Private Pilot License Flashcards
1
Q
What airspace are transponders required?
A
- Class A, B, and C
- Mode C Veil (30NM of primary airport in B airspace)
- All airspace at or above 10,000’ MSL
- Excluding airspace at or below 2,500’ AGL
2
Q
What are the VFR minimums below 18,000’ MSL and above 10,000 MSL?
A
“5-111”
- 5 SM Visibility
- 1,000’ above clouds
- 1,000’ below clouds
- 1 Mile Horizontally
3
Q
Class “G” VFR minimums below 10,000’ MSL and above 1,200’ AGL during the DAYTIME?
A
“1-152”
- 1 SM Visibility
- 1,000’ above clouds
- 500’ below clouds
- 2,000’ horizontally clear of clouds
4
Q
Class “G” VFR minimums below 10,000’ MSL and above 1,200’ AGL at NIGHT?
A
“3-152”
- 3 SM Visibility
- 1,000’ above clouds
- 500’ below clouds
- 2,000’ horizontally clear of clouds
5
Q
How far out from remote non-towered airport should pilot make announcement on common traffic advisory?
A
- 10 Miles
- During downwind and intended runway
- During base and intended runway
6
Q
What 3 instruments get their information from the pitot static system?
A
- Altimeter
- Airspeed indicator
- Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
7
Q
What is “true altitude”?
A
True altitude is the vertical distance of the airplane from sea level; expressed as MSL
8
Q
What is “Absolute” altitude?
A
Absolute altitude is the height above ground level; expressed as AGL
9
Q
If flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting your barometric scale, what will happen?
A
My indicated altitude will be higher than my actual altitude, remember the phrase from Hi to Low look out below; same goes for temperature
10
Q
What will happen if both ram air inlet, and drain hole of the pitot tube is clogged?
A
My airspeed indicator will show a constant airspeed, and will change as I climb and descend acting as an altimeter.
11
Q
Where is the alternate static port located, and how will that affect flight instruments?
A
It is located inside the aircraft, and because pressure is lower inside the plan will cause:
1. The altimeter to read a higher than actual altitude
2. Airspeed indicator will show faster than actual airspeed
3. VSI will show mementary climb then work normally
12
Q
When flying at night and you see a white light and a green light in front of it, which directed is that aircraft heading?
A
The aircraft if moving from left to right
13
Q
What are Special VFR conditions, and when are they available for request?
A
- You need to remain clear of clouds and maintain flight visibility of at least 1 SM.
- This must be requested, and is only available between sunrise and sunset
- Must hold a PPL
- If requesting after sunset, pilot must be IFR rated, and aircraft must be equipped with IFR equpment
14
Q
What’s the purpose of MOA’s?
A
It’s purpose is to separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
15
Q
What are Alert Areas, and how are they marked on a sectional chart?
A
They are marked with an “A” followed by a number.
The purpose is to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilos should exercise caution in these areas.
16
Q
What is a LAA (Local Airport Advisory)?
A
They’re a service provided by FSS (Flight Service Station), and they provide local airport advisories, automated weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a continuous AWOS/ASOS data display.
17
Q
What are MTR’s (Military Training Routes)?
A
MTRs are routes used by military a/c to maintain proficiency in tactical flying. They’re usually established below 10,000’ MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 KIAS.
Routes are identified as IFR (IR) or VFR (VR) followed by a number.
- If identified by four numbers, it’s below 1,500 AGL
- If identified by 3 numbers, it’s above 1,500 AGL
18
Q
What is TRSA and what is its purpose?
A
- Stands for Terminal Radar Service Area
- It’s areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar service.
- It provides separation between all IFR operations and participating VFR aircrafts.
19
Q
What section of the FAR/AIM can I find more information on Emergency air traffic rules?
A
91.139
20
Q
What are the 3 primary navigation aid for VFR on a sectional chart?
A
Topographic Information:
Airspace Information:
Radio Navigation Information:
21
Q
What are VFR Transitional Routes?
A
- Identified as Magenta arrows through chart
- Takes you through Class “B” airspace and require ATC clearance
22
Q
VFR Flyaways
A
- Indicated on chart as shaded “blue arrows”
- Keep you clear of “Class B” airspace and DO NOT require ATC clearance
23
Q
What do magenta and blue airports indicate on a sectional chart?
A
Magenta airports indicate non towered airports
Blue airports indicate towered airports
24
Q
What does “NO SVFR” indicate?
A
It indicates that airport does not allow special vfr traffic because the airport is too busy to provide special vfr service
25
What does "AOE" indicate on a sectional chart along with other airport information?
It indicates it is an Airport of Entry and there's U.S. customs and immigration office located on the field to process international arrivals
26
What is an SFRA area mean on a sectional chart?
It indicates a special flight rules area (SFRA). In places like DCA you must have
1. received specific training
2. be transmitting a discrete squawk code
3. be on a special flight plan when operating within 30 NM from the associated VOR/DME
27
What are the components of a (ATCRBS) secondary surveillance radar, and how do they work?
1. Interrogator (ground equipment): Generates a beam of pulse in the horizontal direction
2. Transponder (a/c equipment): Signal is sent back from the airplane omnidirectionally to the station
3. Radarscope (ground equipment): Screen where ATC can spot aircrafts from signals sent out and received
28
What is the IDNT button on the transponder do, and when should you use it?
It causes your airplane to show up very bright on a controllers screen.
Only use when requested by ATC
29
What does the standard code 7500 put in the transponder tell ATC?
Hijacking
30
What does the standard code 7700 put in the transponder tell ATC?
Emergency
31
What does the standard code 7777 put in the transponder tell ATC?
Military intercept code
32
What does the standard code 7600 put in the transponder tell ATC?
Communication failure
33
What are the different modes of a transponder?
1. Mode A: Is a radio transmitted "squawk" number the pilot sets upon ATC's request
2. Mode C: Reports altitude using onboard barometric pressure valves. This information gets reported along with the plane's squawk number
3. Mode S: Permanently assigns your transponder with an aircraft ID so ATC's radar can spot "Mode S Planes" easily
34
What are ADSB and what do they do?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast
- ADS-B Out: sends the position, altitude and speed of aircraft to ground stations and other aircrafts
- ADS-B In: receives ADS-B out data from other aircraft and ground stations, and displays them on other displays
*Mandatory since January 1st, 2020 in all a/c's operating in airspace that requires a mode C transponder
35
What class airspace are ADS-B required?
Class A: 18,000 MSL
Class B: SFC - 10,000 MSL / 30 NM of primary airport in class B airspace (Mode C veil)
Class C: SFC to 10,000 MSL
Class E: 12 NM from coast, 3,000 MSL to 10,000 MSL
2,500 AGL in Class E 10,000 MSL Not required
36
What does ground provide service for?
Controls the flow of traffic on the ground either visually or with ASR radar (Hillsboro ground)
37
What does Tower provide pilots with?
When to use runways and traffic patterns
38
What is TRACON, and what do they provide pilots?
Terminal Radar Control Facility
- Uses radar to provide approach control services to a/c arriving, departing or transitioning airspace controlled by the facility (i.e. Portland approach)
39
ARTCC
Air Route Traffic Control Centers
- Provide air traffic service to a/c operating on an IFR Flight Plan within controlled airspace
40
VFR Flight Following provide:
1. Safety alerts
2. Traffic advisories
3. Limited radar vectoring when requested by the pilot
4. Sequencing at locations where procedure have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by LOA
41
What is course, heading and track in regards to an aircraft traveling from point A to point B?
Course: Where you want to go (point B)
Heading: Where your nose is pointing (wind correction angle)
Track: Path of the airplane over the ground (actual path on th ground from point A to point B)
42
What can Flight Service Stations (FSS) provide pilots with?
They provide:
- Weather updates
- Activate a flight plan
- Check temporary flight restrictions (TFR) or special use airspace (SUA) status
- Get or give pilot reports (pireps)
- Update flight plan ETA
- Request help in emergency situations
43
What frequency can Flight Service Stations (FSS) be found on if you have trouble finding the local frequency?
122.2 mhz
44
What are ATIS, AWOS, and ASOS?
ATIS: Pre-recorded aeronautical info, human observer augments and records info over broadcast
AWOS:
- DIstributed by the FAA; broadcasts local minute by minute weather to the pilot
- May be augmented in RMK's by certified observer when visibility is less than 7 miles
ASOS:
- Distributed by the NWS
- Four levels of service
- Same data as the AWOS
45
Where can very high frequency (VHF) radios perform best?
At higher altitudes because VHF radios are limited to line of sight
46
"Read back" are good practices and include:
1- Heading Assignments
2- Altitude Assignments
3- Speed Assignments
4- Runway Assignments
5- Altimeter settings
6- Rate of climb or descent assignments
7- Route changes, including holding pattern instructions
8- Approach and landing clearances;
9- Takeoff and departure clearances
10- Runway hold short instructions
11- Taxi instructions
47
What frequency should pilots communicate near non-towered airports?
using CTAF (common traffic advisory frequency) located on sectional chart
48
What is the designated emergency frequency?
121.5
49
Name 4 dummy checks if you think you have lost comms.
1. Headset plugged in?
2. Volume turned up on headset and radio?
3. Correct frequency tuned in
4. Try plugging headsets into other jack
5. Try tuning to a previous frequency you know worked
6. See if you have a stuck mic
7. Dual comms? Try the other radio
8. Speaker installed? Hand mic?
9 Still nothing? Squawk 7600
50
Lost comms procedure at uncontrolled airport
- Eyes outside!
- Monitor the flow of traffic
- Enter a standard downwind
- Fly pattern as normal and land in sequence
51
Lost comms procedure at a controlled airport
- Eyes outside
- Monitor the flow of traffic
- Enter a standard downwind
- Fly a normal pattern
- Wait for light gun signals from the tower
- Follow instructions from light gun
52
What is a flashing green light for an aircraft on the ground mean?
Cleared for taxi
53
What is a steady green light for an aircraft on the ground mean?
Cleared for takeoff
54
What is a flashing green light for an aircraft in the air mean?
Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time)
55
What is a steady green light for an aircraft in the air mean?
Cleared to land
56
What is a flashing red light for an aircraft on the ground mean?
Taxi clear of the runway in use
57
What is a flashing red light for an aircraft in the air mean?
Airport unsafe, do not land
58
What is a steady red light for an aircraft on the ground mean?
Stop
59
What is a steady red light for an aircraft in the air mean?
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
60
What does a alternating red and green light for an aircraft on the ground mean?
Exercise extreme caution
61
What does a alternating red and green light for an aircraft in the air mean?
Exercise extreme caution
62
What can set off ELT's accidentally?
Hard landings
63
How often should ELT's be inspected?
Every 12 months
64
What are the 5 NOTAMS categories?
1. NOTAM (D)
2. FDC NOTAMs
3. Pointer NOTAMs
4. SAA NOTAMs
5. Military NOTAMs
65
NOTAM (D)
Information such as:
- Taxiway/runway closures
- Personnel and equipment near or crossing runways
66
FDC NOTAMs
Issued by the NFDC and contain regulatory info such as:
- TFR
- Aeronautical chart updates
- Amendment to instrument approach procedures (IAP)
(i.e. White House, Area 51, Superbowl, Airshow, Forest Fire etc.)
67
Military NOTAMs
NOTAMs pertaining to D.o.D
VOR/Airports that are part of the NAS Military Operations Area
68
Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs
Issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule
69
Advisory Circulars (AC)
A systematic means of providing pilots with non-regulatory information
- AC numbering systems corresponds with applicable FAR subchapters; letters trailing the AC indicates current revision
(00 General, 20 Aircraft, 60 Airmen, 70, airspace etc.)
70
FARs
Code of Federal Regulations is the general and permanent rules and regs put forth by the federal govn't of the USA
71
AIM
Contains basic flight info & ATC procedures:
*Non-regulatory, but may reference regulations
72
What is an advantage of a constant speed propeller?
- A constant-speed propeller permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance for a particular flight condition.
- A low blade angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desirable for takeoffs. An intermediate position can be used for subsequent climb.
- After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade may be changed to a higher angle for lower RPM, reduced engine noise, generally lower vibration, and greater fuel efficiency
73
The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle:
between the wing chord line and the relative wind
74
In straight and level flight, what is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust and weight?
Life = Weight and Thrust = Drag
75
What is ground effect?
The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane. Induced drag is decreased
76
When is the strength of the vortex at its greatest strength?
When an aircraft is heavy, clean and slow
77
How is floating, due to ground effect, caused?
It is caused by a reduction in induced drag.
- At a height equal to the wings length, it's reduced by 1.4%
- At a height 1/4 of the wings length, induced drag is reduced by 23.5%
- At a height of 1/10th of the wings length, induced drag is reduced 47.6%
78
During a spin to the left, which wing is stalled?
Both wings are stalled in a spin
79
What is the first indication of carb ice in a float type carburator?
Loss of RMP would occur, then engine roughness would come afterwards
80
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:
Lower the nose to allow aircraft to gain airspeed, which eventually lower the engine temperature
81
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would experience:
Avionics equipment failure
82
NOTAM (D)
Information Includes:
- Taxi/Runway Closures
- Personnel & Equipment near or crossing runways,
- Navaid Facilities (VOR) and airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria (i.e visual slope indicators)
83
FDC NOTAMs
Issued by the National Flight Data Center and contains:
- TFR (i.e White House, Area 51, VIP, Super Bowl, Airshow etc.)
- Aeronautical chart updates/amendment to instrument approach procedures (IAP)
84
Military NOTAMs
- Pertaining to D.o.D
- Navaids/airports that are a part of NAS MOA's
85
NOTAMs Pointer
Highlights or cross reference another NOTAM
86
Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs
- Issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule
87
Advisory Circulars
- A systematic means of providing pilots with non-regulatory information
- AC numbering correlates with what section in the FAR they're associated with
88
Cones of the eye are:
- Help see color
- Center of the eye
- Effective in the day
89
Rods in the eye:
- Can't see color
- Periphery
- See movement
- 10,000x more light sensitive than cones
- 30 min to adapt to darkness
90
Standard elevation for traffic patterns?
1,000' above field elevation
91
Exit traffic pattern altitude at?
300’ below TPA (traffic pattern altitude)
92
Airplane and Rotorcraft are in the same category when it comes to:
right of way
93
Sequence of right of way: Balloon, Glider, Towing/Refueling, AIrship, Airplane-Rotorcraft
1 - Balloon
2 - Gliders
3 - Aircraft Towing/Refueling
4 - Airship
5 - Rotorcraft/ Airship
94
Minimum FAR Safe Altitudes regulations chapter?
FAR 91.119
95
Minimum altitude over a congested are?
- 1,000' above the highest obstacle
- 2,000' horizontal radius
96
How far apart are touchdown zones?
500' apart along the runway
97
Displaced thresholds
- The portion of runway behind displaced threshold is available for taxi and takeoff i either direction and landings from the opposite direction
- Runways with displaced thresholds, the beginning of the landing zone is marked by a 10' solid white line with chevrons leading to it
- Located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway
98
Blast Pad
- Allows jet blasts to dissipate
- Referred to as an overunn and may be used as such
99
Taxiway Centerline Lead Off LIghts
Alternate green and yellow
100
Taxiway Edge Lights
Omnidirectional Blue
101
Runway End LIghts
Bidirectional lights that mark the end of the runway:
- Red for pilots taking off or landing in one direction
- Green for pilots approaching the threshold for touchdown
102
Vlo Speed Indicates?
Maximum speed the landing gear can be operated
103
What kind of weather is considered VFR?
- Visibility greater than 5SM
- Ceiling greater than 3,000'
104
Define Marginal VFR
- 3-5 SM visibility
- 1,000 - 3,000' Ceilings
105
Define IFR Weather
- 1-3 SM visibility
- 500' - 1,000' ceilings
106
Define Low IFR Weather
- Visibility less than 1 SM
- Ceiling less than 500'
107
Special Use Airspace: Restricted
- Hazardous to non participating aircraft
- Cannot enter this airspace
108
Restricted airspace: Warning Areas
- Can enter these areas
- USA does not have full jurisdiction over the airspace
109
Restricted Airspace: Alert Areas
- Can enter
- Informing nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot
110
Restricted Airspace: Controlled Firing Area
- Can enter
- Not published on maps
111
What minimum pilot certifications are required for class D airspace?
- No minimum pilot certification required for class D airspace
112
A pilot may request special VFR at night with what requirements?
- Pilot need to be (IFR) instrument rated
- Aircraft must be equipped with IFR instruments
113
What's the maximum airspeed in a VFR corridor through class B airspace?
200 KIAS
114
Maximum airspeed below 10,000 MSL
250 KIAS
115
Max airspeed at or below 2,500' AGL and within 4 NM of primary airport of Class C airspace is:
- 200 KIAS
116
While operating VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an ODD-THOUSAND plus 500' altitude while on a:
- Magnetic course of 0 to 170 degrees
117
Subchapter 20 in the FAR refers to:
- Aircraft
118
Subchapter 60 of the FAR refers to:
Airmen
119
Subchapter 70 of the FAR refers to:
- Airspace
120
Subchapter 90 in the FAR refers to:
- Air Traffic & General Operating rules
121
What airspace is indicated inside a blue and/or magenta fuzzy area, and a segmented magenta line line on a sectional chart?
Blue: "E" airspace with a floor of 1,200' AGL
Magenta: "E" airspace with a floor of 700' AGL
Segmented Magenta: Class "E" all the way to the surface
122
What airspace is located inside a segmented magenta line on a sectional chart?
Class E airspace from the surface
123
Blue segmented around an airspace is:
- Class "D" airspace
124
Solid blue lines around an airspace indicates:
Class "B" airspace
125
Solid magenta lines around an airspace indicates:
Class "C" airspace
126
Minimum license nn to be held in order to enter Class "B" airspace?
- Must have a PPL or student logbook w/ correct endorsements to enter class "B" airspace (must have endorsement saying student in the last 90 days, is competent to solo in class "B" airspace)
127
An AEROBATIC plane is highly _____ but has a very small ______
Maneuverable; Useful Load
128
A cargo aircraft has a very large_____, but has poor______
Useful Load; maneuverability
129
Where can I find the maximum demonstrated crosswind component for my airplane?
In the performance section of the POH
130
172S Vfe
110 KIAS
85 KIAS
131
172S & 172P Vg
S: 68
P: 65
132
172S Vx
62
133
172S Vy
74 KIAS
134
172S Vg
68 KIAS
135
172S Vcc
80 KIAS
136
172S Vs0
40 KIAS
137
What do runway holding position signs look like?
- Red background
- White font lettering
- Black bordering lettering
138
Can a student pilot on a solo flight accept a LAHSO clearance?
No
139
LAHSO's are generally not authorized during?
- Night
- Wet runway conditions
140
How long is VFR flight plan held by FSS?
- 1 hr after proposed departure time if
- no actual departure time is received upon takeoff
- A revised departure time is not received
- FSS gets an updated departure time because lack of comms (pilot is not notified when this happens)
141
Lost and situation becomes threatening, what comm frequency can be used?
121.5
142
Types of Hypoxia
1. Hypemic
2. Hypoxic
3. Stagnant
4. Histotoxic
143
Stagnant Hypoxia
- Associated with limb falling asleep, blood carrying O2 can't get to parts of the body that need the oxygen
144
Hypoxic
- Associated with high altitude, essentially not enough air is available to the body for consumption
145
Hypemic
Associated with carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood carrying the oxygen to the body can't chemically bind to the oxygen molecules
146
Histotoxic
- Cells unable to use the oxygen provided to the body; caused by drugs or alcohol
147
Indication of fog near the surface at night?
Glowing/halo around lights near the surface
148
ATOMATOFLAMES
- ASI
- Tachometer for each engine
- Oil Pressure gauge
- Manifold Pressure gauge (for altitude engines)
- Altimeter
- Temperature gauge (for liquid cooled engines)
- Oil Temperature gauge (for air cooled engines)
- Fuel Tank (must read empty when actually empty)
- Landing gear position indicator (if retractable)
- Anti- Collision lights (after March 11, 1996)
- Magnetic Compass
- ELT
- Safety Belts
149
Spin Recovery Steps
Power Idle
Ailerons Neutral
Rudder Opposite to spin
Elevators Down
150
172S Vs0
40 KIAS
151
No relative movement between you and an approaching aircraft indicates?
Head on collision
152
Minimum requirements to hold a private pilot certificate?
- Must be 17 yrs old
- Be able to read, write, speak, and understand english
- Class 3 Medical Certificate
- Passed the FAA knowledge exam
- Meet aeronautical experience requirements
153
Required documents for a aircraft to be airworthy:
Airworthiness Certificate
Registration Certificate
Radio License (for international flights)
Operators Manual
Weight and Balance
Bonus:
Supplements
Placards
154
IMSAFE CHECKLIST
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol (8hr bottle to throttle .04 BAC level)
Fatigue
Eat/Drink adequately
155
5 Hazardous Attitudes
- Invulnerability = Because it hasn't happened to you doesn't mean it won't happen to you.
- Impulsivity = Stop and think before reacting
- Anti-Authority = Follow the rules, they're usually right
- Macho = Taking risks is foolish
- Resignation = You are not helpless, you can make a difference
156
PAVE Checklist
P: Pilot
A: Aircraft
V: enVironment
E: External Pressures
157
What's needed for a student pilot to solo?
- Student License
- Class 3 Medical certificate
- Photo ID
- Logbook
- Endorsement to solo
158
Inspections needed for airworthiness purposes:
Annual Inspection (can be done same time as 100hr inspection, and can replace 100hr inspection) (12 mos)
VOR (30 days)
100hr Inspection (cannot replace annual, but annual can be done in place of the 100hr inspection)
Altimeter (24 mos)
Transponder (24 mos)
ELT (12 mos | 1/2 Battery life | 1hr of consecutive use)
159
FLAPS for Night VFR
Fuses and Circuit Breakers
Landing Lights (if for hire)
Anti-Collision Lights
Position Lights
Source of Power
160
When can you log night landings for pax currency?
- Between 1 hr after sunset and 1hr before sunrise
161
When can I log night time flying?
Civil twilight
162
When do position lights need to be on when operating an a/c?
Between sunset and sunrise
163
NWKRAFT Preflight Briefing
NOTAMS
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternate Airports
Fuel Requirements
Takeoff and landing lengths
164
If no MEL list is found for a broken item, what's the next step?
1. Check part 21 list, if item broken is NOT listed DO NOT FLY!
2. Check KOEL list in POH limitations section. If item is NOT listed DO NOT FLY!
3. Check 91.205 list (ATOMATOFLAMES) if item is NOT listed DO NOT FLY!
4. Check AD's. If item is NOT listed there, DO NOT FLY!
5. Is item placarded "inoperable", or has been removed from the aircraft? If NOT, DO NOT FLY!
165
172S fuel quantity
53 gallons
166
172S oil quantity
8 quarts
167
Empty Weight of 172S
1,663lbs
168
Area 1 bag compartment max weight in 172S in front of latch
120lbs
169
Area 2 bag compartment max weight allowed? Not to exceed 120lbs total
50lbs
170
White arc speed range in 172S?
40-85 KIAS
171
Green Arc speed range in 172S?
48 - 129 KIAS
172
172S Yellow Arc speed ranges?
129 - 163 KIAS
173
Red Line 172S
163 KIAS
174
Special use airspace WARMPC areas?
Warning Areas
Alert Areas
Restricted Areas (DO NOT ENTER)
MOA's (can enter with authority from controlling agency)
Prohibited areas (DO NOT ENTER)
Controlled Firing areas (not posted on sectional map)
175
5 C's when lost?
Calm
Climb
Circle
Communicate
Confess and Comply
176
Floor of Class B airspace?
SFC
177
Trough line associated with what type of pressure system?
Low Pressure and bad weather
178
Low Pressure systems associated with what type of weather?
Bad weather
179
Ridge lines are associated with _______ pressure systems.
high
180
How does air flow with high air pressure systems?
-Clockwise
-Outward
-Downward
181
Low pressure system air moves?
-Inward
-Upward
-Counter-clockwise
182
ISO bars shown close together on a surface weather chart or constant pressure chart shows what info?
Steep pressure gradients, and high wind speeds
183
Isobars indicating shallow pressure gradient indicate:
- Low wind speeds
184
For ATP purposes, how long is your class 1 medical certificate good for?
12 mos under 40
6 mos over 40
185
Commercial Purposes, how long is a class 1 medical good for?
12 mos over or under 40yrs old
186
PPL Privileges with a class 1 medical certificate is good for:
60 mos under 40
24 mos over 40
187
Commercial pilot privileges are good with a class 2 medical cert. for how long?
12 mos whether over or under 40yrs old
188
As a student pilot, you hold a class 1 medical certificate, how long is your medical certificate good for utilizing private pilot privileges?
60 mos under 40
24 mos over 40 yrs old
189
Terminal Aerodome Forecast
Information provided similar to a METAR
- It posts information into the future indicating what the weather will be at that location at that given time
- Information provided is similar to the METAR information
190
GFA tool can look how far into the past?
14hrs
191
What height range can the GFA tool be used to see WX?
SFC - FL480
192
Class C minimum equipment for operation in C airspace?
- 2 Radio Communication
- Mode C transponder
- ADS-B Out
193
Class B minimum equipment to operate within the airspace?
- 2 Way communication
- Clearance to enter the airspace
- Mode C transponder
- ADS-B Out
194
What makes a stable aircraft?
A stable aircraft is the aircraft's ability to recover from inflight disturbances with minimal pilot intervention
195
What is a TFR?
A temporary flight restriction (i.e. presidential TFR, stadium football/baseball games etc.)
196
PAVE Checklist
P: Pilot
A: Aircraft
V: enVironment
E: External/Internal Pressures
197
How much excess fuel is required for day flights?
Excess fuel for at least 30 min of extra flights
198
How much excess fuel is required to have for night flights?
Enough fuel for 45min of extra flying
199
What's a NWKRAFT brief?
Notams
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternate airports
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and Landing distances
200
Minimum altitude flying above protected wildlife areas is:
2,000' AGL
201
A decrease in pressure results in an _______ in density altitude.
Increase in density altitude
202
A decrease in temperature (cooling) of an air mass results in a ______ in density altitude.
- lower density altitude
- increase in pressure
- increase in density (tightly packed molecules)
203
An increase in air pressure results in a _________ in density altitude.
Decrease
- Molecules are tightly packed together, which occurs at lower altitudes (high altitude equals higher density altitude)
204
Are runway lengths posted on the sectional chart the amount of available runway for landing and takeoff?
They are how long the runway is, but you would have to look at the chart supplement to know if that is accurate.
The actual length posted could include the displaced threshold which is not used for landing.
205
What is hydroplaning, and how do you fix it?
You would want to land at a lower airspeed because the tires won't pierce the surface water.
In order to pierce the water you would have to use aerodynamic brakes and use light braking.
206
What does "carrier only" mean when you make a call to ATC?
It means that the transmission went through but no voice came through so you should check your mic connection
207
What chapter can I find for reporting incidents?
14 CFR 830.10
208
What serious incidents must occur and must be reported to NTSB?
COFFPACF
Crew unable to perform duties
Overdue flight/aircraft (reported in 7 days)
Fire in flight
Failure of internal turbine component
Property damage $25K+
Accident in flight
Collision
Flight control system failure
209
What are the 4 causes of left turning tendencies?
1. P Factor
2. Gyroscopic procession: causes a yawing motion
3. Torque reaction from engine and propeller
4. Corkscrew effect from slip stream
210
When should you notify NTSB of an accident, collision, overdue aircraft etc. (COFFPACF)?
-Immediately to the nearest NTSB office
