Processes Flashcards
According to the Project Management Institute (PMI)®, a good project manager spends how much time communicating?
90 percent
100 percent
75 percent
50 percent
90%
According to PMI, a good project manager spends up to 90 percent of their time communicating. Communication skills are essential for a successful project manager.
Status review meetings are an important tool for informing stakeholders (and others) of the status of the project. All of the following are true regarding status review meetings except for which one?
- They are a form of communication and include verbal and written material.
- Face-to-face meetings are more effective for team members than status review meetings because you’ll learn of potential risks and problems more quickly.
- You might have multiple status review meetings, each intended for different audiences.
- Verbally communicating at a status meeting is less complicated and more easily understood than written communication.
Face-to-face meetings are effective, but this statement is not true regarding status review meetings.
You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises using a hybrid model to manage projects. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. The project objectives should include which of the following?
- Quantifiable criteria, including elements such as cost, schedule, and quality measures
- A brief summary of the product description, including measurable, quantifiable product requirements that will help measure project success
- Quantifiable criteria derived from value engineering, value analysis, or function analysis
- A description of the business need that brought about this project
- Quantifiable criteria, including elements such as cost, schedule, and quality measures
The project objectives should include quantifiable criteria that can be used to help measure project success. Project objectives should include schedule, cost, and quality measurements.
You have decomposed the deliverables for your project as follows: Project Management, Design, Build, and Test. The Design deliverable is further decomposed to include these deliverables: product design document, blueprints, and prototype. Adequate cost and schedule estimates have been applied to all the deliverables. Which of the following has occurred?
Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables with the exception of the Design deliverable.
All the steps of decomposition have been performed.
Steps 1, 2, 3, and 4 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables.
Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for the Design deliverable.
Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for the Design deliverable.
The five steps of decomposition are to identify major deliverables, organize the WBS, decompose the WBS components into lower-level components, assign identification codes, and validate the WBS. No mention was made in the question of assigning identification codes or validating the correctness of decomposition, so not all of the steps have been performed. The first three steps of the decomposition process for the Design deliverable have been performed
Which of the following statements are true? Select 3
A highly adaptive life cycle has continuous involvement and frequent feedback from stakeholders. A highly predictive life cycle has reduced risk and costs due to detailed plans. A highly predictive life cycle contains requirements that are ambiguous. A highly adaptive life cycle performs Initiating activities regularly throughout the project.
A highly predictive (waterfall) life cycle typically has detailed specifications, while a highly adaptive life cycle (Agile) has requirements that are progressively elaborated. All other statements are true.
You are a project manager for Community Trends, a nonprofit organization. Your project has come about because of a social need. You’re calculating performance measurements and using actual costs to date, and you assume that ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate. You know the following information: BAC = 900, ETC = 65, PV = 500, EV = 475, and AC = 425. Which of the following is the correct expected total cost at completion, given this situation?
875 804 850 379
Since EAC is based on actual costs to date and assuming ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate, the equation to use for EAC is EAC = AC + (BAC – EV). In this case, your formula looks like this: $425 + ($900 – $475) = $850.
Which of the following characteristics do all project life cycles share?
Degree of uncertainty
Degree of planning
Degree of work sequencing
Degree of unfinished work
Degree of planning
According to the Agile Practice Guide, all project life cycles share the element of planning. What differs across predictive, iterative, incremental, and Agile life cycles is the degree to which planning is done, and when.
You are using the critical chain method to construct your schedule, and there are variances in your critical path tasks. Which of the following is true?
Delays to the noncritical path tasks won’t cause any further issues for the critical path.
You should compare the amount of buffer needed to what’s remaining to help assess if the schedule is on track.
Your schedule is not at risk yet, but you should monitor both critical and noncritical path tasks for further delays or variances.
You should use preventive actions to get the project back on track.
If the critical path tasks have variances, your schedule is at risk. You will use corrective actions at this point (not preventive actions) to get the project back on track, such as adjusting the amount of buffer. Significant delays to noncritical-path tasks can make them become part of the critical path.
Midway through the delivery of development services, a customer requested that new requirements be incorporated. When asked to submit a change request to modify the terms of the contract, the customer refused and insisted that the changes be implemented at no cost. After multiple discussions, neither party changed their stance on the situation. What technique will the project manager likely use to address this situation?
Conflict management
Inspection
Claims administration
Alternative dispute resolution
Claims administration is a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process. Claims administration involves addressing contested changes between the buyer and seller, which then converts into a claim.
A project manager works with the project team to identify lessons learned. The information captured will then be archived and summarized within the project’s final report. What activity is the project team engaged in?
Conducting a project meeting Updating the lessons learned register Capturing work performance information Administrative closure
Administrative closure
The project team is performing administrative closure activities associated with the Close Project or Phase process. While information captured will be added to the lessons learned register, administrative closure is a broader choice that captures additional activities noted in the question, such as archiving information and creating the final report.
Which of the following describes who is responsible for the quality assurance of the project?
Project manager and project team members Project team members, project manager, and stakeholders Project manager Stakeholders
The project team members, project manager, and the stakeholders are all equally responsible for the quality assurance of the project.
A project manager for a software development project has collected the work performance data and used the requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix to generate the work performance information regarding variances in the project work compared to the baseline. What process is the project manager performing?
Validate Scope Control Scope Direct and Manage Project Work Manage Quality
To answer this question correctly, it is important to understand how work performance data is transformed into work performance information. Work performance data is produced as a result of project execution. The work performance data can then be analyzed during various controlling processes to produce work performance information (see the image below). Work performance information is only produced as an output during the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. In this scenario, the question suggests that a variance analysis has been performed using work performance data in order to produce work performance information. Thus, it can be concluded that the process underway is part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, and the two answer choices representing executing processes can be eliminated.
Both the Validate Scope and Control Scope processes produce work performance information as an output. However, only the Control Scope process uses variance analysis to produce work performance information regarding variances in the project work compared to the scope baseline. Therefore, of the available choices, the project manager must be executing the Control Scope process.
What action can a project manager take if the selected risk response strategy turns out not to be fully effective?
Actively accept the risk
Develop and implement a fallback plan
Update the risk register with the outcome
Document and respond to a secondary risk
A fallback plan, also referred to as a contingency plan, is a risk response strategy that is used when the initial response is not fully effective.
How are quality improvements implemented?
By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action
By submitting a change request and/or implementing a preventive action
By completing quality audits
By completing a quality audit and identifying gaps or shortcomings in the process
By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action
Completing a quality audit may lead you to the conclusion that a change request is needed, but you must submit a change request and/or take corrective action to implement the quality improvement.
The characteristics of project life cycles vary and should be considered when determining which life cycle is the best fit for a project. Match the delivery life cycle approach based on where it falls on the continuum when considering frequency of delivery and degree of change.
Predictive and iterative life cycles tend to have low frequencies of delivery, whereas incremental and agile have a high frequency of finished deliverables; both predictive and incremental experience few changes, while iterative and Agile experience very frequent changes based on customer feedback.
Which of the following project management documents records challenges, problems, realized risks, and opportunities?
Risk register Project documents Issue log Lessons learned register
The lessons learned register, created out of the Manage Project Knowledge process, records information about situations that have occurred within the project, including recording challenges, problems, realized risks and opportunities, and other information relevant for future reference. While “project documents” is a technically accurate answer, “lessons learned register” is a more specific answer.
The project processes are iterative, are results oriented, and interact with each other. Shewhart and Deming developed a concept that reflects this idea. Which of the following is the name of this cycle?
Strategize-Justify-Choose-Execute-Control
Plan-Do-Check-Act
Initiate-Requirements-Execute-Close
Select-Plan-Monitor-Act
The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle was developed by Shewhart and later refined by Deming. It reflects the iterative, results-oriented, and interactive nature of the project process groups.
You are managing a project to develop a new robot for a mining rescue company. You are currently performing a monitoring and controlling project activity, and you have discovered that some of the project work has not been performed according to the plan. If these issues are not fixed before the next customer inspection, your project might be canceled. You have analyzed the situation, and the corrective action will only require a minor adjustment to a configuration element. What should you do first?
Implement the corrective actions
Delay the scheduled customer inspection
Submit a change request
Consult the project sponsor
All of the available answers seem like possible options in this scenario, but the question is specifically asking what you should do ‘first’. Although you have already analyzed the situation and you know what corrective actions are required, you must follow the proper change control procedure. A configuration element is a project artifact that has been placed under configuration control. Any change to a configuration element should be formally controlled and will require a change request. Since the question describes a situation requiring a change to a configuration element, the first thing you should do is submit a change request and have it approved before you can implement the changes.
The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is concerned with which of the following?
- Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project
- Ensuring timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information
- Identifying, combining, unifying, and coordinating the various processes and project management activities
- Ensuring the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully
The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is the only Knowledge Area that has processes across all five process groups. It contains the high-level processes that bring the results of the remaining Knowledge Areas together, unifying and coordinating all project management activities.
Emma is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Several manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Emma needs. She will use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing from among the vendors. Which of the following is true regarding this question?
Emma will include delivery and setup charges as part of the purchase price criterion. Emma must use purchase price alone as the sole criterion for evaluation because multiple vendors are involved. Emma will review the procurement documents and teaming agreements as some of the inputs to this process. Emma will use the advertising tool and technique of this process to let vendors know about this opportunity
When using price alone as a criterion for selection, there should be more than one vendor who can supply the goods or services you are procuring. However, that doesn’t mean you can’t use additional criteria for source selection. You should include costs such as delivery and setup in the purchase price criterion.
Which of the following best describes overall project risk?
The effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty.
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a negative effect on one or more project objectives.
The effect of uncertainty on a project objective, arising from all sources of uncertainty.
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.
According to the PMBOK® Guide, there are two levels of risk: individual project risk and overall project risk. An overall project risk is the effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty.
You work within a team that uses a feature-driven development approach to manage software projects. As the senior project manager on the team, you know from experience the criticality of communication. You often coach other project managers on the various elements of communication, which are incorporated within the models of communication exchange. Which of the following best explains these communication elements?
- The elements of communication include senders, receivers, and messages, and the communication model includes encode, transmit, acknowledge, and feedback/ response.
- The elements of communication include encode, transmit, acknowledge, and feedback/response, and the communication model includes verbal and written.
- The elements of communication include encode, transmit, acknowledge, and feedback/response, and the communication model includes senders, receivers, and messages.
- The elements of communication include senders, receivers, and messages, and the communication model includes verbal and written.
The elements of communication involve senders, receivers, and messages. The communication model, a tool and technique of the Manage Communications process, includes encoding, decoding, acknowledging, and feedback/response. Verbal and written are forms of communication.
Your project has kicked off, and you are beginning a series of overview sessions with key users to determine requirements for a new enterprise resource software implementation. One of your stakeholders is exceptionally contentious and throws obstacles up at every turn. One of the problems she has described does seem to be legitimate. There is an issue with the data from the legacy system that needs to be resolved before moving forward. The PMO you report to practices phase sequencing and requires closure of each phase before the next phase can begin. What is this process called?
Phase exit Stage review Gate exit Phase review
Remember that all questions on the exam will refer to specific terminology used in the PMBOK® Guide – Sixth Edition. Although the other options presented may seem correct, the PMBOK® Guide calls this process by any of these names: stage gates, phase reviews, phase gates, phase exit, or kill points.
A project manager facilitated a meeting with the product manager and project team to discuss the results of the latest iteration. As part of the meeting, the project manager also reviewed the budget consumed to date on the project, highlighting appraisal costs. Which of the following best describes appraisal costs?
Costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met
Costs associated with satisfying customer requirements by creating a product without defects
Costs when things don’t go according to plan
Costs that occur externally, when the customer determines that the requirements have not been met
Appraisal costs are associated with the cost of quality and are the costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met. Inspection and testing are examples of appraisal costs.
You are the project manager for an outdoor concert event scheduled for one year from today. You’re working on the procurement documents for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You’ve decided to contract with a professional services company that specializes in writing custom software programs. You want to minimize the risk to the organization and want a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price. You have agreed to pay the vendor a bonus if they complete the program at least 30 days earlier than scheduled, so you’ll opt for which contract type?
CPIF CPFF FFP FPIF
Fixed-price incentive fee contracts are the best option when you need a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price and are including a bonus or incentive for early completion or exceeding expectations.
Which quality theorist is responsible for the theory that promotes doing it right the first time?
W. Edwards Deming Joseph Juran Philip Crosby Walter Shewhart
Philip Crosby is the quality theorist behind the Zero Defects practice, which promotes doing it right the first time.
A sponsor meets with the project manager to better understand when the team will complete the project. The project manager notes that the team is completing an average of 40 story points per sprint, and as a result, they would complete the project within five iterations. She shows the sponsor a chart that reflects the projection and includes a date for each iteration. What chart is the project manager and sponsor reviewing?
Gantt chart Burndown chart Burnup chart Velocity chart
Velocity refers to the total story points that the team is completing on average per iteration. Velocity allows the team to forecast the rate at which they are burning down the work of the project. A velocity chart shows the sum of the estimates of work delivered across all iterations.
The project manager is trying to get sign off for a series of marketing materials. The work is rejected by the stakeholders responsible for sign off because of incorrect use of marketing standards. What should the project manager do before sending materials to the stakeholders again?
Validate the scope before performing quality control Validate scope before communicating the project status Perform quality control checks before validating the scope Create a work breakdown structure before validating the scope
The scenario involves two processes: the Validate Scope process and the Control Quality process. The two processes are “linked” by verified deliverables. Verified deliverables are an output from the Control Quality process and an input into the Validate Scope process. The Control Quality process ensures the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. The Validate Scope process formally accepts the completed project deliverables and results in accepted deliverables as its output. In the scenario, the work is being validated by the stakeholders, but there are quality concerns noted by the incorrect use of standards. Ideally, the Control Quality process should be completed before the scope can be validated. It is unclear from the scenario whether or not this process has been carried out at all. Regardless, now, when the issues have been found during scope validation, it is essential that before repeating the Validate Scope process for this work, the project manager and the project team conduct the Control Quality process to ensure correctness and proper adherence to the marketing quality standards. Then the scope can be validated based on both correctness and completeness.
You are managing the development of a new blood pressure cuff for a customer who provided you with the objectives and description of the cuff. You and your team are decomposing the customer’s high-level requirements to the level of detail needed to design the blood pressure cuff and therefore define the scope of the product. In what activity are you involved?
Define Activities Create WBS Product analysis Technical performance analysis
The scenario implies you are in the Define Scope process. Product analysis is among the tools and techniques of this process and can be used to define products and services. By asking questions about a product and forming answers to those questions, a description of the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects can be determined about the product that is going to be delivered. In product analysis, requirements are captured at a high level and decomposed to the level of detail needed to design the final product which is what described by the scenario, making product analysis the best answer to the question asked. Examples of product analysis techniques include product breakdown, requirements analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, value analysis, and value engineering.
You are the director of the PMO for your organization. Terri, an employee from another department, has approached you about a new project that is being talked about in her department. Terri would like the opportunity to head up this project and wants to convince you of her knowledge of project management and that she can do this job. Terri’s objective statement for the project says the following: “Convert all our distribution centers in the United States to radio frequency identification (RFID) tags. This new technology will improve inventory management by giving us a real-time view of demand for the products we sell. It will also help reduce theft and reduce stock-outs. The electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed. This new technology will require the installation of readers at each warehouse gate.” Which of the following statements are correct regarding Terri’s objective statement? Select 3
Objectives describe what it is the project is trying to produce or accomplish, and requirements are specifications of the objective or deliverable.
This statement describes the objectives of the project adequately; however, requirements have been added into the statement.
This statement describes an overview of the project, but it cannot be considered an objective statement because it’s missing some important elements.
Requirements have been mixed into the statement Terri wrote. One of the requirements in this statement is that “electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed.”
This statement does describe some objectives but not adequately. Objectives are quantifiable criteria used to measure project success and should include schedule, cost, and quality metrics. There are no measures of time, cost, or quality mentioned in this statement. Requirements describe the specifications of the objectives and typically wouldn’t be mixed into an objective statement. The objective should be clear and concise.
Brad works as a project manager for a prominent law firm. His latest project involves an office move that will accommodate a 10 percent growth in staff over the next two years. Because of an unexpected increase in infrastructure costs, he calculates that he will be $2,000 over budget. What document can Brad reference to determine whether this falls within the allowable threshold for budget overages?
Cost baseline Project funding requirements Cost management plan Contingency reserve
The cost management plan contains the approved approach for determining the budget, managing it, and controlling it. It also captures additional key details, such as the rules of performance measurement, control thresholds, units of measure and levels of precision used, and so on.
Match the quality theorist with the theory they are responsible for.
W. Edwards Deming
Joseph Juran
Philip Crosby
Walter Shewhart
Philip Crosby is the quality theorist behind the Zero Defects practice, which promotes doing it right the first time;
Joseph Juran popularized the Pareto Principle, also referred to as the 80/20 principle;
W. Edwards Deming popularized the Shewhart Cycle, which he evolved into the Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle.
Walter Shewhart is considered to be the grandfather of TQM; he developed statistical tools to examine when a corrective action must be applied to a process.
A risk manager convened with the project manager to discuss the progress of the project. The risk manager shared concerns about feedback received regarding the low likelihood that the team would achieve their go-live date successfully. What activity is the project manager likely to perform next?
Submit a change request in the form of preventive action.
Work with the risk manager to apply immediate changes to the plan.
Nothing, since a new issue or risk has not been officially raised.
Submit a change request in the form of corrective action.
Since an issue has not occurred as of yet, the project manager is likely to take preventive actions. Preventive actions are submitted through a change request, which is then evaluated and dispositioned through the project’s change control board.
Managing quality is sometimes called what
Quality assurance
Quality adherence
Quality management
Plan-Do-Check-Act
Quality assurance
A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subjectmatter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome?
Make-or-buy analysis Market research Advertising Source selection analysis
Make-or-buy analysis
Marysil is an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire. To date, she has identified risks, analyzed them, and developed risk responses for her project. Now, she and the team are executing the work and responding to risk triggers. What project management artifact will they need?
Contingency plan Risk report Fallback plan Risk register
Risk register
The risk register contains the list of identified risks and all information documented about them, including the risk response plans. As risk triggers occur, they will need to refer to the risk register for information about the risk response plans.
Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and is the project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss resource utilization on the project. He expresses concern after recently hearing that resources have been unavailable as planned. Sally admits that this has been the case and that it has set the project back unexpectedly. What action should Sally take to remedy the situation?
Procure additional resources to take the place of those who became unavailable after the project work began. Perform data analysis to determine what corrective action may be taken to get back on track with the plan. Talk to the functional managers to ensure the unavailable resources receive poor performance reviews. Review the schedule to identify what resource gaps currently exist within the project.
When performing activities relating to controlling resources, data analysis may be used to evaluate what alternatives exist to completing activities with resources, such as alternate resources. Data analysis also includes performing cost-benefit analysis, performance reviews, and trend analysis
Alyssa is a project manager tasked with managing an infrastructure project that will consolidate five data centers into one. She is currently facilitating the estimating process to calculate the duration of the project’s activities. Alyssa knows that she has reliable information and is therefore planning on using an estimating technique that will yield a highly accurate estimate with minimal effort expended. What estimating technique is she planning on using?
Top-down estimating Three-point estimating Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating
Parametric estimating is a quantitatively based estimating method that multiplies the quantity of work by the rate or uses an algorithm in conjunction with historical data to determine cost, budget, or duration estimates. When the information is reliable, it yields an estimate that is high in accuracy.
Nicolas is the project manager of a project that has been described as revolutionizing the mobile fitness tracking industry. He recently finalized and published the scope. A key subject-matter expert on his team asks to see the list of acceptance criteria. What document will Nicolas reference to get this information?
Business case Scope management plan Project scope statement Requirements documentation
The project scope statement contains the project scope description, project deliverables, acceptance criteria, and project exclusions
Change-driven life cycles are also known by what other name?
Predictive life cycle Plan-driven life cycle Adaptive life cycle Hybrid life cycle
Adaptive life cycle
David is a project manager working for a prominent book publishing company. As part of his latest project, he uses an approach that yields frequent smaller deliverables throughout the span of the project. What type of project life cycle is David using?
Waterfall
Incremental
Predictive
Agile
Incremental
Incremental life cycles focus on speed of delivery as an optimization method. In this type of life cycle, the project yields frequent smaller deliverables to avoid waiting for everything to be completed before a solution exists. In other words, a subset of the overall solution becomes available sooner.
You use a predictive approach to managing projects and have just completed your cost baseline. Next, you begin working on determining funding requirements. Which of the following is true?
Funding requirements are derived from the activity costs. Management reserves are the difference between the funding requirements and the cost baseline. The management reserve is released in a lump sum at the beginning of the project. Funding requirements are an output of the Estimate Costs process.
Management reserves are the difference between the funding requirements and the cost baseline.
A project manager is performing closing activities and is getting ready to release project resources. What document can they reference for guidance on how resources are to be released?
Project documents
Project schedule
Project management plan
Release plan
The project management plan contains the resource management plan, which addresses how resources will be obtained, managed, and released.
You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. One of your stakeholders requests a change to the product scope description. The stakeholder has filled out a change request form indicating that the change affects the project scope and that it’s essential for a successful project. The change request is approved, and the project scope statement is updated to reflect this change. Which of the following statements are true? Select 3
Change requests are evaluated against the project scope statement, and if a change request is outside the bounds of the original project scope, the change should be denied.
Product analysis converts the product description and objectives into deliverables and requirements.
The product scope description, which is also a component of the project charter, is used to define the project’s scope.
The project scope statement directs the project team’s work and is the basis for future project decisions.
- Change requests are evaluated against the project scope statement, and if a change request is outside the bounds of the original project scope, the change should be denied.
- Product analysis converts the product description and objectives into deliverables and requirements.
- The project scope statement directs the project team’s work and is the basis for future project decisions.
Contract phases are closely related to the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area processes. Which of the following are true? Select 3
- Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process.
- The requisition stage, where responses to procurement documents are reviewed, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
- The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process.
- The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process.
The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process.
The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
A project manager performing Closing activities is currently focused on addressing the highest business value items first. What life cycle is she using to deliver her project?
Highly predictive
Waterfall
Highly adaptive
Adaptive
Highly adaptive
The project manager is using a highly adaptive (Agile) life cycle, where Closing activities involve addressing the highest business value items first versus closing out the project or phase as in a highly predictive life cycle
You are part of the project team designing a new type of subway car. You have completed the last work package for the braking system; however, you are not sure what the acceptance criteria are for this particular work package. Where can you find that information?
The project management plan The requirements documentation The project scope statement The WBS dictionary
The WBS dictionary
A work package is the lowest level of the WBS and typically provides a brief description of the work to be completed by this work package. The WBS dictionary supports the WBS by including more detailed information for each WBS work package or other WBS components. The WBS dictionary is an output of the Create WBS process and provides information such as the description of work, schedule milestones, quality requirements, and acceptance criteria for each work package. Therefore, if you are not sure of the acceptance criteria for the work package you just completed, you should look for that information at the WBS dictionary.
Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them.
Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them.
Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management
Project Stakeholder Management
Contains the activities to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project
Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management
Project Resource Management
Contains the activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the various process groups
Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management
Project Integration Management
Contains the activities required to manage the timely completion of the project
Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management
Project Schedule Management
Contains the activities necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team
Project Resource Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Schedule Management Project Procurement Management
Project Procurement Management
Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss the current budget estimate. Roshoud expresses his concerns to Sally over the budget being far greater than originally anticipated and asks her to course-correct. What produces the greatest expense on most projects?
Vendors Resources Materials Travel
The greatest expense for most projects is resources, both human and material and supplies.
While carrying out the Monitor and Control Project Work process, a project manager analyzes performance data to determine whether any corrective or preventive action is needed. Which of the following is a valid input that can assist the project manager in performing this activity?
Work performance information Variance analysis Expert judgment Work performance data
Work performance information
Work performance information is a key input that the project manager needs to evaluate performance against the plan (another key input in and of itself). Work performance data, on the other hand, represents raw data that is used in executing the work; it later becomes information as it is analyzed against baselines through other processes that belong to the Monitoring and Controlling process group. The remaining two options are tools and techniques of the process, not inputs.
A project manager has just closed out a procurement, which produced the final deliverable of the project. What is the project manager likely to do next?
Release the remaining project resources
Finalize any open claims
Celebrate
Perform administrative closure
Perform administrative closure
Since the scenario outlined that the final deliverable of the project was completed, it implies that closing activities would follow. Administrative closure, which occurs as part of the Close Project or Phase process, consists of activities such as ensuring that exit criteria have been met and contractual agreements were properly closed out, measuring stakeholder satisfaction, and ensuring that ongoing operational or sustainment activities are transferred to operations.
Roshoud is serving as the project sponsor for a high-visibility project within the Galactic Kidz corporation. During a weekly executive status meeting, he expresses concern regarding quality assurance and requests an update. Quality assurance is most concerned with what?
Documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards
Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality management activities to assess project performance
Identifying quality requirements and/or standards of the project and its deliverables
Using processes effectively and assuring stakeholders that the end result will meet their needs
According to the PMBOK® Guide, quality assurance is most concerned with using project processes effectively. This includes assuring stakeholders that the end result of the project will meet their needs and expectations.
Phase endings are characterized by which of the following?
Deliverables quality analysis and written sign-off
Deliverables review and written sign-off
Completion, quality analysis, and approval of deliverables
Completion, review, and approval of deliverables
Phase endings are characterized by the completion, review, and approval of a deliverable.
A new project manager is brought on the project. She wants to understand the process by which this particular project formally accepts deliverables. Which of the following will she have to reference?
The scope management plan
The requirements management plan
The quality management plan
The stakeholder management plan
The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that contains information and guidance on how the scope and the scope-related processes are to be managed. What is included varies, but should contain procedures and processes specifying how the formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained. Acceptance of project deliverables is influenced by other project management plans, such as the stakeholder management plan and the quality management plan. Nevertheless, the scope management plan is what specifies the process most directly.
You are working on the risk management plan for your current project and need to document how the risk activities will be recorded for the benefit of future projects. Which part of the risk management plan addresses these issues?
Tracking Reporting format Lessons learned Thresholds
Tracking
You have devised some proposal evaluation criteria based on past performance, contract compliance, and quality ratings to select a seller. Your organization has used two of the three vendors that bid on this project on previous projects, so you are comfortable using whichever one is selected. Which of the following is one of the most important criteria in evaluating the responses to your proposal?
Predefined performance criteria or a set of defined minimum requirements
Determining whether the vendor has a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do
The financial records of the potential vendor to determine their fiscal ability to perform the services
Information about the seller such as past performance, delivery, contract compliance, and quality ratings
One of the most important criteria for evaluating sellers is to determine whether they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do or perform. Information such as past performance, financial records, and predetermined performance criteria are also important, but only after you are sure they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do.
You are a project manager working on manufacturing a new product. The operational process is very detailed. One of the components of the product must measure 1 centimeter by 1 centimeter. Reliability is measured using a machine that samples one part in every hundred to assure the measurements are correct. Which of the following does this question describe?
This is statistical sampling, which is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process. This is a prevention cost, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This describes a quality audit, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process. This describes a quality baseline, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process
Statistical sampling involves taking a sample number of parts from the whole population and inspecting them to determine whether they fall within acceptable variances.
A visual representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox
Burndown chart
A visual representation of the work completed toward the release of a produc
Burnup charts
When is a project considered successful?
When the project budget is consumed and the schedule milestones are achieved
When the project budget is consumed, the scope is developed, and the schedule milestones are achieved
When project benefits are realized and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met
When objectives are achieved and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met
When objectives are achieved and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met
A project manager has just wrapped up a successful project in an environment that uses a streamlined hybrid approach to project delivery. Who is responsible for writing the project’s final report?
Project sponsor
All stakeholders
Project manager
Executive sponsor
The project manager is typically responsible for authoring the final report. The project’s final report contains a summary of what occurred on the project and may include information on scope, cost, schedule/burn down of work, risk, and quality outcomes.
You are a project manager working in an organization that is considered to be a weak matrix organizational type. You are two months into a four-month project when the functional manager for half of your most critical resources announces that she will be reallocating them to another project. You explain to her that this will result in early closure of your project and that resources should not be redirected. If the functional manager succeeds in reallocating the resources, what type of ending will the project experience?
Addition Integration Starvation Extinction
Integration occurs when the resources of the project are distributed to other areas in the organization or are assigned to other projects. In this case, the functional manager is reassigning resources to another project.
Which of the following statements best describes the product scope?
The work performed to deliver a product, service, or results with the specified features and functions A description of the behaviors of the product, including actions and interactions that the product should execute The features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole and the reasons why a project has been undertaken
The product scope defines the features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project.
With the start of project execution, a project manager needs to acquire the development team. However, the project sponsor indicates that of those developers who were planned for the project, one is unavailable as she is currently completing another project. What should the project manager do to understand the proposed team member’s future availability?
Contact the team member's functional manager Look at the project documents Review the resource requirements Examine the resource breakdown structure
The scenario implies that the project manager is about to start the Acquire Resources process and needs to understand the availability of the project team members. The project documents include the resource calendars which serve as an input to the Acquire Resources process. A resource calendar identifies the working days, shifts, start and end of normal business hours, weekends, and public holidays when each specific resource is available. Information on which resources are potentially available during a planned activity period is used for estimating resource utilization. Resource calendars also specify when and for how long identified team and physical resources will be available during the project. Of the available choices, looking at the project documents, which includes the resource calendars, provides the best source of information for the project manager about the availability of a particular team member to perform project work.
A project manager is leading the construction of a new office building. The project sponsor asks the project manager to email him a project document that was presented during the last project status meeting. The project sponsor states that he has forgotten the name of the document, but he remembers it contained the description, owner, source, priority, and status of product requirements. Which project document is the project sponsor requesting?
The requirements management plan The requirements traceability matrix The work breakdown structure (WBS) The scope management plan
In this scenario, the project sponsor requested a document that provides specific information about the product requirements of your current project. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverable that satisfy them. Typical attributes used in the requirements traceability matrix may include a unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status, and status date. Additional attributes to ensure that the requirement has met stakeholders’ satisfaction may include stability, complexity, and acceptance criteria.
What do functional requirements describe?
The behaviors of the product The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole The needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group The environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective
The behaviors of the product
You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true? Select 2
- You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose.
- The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part.
- You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project.
- The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award.
The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of carrying out activities associated with planning stakeholder engagement?
To identify project stakeholders regularly and analyze and document relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success
To monitor project stakeholder relationships and tailor strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans
To communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement
To develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project
According to the PMBOK® Guide, the purpose of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process is to develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project. This is the second process of the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area.
Kaylee is a risk manager working in collaboration with Alyssa, a project manager, and both work for a top healthcare company. They currently follow a feature-driven development approach to managing software-based projects. They work together to analyze risk, noting that of the 20 risks identified, 5 are deemed to be low priority. Where will these risks be documented?
The project management plan A watch list The risk management plan The risk report
Low-priority risks are added to a watch list within the risk register, where they will be monitored for possible changes.
A project manager is carrying out activities associated with the Manage Communications process. What result will these activities produce?
Ensuring timely and appropriate collection, distribution, and the ultimate disposition of project information Developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities Communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations Ensuring that the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met
The Manage Communications process is concerned with ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.
Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of what?
Risk register
Risk report
Project documents
Risk management plan
Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of the risk management plan. Other areas covered by the plan include the following: risk-related funding, timing, risk categories, stakeholder risk appetite, definitions of risk probability and impacts, probability and impact matrix, reporting formats, and tracking.
A project manager facilitates the voting process for decision-makers who have convened to review a major deliverable that has been completed. The intent of the meeting is to vote on whether to approve and accept the deliverable. What key input will the committee need to reference to vote?
Work performance information
Verified deliverables
Accepted deliverables
Deliverables
Verified deliverables
The project manager is performing the Validate Scope process in this scenario, where a key output is the accepted deliverables. To accept deliverables, the committee would need to confirm that they have been verified through quality control activities. Verified deliverables is an input of the process.
The project team recently participated in a working session to determine the costs associated with individual activities. To produce a more accurate estimate, they broke each activity down further into smaller chunks. What will this activity yield?
Cost baseline
Basis of estimates
Project budget
Cost estimates
The project team is participating in bottom-up estimating, which will produce activity cost estimates. This activity is associated with the Estimate Costs process. Basis of estimates may also be generated through this session; cost estimates, however, are the primary end outcome of the activity.
A project manager facilitates a meeting with the project team to review an assessment of risks recently completed. During this meeting, they evaluate options for responding to the risks. It is decided that two risks will not receive any action and that they will deal with the consequences at the time of occurrence, should they occur. What type of risk response is this?
Passive acceptance
Avoidance
Mitigation
Active acceptance
There are two types of risk acceptance in which no proactive risk response strategy is selected: passive and active acceptance. Passive acceptance means that no action will be taken other than to periodically monitor the risk.
As part of the process to develop the scope statement for the project you are leading, you specify the deliverables for the project, include the requirements under which the deliverables will be accepted, and explicitly state what is out of project scope. What should you do next?
Describe product scope in the scope statement
Obtain approval of the project scope statement
Include the acceptance criteria in the scope statement
Determine who decides the project is successful
The scenario describes the development of the project scope statement which is an output of the Define Scope process. The project scope statement is the description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. The entire scope, including project and product scope, is documented in the scope statement. The detailed project scope statement includes the following:
Product scope description which progressively elaborates the characteristics of the product, service, or result described in the project charter and requirements documentation.
Deliverables which describe any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.
Acceptance criteria which are a set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
Project exclusions which explicitly identify what is excluded from the project.
The product scope description is missing from the list of details you have included in the scope statement. Therefore, of the available choices, including product scope description, or in other words, describing product scope is what you should do next.
A project manager is performing quantitative risk analysis. What tangible result is likely to be produced?
A priority level for each individual project risk An assessment of overall project risk exposure An assessment of probability and impacts for each individual risk A list of potential risk responses
As part of carrying out the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, updates are made to the risk register. Among the updates are an assessment of overall project risk exposure and detailed probabilistic analysis of the project.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Monitoring and Controlling process group?
Formulating and revising project goals and objectives and creating the project management plan
Bringing the project or phase to a formal, orderly end
Putting the project management plan into action
Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan
Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan
In a pharmaceutical project, human trials are to start soon. The CEO is thrilled about the success of the trials up to this point. She announces that the size of the patient pool for the trials should double from the one originally planned and results tracked in the new system launching this week. What should the project manager do first?
Communicate the change of direction with the stakeholders
Adjust the scope baseline to reflect the increased trial size
Ramp up production to match the demand of the CEO
Consider what might be included in a change request
Managing changes to the project by following the organization’s change control process established for the project is important in keeping the project under control and operating effectively. Changes to scope, like in the scenario of doubling the size of the patient pool as well as tracking the results in the new system, require evaluation, agreement, and approval. Who makes those approvals is up to the project organization and its change management plans. But before any changes are implemented or communicated, the change request must be submitted per the project’s procedure and approved by those authorized to do so. A CEO’s declaration of what should happen in the project does not substitute for the project’s change control procedures and the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Monitoring and Controlling process group?
Select one Mark question
Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan
Formulating and revising project goals and objectives and creating the project management plan
Bringing the project or phase to a formal, orderly end
Putting the project management plan into action
The Monitoring and Controlling process group is where project performance measurements are taken and analyzed to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan.
You are part of the project team designing a new type of subway car. You have completed the last work package for the braking system; however, you are not sure what the acceptance criteria are for this particular work package. Where can you find that information? Select one Mark question The project management plan The WBS dictionary The requirements documentation The project scope statement
A work package is the lowest level of the WBS and typically provides a brief description of the work to be completed by this work package. The WBS dictionary supports the WBS by including more detailed information for each WBS work package or other WBS components. The WBS dictionary is an output of the Create WBS process and provides information such as the description of work, schedule milestones, quality requirements, and acceptance criteria for each work package. Therefore, if you are not sure of the acceptance criteria for the work package you just completed, you should look for that information at the WBS dictionary.
You are working on the communications management plan for your project and have considered the timing and need for updated information by you and your four stakeholders. Your organization has modern, up-to-date technology that your stakeholders and staff have used before, so you anticipate that supplying the information and updates to your stakeholders and team members will be a breeze. Which of the following is true?
Select one Mark question
There are 5 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements.
There are 20 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.
There are 10 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements analysis.
There are 12 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.
There are 10 channels of communication, which is taken into consideration when using the communications requirement analysis tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process. The formula for this is 5(5 - 1) ÷ 2.
Yasmin is the project manager of a project that will produce a new line of widgets for the company. She guides the project team in defining the project requirements in detail before moving into production. Because of compliance requirements that must be met, she maintains a rigid change control process for changing requirements. What method is Yasmin using to manage the project? Select one Mark question Agile Waterfall Iterative Scrum
Yasmin is using a Waterfall approach, which involves a greater level of up-front planning during the early stages of the project life cycle. In this approach, changes to requirements tend to follow a change control process.
Yasmin is the project manager of a project that will produce a new line of widgets for the company. She guides the project team in defining the project requirements in detail before moving into production. Because of compliance requirements that must be met, she maintains a rigid change control process for changing requirements. What method is Yasmin using to manage the project? Select one Mark question Agile Waterfall Iterative Scrum
Yasmin is using a Waterfall approach, which involves a greater level of up-front planning during the early stages of the project life cycle. In this approach, changes to requirements tend to follow a change control process.
You are a project manager with a new company. You started less than 30 days ago. Your boss has told you it’s urgent that resources are obtained and assigned to the project as soon as possible. This is your top priority. In addition, the quality assurance team needs to be assembled. All of the following are true regarding this situation except for which one?
Select one Mark question
Project team members, the project manager, and stakeholders are responsible for the quality assurance of the project.
The project manager will have the greatest impact on quality during this process.
You should follow the Acquire Project Team processes to obtain the new resources.
Quality assurance is generally provided by a third party.
Quality assurance may be provided by a third party from outside the organization, by an internal QA department, or by the project team. There is no general rule that it is generally provided by outside sources. According to the PMBOK® Guide, project managers have the greatest impact on quality during this process.
Marysil is an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire. To date, she has identified risks, analyzed them, and developed risk responses for her project. Now, she and the team are executing the work and responding to risk triggers. What project management artifact will they need? Select one Mark question Contingency plan Fallback plan Risk register Risk report
The risk register contains the list of identified risks and all information documented about them, including the risk response plans. As risk triggers occur, they will need to refer to the risk register for information about the risk response plans.
A project has the highest probability of completing successfully at which stage of the project? Select one Mark question During project initiation During project planning During project closure During project execution
During Closing, a project has the highest probability of completing successfully.
Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and the project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss how they will respond to the risks identified. For one risk in particular, he asks Sally to facilitate the purchase of insurance to protect against a liability. What type of risk response is this? Select one Mark question Mitigate Transfer Share Avoid
Purchasing insurance is an example of the transfer risk response. This involves shifting ownership of a threat to a third party to manage the risk and to own the impact if the threat occurs.
A project manager facilitates the voting process for decision-makers who have convened to review a major deliverable that has been completed. The intent of the meeting is to vote on whether to approve and accept the deliverable. What key input will the committee need to reference to vote? Select one Mark question Verified deliverables Accepted deliverables Work performance information Deliverables
The project manager is performing the Validate Scope process in this scenario, where a key output is the accepted deliverables. To accept deliverables, the committee would need to confirm that they have been verified through quality control activities. Verified deliverables is an input of the process
A project manager is meeting with Sally, the program manager, to review the decomposed deliverables for a new product. Sally reviews the work breakdown structure and requests it to be arranged in the order the work should be performed. Is Sally correct saying that the work breakdown structure should be ordered according to how the work will be performed?
Select one Mark question
Sally is correct. Since she has superiority, the WBS should be ordered the way she wants it to be done.
Sally is correct. When decomposing the work, the order of tasks must be considered.
Sally is wrong. Work is decomposed and sequenced in the Define Activities process.
Sally is wrong. The chronological order of tasks is defined in the Sequence Activities process.
Being able to distinguish the difference between a deliverable and work package from the schedule and activities is required to determine the correct answer. The project manager should inform Sally that the work packages are further decomposed into schedule activities that are then sequenced to obtain the greatest efficiency given all the project’s constraints. The Create WBS process provides a framework of ‘what’ has to be delivered but does not involve sequencing.
Roshoud is the VP of customer operations for Galactic Kidz and is the project sponsor of the latest project, called Project G. He sits down with Sally, the project manager, to discuss resource utilization on the project. He expresses concern after recently hearing that resources have been unavailable as planned. Sally admits that this has been the case and that it has set the project back unexpectedly. What action should Sally take to remedy the situation?
Select one Mark question
Talk to the functional managers to ensure the unavailable resources receive poor performance reviews.
Review the schedule to identify what resource gaps currently exist within the project.
Perform data analysis to determine what corrective action may be taken to get back on track with the plan.
Procure additional resources to take the place of those who became unavailable after the project work began.
When performing activities relating to controlling resources, data analysis may be used to evaluate what alternatives exist to completing activities with resources, such as alternate resources. Data analysis also includes performing cost-benefit analysis, performance reviews, and trend analysis.
A project manager facilitates a meeting to provide updated information regarding the progress of the project. What type of meeting is this? Select one Mark question Planning meeting Status review meeting Risk review meeting Change control meeting
Status review meetings occur throughout the Monitoring and Controlling phase of the project. The purpose of these meetings is to provide stakeholders with updated information on the progress of the project in a formal manner. Attendees may include a variety of predetermined stakeholders, such as the sponsor, project team members, users, or customers.
Grant hesitantly knocks on his project sponsor’s door to notify her of a budget overage that has occurred. Because of a vendor error, he shared that a critical piece of equipment would cost $30,000 more than originally estimated. Fortunately for Grant, the sponsor understood the situation and approved the use of funds set aside for unexpected events. From where will Grant pull the funds to cover the equipment? Select one Mark question Management reserves Funding limit reconciliation Contingency reserves Cost baseline
Management reserves are funds set aside for unexpected situations and are used at the discretion of management (hence the name). Management reserves are not considered to be part of the cost baseline but are part of the overall project budget.
You have devised some proposal evaluation criteria based on past performance, contract compliance, and quality ratings to select a seller. Your organization has used two of the three vendors that bid on this project on previous projects, so you are comfortable using whichever one is selected. Which of the following is one of the most important criteria in evaluating the responses to your proposal?
Select one Mark question
Determining whether the vendor has a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do
Predefined performance criteria or a set of defined minimum requirements
The financial records of the potential vendor to determine their fiscal ability to perform the services
Information about the seller such as past performance, delivery, contract compliance, and quality ratings
One of the most important criteria for evaluating sellers is to determine whether they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do or perform. Information such as past performance, financial records, and predetermined performance criteria are also important, but only after you are sure they have a clear understanding of what you’re asking them to do.
You are assigned to a software development project, and you are conducting a product review with an important client. Although the deliverables were previously verified, the client detects a defect and rejects one of the deliverables. What should you do?
Select one Mark question
Submit a change request to fix the deliverable
Refund the customer for the value of the deliverable
Begin the claims administration process
Ask the project team to repair the defect
The question states that the deliverables have been previously verified implying the Control Quality process has been completed and resulted in verified deliverables as its output. In the scenario described, you are performing the Validate Scope process which is the process of formalizing acceptance of completed and verified project deliverables. One of the tools and techniques associated with this process is an inspection. The inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and validating to determine whether the work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. A product review is an example of an inspection. In this scenario, the client performed a test which exposed a software bug and caused a deliverable to be rejected. Unless stated otherwise in the question text, deliverables are always placed under configuration control. Therefore, an approved change request is required to modify the deliverable and repair the defect. If the individual or group responsible for reviewing change requests believes the deliverable meets the contractual requirements, the change request could be rejected but still might be approved just to avoid a dispute with the client. Therefore, of the available choices, the best course of action is to submit a change request to fix the deliverable.
Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Quality, and Conduct Procurements are processes belonging to what project management process group? Select one Mark question Executing Closing Monitoring and Controlling Planning
Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Quality, and Conduct Procurements are 3 of the 10 processes that make up the Executing process group.
Which of the following methods should you use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty? Select one Mark question Analogous estimating Bottom-up estimating Three-point estimating Expert judgment
Three-point estimating is the technique to use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty.
Using the estimates provided, calculate the beta distribution: most likely estimate (ML) = 72, optimistic estimate (O) = 55, pessimistic estimate (P) = 85. Round to one decimal point. Select one Mark question 70.7 72 71.3 70.0
A beta distribution calculation involves giving a greater weight to the most likely estimate. Simply multiply the most likely estimate by four, add the result with the other two estimates, and divide by six: (4 × (ML) $72 + (O) $55 + (P) $85) ÷ 6 = $71.3.
A project manager works with the project team to identify lessons learned. The information captured will then be archived and summarized within the project’s final report. What activity is the project team engaged in? Select one Mark question Conducting a project meeting Capturing work performance information Updating the lessons learned register Administrative closure
The project team is performing administrative closure activities associated with the Close Project or Phase process. While information captured will be added to the lessons learned register, administrative closure is a broader choice that captures additional activities noted in the question, such as archiving information and creating the final report.
You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true?
Select two Mark question
The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part. You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose. The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award. You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project
The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.
A project manager facilitated a meeting with the product manager and project team to discuss the results of the latest iteration. As part of the meeting, the project manager also reviewed the budget consumed to date on the project, highlighting appraisal costs. Which of the following best describes appraisal costs?
Select one Mark question
Costs associated with satisfying customer requirements by creating a product without defects
Costs that occur externally, when the customer determines that the requirements have not been met
Costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met
Costs when things don’t go according to plan
Appraisal costs are associated with the cost of quality and are the costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met. Inspection and testing are examples of appraisal costs.
Marysil, an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire, is in the process of sequencing activities with her team to develop the project schedule. One team member noted that when the next-generation prototype cup is cauterized, it will need to sit for a period of two days before it can be hand-painted. How will Marysil reflect this within the schedule?
Select one Mark question
By adding a two-day lead between the two activities
By adding a two-day project buffer to the project
By adding a two-day lag between the two activities
By adding a two-day buffer between the two activities
Marysil will need to add a lag between the activities. A lag occurs when time must elapse between two activities, where the delay is added to the successor activity. A lead, on the other hand, speeds up the successor activity.
Which of the following is true?
Select one Mark question
There are five project management process groups, and they are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
There are five project management process groups, and they are Initiating, Planning, Managing, Monitoring, and Closing.
There are 55 project management processes, which can be grouped by process group or Knowledge Area.
There are 10 project management Knowledge Areas, whose processes are performed sequentially.
The PMBOK® Guide describes 49 project management processes that can be grouped in five process groups, which are as follows: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
You are a senior project manager for a company that produces mobile phone applications. In your latest project, you have teamed up with another project manager, who will manage a subset of the project. She tells you that the work packages have been decomposed and milestones captured for her deliverables. Together, you review her list of milestones, the first of which reads “Finish GUI: 30 Days.” What is wrong with this scenario?
Select one Mark question
The project manager is unclear as to the definition of a milestone.
A milestone cannot contain the word GUI.
Two project managers cannot be associated with one project.
Work packages should not be decomposed.
The duration of a milestone is zero, marking a significant point in time—typically the start or completion of a major deliverable. Therefore, “Finish GUI” is not a milestone.
Match the name of the Project Management Knowledge Area with its description
Matching Mark question
Project Stakeholder Management - Contains the activities required to manage the timely completion of the project
Project Resource Management - Contains the activities to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project
Project Schedule Management - Contains the activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the various process groups
Project Procurement Management - Contains the activities necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team
Project Integration Management - Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them
There are a total of 10 Project Management Knowledge Areas. The best indicator of its description is identifying key words that tie it back to the name of the Knowledge Area.
What action can a project manager take if the selected risk response strategy turns out not to be fully effective?
Select one Mark question
Document and respond to a secondary risk
Develop and implement a fallback plan
Update the risk register with the outcome
Actively accept the risk
A fallback plan, also referred to as a contingency plan, is a risk response strategy that is used when the initial response is not fully effective.
What do functional requirements describe?
Select one Mark question
The behaviors of the product
The needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group
The environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective
The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole
Functional requirements describe the behaviors of the product, including actions, processes, data, and interactions that the product should execute.
Julie is a product manager responsible for a line of smart water bottles that connect to a mobile app to capture data and provide suggestions regarding your drinking habits. In preparation for the upcoming sprint, she meets with the team to ensure that stories are clear and appropriately sized. What activity is Julie performing with the team? Select one Mark question Release planning Backlog preparation Backlog refinement Roadmap grooming
Backlog refinement, also referred to as backlog grooming, is where the product owner works with the team to ensure that the stories are prepped and ready for the upcoming iteration. Stories should be clear enough for the team to understand the work, and they should be appropriately sized relative to each other.
The characteristics of project life cycles vary and should be considered when determining which life cycle is the best fit for a project. Match the delivery life cycle approach based on where it falls on the continuum when considering frequency of delivery and degree of change.
Matching Mark question
Incremental - High frequency of delivery and low degree of change
Iterative - Low frequency of delivery and low degree of change
Predictive - Low frequency of delivery and high degree of change
Agile - High frequency of delivery and high degree of chang
Predictive and iterative life cycles tend to have low frequencies of delivery, whereas incremental and agile have a high frequency of finished deliverables; both predictive and incremental experience few changes, while iterative and Agile experience very frequent changes based on customer feedback.
Change-driven life cycles are also known by what other name? Select one Mark question Hybrid life cycle Plan-driven life cycle Adaptive life cycle Predictive life cycle
Change-driven life cycles are also known as Agile or adaptive life cycles.
You are the project manager for a project that will produce a mobile phone application that sends alerts when UV rays are at dangerous levels, alerting users to stay indoors. You are in the process of managing the schedule and use a chart to track the work that remains to be completed within the iteration backlog. What is this chart called? Select one Mark question Iteration chart Velocity chart Iteration burndown chart Scrum chart
An iteration burndown chart is a data analysis tool and technique of the Control Schedule process. This chart is used to track the remaining work to be completed against the backlog.
Match the name of the Project Management Knowledge Area with its description
Matching Mark question
Project Procurement Management - Contains the activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the various process groups
Project Resource Management - Contains the activities to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project
Project Stakeholder Management - Contains the activities necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team
Project Integration Management - Contains the activities required to manage the timely completion of the project
Project Schedule Management - Contains the activities required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze them, and develop strategies for engaging them
There are a total of 10 Project Management Knowledge Areas. The best indicator of its description is identifying key words that tie it back to the name of the Knowledge Area.
You are the project manager for a project that will produce a mobile phone application that sends alerts when the UV rays are at dangerous levels, alerting users to stay indoors. As you move into the final closing stages of the project, you review communications generated for and by stakeholders as a method of analyzing feedback. What document will you reference to review this feedback? Select one Mark question Quality reports Lessons learned register Project communications Change log
Project communications is an input of the Close Project or Phase process as part of project documents. It includes all communications that have been generated throughout the project.
Grant hesitantly knocks on his project sponsor’s door to notify her of a budget overage that has occurred. Because of a vendor error, he shared that a critical piece of equipment would cost $30,000 more than originally estimated. Fortunately for Grant, the sponsor understood the situation and approved the use of funds set aside for unexpected events. From where will Grant pull the funds to cover the equipment? Select one Mark question Cost baseline Management reserves Funding limit reconciliation Contingency reserves
Management reserves are funds set aside for unexpected situations and are used at the discretion of management (hence the name). Management reserves are not considered to be part of the cost baseline but are part of the overall project budget.
A project manager has just closed out a procurement, which produced the final deliverable of the project. What is the project manager likely to do next? Select one Mark question Perform administrative closure Celebrate Finalize any open claims Release the remaining project resources
Since the scenario outlined that the final deliverable of the project was completed, it implies that closing activities would follow. Administrative closure, which occurs as part of the Close Project or Phase process, consists of activities such as ensuring that exit criteria have been met and contractual agreements were properly closed out, measuring stakeholder satisfaction, and ensuring that ongoing operational or sustainment activities are transferred to operations.
A project manager facilitates a meeting to provide updated information regarding the progress of the project. What type of meeting is this? Select one Mark question Status review meeting Planning meeting Risk review meeting Change control meeting
Status review meetings occur throughout the Monitoring and Controlling phase of the project. The purpose of these meetings is to provide stakeholders with updated information on the progress of the project in a formal manner. Attendees may include a variety of predetermined stakeholders, such as the sponsor, project team members, users, or customers.
You are the director of the PMO for your organization. Terri, an employee from another department, has approached you about a new project that is being talked about in her department. Terri would like the opportunity to head up this project and wants to convince you of her knowledge of project management and that she can do this job. Terri’s objective statement for the project says the following: “Convert all our distribution centers in the United States to radio frequency identification (RFID) tags. This new technology will improve inventory management by giving us a real-time view of demand for the products we sell. It will also help reduce theft and reduce stock-outs. The electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed. This new technology will require the installation of readers at each warehouse gate.” Which of the following statements are correct regarding Terri’s objective statement?
Select three Mark question
- Requirements have been mixed into the statement Terri wrote. One of the requirements in this statement is that “electronic identification stored in the tags should be fixed.”
- Objectives describe what it is the project is trying to produce or accomplish, and requirements are specifications of the objective or deliverable.
- This statement describes an overview of the project, but it cannot be considered an objective statement because it’s missing some important elements.
- This statement describes the objectives of the project adequately; however, requirements have been added into the statement.
This statement does describe some objectives but not adequately. Objectives are quantifiable criteria used to measure project success and should include schedule, cost, and quality metrics. There are no measures of time, cost, or quality mentioned in this statement. Requirements describe the specifications of the objectives and typically wouldn’t be mixed into an objective statement. The objective should be clear and concise.
You are the project manager for an outdoor concert event scheduled for one year from today. You’re working on the procurement documents for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You’ve decided to contract with a professional services company that specializes in writing custom software programs. You want to minimize the risk to the organization and want a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price. You have agreed to pay the vendor a bonus if they complete the program at least 30 days earlier than scheduled, so you’ll opt for which contract type? Select one Mark question FFP CPIF CPFF FPIF
Fixed-price incentive fee contracts are the best option when you need a well-defined set of deliverables for a set price and are including a bonus or incentive for early completion or exceeding expectations.
Which of the following represents a definitive range of estimates? Select one Mark question -10 percent to +10 percent -25 percent to +75 percent -50 percent to +50 percent -5 percent to +10 percent
According to the PMBOK® Guide, a definitive range of estimates is -5 percent to +10 percent.
Which of the following methods should you use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty? Select one Mark question Expert judgment Bottom-up estimating Three-point estimating Analogous estimating
Three-point estimating is the technique to use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty.
You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises using a hybrid model to manage projects. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. The project objectives should include which of the following?
Select one Mark question
A description of the business need that brought about this project
A brief summary of the product description, including measurable, quantifiable product requirements that will help measure project success
Quantifiable criteria, including elements such as cost, schedule, and quality measures
Quantifiable criteria derived from value engineering, value analysis, or function analysis
The project objectives should include quantifiable criteria that can be used to help measure project success. Project objectives should include schedule, cost, and quality measurements.
Kaylee is a risk manager working in collaboration with Alyssa, a project manager, and both work for a top healthcare company. They currently follow a feature-driven development approach to managing software-based projects. They work together to analyze risk, noting that of the 20 risks identified, 5 are deemed to be low priority. Where will these risks be documented? Select one Mark question The project management plan The risk report The risk management plan A watch list
Low-priority risks are added to a watch list within the risk register, where they will be monitored for possible changes.
The project manager is trying to get sign off for a series of marketing materials. The work is rejected by the stakeholders responsible for sign off because of incorrect use of marketing standards. What should the project manager do before sending materials to the stakeholders again?
Select one Mark question
Validate the scope before performing quality control
Perform quality control checks before validating the scope
Validate scope before communicating the project status
Create a work breakdown structure before validating the scope
The scenario involves two processes: the Validate Scope process and the Control Quality process. The two processes are “linked” by verified deliverables. Verified deliverables are an output from the Control Quality process and an input into the Validate Scope process. The Control Quality process ensures the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. The Validate Scope process formally accepts the completed project deliverables and results in accepted deliverables as its output. In the scenario, the work is being validated by the stakeholders, but there are quality concerns noted by the incorrect use of standards. Ideally, the Control Quality process should be completed before the scope can be validated. It is unclear from the scenario whether or not this process has been carried out at all. Regardless, now, when the issues have been found during scope validation, it is essential that before repeating the Validate Scope process for this work, the project manager and the project team conduct the Control Quality process to ensure correctness and proper adherence to the marketing quality standards. Then the scope can be validated based on both correctness and completeness.
All of the following are true statements except for which one?
Select one Mark question
Daily stand-ups are used to ensure work is progressing well.
Daily stand-ups are a critical component of planning.
Daily stand-ups are used to uncover problems.
Daily stand-ups last no more than 15 minutes.
The purpose of the daily stand-up meetings, one of three key meetings used within Scrum, is not planning. Instead, daily stand-up meetings are used to uncover any obstacles to committed work and as a way to ensure that work is progressing smoothly.
You are managing the development of a new blood pressure cuff for a customer who provided you with the objectives and description of the cuff. You and your team are decomposing the customer's high-level requirements to the level of detail needed to design the blood pressure cuff and therefore define the scope of the product. In what activity are you involved? Select one Mark question Technical performance analysis Create WBS Product analysis Define Activities
The scenario implies you are in the Define Scope process. Product analysis is among the tools and techniques of this process and can be used to define products and services. By asking questions about a product and forming answers to those questions, a description of the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects can be determined about the product that is going to be delivered. In product analysis, requirements are captured at a high level and decomposed to the level of detail needed to design the final product which is what described by the scenario, making product analysis the best answer to the question asked. Examples of product analysis techniques include product breakdown, requirements analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, value analysis, and value engineering.
Which of the following project management Knowledge Areas involve every team member and stakeholder on the project? Select one Mark question Project Quality Management Project Resource Management Project Communications Management Project Scope Management
Project Communications Management involves every member of the project team, including all the stakeholders. Everyone involved in the project will send or receive project information or both. Project Resources involve all the human and physical resources assigned to the work of the project. Although all the folks working on the project are involved, only the project manager and perhaps a few others are involved in performing the processes within this Knowledge Area.
Midway through the delivery of development services, a customer requested that new requirements be incorporated. When asked to submit a change request to modify the terms of the contract, the customer refused and insisted that the changes be implemented at no cost. After multiple discussions, neither party changed their stance on the situation. What technique will the project manager likely use to address this situation? Select one Mark question Alternative dispute resolution Claims administration Inspection Conflict management
Claims administration is a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process. Claims administration involves addressing contested changes between the buyer and seller, which then converts into a claim.
Which of the following statements best describes the product scope?
Select one Mark question
The work performed to deliver a product, service, or results with the specified features and functions
The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole and the reasons why a project has been undertaken
A description of the behaviors of the product, including actions and interactions that the product should execute
The features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project
The product scope defines the features and characteristics that describe the product, service, or result of the project.
A project manager meets with the team to discuss how they will measure budget performance moving forward. What activity is the team engaged in? Select one Mark question Taking corrective action Developing the cost management plan Evaluating performance Developing the project budget
The project manager is putting together the cost management plan, which is an activity carried out through the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan documents the rules of performance measurement, level of precision and accuracy, units of measure, organizational procedures links, control thresholds, reporting formats, process descriptions, and other budget-related details necessary to develop, manage, and control the budget.
In a pharmaceutical project, human trials are to start soon. The CEO is thrilled about the success of the trials up to this point. She announces that the size of the patient pool for the trials should double from the one originally planned and results tracked in the new system launching this week. What should the project manager do first?
Select one Mark question
Adjust the scope baseline to reflect the increased trial size
Consider what might be included in a change request
Communicate the change of direction with the stakeholders
Ramp up production to match the demand of the CEO
Managing changes to the project by following the organization’s change control process established for the project is important in keeping the project under control and operating effectively. Changes to scope, like in the scenario of doubling the size of the patient pool as well as tracking the results in the new system, require evaluation, agreement, and approval. Who makes those approvals is up to the project organization and its change management plans. But before any changes are implemented or communicated, the change request must be submitted per the project’s procedure and approved by those authorized to do so. A CEO’s declaration of what should happen in the project does not substitute for the project’s change control procedures and the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
You are a project manager working on manufacturing a new product. The operational process is very detailed. One of the components of the product must measure 1 centimeter by 1 centimeter. Reliability is measured using a machine that samples one part in every hundred to assure the measurements are correct. Which of the following does this question describe?
Select one Mark question
This is statistical sampling, which is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process.
This is a prevention cost, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process.
This describes a quality audit, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process.
This describes a quality baseline, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process.
Statistical sampling involves taking a sample number of parts from the whole population and inspecting them to determine whether they fall within acceptable variances.
You use a predictive approach to managing projects and have just completed your cost baseline. Next, you begin working on determining funding requirements. Which of the following is true?
Select one Mark question
Funding requirements are an output of the Estimate Costs process.
Management reserves are the difference between the funding requirements and the cost baseline.
Funding requirements are derived from the activity costs.
The management reserve is released in a lump sum at the beginning of the project.
The funding requirements are derived from the cost baseline. Management reserve is released in increments throughout the project, and the funding requirements are an output of the Determine Budget process.
Emma is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Several manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Emma needs. She will use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing from among the vendors. Which of the following is true regarding this question?
Select one Mark question
Emma will include delivery and setup charges as part of the purchase price criterion.
Emma must use purchase price alone as the sole criterion for evaluation because multiple vendors are involved.
Emma will use the advertising tool and technique of this process to let vendors know about this opportunity.
Emma will review the procurement documents and teaming agreements as some of the inputs to this process.
When using price alone as a criterion for selection, there should be more than one vendor who can supply the goods or services you are procuring. However, that doesn’t mean you can’t use additional criteria for source selection. You should include costs such as delivery and setup in the purchase price criterion.
Which of the following estimate ranges represents a rough order of magnitude? Select one Mark question -25 percent to + 75 percent -50 percent to + 50 percent -5 percent to + 10 percent -10 percent to + 25 percent
A rough order of magnitude ranges from –25 percent to +75 percent, whereas a definitive range spans –5 percent to +10 percent.
The project team recently participated in a working session to determine the costs associated with individual activities. To produce a more accurate estimate, they broke each activity down further into smaller chunks. What will this activity yield? Select one Mark question Project budget Cost baseline Cost estimates Basis of estimates
The project team is participating in bottom-up estimating, which will produce activity cost estimates. This activity is associated with the Estimate Costs process. Basis of estimates may also be generated through this session; cost estimates, however, are the primary end outcome of the activity.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Monitoring and Controlling process group?
Select one Mark question
Measuring and analyzing project performance to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan
Bringing the project or phase to a formal, orderly end
Formulating and revising project goals and objectives and creating the project management plan
Putting the project management plan into action
The Monitoring and Controlling process group is where project performance measurements are taken and analyzed to determine whether the project is progressing according to the plan.
You are a project manager for Community Trends, a nonprofit organization. Your project has come about because of a social need. You’re calculating performance measurements and using actual costs to date, and you assume that ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate. You know the following information: BAC = 900, ETC = 65, PV = 500, EV = 475, and AC = 425. Which of the following is the correct expected total cost at completion, given this situation? Select one Mark question 850 379 875 804
Since EAC is based on actual costs to date and assuming ETC work will be completed at the budgeted rate, the equation to use for EAC is EAC = AC + (BAC – EV). In this case, your formula looks like this: $425 + ($900 – $475) = $850.
Reasons to Lyv is the top customer of a large marketing firm. Trudy is the president of Reasons to Lyv and has decided to launch a product that leverages new GPS tracking technology. She sits down with Roy, the project manager on the project, to review and evaluate whether a sufficient amount of funds remains to address known risks. What activity are they performing? Select one Mark question Technical performance analysis Risk review Reserve analysis Audit
Reserve analysis is a data analysis technique of the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis compares the amount of contingency reserve remaining to address the risk that remains. Contingency reserves (used to deal with known risks) are considered part of the project budget, while management reserves (used to deal with unknown risks) are not.
You are working on the communications management plan for your project and have considered the timing and need for updated information by you and your four stakeholders. Your organization has modern, up-to-date technology that your stakeholders and staff have used before, so you anticipate that supplying the information and updates to your stakeholders and team members will be a breeze. Which of the following is true?
Select one Mark question
There are 10 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements analysis.
There are 12 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.
There are 5 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements.
There are 20 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.
There are 10 channels of communication, which is taken into consideration when using the communications requirement analysis tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process. The formula for this is 5(5 - 1) ÷ 2.
Kaylee is a risk manager working in collaboration with Alyssa, a project manager, and both work for a top healthcare company. They partner to facilitate a session to determine how the project team can best exploit an opportunity that was recently identified. Kaylee and Alyssa are performing activities associated with what project management Knowledge Area? Select one Mark question Project Scope Management Project Integration Management Project Procurement Management Project Risk Management
The question describes activities associated with risk management. Kaylee and Alyssa are determining how best to address a positive risk (opportunity) that has been identified.
While carrying out the Monitor and Control Project Work process, a project manager analyzes performance data to determine whether any corrective or preventive action is needed. Which of the following is a valid input that can assist the project manager in performing this activity? Select one Mark question Variance analysis Work performance information Work performance data Expert judgment
Work performance information is a key input that the project manager needs to evaluate performance against the plan (another key input in and of itself). Work performance data, on the other hand, represents raw data that is used in executing the work; it later becomes information as it is analyzed against baselines through other processes that belong to the Monitoring and Controlling process group. The remaining two options are tools and techniques of the process, not inputs.
A project manager is working with a risk manager to prioritize individual project risks. What project management process is associated with this activity? Select one Mark question Plan Risk Management Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis Identify Risks Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
The purpose of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is to prioritize individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics.
Alyssa is a project manager tasked with managing an infrastructure project that will consolidate five data centers into one. She is currently facilitating the estimating process to calculate the duration of the project’s activities. Alyssa knows that she has reliable information and is therefore planning on using an estimating technique that will yield a highly accurate estimate with minimal effort expended. What estimating technique is she planning on using? Select one Mark question Bottom-up estimating Top-down estimating Parametric estimating Three-point estimating
Parametric estimating is a quantitatively based estimating method that multiplies the quantity of work by the rate or uses an algorithm in conjunction with historical data to determine cost, budget, or duration estimates. When the information is reliable, it yields an estimate that is high in accuracy.
The project processes are iterative, are results oriented, and interact with each other. Shewhart and Deming developed a concept that reflects this idea. Which of the following is the name of this cycle?
Select one Mark question
Select-Plan-Monitor-Act
Strategize-Justify-Choose-Execute-Control
Initiate-Requirements-Execute-Close
Plan-Do-Check-Act
The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle was developed by Shewhart and later refined by Deming. It reflects the iterative, results-oriented, and interactive nature of the project process groups.
Earned value analysis, iteration burndown chart, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis are all types of what?
Select one Mark question
Data representation tools and techniques
Schedule compression tools and techniques
Project management information systems
Data analysis tools and techniques
Data analysis is a tool and technique of multiple project management processes, including the Control Schedule process, where it encompasses the use of earned value analysis, iteration burndown charts, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis.
You’ve taken over a project that’s currently in trouble. You’ve held a meeting with the key stakeholders to demonstrate the new product prototype. They came prepared with the product requirements and upon inspection inform you that this prototype is not what the customer specified. Your boss instructs you to get the prototype corrected and make it match the requirements the customer specified before holding a demo with the customer. She also warns you to take a look at the work of the project. She’s concerned that things aren’t happening as planned and that the last project manager was not paying close enough attention to the project plan. Corrections might be needed. What Knowledge Area does this describe? Select one Mark question Project Integration Management Project Scope Management Project Schedule Management Project Risk Management
Project Scope Management is concerned with product scope and project scope. Product scope is concerned with the characteristics of the product or service of the project and is measured against the project requirements. Project scope is concerned with the work of the project and is measured against the project plan.
How are quality improvements implemented?
Select one Mark question
By completing a quality audit and identifying gaps or shortcomings in the process
By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action
By completing quality audits
By submitting a change request and/or implementing a preventive action
Completing a quality audit may lead you to the conclusion that a change request is needed, but you must submit a change request and/or take corrective action to implement the quality improvement.
A small sample of your project’s PERT calculations is shown here. What is the total duration of the project?
Activity Pessimistic 1 2 3 Optimistic 10 20 3 Pessimistic 14 30 3 Likely Expected Value 12 23 3
Select one Mark question 37 38 47 33
To determine the total duration of the project, you add up the expected value for each activity. Note, you calculate expected value only for activities that have zero float.
Which of the following characteristics do all project life cycles share? Select one Mark question Degree of work sequencing Degree of unfinished work Degree of uncertainty Degree of planning
According to the Agile Practice Guide, all project life cycles share the element of planning. What differs across predictive, iterative, incremental, and Agile life cycles is the degree to which planning is done, and when.
Using the earned-value analysis technique, a project manager calculates a schedule performance index of 0.75 and a cost performance index of 1.25. To bring the schedule back on track, the project manager decides to allocate additional resources to critical activities in order to complete them faster. What technique are they using to control the schedule? Select one Mark question Crashing Leads and lags Resource optimization Fast tracking
Schedule compression uses fast-tracking or crashing compression techniques to bring delayed activities back in line with the plan. Allocating additional resources to critical activities describes the crashing technique; fast-tracking is where you complete two activities in parallel in order to complete the work faster.
You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true?
Select two Mark question
The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award.
You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project.
The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part.
You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose.
The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.
Status review meetings are an important tool for informing stakeholders (and others) of the status of the project. All of the following are true regarding status review meetings except for which one?
Select one Mark question
Face-to-face meetings are more effective for team members than status review meetings because you’ll learn of potential risks and problems more quickly.
Verbally communicating at a status meeting is less complicated and more easily understood than written communication.
They are a form of communication and include verbal and written material.
You might have multiple status review meetings, each intended for different audiences.
Face-to-face meetings are effective, but this statement is not true regarding status review meetings.
A method of managing projects in small, incremental portions of work that can be easily assigned and completed within a short period of time describes what methodology? Select one Mark question Waterfall Lean Agile Iterative
Agile project management is a method of managing projects in small, incremental portions of work that can be easily assigned, easily managed, and completed within a short period of time
Marysil is an enterprise project manager for Cups on Fire. To date, she has identified risks, analyzed them, and developed risk responses for her project. Now, she and the team are executing the work and responding to risk triggers. What project management artifact will they need? Select one Mark question Risk report Risk register Fallback plan Contingency plan
The risk register contains the list of identified risks and all information documented about them, including the risk response plans. As risk triggers occur, they will need to refer to the risk register for information about the risk response plans.
Leticia is a project manager working for Dancing Apron, a company that combines cooking with simple children’s cooking recipes and music. Her latest project involves the release of the company’s first digital product that parents will be able to purchase and download online. Kip, who is the sponsor of the project, asks her to calculate the EAC assuming that the work will be accomplished at the planned rate. Leticia knows that they have spent $15,000 to date of the $20,000 budgeted and that the earned value of the project has already been calculated at $18,000. What is the EAC that she will communicate to Kip? Select one Mark question $17,000 $20,000 $13,000 $15,000
To calculate EAC when the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate, use the following formula: AC + BAC – EV. Plug in the values provided in the question to arrive at the following: $15,000 + $20,000 – $18,000 = $17,000
You are a project manager working in an organization that is considered to be a weak matrix organizational type. You are two months into a four-month project when the functional manager for half of your most critical resources announces that she will be reallocating them to another project. You explain to her that this will result in early closure of your project and that resources should not be redirected. If the functional manager succeeds in reallocating the resources, what type of ending will the project experience? Select one Mark question Integration Starvation Extinction Addition
Integration occurs when the resources of the project are distributed to other areas in the organization or are assigned to other projects. In this case, the functional manager is reassigning resources to another project.
Which quality theorist is responsible for the theory that promotes doing it right the first time? Select one Mark question Philip Crosby W. Edwards Deming Joseph Juran Walter Shewhart
Philip Crosby is the quality theorist behind the Zero Defects practice, which promotes doing it right the first time.
These processes are responsible for distributing information about the project to the stakeholders and satisfying the needs of the stakeholders by managing communications with them, respectively.
Select one Mark question
Information Distribution and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Manage Communications
Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Information Distribution
This question describes the Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement processes, respectively. There is no process called Information Distribution.
Which of the following describes who is responsible for the quality assurance of the project?
Select one Mark question
Project team members, project manager, and stakeholders
Project manager
Stakeholders
Project manager and project team members
The project team members, project manager, and the stakeholders are all equally responsible for the quality assurance of the project.
A short, time-bound period of work is also referred to as which of the following? Select one Mark question Lag Buffer Sprint Lead
Within the Agile methodology, a sprint or iteration refers to a short, time-bound period of work, which always starts with a sprint-planning meeting. It is also known as an iteration.
You work within a project management office, and the new PMO director has adjusted project assignments to accommodate a large strategic project that the company has undertaken. You sit down with the previous project manager of your new project to review stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and the list of project-related meetings. What document will you use to get this information? Select one Mark question Resource management plan Communications management plan Project management plan Stakeholder engagement plan
The best answer is the communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the project management plan. While project management plan is also a correct answer, the communications management plan is a more specific choice and therefore a better answer. Stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and methods for receiving/obtaining information are all elements addressed within the communications management plan.
You work within a project management office, and the new PMO director has adjusted project assignments to accommodate a large strategic project that the company has undertaken. You sit down with the previous project manager of your new project to review stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and the list of project-related meetings. What document will you use to get this information? Select one Mark question Resource management plan Communications management plan Project management plan Stakeholder engagement plan
The best answer is the communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the project management plan. While project management plan is also a correct answer, the communications management plan is a more specific choice and therefore a better answer. Stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and methods for receiving/obtaining information are all elements addressed within the communications management plan.
The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is concerned with which of the following?
Select one Mark question
Ensuring the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully
Identifying, combining, unifying, and coordinating the various processes and project management activities
Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project
Ensuring timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information
The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is the only Knowledge Area that has processes across all five process groups. It contains the high-level processes that bring the results of the remaining Knowledge Areas together, unifying and coordinating all project management activities.
As part of kicking off a project, the product manager meets with the project team to review the team charter and establish team norms. The product manager also stresses the importance of quality and sets the expectation that it will be integrated into every iteration. Managing quality is sometimes called what? Select one Mark question Plan-Do-Check-Act Quality assurance Quality adherence Quality management
Managing quality is sometimes referred to as quality assurance. Manage Quality is a process within the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the term manage quality is meant to encompass a broader meaning, including representing nonproject work.
Contract phases are closely related to the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area processes. Which of the following are true?
Select three Mark question
The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process.
The requisition stage, where responses to procurement documents are reviewed, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process.
The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
The requisition stage is where the procurement documents are prepared (not the responses to them) and is associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. The two outputs that become inputs are procurement documentation and source selection criteria.
You are assigned to a software development project, and you are conducting a product review with an important client. Although the deliverables were previously verified, the client detects a defect and rejects one of the deliverables. What should you do?
Select one Mark question
Refund the customer for the value of the deliverable
Submit a change request to fix the deliverable
Begin the claims administration process
Ask the project team to repair the defect
The question states that the deliverables have been previously verified implying the Control Quality process has been completed and resulted in verified deliverables as its output. In the scenario described, you are performing the Validate Scope process which is the process of formalizing acceptance of completed and verified project deliverables. One of the tools and techniques associated with this process is an inspection. The inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and validating to determine whether the work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. A product review is an example of an inspection. In this scenario, the client performed a test which exposed a software bug and caused a deliverable to be rejected. Unless stated otherwise in the question text, deliverables are always placed under configuration control. Therefore, an approved change request is required to modify the deliverable and repair the defect. If the individual or group responsible for reviewing change requests believes the deliverable meets the contractual requirements, the change request could be rejected but still might be approved just to avoid a dispute with the client. Therefore, of the available choices, the best course of action is to submit a change request to fix the deliverable.
Yasmin is a project manager tasked with putting together the project charter for a project that will produce a new line of widgets for the company. After meeting with various key stakeholders, she sits down to draft the document. Yasmin is likely to include all of the following elements within the project charter except for which one? Select one Mark question Preapproved budget List of detailed risks Purpose of the project List of key stakeholders
Information included within the project charter is high level versus detailed. While the charter may include a list of high-level risks, it is unlikely that a detailed list can be compiled at this early stage of the project.
A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subjectmatter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome? Select one Mark question Source selection analysis Market research Advertising Make-or-buy analysis
Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process.
Your project sponsor has reviewed the initial project schedule you created for the project. She is not happy with the project end date because it doesn’t match the promise date she gave the customer. You decide to use some compression techniques first. Which of the following statements should you keep in mind (and know to be true) regarding duration compression?
Select one Mark question
Schedule compression shortens the project schedule but doesn’t change the project scope.
Crashing is a compression technique that typically produces a viable alternative.
Crashing is a compression technique that typically results in increased risk.
Fast-tracking is a compression technique that typically results in increased costs.
Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope. Crashing doesn’t always give you a good alternative and typically increases project costs. Fast-tracking typically increases risk and necessitates rework.
David is a project manager working for a prominent book publishing company. As part of his latest project, he uses an approach that yields frequent smaller deliverables throughout the span of the project. What type of project life cycle is David using? Select one Mark question Agile Predictive Waterfall Incremental
Incremental life cycles focus on speed of delivery as an optimization method. In this type of life cycle, the project yields frequent smaller deliverables to avoid waiting for everything to be completed before a solution exists. In other words, a subset of the overall solution becomes available sooner.
You are managing a project to develop a new robot for a mining rescue company. You are currently performing a monitoring and controlling project activity, and you have discovered that some of the project work has not been performed according to the plan. If these issues are not fixed before the next customer inspection, your project might be canceled. You have analyzed the situation, and the corrective action will only require a minor adjustment to a configuration element. What should you do first? Select one Mark question Implement the corrective actions Consult the project sponsor Delay the scheduled customer inspection Submit a change request
All of the available answers seem like possible options in this scenario, but the question is specifically asking what you should do ‘first’. Although you have already analyzed the situation and you know what corrective actions are required, you must follow the proper change control procedure. A configuration element is a project artifact that has been placed under configuration control. Any change to a configuration element should be formally controlled and will require a change request. Since the question describes a situation requiring a change to a configuration element, the first thing you should do is submit a change request and have it approved before you can implement the changes.
A project manager facilitates a meeting with the project team to review an assessment of risks recently completed. During this meeting, they evaluate options for responding to the risks. It is decided that two risks will not receive any action and that they will deal with the consequences at the time of occurrence, should they occur. What type of risk response is this? Select one Mark question Avoidance Mitigation Active acceptance Passive acceptance
There are two types of risk acceptance in which no proactive risk response strategy is selected: passive and active acceptance. Passive acceptance means that no action will be taken other than to periodically monitor the risk.
You are a project manager for Time Will Tell, an international watch manufacturer. Your project entails developing a watch with global positioning satellite (GPS) capabilities. Kit is a junior staff member with two years of experience in GPS technology. Carrie is a senior staff member with five years of experience working with GPS technology. You are developing the activity duration estimates for the project activities. You are trying to determine an estimate for a particular activity that involves GPS skills and knowledge. Carrie has worked on activities similar to this in the past. She tells you the activity will likely take 45 days. All of the following statements are true regarding the information in this question except which one?
Select one Mark question
The technique Carrie used can also be used to estimate project duration because of the amount of information available about the details of the project. Carrie used a technique that is a form of expert judgment to estimate this activity. The activities are similar in fact, not just appearance, and Carrie has the needed expertise to provide this estimate, so you can rely on the estimate being reasonably accurate. Carrie used an analogous estimating technique to come up with the 45-day estimate for this activity.
Carrie used the analogous estimating technique, which is a form of expert judgment. It is a tool and technique of the Estimate Activity Durations process. Analogous estimating bases estimates on previous activities that are similar in fact, and they require the person estimating them to have expertise in the activity. Analogous estimating techniques are typically used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of information about the project
A new project manager is brought on the project. She wants to understand the process by which this particular project formally accepts deliverables. Which of the following will she have to reference? Select one Mark question The scope management plan The quality management plan The stakeholder management plan The requirements management plan
The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that contains information and guidance on how the scope and the scope-related processes are to be managed. What is included varies, but should contain procedures and processes specifying how the formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained. Acceptance of project deliverables is influenced by other project management plans, such as the stakeholder management plan and the quality management plan. Nevertheless, the scope management plan is what specifies the process most directly.
Which of the following best describes individual project risk?
Select one Mark question
The effect of uncertainty on a project objective, arising from all sources of uncertainty
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives
The effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a negative effect on one or more project objectives
According to the PMBOK® Guide, there are two levels of risk: individual project risk and overall project risk. An individual project risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.
Your project has kicked off, and you are beginning a series of overview sessions with key users to determine requirements for a new enterprise resource software implementation. One of your stakeholders is exceptionally contentious and throws obstacles up at every turn. One of the problems she has described does seem to be legitimate. There is an issue with the data from the legacy system that needs to be resolved before moving forward. The PMO you report to practices phase sequencing and requires closure of each phase before the next phase can begin. What is this process called? Select all right Mark question Stage review Phase exit Phase review Gate exit
Remember that all questions on the exam will refer to specific terminology used in the PMBOK® Guide – Sixth Edition. Although the other options presented may seem correct, the PMBOK® Guide calls this process by any of these names: stage gates, phase reviews, phase gates, phase exit, or kill points.
A project manager is performing quantitative risk analysis. What tangible result is likely to be produced?
Select one Mark question
A priority level for each individual project risk
An assessment of probability and impacts for each individual risk
An assessment of overall project risk exposure
A list of potential risk responses
As part of carrying out the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, updates are made to the risk register. Among the updates are an assessment of overall project risk exposure and detailed probabilistic analysis of the project.
You are a project manager planning a project to develop a new payroll system, and you are currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A project stakeholder has suggested that it would be helpful to have a visual depiction showing how people and other systems will interact with the new payroll system. You like the idea and want to address it. What is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion?
Select one Mark question Design an affinity diagram Build a matrix diagram Create a fish-bone diagram Develop a context diagram
The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A context diagram is one of the tools and techniques that might be used during the Collect Requirements process. A context diagram is a visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it. Of the available choices, developing the context diagram is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion.
When is a project considered successful?
Select one Mark question
When project benefits are realized and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met
When the project budget is consumed, the scope is developed, and the schedule milestones are achieved
When the project budget is consumed and the schedule milestones are achieved
When objectives are achieved and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met
A project is considered successful when it achieves its objectives and the stakeholder needs and expectations are met.
A project manager is in the process of assembling the final report of the project. What project document are they likely to reference to view the completion date of major project deliverables? Select one Mark question Milestone report Final report Schedule baseline Milestone list
The milestone list contains the final dates that the project milestones have been accomplished. This is used as an input to the Close Project or Phase process, which is where the final report is produced.
A project manager has structured his project in a way that will allow for the planning of the project to occur during the early phases of the life cycle, with minimal changes thereafter. This approach is associated with which development life cycle? Select one Mark question Iterative Predictive Adaptive Incremental
In a predictive life cycle, the project’s scope, time, and cost are determined during the early phases of the project, meaning that the majority of planning occurs up front. Changes are closely managed following a change control process.
You are the project manager for a project that will produce a mobile phone application that sends alerts when UV rays are at dangerous levels, alerting users to stay indoors. You are in the process of managing the schedule and use a chart to track the work that remains to be completed within the iteration backlog. What is this chart called?
Select one Mark question
Iteration chart Velocity chart Scrum chart Iteration burndown chart
An iteration burndown chart is a data analysis tool and technique of the Control Schedule process. This chart is used to track the remaining work to be completed against the backlog.
What do functional requirements describe?
Select one Mark question
The needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group
The environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective
The behaviors of the product
The higher-level needs of the organization as a whole
Functional requirements describe the behaviors of the product, including actions, processes, data, and interactions that the product should execute.
A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subjectmatter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome? Select one Mark question Make-or-buy analysis Source selection analysis Market research Advertising
Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process.
Your project has kicked off, and you are beginning a series of overview sessions with key users to determine requirements for a new enterprise resource software implementation. One of your stakeholders is exceptionally contentious and throws obstacles up at every turn. One of the problems she has described does seem to be legitimate. There is an issue with the data from the legacy system that needs to be resolved before moving forward. The PMO you report to practices phase sequencing and requires closure of each phase before the next phase can begin. What is this process called? Select all right Mark question Gate exit Phase review Stage review Phase exit
Remember that all questions on the exam will refer to specific terminology used in the PMBOK® Guide – Sixth Edition. Although the other options presented may seem correct, the PMBOK® Guide calls this process by any of these names: stage gates, phase reviews, phase gates, phase exit, or kill points.
You’ve gathered cost estimates for the activities of your current project. Most of the activities can be completed with existing staff resources. The summary cost estimate for existing resources is $535,000. You will also need to hire contractors to perform some of the activities that require specialized skills. You’ve received a bid from a local vendor for $137,000 for these services. Which of the following statements are true?
Select two Mark question
The cost of the vendor services to your organization is considered pricing (from the buyer’s perspective), which is a business decision on their part.
The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, and it should be as accurate as possible, as you will use this SOW in the contract award.
You’ve determined a quantitative estimate of the cost to the organization to perform the activities of the project.
You should use purchase price as the sole criterion for choosing among vendors when you have multiple qualified sellers from which to choose.
The procurement SOW can be prepared by either the buyer or the seller, but it is progressively elaborated throughout the procurement processes and will likely change prior to the contract award.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of carrying out activities associated with planning stakeholder engagement?
Select one Mark question
To identify project stakeholders regularly and analyze and document relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success
To develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project
To monitor project stakeholder relationships and tailor strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans
To communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement
According to the PMBOK® Guide, the purpose of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process is to develop approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impacts on the project. This is the second process of the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area.
Your project sponsor has reviewed the initial project schedule you created for the project. She is not happy with the project end date because it doesn’t match the promise date she gave the customer. You decide to use some compression techniques first. Which of the following statements should you keep in mind (and know to be true) regarding duration compression?
Select one Mark question
Schedule compression shortens the project schedule but doesn’t change the project scope.
Crashing is a compression technique that typically produces a viable alternative.
Crashing is a compression technique that typically results in increased risk.
Fast-tracking is a compression technique that typically results in increased costs.
Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope. Crashing doesn’t always give you a good alternative and typically increases project costs. Fast-tracking typically increases risk and necessitates rework.
Which of the following methods should you use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty? Select one Mark question Expert judgment Three-point estimating Analogous estimating Bottom-up estimating
Three-point estimating is the technique to use when you want to improve your estimates and account for risk and estimation uncertainty.
A project manager facilitated a meeting with the product manager and project team to discuss the results of the latest iteration. As part of the meeting, the project manager also reviewed the budget consumed to date on the project, highlighting appraisal costs. Which of the following best describes appraisal costs?
Select one Mark question
Costs that occur externally, when the customer determines that the requirements have not been met
Costs when things don’t go according to plan
Costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met
Costs associated with satisfying customer requirements by creating a product without defects
Appraisal costs are associated with the cost of quality and are the costs expended to examine the product or process and make certain the requirements are being met. Inspection and testing are examples of appraisal costs.
How are quality improvements implemented?
Select one Mark question
By submitting a change request and/or taking a corrective action
By completing a quality audit and identifying gaps or shortcomings in the process
By completing quality audits
By submitting a change request and/or implementing a preventive action
Completing a quality audit may lead you to the conclusion that a change request is needed, but you must submit a change request and/or take corrective action to implement the quality improvement.
A sponsor meets with the project manager to better understand when the team will complete the project. The project manager notes that the team is completing an average of 40 story points per sprint, and as a result, they would complete the project within five iterations. She shows the sponsor a chart that reflects the projection and includes a date for each iteration. What chart is the project manager and sponsor reviewing? Select one Mark question Burndown chart Burnup chart Velocity chart Gantt chart
Velocity refers to the total story points that the team is completing on average per iteration. Velocity allows the team to forecast the rate at which they are burning down the work of the project. A velocity chart shows the sum of the estimates of work delivered across all iterations.
You are working on the risk management plan for your current project and need to document how the risk activities will be recorded for the benefit of future projects. Which part of the risk management plan addresses these issues? Select one Mark question Tracking Lessons learned Thresholds Reporting format
Tracking includes a description of how you’ll document the history of the risk activities for the current project and how the risk processes will be audited. This section of the risk management plan is also helpful for lessons learned.
Leticia is a project manager working for Dancing Apron, a company that combines cooking with simple children’s cooking recipes and music. Her latest project involves the release of the company’s first digital product that parents will be able to purchase and download online. Kip, who is the sponsor of the project, asks her to calculate the EAC assuming that the work will be accomplished at the planned rate. Leticia knows that they have spent $15,000 to date of the $20,000 budgeted and that the earned value of the project has already been calculated at $18,000. What is the EAC that she will communicate to Kip? Select one Mark question $15,000 $17,000 $13,000 $20,000
To calculate EAC when the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate, use the following formula: AC + BAC – EV. Plug in the values provided in the question to arrive at the following: $15,000 + $20,000 – $18,000 = $17,000.
You are a project manager for Fly Me to Miami travel services. You need to obtain some services for your project on contract and have published an RFP. You are in the Conduct Procurements process and know that all of the following statements are true except for which one?
Select one Mark question
This process is used for obtaining goods or services, whether internal or external to the organization.
Several techniques can be used to evaluate proposals.
Bidder conferences are used during this process to answer questions regarding the RFP.
Vendors may be required to be on a qualified seller list to participate in the bid.
This process is used only if you are obtaining goods and services outside the organization.
You are working on the communications management plan for your project and have considered the timing and need for updated information by you and your four stakeholders. Your organization has modern, up-to-date technology that your stakeholders and staff have used before, so you anticipate that supplying the information and updates to your stakeholders and team members will be a breeze. Which of the following is true?
Select one Mark question
There are 20 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.
There are 10 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements analysis.
There are 5 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications requirements.
There are 12 channels of communication, which should be considered when examining communications technology.
There are 10 channels of communication, which is taken into consideration when using the communications requirement analysis tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process. The formula for this is 5(5 - 1) ÷ 2.
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You are a project manager working on manufacturing a new product. The operational process is very detailed. One of the components of the product must measure 1 centimeter by 1 centimeter. Reliability is measured using a machine that samples one part in every hundred to assure the measurements are correct. Which of the following does this question describe?
Select one Mark question
This describes a quality audit, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process.
This is a prevention cost, which is a tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process.
This is statistical sampling, which is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process.
This describes a quality baseline, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process.
Statistical sampling involves taking a sample number of parts from the whole population and inspecting them to determine whether they fall within acceptable variances.
Contract phases are closely related to the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area processes. Which of the following are true?
Select three Mark question
The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct Procurements process.
The requirement stage, which establishes the project and contract needs, is related to the Plan Procurement Management process.
The requisition stage, where responses to procurement documents are reviewed, is related to the Conduct Procurements process.
The requisition stage is where the procurement documents are prepared (not the responses to them) and is associated with the Plan Procurement Management process. The two outputs that become inputs are procurement documentation and source selection criteria.
You are a project manager planning a project to develop a new payroll system, and you are currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A project stakeholder has suggested that it would be helpful to have a visual depiction showing how people and other systems will interact with the new payroll system. You like the idea and want to address it. What is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion?
Select one Mark question Develop a context diagram Build a matrix diagram Design an affinity diagram Create a fish-bone diagram
The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. A context diagram is one of the tools and techniques that might be used during the Collect Requirements process. A context diagram is a visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it. Of the available choices, developing the context diagram is the best way to implement the stakeholder’s suggestion.
You’ve taken over a project that’s currently in trouble. You’ve held a meeting with the key stakeholders to demonstrate the new product prototype. They came prepared with the product requirements and upon inspection inform you that this prototype is not what the customer specified. Your boss instructs you to get the prototype corrected and make it match the requirements the customer specified before holding a demo with the customer. She also warns you to take a look at the work of the project. She’s concerned that things aren’t happening as planned and that the last project manager was not paying close enough attention to the project plan. Corrections might be needed. What Knowledge Area does this describe? Select one Mark question Project Integration Management Project Schedule Management Project Risk Management Project Scope Management
Project Scope Management is concerned with product scope and project scope. Product scope is concerned with the characteristics of the product or service of the project and is measured against the project requirements. Project scope is concerned with the work of the project and is measured against the project plan.
Julie is a product manager responsible for a line of smart water bottles that connect to a mobile app to capture data and provide suggestions regarding your drinking habits. In preparation for the upcoming sprint, she meets with the team to ensure that stories are clear and appropriately sized. What activity is Julie performing with the team? Select one Mark question Roadmap grooming Backlog preparation Release planning Backlog refinement
Backlog refinement, also referred to as backlog grooming, is where the product owner works with the team to ensure that the stories are prepped and ready for the upcoming iteration. Stories should be clear enough for the team to understand the work, and they should be appropriately sized relative to each other.
Earned value analysis, iteration burndown chart, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis are all types of what?
Select one Mark question
Project management information systems
Schedule compression tools and techniques
Data representation tools and techniques
Data analysis tools and techniques
Data analysis is a tool and technique of multiple project management processes, including the Control Schedule process, where it encompasses the use of earned value analysis, iteration burndown charts, performance reviews, trend analysis, variance analysis, and what-if scenario analysis.
Story points - A visual representation of the work completed toward the release of a product
Burndown chart - The sum of story point sizes for features actually completed during the iteration
Velocity - A unit-less measure used in relative user story estimation techniques
Burnup charts - A visual representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox
A project manager has just closed out a procurement, which produced the final deliverable of the project. What is the project manager likely to do next? Select one Mark question Perform administrative closure Finalize any open claims Release the remaining project resources Celebrate
Since the scenario outlined that the final deliverable of the project was completed, it implies that closing activities would follow. Administrative closure, which occurs as part of the Close Project or Phase process, consists of activities such as ensuring that exit criteria have been met and contractual agreements were properly closed out, measuring stakeholder satisfaction, and ensuring that ongoing operational or sustainment activities are transferred to operations.
You are a project manager for Lightning Bolt Enterprises. Your new project involves the research and development of a new type of rechargeable battery. One of your stakeholders requests a change to the product scope description. The stakeholder has filled out a change request form indicating that the change affects the project scope and that it’s essential for a successful project. The change request is approved, and the project scope statement is updated to reflect this change. Which of the following statements are true?
Select three Mark question
The product scope description, which is also a component of the project charter, is used to define the project’s scope.
Change requests are evaluated against the project scope statement, and if a change request is outside the bounds of the original project scope, the change should be denied.
The project scope statement directs the project team’s work and is the basis for future project decisions.
Product analysis converts the product description and objectives into deliverables and requirements.
The product scope description is a component of the project charter and of the project scope statement, but it is not an input to this process.
Change-driven life cycles are also known by what other name? Select one Mark question Adaptive life cycle Plan-driven life cycle Predictive life cycle Hybrid life cycle
Change-driven life cycles are also known as Agile or adaptive life cycles.
A project manager is in the process of assembling the final report of the project. What project document are they likely to reference to view the completion date of major project deliverables? Select one Mark question Milestone report Schedule baseline Final report Milestone list
The milestone list contains the final dates that the project milestones have been accomplished. This is used as an input to the Close Project or Phase process, which is where the final report is produced.
Reasons to Lyv is the top customer of a large marketing firm. Trudy is the president of Reasons to Lyv and has decided to launch a product that leverages new GPS tracking technology. She sits down with Roy, the project manager on the project, to review and evaluate whether a sufficient amount of funds remains to address known risks. What activity are they performing? Select one Mark question Reserve analysis Technical performance analysis Risk review Audit
Reserve analysis is a data analysis technique of the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis compares the amount of contingency reserve remaining to address the risk that remains. Contingency reserves (used to deal with known risks) are considered part of the project budget, while management reserves (used to deal with unknown risks) are not.
All of the following are true statements except for which one?
Select one Mark question
Daily stand-ups are a critical component of planning.
Daily stand-ups are used to uncover problems.
Daily stand-ups last no more than 15 minutes.
Daily stand-ups are used to ensure work is progressing well.
The purpose of the daily stand-up meetings, one of three key meetings used within Scrum, is not planning. Instead, daily stand-up meetings are used to uncover any obstacles to committed work and as a way to ensure that work is progressing smoothly.
129 of 14002:44:03 All of the following processes belong to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area except for which one? Select one Mark question Close Project or Phase Identify Stakeholders Manage Project Knowledge Monitor and Control Project Work
Identify Stakeholders belongs to the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area. The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area contains the following processes: Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor and Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Changed Control, and Close Project or Phase.
Which of the following characteristics do all project life cycles share? Select one Mark question Degree of unfinished work Degree of work sequencing Degree of uncertainty Degree of planning
According to the Agile Practice Guide, all project life cycles share the element of planning. What differs across predictive, iterative, incremental, and Agile life cycles is the degree to which planning is done, and when.
Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of what? Select one Mark question Risk register Project documents Risk management plan Risk report
Risk strategy, methodology, and risk-related roles and responsibilities are all elements of the risk management plan. Other areas covered by the plan include the following: risk-related funding, timing, risk categories, stakeholder risk appetite, definitions of risk probability and impacts, probability and impact matrix, reporting formats, and tracking.
Which of the following describes who is responsible for the quality assurance of the project?
Select one Mark question
Stakeholders
Project manager
Project manager and project team members
Project team members, project manager, and stakeholders
The project team members, project manager, and the stakeholders are all equally responsible for the quality assurance of the project.
You have decomposed the deliverables for your project as follows: Project Management, Design, Build, and Test. The Design deliverable is further decomposed to include these deliverables: product design document, blueprints, and prototype. Adequate cost and schedule estimates have been applied to all the deliverables. Which of the following has occurred?
Select one Mark question
Steps 1, 2, 3, and 4 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables.
Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for all the deliverables with the exception of the Design deliverable.
Steps 1, 2, and 3 of decomposition have been performed for the Design deliverable.
All the steps of decomposition have been performed.
The five steps of decomposition are to identify major deliverables, organize the WBS, decompose the WBS components into lower-level components, assign identification codes, and validate the WBS. No mention was made in the question of assigning identification codes or validating the correctness of decomposition, so not all of the steps have been performed. The first three steps of the decomposition process for the Design deliverable have been performed.
After meeting with several subject-matter experts, the project manager determines that the project phases will need to occur one after the other. What project life cycle is the project manager using? Select one Mark question Sequential Iterative Incremental Overlapping
There are three series of project life cycles within the basic framework for managing projects: sequential, iterative, and overlapping. In a sequential life cycle, one phase must finish before the next phase can begin.
A project manager meets with the team to discuss how they will measure budget performance moving forward. What activity is the team engaged in? Select one Mark question Evaluating performance Developing the cost management plan Taking corrective action Developing the project budget
The project manager is putting together the cost management plan, which is an activity carried out through the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan documents the rules of performance measurement, level of precision and accuracy, units of measure, organizational procedures links, control thresholds, reporting formats, process descriptions, and other budget-related details necessary to develop, manage, and control the budget.
If earned value = 500, planned value = 700, and actual costs = 450, what is the cost variance? Select one Mark question –50 50 200 –200
To calculate schedule variance, subtract planned value from earned value (CV = EV – AC): $500 – $450 = $50. A positive cost variance means that the project is under budget.
Using the estimates provided, calculate the beta distribution: most likely estimate (ML) = 72, optimistic estimate (O) = 55, pessimistic estimate (P) = 85. Round to one decimal point. Select one Mark question 70.0 70.7 72 71.3
A beta distribution calculation involves giving a greater weight to the most likely estimate. Simply multiply the most likely estimate by four, add the result with the other two estimates, and divide by six: (4 × (ML) $72 + (O) $55 + (P) $85) ÷ 6 = $71.3.
You work within a project management office, and the new PMO director has adjusted project assignments to accommodate a large strategic project that the company has undertaken. You sit down with the previous project manager of your new project to review stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and the list of project-related meetings. What document will you use to get this information? Select one Mark question Communications management plan Resource management plan Project management plan Stakeholder engagement plan
The best answer is the communications management plan, which is a subsidiary of the project management plan. While project management plan is also a correct answer, the communications management plan is a more specific choice and therefore a better answer. Stakeholder communication requirements, escalation processes, and methods for receiving/obtaining information are all elements addressed within the communications management plan.
The project team recently participated in a working session to determine the costs associated with individual activities. To produce a more accurate estimate, they broke each activity down further into smaller chunks. What will this activity yield? Select one Mark question Cost estimates Cost baseline Project budget Basis of estimates
The project team is participating in bottom-up estimating, which will produce activity cost estimates. This activity is associated with the Estimate Costs process. Basis of estimates may also be generated through this session; cost estimates, however, are the primary end outcome of the activity.
Which of the following project management Knowledge Areas involve every team member and stakeholder on the project? Select one Mark question Project Scope Management Project Quality Management Project Communications Management Project Resource Management
Project Communications Management involves every member of the project team, including all the stakeholders. Everyone involved in the project will send or receive project information or both. Project Resources involve all the human and physical resources assigned to the work of the project. Although all the folks working on the project are involved, only the project manager and perhaps a few others are involved in performing the processes within this Knowledge Area.
