycles share? Select one Mark question Degree of unfinished work Degree of work sequencing Degree of uncertainty Degree of planning ```

Answer 213

According to the Agile Practice Guide, all project life cycles share the element of planning. What differs across predictive, iterative, incremental, and Agile life cycles is the degree to which planning is done, and when.

Question 214

``` Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of what? Select one Mark question Risk register Project documents Risk management plan Risk report ```

Answer 214

Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of the risk management plan. Other areas covered by the plan include the following: risk-related funding, timing, risk categories, stakeholder risk appetite, definitions of risk probability and impacts, probability and impact matrix, reporting formats, and tracking.

Question 215

Which of the following describes who is responsible for the quality assurance of the project? Select one Mark question Stakeholders Project manager Project manager and project team members Project team members, project manager, and stakeholders

Answer 215

The project team members, project manager, and the stakeholders are all equally responsible for the quality assurance of the project.

Question 216

You have decomposed the deliverables for your project as follows: Project Management, Design, Build, and Test. The Design deliverable is further decomposed to include these deliverables: product design document, blueprints, and prototype. Adequate cost and schedule estimates have been applied to all the deliverables. Which of the following has occurred? Select one Mark question Steps 1, 2, 3, and 4 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables. Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables with the exception of the Design deliverable. Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for the Design deliverable. All the steps of decomposition have been performed.

Answer 216

The five steps of decomposition are to identify major deliverables, organize the WBS, decompose the WBS components into lower-level components, assign identification codes, and validate the WBS. No mention was made in the question of assigning identification codes or validating the correctness of decomposition, so not all of the steps have been performed. The first three steps of the decomposition process for the Design deliverable have been performed.

Question 217

``` After meeting with several subject-matter experts, the project manager determines that the project phases will need to occur one after the other. What project life cycle is the project manager using? Select one Mark question Sequential Iterative Incremental Overlapping ```

Answer 217

There are three series of project life cycles within the basic framework for managing projects: sequential, iterative, and overlapping. In a sequential life cycle, one phase must finish before the next phase can begin.

Question 218

``` A project manager meets with the team to discuss how they will measure budget performance moving forward. What activity is the team engaged in? Select one Mark question Evaluating performance Developing the cost management plan Taking corrective action Developing the project budget ```

Answer 218

The project manager is putting together the cost management plan, which is an activity carried out through the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan documents the rules of performance measurement, level of precision and accuracy, units of measure, organizational procedures links, control thresholds, reporting formats, process descriptions, and other budget-related details necessary to develop, manage, and control the budget.

Question 219

``` If earned value = 500, planned value = 700, and actual costs = 450, what is the cost variance? Select one Mark question –50 50 200 –200 ```

Answer 219

To calculate schedule variance, subtract planned value from earned value (CV = EV – AC): $500 – $450 = $50. A positive cost variance means that the project is under budget.

Question 220

``` Using the estimates provided, calculate the beta distribution: most likely estimate (ML) = 72, optimistic estimate (O) = 55, pessimistic estimate (P) = 85. Round to one decimal point. Select one Mark question 70.0 70.7 72 71.3 ```

Answer 220

A beta distribution calculation involves giving a greater weight to the most likely estimate. Simply multiply the most likely estimate by four, add the result with the other two estimates, and divide by six: (4 × (ML) $72 + (O) $55 + (P) $85) ÷ 6 = $71.3.

Question 221

``` You work within a project management office, and the new PMO director has adjusted project assignments to accommodate a large strategic project that the company has undertaken. You sit down with the previous project manager of your new project to review stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and the list of project-related meetings. What document will you use to get this information? Select one Mark question Communications management plan Resource management plan Project management plan Stakeholder engagement plan ```

Answer 221

The best answer is the communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the project management plan. While project management plan is also a correct answer, the communications management plan is a more specific choice and therefore a better answer. Stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and methods for receiving/obtaining information are all elements addressed within the communications management plan.

Question 222

``` The project team recently participated in a working session to determine the costs associated with individual activities. To produce a more accurate estimate, they broke each activity down further into smaller chunks. What will this activity yield? Select one Mark question Cost estimates Cost baseline Project budget Basis of estimates ```

Answer 222

The project team is participating in bottom-up estimating, which will produce activity cost estimates. This activity is associated with the Estimate Costs process. Basis of estimates may also be generated through this session; cost estimates, however, are the primary end outcome of the activity.

Question 223

``` Which of the following project management Knowledge Areas involve every team member and stakeholder on the project? Select one Mark question Project Scope Management Project Quality Management Project Communications Management Project Resource Management ```

Answer 223

Project Communications Management involves every member of the project team, including all the stakeholders. Everyone involved in the project will send or receive project information or both. Project Resources involve all the human and physical resources assigned to the work of the project. Although all the folks working on the project are involved, only the project manager and perhaps a few others are involved in performing the processes within this Knowledge Area.