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PPL > Private Pilot License > Flashcards

Private Pilot License Flashcards

1
Q

What airspace are transponders required?

A
  • Class A, B, and C
  • Mode C Veil (30NM of primary airport in B airspace)
  • All airspace at or above 10,000’ MSL
  • Excluding airspace at or below 2,500’ AGL
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2
Q

What are the VFR minimums below 18,000’ MSL and above 10,000 MSL?

A

“5-111”
- 5 SM Visibility
- 1,000’ above clouds
- 1,000’ below clouds
- 1 Mile Horizontally

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3
Q

Class “G” VFR minimums below 10,000’ MSL and above 1,200’ AGL during the DAYTIME?

A

“1-152”
- 1 SM Visibility
- 1,000’ above clouds
- 500’ below clouds
- 2,000’ horizontally clear of clouds

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4
Q

Class “G” VFR minimums below 10,000’ MSL and above 1,200’ AGL at NIGHT?

A

“3-152”
- 3 SM Visibility
- 1,000’ above clouds
- 500’ below clouds
- 2,000’ horizontally clear of clouds

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5
Q

How far out from remote non-towered airport should pilot make announcement on common traffic advisory?

A
  • 10 Miles
  • During downwind and intended runway
  • During base and intended runway
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6
Q

What 3 instruments get their information from the pitot static system?

A
  1. Altimeter
  2. Airspeed indicator
  3. Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
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7
Q

What is “true altitude”?

A

True altitude is the vertical distance of the airplane from sea level; expressed as MSL

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8
Q

What is “Absolute” altitude?

A

Absolute altitude is the height above ground level; expressed as AGL

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9
Q

If flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting your barometric scale, what will happen?

A

My indicated altitude will be higher than my actual altitude, remember the phrase from Hi to Low look out below; same goes for temperature

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10
Q

What will happen if both ram air inlet, and drain hole of the pitot tube is clogged?

A

My airspeed indicator will show a constant airspeed, and will change as I climb and descend acting as an altimeter.

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11
Q

Where is the alternate static port located, and how will that affect flight instruments?

A

It is located inside the aircraft, and because pressure is lower inside the plan will cause:
1. The altimeter to read a higher than actual altitude
2. Airspeed indicator will show faster than actual airspeed
3. VSI will show mementary climb then work normally

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12
Q

When flying at night and you see a white light and a green light in front of it, which directed is that aircraft heading?

A

The aircraft if moving from left to right

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13
Q

What are Special VFR conditions, and when are they available for request?

A
  • You need to remain clear of clouds and maintain flight visibility of at least 1 SM.
  • This must be requested, and is only available between sunrise and sunset
  • Must hold a PPL
  • If requesting after sunset, pilot must be IFR rated, and aircraft must be equipped with IFR equpment
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14
Q

What’s the purpose of MOA’s?

A

It’s purpose is to separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

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15
Q

What are Alert Areas, and how are they marked on a sectional chart?

A

They are marked with an “A” followed by a number.
The purpose is to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilos should exercise caution in these areas.

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16
Q

What is a LAA (Local Airport Advisory)?

A

They’re a service provided by FSS (Flight Service Station), and they provide local airport advisories, automated weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a continuous AWOS/ASOS data display.

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17
Q

What are MTR’s (Military Training Routes)?

A

MTRs are routes used by military a/c to maintain proficiency in tactical flying. They’re usually established below 10,000’ MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 KIAS.

Routes are identified as IFR (IR) or VFR (VR) followed by a number.

  • If identified by four numbers, it’s below 1,500 AGL
  • If identified by 3 numbers, it’s above 1,500 AGL
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18
Q

What is TRSA and what is its purpose?

A
  • Stands for Terminal Radar Service Area
  • It’s areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar service.
  • It provides separation between all IFR operations and participating VFR aircrafts.
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19
Q

What section of the FAR/AIM can I find more information on Emergency air traffic rules?

A

91.139

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20
Q

What are the 3 primary navigation aid for VFR on a sectional chart?

A

Topographic Information:
Airspace Information:
Radio Navigation Information:

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21
Q

What are VFR Transitional Routes?

A
  • Identified as Magenta arrows through chart
  • Takes you through Class “B” airspace and require ATC clearance
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22
Q

VFR Flyaways

A
  • Indicated on chart as shaded “blue arrows”
  • Keep you clear of “Class B” airspace and DO NOT require ATC clearance
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23
Q

What do magenta and blue airports indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Magenta airports indicate non towered airports
Blue airports indicate towered airports

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24
Q

What does “NO SVFR” indicate?

A

It indicates that airport does not allow special vfr traffic because the airport is too busy to provide special vfr service

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25
Q

What does “AOE” indicate on a sectional chart along with other airport information?

A

It indicates it is an Airport of Entry and there’s U.S. customs and immigration office located on the field to process international arrivals

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26
Q

What is an SFRA area mean on a sectional chart?

A

It indicates a special flight rules area (SFRA). In places like DCA you must have
1. received specific training
2. be transmitting a discrete squawk code
3. be on a special flight plan when operating within 30 NM from the associated VOR/DME

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27
Q

What are the components of a (ATCRBS) secondary surveillance radar, and how do they work?

A
  1. Interrogator (ground equipment): Generates a beam of pulse in the horizontal direction
  2. Transponder (a/c equipment): Signal is sent back from the airplane omnidirectionally to the station
  3. Radarscope (ground equipment): Screen where ATC can spot aircrafts from signals sent out and received
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28
Q

What is the IDNT button on the transponder do, and when should you use it?

A

It causes your airplane to show up very bright on a controllers screen.
Only use when requested by ATC

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29
Q

What does the standard code 7500 put in the transponder tell ATC?

A

Hijacking

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30
Q

What does the standard code 7700 put in the transponder tell ATC?

A

Emergency

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31
Q

What does the standard code 7777 put in the transponder tell ATC?

A

Military intercept code

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32
Q

What does the standard code 7600 put in the transponder tell ATC?

A

Communication failure

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33
Q

What are the different modes of a transponder?

A
  1. Mode A: Is a radio transmitted “squawk” number the pilot sets upon ATC’s request
  2. Mode C: Reports altitude using onboard barometric pressure valves. This information gets reported along with the plane’s squawk number
  3. Mode S: Permanently assigns your transponder with an aircraft ID so ATC’s radar can spot “Mode S Planes” easily
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34
Q

What are ADSB and what do they do?

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast

  • ADS-B Out: sends the position, altitude and speed of aircraft to ground stations and other aircrafts
  • ADS-B In: receives ADS-B out data from other aircraft and ground stations, and displays them on other displays

*Mandatory since January 1st, 2020 in all a/c’s operating in airspace that requires a mode C transponder

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35
Q

What class airspace are ADS-B required?

A

Class A: 18,000 MSL

Class B: SFC - 10,000 MSL / 30 NM of primary airport in class B airspace (Mode C veil)

Class C: SFC to 10,000 MSL

Class E: 12 NM from coast, 3,000 MSL to 10,000 MSL

2,500 AGL in Class E 10,000 MSL Not required

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36
Q

What does ground provide service for?

A

Controls the flow of traffic on the ground either visually or with ASR radar (Hillsboro ground)

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37
Q

What does Tower provide pilots with?

A

When to use runways and traffic patterns

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38
Q

What is TRACON, and what do they provide pilots?

A

Terminal Radar Control Facility

  • Uses radar to provide approach control services to a/c arriving, departing or transitioning airspace controlled by the facility (i.e. Portland approach)
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39
Q

ARTCC

A

Air Route Traffic Control Centers

  • Provide air traffic service to a/c operating on an IFR Flight Plan within controlled airspace
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40
Q

VFR Flight Following provide:

A
  1. Safety alerts
  2. Traffic advisories
  3. Limited radar vectoring when requested by the pilot
  4. Sequencing at locations where procedure have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by LOA
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41
Q

What is course, heading and track in regards to an aircraft traveling from point A to point B?

A

Course: Where you want to go (point B)
Heading: Where your nose is pointing (wind correction angle)
Track: Path of the airplane over the ground (actual path on th ground from point A to point B)

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42
Q

What can Flight Service Stations (FSS) provide pilots with?

A

They provide:
- Weather updates
- Activate a flight plan
- Check temporary flight restrictions (TFR) or special use airspace (SUA) status
- Get or give pilot reports (pireps)
- Update flight plan ETA
- Request help in emergency situations

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43
Q

What frequency can Flight Service Stations (FSS) be found on if you have trouble finding the local frequency?

A

122.2 mhz

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44
Q

What are ATIS, AWOS, and ASOS?

A

ATIS: Pre-recorded aeronautical info, human observer augments and records info over broadcast

AWOS:
- DIstributed by the FAA; broadcasts local minute by minute weather to the pilot
- May be augmented in RMK’s by certified observer when visibility is less than 7 miles

ASOS:
- Distributed by the NWS
- Four levels of service
- Same data as the AWOS

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45
Q

Where can very high frequency (VHF) radios perform best?

A

At higher altitudes because VHF radios are limited to line of sight

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46
Q

“Read back” are good practices and include:

A

1- Heading Assignments
2- Altitude Assignments
3- Speed Assignments
4- Runway Assignments
5- Altimeter settings
6- Rate of climb or descent assignments
7- Route changes, including holding pattern instructions
8- Approach and landing clearances;
9- Takeoff and departure clearances
10- Runway hold short instructions
11- Taxi instructions

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47
Q

What frequency should pilots communicate near non-towered airports?

A

using CTAF (common traffic advisory frequency) located on sectional chart

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48
Q

What is the designated emergency frequency?

A

121.5

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49
Q

Name 4 dummy checks if you think you have lost comms.

A
  1. Headset plugged in?
  2. Volume turned up on headset and radio?
  3. Correct frequency tuned in
  4. Try plugging headsets into other jack
  5. Try tuning to a previous frequency you know worked
  6. See if you have a stuck mic
  7. Dual comms? Try the other radio
  8. Speaker installed? Hand mic?
    9 Still nothing? Squawk 7600
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50
Q

Lost comms procedure at uncontrolled airport

A
  • Eyes outside!
  • Monitor the flow of traffic
  • Enter a standard downwind
  • Fly pattern as normal and land in sequence
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51
Q

Lost comms procedure at a controlled airport

A
  • Eyes outside
  • Monitor the flow of traffic
  • Enter a standard downwind
  • Fly a normal pattern
  • Wait for light gun signals from the tower
  • Follow instructions from light gun
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52
Q

What is a flashing green light for an aircraft on the ground mean?

A

Cleared for taxi

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53
Q

What is a steady green light for an aircraft on the ground mean?

A

Cleared for takeoff

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54
Q

What is a flashing green light for an aircraft in the air mean?

A

Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time)

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55
Q

What is a steady green light for an aircraft in the air mean?

A

Cleared to land

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56
Q

What is a flashing red light for an aircraft on the ground mean?

A

Taxi clear of the runway in use

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57
Q

What is a flashing red light for an aircraft in the air mean?

A

Airport unsafe, do not land

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58
Q

What is a steady red light for an aircraft on the ground mean?

A

Stop

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59
Q

What is a steady red light for an aircraft in the air mean?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

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60
Q

What does a alternating red and green light for an aircraft on the ground mean?

A

Exercise extreme caution

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61
Q

What does a alternating red and green light for an aircraft in the air mean?

A

Exercise extreme caution

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62
Q

What can set off ELT’s accidentally?

A

Hard landings

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63
Q

How often should ELT’s be inspected?

A

Every 12 months

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64
Q

What are the 5 NOTAMS categories?

A
  1. NOTAM (D)
  2. FDC NOTAMs
  3. Pointer NOTAMs
  4. SAA NOTAMs
  5. Military NOTAMs
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65
Q

NOTAM (D)

A

Information such as:

  • Taxiway/runway closures
  • Personnel and equipment near or crossing runways
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66
Q

FDC NOTAMs

A

Issued by the NFDC and contain regulatory info such as:
- TFR
- Aeronautical chart updates
- Amendment to instrument approach procedures (IAP)

(i.e. White House, Area 51, Superbowl, Airshow, Forest Fire etc.)

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67
Q

Military NOTAMs

A

NOTAMs pertaining to D.o.D
VOR/Airports that are part of the NAS Military Operations Area

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68
Q

Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs

A

Issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule

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69
Q

Advisory Circulars (AC)

A

A systematic means of providing pilots with non-regulatory information
- AC numbering systems corresponds with applicable FAR subchapters; letters trailing the AC indicates current revision
(00 General, 20 Aircraft, 60 Airmen, 70, airspace etc.)

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70
Q

FARs

A

Code of Federal Regulations is the general and permanent rules and regs put forth by the federal govn’t of the USA

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71
Q

AIM

A

Contains basic flight info & ATC procedures:

*Non-regulatory, but may reference regulations

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72
Q

What is an advantage of a constant speed propeller?

A
  • A constant-speed propeller permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance for a particular flight condition.
  • A low blade angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desirable for takeoffs. An intermediate position can be used for subsequent climb.
  • After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade may be changed to a higher angle for lower RPM, reduced engine noise, generally lower vibration, and greater fuel efficiency
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73
Q

The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle:

A

between the wing chord line and the relative wind

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74
Q

In straight and level flight, what is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust and weight?

A

Life = Weight and Thrust = Drag

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75
Q

What is ground effect?

A

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane. Induced drag is decreased

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76
Q

When is the strength of the vortex at its greatest strength?

A

When an aircraft is heavy, clean and slow

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77
Q

How is floating, due to ground effect, caused?

A

It is caused by a reduction in induced drag.

  • At a height equal to the wings length, it’s reduced by 1.4%
  • At a height 1/4 of the wings length, induced drag is reduced by 23.5%
  • At a height of 1/10th of the wings length, induced drag is reduced 47.6%
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78
Q

During a spin to the left, which wing is stalled?

A

Both wings are stalled in a spin

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79
Q

What is the first indication of carb ice in a float type carburator?

A

Loss of RMP would occur, then engine roughness would come afterwards

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80
Q

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:

A

Lower the nose to allow aircraft to gain airspeed, which eventually lower the engine temperature

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81
Q

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would experience:

A

Avionics equipment failure

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82
Q

NOTAM (D)

A

Information Includes:
- Taxi/Runway Closures
- Personnel & Equipment near or crossing runways,
- Navaid Facilities (VOR) and airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria (i.e visual slope indicators)

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83
Q

FDC NOTAMs

A

Issued by the National Flight Data Center and contains:
- TFR (i.e White House, Area 51, VIP, Super Bowl, Airshow etc.)
- Aeronautical chart updates/amendment to instrument approach procedures (IAP)

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84
Q

Military NOTAMs

A
  • Pertaining to D.o.D
  • Navaids/airports that are a part of NAS MOA’s
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85
Q

NOTAMs Pointer

A

Highlights or cross reference another NOTAM

86
Q

Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs

A
  • Issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule
87
Q

Advisory Circulars

A
  • A systematic means of providing pilots with non-regulatory information
  • AC numbering correlates with what section in the FAR they’re associated with
88
Q

Cones of the eye are:

A
  • Help see color
  • Center of the eye
  • Effective in the day
89
Q

Rods in the eye:

A
  • Can’t see color
  • Periphery
  • See movement
  • 10,000x more light sensitive than cones
  • 30 min to adapt to darkness
90
Q

Standard elevation for traffic patterns?

A

1,000’ above field elevation

91
Q

Exit traffic pattern altitude at?

A

300’ below TPA (traffic pattern altitude)

92
Q

Airplane and Rotorcraft are in the same category when it comes to:

A

right of way

93
Q

Sequence of right of way: Balloon, Glider, Towing/Refueling, AIrship, Airplane-Rotorcraft

A

1 - Balloon
2 - Gliders
3 - Aircraft Towing/Refueling
4 - Airship
5 - Rotorcraft/ Airship

94
Q

Minimum FAR Safe Altitudes regulations chapter?

A

FAR 91.119

95
Q

Minimum altitude over a congested are?

A
  • 1,000’ above the highest obstacle
  • 2,000’ horizontal radius
96
Q

How far apart are touchdown zones?

A

500’ apart along the runway

97
Q

Displaced thresholds

A
  • The portion of runway behind displaced threshold is available for taxi and takeoff i either direction and landings from the opposite direction
  • Runways with displaced thresholds, the beginning of the landing zone is marked by a 10’ solid white line with chevrons leading to it
  • Located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway
98
Q

Blast Pad

A
  • Allows jet blasts to dissipate
  • Referred to as an overunn and may be used as such
99
Q

Taxiway Centerline Lead Off LIghts

A

Alternate green and yellow

100
Q

Taxiway Edge Lights

A

Omnidirectional Blue

101
Q

Runway End LIghts

A

Bidirectional lights that mark the end of the runway:
- Red for pilots taking off or landing in one direction
- Green for pilots approaching the threshold for touchdown

102
Q

Vlo Speed Indicates?

A

Maximum speed the landing gear can be operated

103
Q

What kind of weather is considered VFR?

A
  • Visibility greater than 5SM
  • Ceiling greater than 3,000’
104
Q

Define Marginal VFR

A
  • 3-5 SM visibility
  • 1,000 - 3,000’ Ceilings
105
Q

Define IFR Weather

A
  • 1-3 SM visibility
  • 500’ - 1,000’ ceilings
106
Q

Define Low IFR Weather

A
  • Visibility less than 1 SM
  • Ceiling less than 500’
107
Q

Special Use Airspace: Restricted

A
  • Hazardous to non participating aircraft
  • Cannot enter this airspace
108
Q

Restricted airspace: Warning Areas

A
  • Can enter these areas
  • USA does not have full jurisdiction over the airspace
109
Q

Restricted Airspace: Alert Areas

A
  • Can enter
  • Informing nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot
110
Q

Restricted Airspace: Controlled Firing Area

A
  • Can enter
  • Not published on maps
111
Q

What minimum pilot certifications are required for class D airspace?

A
  • No minimum pilot certification required for class D airspace
112
Q

A pilot may request special VFR at night with what requirements?

A
  • Pilot need to be (IFR) instrument rated
  • Aircraft must be equipped with IFR instruments
113
Q

What’s the maximum airspeed in a VFR corridor through class B airspace?

A

200 KIAS

114
Q

Maximum airspeed below 10,000 MSL

A

250 KIAS

115
Q

Max airspeed at or below 2,500’ AGL and within 4 NM of primary airport of Class C airspace is:

A
  • 200 KIAS
116
Q

While operating VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an ODD-THOUSAND plus 500’ altitude while on a:

A
  • Magnetic course of 0 to 170 degrees
117
Q

Subchapter 20 in the FAR refers to:

A
  • Aircraft
118
Q

Subchapter 60 of the FAR refers to:

A

Airmen

119
Q

Subchapter 70 of the FAR refers to:

A
  • Airspace
120
Q

Subchapter 90 in the FAR refers to:

A
  • Air Traffic & General Operating rules
121
Q

What airspace is indicated inside a blue and/or magenta fuzzy area, and a segmented magenta line line on a sectional chart?

A

Blue: “E” airspace with a floor of 1,200’ AGL
Magenta: “E” airspace with a floor of 700’ AGL
Segmented Magenta: Class “E” all the way to the surface

122
Q

What airspace is located inside a segmented magenta line on a sectional chart?

A

Class E airspace from the surface

123
Q

Blue segmented around an airspace is:

A
  • Class “D” airspace
124
Q

Solid blue lines around an airspace indicates:

A

Class “B” airspace

125
Q

Solid magenta lines around an airspace indicates:

A

Class “C” airspace

126
Q

Minimum license nn to be held in order to enter Class “B” airspace?

A
  • Must have a PPL or student logbook w/ correct endorsements to enter class “B” airspace (must have endorsement saying student in the last 90 days, is competent to solo in class “B” airspace)
127
Q

An AEROBATIC plane is highly _____ but has a very small ______

A

Maneuverable; Useful Load

128
Q

A cargo aircraft has a very large_____, but has poor______

A

Useful Load; maneuverability

129
Q

Where can I find the maximum demonstrated crosswind component for my airplane?

A

In the performance section of the POH

130
Q

172S Vfe

A

110 KIAS
85 KIAS

131
Q

172S & 172P Vg

A

S: 68
P: 65

132
Q

172S Vx

A

62

133
Q

172S Vy

A

74 KIAS

134
Q

172S Vg

A

68 KIAS

135
Q

172S Vcc

A

80 KIAS

136
Q

172S Vs0

A

40 KIAS

137
Q

What do runway holding position signs look like?

A
  • Red background
  • White font lettering
  • Black bordering lettering
138
Q

Can a student pilot on a solo flight accept a LAHSO clearance?

A

No

139
Q

LAHSO’s are generally not authorized during?

A
  • Night
  • Wet runway conditions
140
Q

How long is VFR flight plan held by FSS?

A
  • 1 hr after proposed departure time if
  • no actual departure time is received upon takeoff
  • A revised departure time is not received
  • FSS gets an updated departure time because lack of comms (pilot is not notified when this happens)
141
Q

Lost and situation becomes threatening, what comm frequency can be used?

A

121.5

142
Q

Types of Hypoxia

A
  1. Hypemic
  2. Hypoxic
  3. Stagnant
  4. Histotoxic
143
Q

Stagnant Hypoxia

A
  • Associated with limb falling asleep, blood carrying O2 can’t get to parts of the body that need the oxygen
144
Q

Hypoxic

A
  • Associated with high altitude, essentially not enough air is available to the body for consumption
145
Q

Hypemic

A

Associated with carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood carrying the oxygen to the body can’t chemically bind to the oxygen molecules

146
Q

Histotoxic

A
  • Cells unable to use the oxygen provided to the body; caused by drugs or alcohol
147
Q

Indication of fog near the surface at night?

A

Glowing/halo around lights near the surface

148
Q

ATOMATOFLAMES

A
  • ASI
  • Tachometer for each engine
  • Oil Pressure gauge
  • Manifold Pressure gauge (for altitude engines)
  • Altimeter
  • Temperature gauge (for liquid cooled engines)
  • Oil Temperature gauge (for air cooled engines)
  • Fuel Tank (must read empty when actually empty)
  • Landing gear position indicator (if retractable)
  • Anti- Collision lights (after March 11, 1996)
  • Magnetic Compass
  • ELT
  • Safety Belts
149
Q

Spin Recovery Steps

A

Power Idle
Ailerons Neutral
Rudder Opposite to spin
Elevators Down

150
Q

172S Vs0

A

40 KIAS

151
Q

No relative movement between you and an approaching aircraft indicates?

A

Head on collision

152
Q

Minimum requirements to hold a private pilot certificate?

A
  • Must be 17 yrs old
  • Be able to read, write, speak, and understand english
  • Class 3 Medical Certificate
  • Passed the FAA knowledge exam
  • Meet aeronautical experience requirements
153
Q

Required documents for a aircraft to be airworthy:

A

Airworthiness Certificate

Registration Certificate

Radio License (for international flights)

Operators Manual

Weight and Balance

Bonus:
Supplements
Placards

154
Q

IMSAFE CHECKLIST

A

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol (8hr bottle to throttle .04 BAC level)
Fatigue
Eat/Drink adequately

155
Q

5 Hazardous Attitudes

A
  • Invulnerability = Because it hasn’t happened to you doesn’t mean it won’t happen to you.
  • Impulsivity = Stop and think before reacting
  • Anti-Authority = Follow the rules, they’re usually right
  • Macho = Taking risks is foolish
  • Resignation = You are not helpless, you can make a difference
156
Q

PAVE Checklist

A

P: Pilot
A: Aircraft
V: enVironment
E: External Pressures

157
Q

What’s needed for a student pilot to solo?

A
  • Student License
  • Class 3 Medical certificate
  • Photo ID
  • Logbook
  • Endorsement to solo
158
Q

Inspections needed for airworthiness purposes:

A

Annual Inspection (can be done same time as 100hr inspection, and can replace 100hr inspection) (12 mos)

VOR (30 days)

100hr Inspection (cannot replace annual, but annual can be done in place of the 100hr inspection)

Altimeter (24 mos)

Transponder (24 mos)

ELT (12 mos | 1/2 Battery life | 1hr of consecutive use)

159
Q

FLAPS for Night VFR

A

Fuses and Circuit Breakers
Landing Lights (if for hire)
Anti-Collision Lights
Position Lights
Source of Power

160
Q

When can you log night landings for pax currency?

A
  • Between 1 hr after sunset and 1hr before sunrise
161
Q

When can I log night time flying?

A

Civil twilight

162
Q

When do position lights need to be on when operating an a/c?

A

Between sunset and sunrise

163
Q

NWKRAFT Preflight Briefing

A

NOTAMS
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternate Airports
Fuel Requirements
Takeoff and landing lengths

164
Q

If no MEL list is found for a broken item, what’s the next step?

A
  1. Check part 21 list, if item broken is NOT listed DO NOT FLY!
  2. Check KOEL list in POH limitations section. If item is NOT listed DO NOT FLY!
  3. Check 91.205 list (ATOMATOFLAMES) if item is NOT listed DO NOT FLY!
  4. Check AD’s. If item is NOT listed there, DO NOT FLY!
  5. Is item placarded “inoperable”, or has been removed from the aircraft? If NOT, DO NOT FLY!
165
Q

172S fuel quantity

A

53 gallons

166
Q

172S oil quantity

A

8 quarts

167
Q

Empty Weight of 172S

A

1,663lbs

168
Q

Area 1 bag compartment max weight in 172S in front of latch

A

120lbs

169
Q

Area 2 bag compartment max weight allowed? Not to exceed 120lbs total

A

50lbs

170
Q

White arc speed range in 172S?

A

40-85 KIAS

171
Q

Green Arc speed range in 172S?

A

48 - 129 KIAS

172
Q

172S Yellow Arc speed ranges?

A

129 - 163 KIAS

173
Q

Red Line 172S

A

163 KIAS

174
Q

Special use airspace WARMPC areas?

A

Warning Areas
Alert Areas
Restricted Areas (DO NOT ENTER)
MOA’s (can enter with authority from controlling agency)
Prohibited areas (DO NOT ENTER)
Controlled Firing areas (not posted on sectional map)

175
Q

5 C’s when lost?

A

Calm
Climb
Circle
Communicate
Confess and Comply

176
Q

Floor of Class B airspace?

A

SFC

177
Q

Trough line associated with what type of pressure system?

A

Low Pressure and bad weather

178
Q

Low Pressure systems associated with what type of weather?

A

Bad weather

179
Q

Ridge lines are associated with _______ pressure systems.

A

high

180
Q

How does air flow with high air pressure systems?

A

-Clockwise
-Outward
-Downward

181
Q

Low pressure system air moves?

A

-Inward
-Upward
-Counter-clockwise

182
Q

ISO bars shown close together on a surface weather chart or constant pressure chart shows what info?

A

Steep pressure gradients, and high wind speeds

183
Q

Isobars indicating shallow pressure gradient indicate:

A
  • Low wind speeds
184
Q

For ATP purposes, how long is your class 1 medical certificate good for?

A

12 mos under 40
6 mos over 40

185
Q

Commercial Purposes, how long is a class 1 medical good for?

A

12 mos over or under 40yrs old

186
Q

PPL Privileges with a class 1 medical certificate is good for:

A

60 mos under 40
24 mos over 40

187
Q

Commercial pilot privileges are good with a class 2 medical cert. for how long?

A

12 mos whether over or under 40yrs old

188
Q

As a student pilot, you hold a class 1 medical certificate, how long is your medical certificate good for utilizing private pilot privileges?

A

60 mos under 40
24 mos over 40 yrs old

189
Q

Terminal Aerodome Forecast

A

Information provided similar to a METAR

  • It posts information into the future indicating what the weather will be at that location at that given time
  • Information provided is similar to the METAR information
190
Q

GFA tool can look how far into the past?

A

14hrs

191
Q

What height range can the GFA tool be used to see WX?

A

SFC - FL480

192
Q

Class C minimum equipment for operation in C airspace?

A
  • 2 Radio Communication
  • Mode C transponder
  • ADS-B Out
193
Q

Class B minimum equipment to operate within the airspace?

A
  • 2 Way communication
  • Clearance to enter the airspace
  • Mode C transponder
  • ADS-B Out
194
Q

What makes a stable aircraft?

A

A stable aircraft is the aircraft’s ability to recover from inflight disturbances with minimal pilot intervention

195
Q

What is a TFR?

A

A temporary flight restriction (i.e. presidential TFR, stadium football/baseball games etc.)

196
Q

PAVE Checklist

A

P: Pilot
A: Aircraft
V: enVironment
E: External/Internal Pressures

197
Q

How much excess fuel is required for day flights?

A

Excess fuel for at least 30 min of extra flights

198
Q

How much excess fuel is required to have for night flights?

A

Enough fuel for 45min of extra flying

199
Q

What’s a NWKRAFT brief?

A

Notams
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternate airports
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and Landing distances

200
Q

Minimum altitude flying above protected wildlife areas is:

A

2,000’ AGL

201
Q

A decrease in pressure results in an _______ in density altitude.

A

Increase in density altitude

202
Q

A decrease in temperature (cooling) of an air mass results in a ______ in density altitude.

A
  • lower density altitude
  • increase in pressure
  • increase in density (tightly packed molecules)
203
Q

An increase in air pressure results in a _________ in density altitude.

A

Decrease

  • Molecules are tightly packed together, which occurs at lower altitudes (high altitude equals higher density altitude)
204
Q

Are runway lengths posted on the sectional chart the amount of available runway for landing and takeoff?

A

They are how long the runway is, but you would have to look at the chart supplement to know if that is accurate.

The actual length posted could include the displaced threshold which is not used for landing.

205
Q

What is hydroplaning, and how do you fix it?

A

You would want to land at a lower airspeed because the tires won’t pierce the surface water.

In order to pierce the water you would have to use aerodynamic brakes and use light braking.

206
Q

What does “carrier only” mean when you make a call to ATC?

A

It means that the transmission went through but no voice came through so you should check your mic connection

207
Q

What chapter can I find for reporting incidents?

A

14 CFR 830.10

208
Q

What serious incidents must occur and must be reported to NTSB?

A

COFFPACF

Crew unable to perform duties
Overdue flight/aircraft (reported in 7 days)
Fire in flight
Failure of internal turbine component
Property damage $25K+
Accident in flight
Collision
Flight control system failure

209
Q

What are the 4 causes of left turning tendencies?

A
  1. P Factor
  2. Gyroscopic procession: causes a yawing motion
  3. Torque reaction from engine and propeller
  4. Corkscrew effect from slip stream
210
Q

When should you notify NTSB of an accident, collision, overdue aircraft etc. (COFFPACF)?

A

-Immediately to the nearest NTSB office

PPL (13 decks)

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