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Principles > Principles Anatomy > Flashcards

Principles Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 planes of the body.

A
  1. Sagittal (Median or parasagittal)
  2. Coronal/ frontal
  3. Axial/Transverse/ Horizontal

** Sagittal & coronal are longitudinal planes

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2
Q

Anatomical term for front and back

A

Anterior and Posterior

Coronal plane

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3
Q

Anatomical term for top and bottom

A

Superior and Inferior

Or
Cranial/ Rostral/ Vertex and Caudal

(Horizontal plane）

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4
Q

Anatomical term in relation to Median plane

A

Medial and lateral

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5
Q

Anatomical term describing relationship site of attachment of limbs to body

A

Proximal and Distal

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6
Q

Anatomical term to describe relationship of distance to centre of organ or cavity

A

External and Internal

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7
Q

Anatomical term to describe relationship to surface

A

Superficial and deep

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8
Q

Anatomical terms for parts of body that protrudes anteriorly

A

Dorsal (superior or posterior) and Ventral (inferior or anterior)

E.g. Top of tongue is the dorsal surface

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9
Q

Ventral terms for palm, foot, wrist

A

Palm - Palmar
Foot - Plantar
Wrist - Volar

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10
Q

Term to describe an intermediate anatomical position

A

Middle

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11
Q

Anatomical term in relation to size of structure

A

Major and Minor

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12
Q

Term describing structures found only on 1 side of the body

Give examples

A

Unilateral

E.g. Spleen, Appendix

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13
Q

Term describing structures found on both sides of body

Give examples

A

Bilateral

E.g. Upper and lower limbs, eyes, ears, lungs, kidney

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14
Q

Term describing structures found along median plane

A

Midline

E.g. vertebral column, skull, thyroid

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15
Q

Term describing structures found on same side of body from the other that it is being compared to

A

Ipsilateral

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16
Q

Term describing structures found on opposite side of body from the other that it is being compared to

A

Contralateral

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17
Q

Notes:

Combined anatomical terms

A

Antero- , Postero - always prefix

Lateral, medial - always suffix

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18
Q

Term for a diagonal section

A

Oblique

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19
Q

What is the anatomical position

A

Upright/ supine state
Feet, head, palms facing anteriorly
Arms fully extended, perpendicular to the ground
Eyes looking forward

**Note: downward action of gravity on viscera when upright compared to lying supine

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20
Q

Note:
Anterior movement of structures superior to knee is flexion

Posterior movement of structures inferior to knee is flexion

A

-

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21
Q

Movement towards and away from median plane

A

Toward: adduction
Away: abduction

Careful with eyes: if one side adducts, the other abducts (Midline: Nose)

For digits: Midline goes across middle finger
Waving movement: lateral and medial abduction

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22
Q

Movements for rotation

A

Internal/ medial and External/ lateral

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23
Q

Sequence for circumduction of joint

A

Flexion, Abduction, Extension then Adduction

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24
Q

Movement of sole of foot in and outwards

A

Inversion and Eversion

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25
Q

Movement of forearm (palm facing up and down)

A

Supination and Pronation

Normally rested at a semi-prone position

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26
Q

Movement of thumb

A

Opposition (touching digits)
And
Reposition (back to anatomical position)

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27
Q

Movement of shoulders/ upper eyelid up and down

A

Elevation and Depression

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28
Q

Movement of scapula front and back

A

Protraction and Retraction

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29
Q

Forward/backward movement jaw and tongue

A

Protrusion and Retrusion

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30
Q

Sideways bending

A

Lateral flexion of vertebral column

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31
Q

Movement for tipping toe and pointing toe downwards

A

Dorsiflexion and Plantarflexion

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32
Q

Describe abduction, extension and flexion of thumb

A

Abduction: thumb anterior from palm
Extension: thumb moves laterally away from palm
Flexion: thumb crosses palm

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33
Q

Difference between occurring IN and AROUND a plane

A

In - movement won’t change the plane
Around - changes description

E.g. abduction/ adduction occurs IN coronal plane but AROUND parasagittal plane

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34
Q

Function of the circulatory system (6)

A
  1. Gaseous exchange for growth and repair
  2. Waste removal
  3. Nutrition transport
  4. Chemical signalling (hormone)
  5. Thermoregulation (core body temperature)
  6. Mediate inflammation and host defence response
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35
Q

Components of the CVS

A

Arterial system
Heart
Venous system

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36
Q

What is the circulation route?

A

Deoxygenated blood: SVC/ IVC to Right Atrium to Triscuspid valve to Right Ventricle to Pulmonary valve to Pulmonary trunk
Bifurcated to right and left pulmonary artery

Oxygenated blood: Lungs to pulmonary veins (2 left, 2 right) to Left Atrium to Bicuspid/ Mitral valve to Left Ventricle to Aortic valve to Aorta

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37
Q

Orientation of chambers of heart (anterior/ posterior surfaces)

A

Right ventricle - most anterior
Left atrium - most posterior
Right atrium & Left ventricle - borders

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38
Q

Function of valves

A

Prevent backflow of blood

Ensure unidirectional flow

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39
Q

Note: Heart is a double muscular pump

A

-

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40
Q

Layers of the heart (3)

A
  1. Epicardium (Visceral serous pericardium)
  2. Myocardium (Smooth muscle)
  3. Endocardium (continuous with blood vessels connecting with heart; of epithelial origin)
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41
Q

Electrical conduction route of the heart

A 
Concept of auto-rhythmicity
SA node (upper right atrium) spontaneously fires -> atria contracts -> AV node at Atria-ventricular septum -> Right & Left bundle of His in inter-ventricular septum -> spreads through conducting Purkinje fibers throughout myocardium -> ventricles contract
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42
Q

Layers of blood vessels (5)

A
  1. Tunica Intima (Endothelium, single layer of squamous epithelial cells supported by a basal layer and a thin layer of connective tissue)
  2. Internal Elastic Membrane
  3. Tunica Media (Predominantly smooth muscle and elastic fibers; most variable thickness) Circumferential arrangement
  4. Outer Elastic Membrane
  5. Tunica Adventitia (Supporting connective tissue - with unmyelinated nerve fibers, blood vessels, fibroblasts, collagen fibrils, elastic fibers)

*Elastic tissue stained black with Verhoeff’s/ Masson Trichrome stain

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43
Q

Characteristics of Arteries (6)

A 
Part of Neurovascular bundle 
High Pressure (>120/80)
Rounded elastic lumen
Pulsatile
Carries oxygenated blood 
Located deeper than veins (in protected areas)
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44
Q

Characteristic of Arterioles (6)

A
  1. Decrease in size compared to larger vessels
  2. Only 1 - 2 layers of smooth muscle left in tunica media -> dilates/contract lumen -> regulates blood flow to tissues
  3. No adventitia
  4. Sympathetic tone gives low level of contraction of smooth muscle innervated by SNS at background (tonic/ continuous conduction of action potential)
  5. Contraction (Spasm) can help to reduce blood loss after injury
  6. Important in controlling blood flow in tissue
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45
Q

Properties of elastic fibers in Aorta

A

Contains sheets of elastic fiber replacing smooth muscles that provides elastic recoil during diastole (Maintains peripheral flow) (More energy efficient)

Expands under high pressure during systole while receiving blood

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46
Q

Naming of arteries that will definitely divide

A

Common or Trunk

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47
Q

Define anastomoses and its caveat

A

Also known as collateral circulation

Arteries connect with each other WITHOUT intervening capillary network –> gives alternative route for blood flow to supply cells distal to an arterial occlusion

Caveat: Can bleed from both sides of a cut (route of less pressure) –> worse hemorrhage

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48
Q

Define end arteries/ infarction

A

The only arterial blood supply to given area of body

Thus, untreated occlusion –> infarction of end territory –> irreversible cell death from hypoxia from low arterial blood supply

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49
Q

Coronary arteries are functional end arteries. Why?

A

Anastomoses occur but not enough to compensate occlusion –> MI

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50
Q

Examples of end arteries (2)

A
  1. Digital artery branch (Finger tip infarction)

2. Central artery of retina (Monocular blindness)

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51
Q

Example of collateral circulation (1)

A
  1. Circle of Willis (prevents CVA/ stroke)
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52
Q

What is the term for ‘Blood vessel of blood vessels’

A

Vasa vasorum.

In large arteries, only the inner par of wall obtain nutrients from lumen –> thus vessels need to have own vascular supply

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53
Q

Segment and route of aorta and its branches

A

Ascending - Right and Left coronary artery
Arch - Brachiocephalic trunk, Left common carotid, Left subclavian
Thoracic - multiple
Abdominal - 3 unpaired midline branches & 3 paired bilateral branches

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54
Q

Route of arterial supply at upper limb from subclavian

A

Subclavian –> Axillary –> Brachial –> Bifurcates to radial and ulnar

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55
Q

Route of abdominal aorta

A

Abdominal aorta –> common iliac artery –> bifurcates to external iliac (to LL) and internal iliac (to pelvis and perineum)

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56
Q

Location of Peripheral Pulses (6)

A
  1. Carotid (at bifurcation of common carotid artery)
  2. Brachial (anteromedial to elbow joint)
  3. Radial (volar aspect of wrist)
  4. Popliteal (posterior to knee joint)
  5. Femoral (continuation of external iliac artery at midpoint of groin)
  6. Dorsalis Pedis (Lowest point; indicative of arterial integrity)
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57
Q

What consists of the circulatory system

A

CVS + Lymphatic system (no central pump)

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58
Q

Characteristic of veins (11)

A
  1. In neurovascular bundle
  2. Carries de-oxygenated blood
  3. Low pressure
  4. Non-pulsatile
  5. Drains blood away from territory
  6. Venules and veins merge like tributary
  7. Thin walled, thus collapses when empty
  8. Valve cusps in small-medium sized veins as inward extension of tunica intima (Dysfunction –> develop varicosities)
  9. Thin but continuous tunica media (few layers of smooth muscles) (thinner than that found in a muscular artery)
  10. Thick tunica adventitia (thicker in larger veins (IVC/ HPV) and incorporates bundles of longitudinally oriented SM)
  11. Oblong lumen
  12. Flexible - can accommodate expansion and contain most blood in the body
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59
Q

Factors influencing venous return (3)

A
  1. Venous valves (flowback to heart against gravity)
  2. Skeletal muscle pump
  3. Accompanying veins (small veins run in pairs or more with an artery in a sheath –> pulsation pushes venous blood away) aka Venae comitantes
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60
Q

2 sets of veins

A
  1. Superficial (smaller, run within superficial fascia and drains into deeper veins)
  2. Deep (larger, run deep to deep fascia and cavities, usually in NVB)
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61
Q

2 venous systems

A
  1. Hepatic portal venous system: Drains venous blood from absorptive parts of GI tract and associated organs to liver for cleansing
  2. Systemic venous system: Drains venous blood from all other organs and tissue into SVC and IVC
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62
Q

Characteristic of capillaries

A
  1. Forms extensive vascular networks
  2. Lined with single layer of endothelium (diffusion distance) and a basal layer
  3. No smooth muscle, some connective tissue
  4. narrow lumen (1 RBC wide)
  5. Exchange of gases, metabolites and waste products with ECF
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63
Q

Types of capillaries (3)

A
  1. Continuous: Muscle, nerve, lung, skin, connective tisuse
  2. Fenestrated (Small pores ~50nm): Gut mucosa, endocrine glands, glomeruli of kidneys
  3. Discontinuous/ Sinusoidal (Large gaps for macromolecules & cells; Basal lamina is discontinuous or absent): Liver, Spleen, Bone Marrow
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64
Q

Route of microvasculature from small arterioles

A

Small arterioles –> Meta-arteriole –> Pre capillary sphincter (smooth muscle; controls flow through network) –> branches into capillaries –> merges into post capillary venules –> joins back to collecting venule (larger diameter)

Small arterioles –> Meta-arteriole –> thoroughfare channel –> collecting venule

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65
Q

What is interstitial fluid known as?

A

Lymph

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66
Q

Lymphatic circulation from capillaries

A

Waste products leaked out into ECF from blood not picked up by capillaries –> enters lymphatic circulation -> Lymph nodes –> Central large veins at root of neck

Superficial lymphatics drain to deep lymphatics

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67
Q

Drainage of lymph back to venous system

A
  1. 3/4 of lymph drains through thoracic duct into Left venous angle (Only lymphatic vessel visible grossly)
  2. 1/4 of lymph drains through right lymphatic duct into Right venous angle (Right head, UL, neck & thorax)
  • Venous angle: junction of internal jugular and subclavian veins)
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68
Q

Function of lymph node and palpability during infection

A

Contains WBC to filter out foreign particles and fight cancer/ infection (Immunological surveillance)

Usually non-palpable but enlarged & palpable in those fighting infection or taken over by spreading cancer (seen on CT)

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69
Q

Characteristic of lymph vessels

A

Thin-walled vessels that drains excess tissue fluid into blood (recycling)

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70
Q

Factors aiding flow in lymphatic vessels

A
  1. Smooth muscles in walls
  2. Hydrostatic pressure in tissue
  3. Compression of vessels by voluntary muscles
  4. Valves
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71
Q

What comprises of the axial skeleton?

A

Bones at the midline:

Skull, Neck (C-vertebrae, Hyoid Bone), Trunk (Chest, Abdomen, Back)

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72
Q

What comprises of the appendicular skeleton?

A
  1. Bones of pectoral girdle (Attaches bone of upper limb to axial skeleton)
  2. Bones of UL
  3. Bones of pelvic girdle (Attaches bone of lower lim to axial skeleton)
  4. Bones of LL
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73
Q

Bones of the UL

A

1 long bone in arm (Humerus), 2 long bones in forearm (Radius, Ulna), Wrist (Carpal bones), Palm (Metacarpals), phalanges

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74
Q

Bones of the LL

A

1 long bone in thigh (femur), 2 long bones in leg (Tibia, Fibula), Hind/midfoot (Tarsal bones), Forefoot (Metatarsals), Phalanges

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75
Q

When do bony features develop and its purpose?

A

During bone growth

For functionality, to give the best shape for the job

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76
Q

What kind of bony features are there and how are they developed? (2)

A
  1. Adjacent structure (E.g. tendon, blood vessel, nerve, another bone) applies force (tensive or compressive) to developing bone –> moulds shape accordingly
  2. Adjacent structure developing at same time as bone –> bone has to grow around other structure –> foramen (hole)
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77
Q

Bony features of UL

A 
Greater tubercle (tuberosity) of humerus
Styloid process of radius
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78
Q

Bony features of LL & Pelvis

A 
Ischial tuberosity
Lesser trochanter
Femoral condyle
Tibial tuberosity
Medial malleolus
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79
Q

What comprises the skeleton?

A

Bones and cartilage

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80
Q

Where are the articular cartilages?

A

Places that allows for movement

Eg. IV disc, shoulder joint, elbow joint, knee joint, hip joint

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81
Q

Characteristic (1) of bone and function (4)

A

Hard, connective tissue

  1. Support & protect body organs
  2. Calcium metabolism
  3. RBC formation
  4. Attachment for skeletal muscles
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82
Q

Describe the shaft and ends of the bone

A

Shaft: Diaphysis
- Outer shell of cortical bone

Ends: Epiphyses

  • aka cancellous/ trabecular bone
  • has fine meshwork and lines that follow force to support weight
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83
Q

What are the canals in bone tissue called and what resides in them?

A

Haversian canals.
Blood vessels and nerves are inside.

Canal surrounded by living osteocytes

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84
Q

Bone undergoes constant remodeling throughout life

A

True

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85
Q

Characteristic of cartilage (6) and where is it required at?

A

Less rigid than bone, Avascular (nutrients diffuse from adjacent tissue via ECF), Strong, Flexible, Compressible, Semi-rigid (due to hydrated glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans)

Found where mobility is required (articular and costal cartilage)

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86
Q

Where does movement of skeleton occur?

A

Occurs at joints via the contraction of skeletal muscle to move the bones.

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87
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A
  1. Hyaline (Articular surfaces, tracheal rings, coastal cartilage, epiphyseal growth plates)
  2. Elastic (Ear; goes back to original shape)
  3. Fibrocartilage (pubic symphysis, IV disc)
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88
Q

What are the 2 types of hard CT?

A

Bone and cartilage

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89
Q

What are the 3 types of joints and their compromise profile?

A
  1. Synovial (Most flexible)
  2. Cartilaginous
  3. Fibrous (Least move-able)

Increased mobility –> Decreased stability

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90
Q

How is the sensory nerve supply to joints?

A

Excellent thus a lot of pain when dislocated or affected by pathology (Arthritis)

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91
Q

What are the sensations detected by sensory receptors of joint nerves? (4)

A
  1. Pain
  2. Touch
  3. Temperature
  4. Proprioception (Joint position sense)
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92
Q

How is the arterial supply at the joints?

A

Arterial branches that supply joints are from larger named arteries.

Periarticular arterial anastomoses are common.

Can be damaged by dislocations –> compromise blood flow distal to the joint

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93
Q

Characteristic of skeletal muscles (3)?

A
  1. Voluntary, Striated (but not all)
  2. Multinucleated, cylindrical cell of considerable length
  3. Nuclei are elongated and located at cell periphery just internal to cell membrane/ sarcolemma
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94
Q

Function(3) and location of skeletal muscles?

A

Produces movement, generates heat, provides structure and form

Found deep to deep fascia (except face)

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95
Q

What covers skeletal muscles?

A

Tough fibrous connective tissue

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96
Q

Types of skeletal muscle (6) and examples

A
  1. Circular (surrounds opening/ orifice) - orbicularis oculi and sphincters
  2. Convergent (Arise from broad areas then converges to a single tendon) - Pectoralis Major
  3. Fusiform (Thick belly with tapered ends) - biceps brachii
  4. Quadrate (4 sides of equal length) - rectus abdominus
  5. Pennate (feather-like arrangement) - deltoid
  6. Flat (Parallel fibers with flat broad tendon; aponeurosis - a/w flat muscles and attaches muscle to soft tissue rather than bone) - external oblique
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97
Q

Characteristic of longer muscle fibers

A

Has greater potential range of shortening and more range of movement at joint.

98
Q

What happens when a skeletal muscle is strained/ pulled?

A

Muscle fibers are torn. More fibers are torn, worse the strain.

99
Q

How are skeletal muscles named? (5)

A
  1. Shape
  2. Location
  3. Size
  4. Main bony attachment
  5. Main movement
100
Q

What must be present for skeletal muscles to attach?

A

At least 2 points of attachment to bone (Origin and Insertion)

Origin tend to be the more proximal part and least moveable joint.

101
Q

Skeletal muscle’s one job?

A

Move origin and insertion closer together during contraction by shortening muscle fibers along long axis.

Can only move joint if skeletal muscle crosses the joint and attach to bones on either side.

102
Q

What are tendons and what do they attach?

A

Soft CT.

Attaches muscle to bone; found at either end of musclel; non-contractile

103
Q

Factors to consider when working out actions of a muscle (4).

A
  1. Which joint is spanned?
  2. Long axis of the muscle fibers
  3. Aspect (Ant/Post) of joint that is spanned
  4. Shapes of articular surfaces of joint
104
Q

Actions of biceps brachii (3)

OIANT

A
  1. Spans shoulder joint anteriorly –> flexes shoulder joint
  2. Spans elbow joint anteriorly –> flexes elbow joint
  3. Spans proximal radioulnar joint anteriorly –> supinates forearm

Origin: Scapula
Insertion: Radius
Supplied by: musculocutaneous nerve
Reflex: Biceps jerk reflex

105
Q

Types of articular surface (2)

A
  1. Socket/ Synovial joint –> rotational/ circumduction (E.g. Hip joint which is tighter and more stable, glenoid fossa of scapula)
  2. Hinge joint –> ONLY flexion and extension (notch) (E.g. elbow joint)
106
Q

Actions of Deltoid (3)

A

All 3 insertion is on the deltoid tuberosity humerus

  1. Origin on spine of scapula –> posterior fibers –> extends shoulder
  2. Origin on acromion process of scapula –> middle fibers –> abduction of shoulder
  3. Origin on lateral 1/3rd of clavicle –> anterior fibers –> flexion of shoulder
107
Q

Types of dense soft CT?

A
  1. Irregular - run in all directions (Skin)

2. Regular - run in same direction along force (Tendon)

108
Q

Characteristic of loose soft CT? (2)

A
  1. Plentiful cells

2. Loosely packed fibers separated by abundant ground substances

109
Q

What is the ratio between ECM and cells in CT?

A

Predominantly more ECM

110
Q

What is found in ECM of CT? (3)

A
  1. Fibers (collagen, elastic, reticular)
  2. Tissue fluid
  3. Ground substance (Amorphous, space occupying, made of huge unbranched polysaccharides known as GAGs which are bound to core glycoproteins)
111
Q

What types of cells are found in CT?

A
  1. Chondrocytes
  2. Osteocytes
  3. Adipose cells (scattered)
  4. Fibroblasts (widely distributed, produces & maintain ECM, actively dividing)
112
Q

Function of connective tissue?

A

Plays a dynamic role in development, growth, homeostasis of tissue, energy storage in fat and provides framework/ scaffold of body

113
Q

Types of CT?

A

Hard, Soft, Blood/lymph (specialized)

114
Q

Purpose of reflexes? (5)

A
  1. Protective against overstretching
  2. Rapid
  3. Involuntary
  4. Predictable reactions to danger
  5. Automatic movements made unconsciously by nervous system & muscle
115
Q

What are the 2 main reflexes involving skeletal muscles?

A

Stretch reflex and flexion withdrawal reflex

116
Q

What is the flexion withdrawal reflex?

A

Sudden flexion to withdraw after touching something potentially damaging.
Sensory -> interneuron (spinal cord) -> motor
Nerve connections are only at spinal cord level (not brain).

117
Q

What is the deep tendon/ stretch reflex?

A

Tendon hammer used to apply brief sudden stretch to muscle via tendon –> sensory nerve from muscle detects stretch –> signals spinal cord –> synapse to motor nerves –> passes signal to muscle to contract –> brief twitch of muscle belly or movement in normal direction

118
Q

What is the brain’s role in the reflex arc?

A

Prevents reflex from being overly brisk

119
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

It is the synapse where motor nerve communicates with skeletal muscle

120
Q

What is the normal reflex response of skeletal muscle being stretched?

A

To contract

121
Q

Attachment of tendon and ligaments?

A

Tendon: Muscle to Bone/ Soft tissue
Ligament: Bone to bone

122
Q

Types of reflexes? (5)

A
  1. Biceps
  2. Triceps
  3. Brachioradialis
  4. Knee
  5. Ankle
123
Q

What does a normal stretch reflex indicate? (6)

A
  1. Functioning muscle
  2. Functioning sensory nerve fibers
  3. Functioning motor nerve fibers
  4. Functional spinal cord connections between 2 nerves
  5. Functional neuromuscular junction
  6. Working descending controls from the brain
124
Q

What is paralysis?

A

A muscle without a functioning motor nerve –> thus cannot contract.
Will elicit reduced muscle tone and lower resistance to stretch

125
Q

What is spasticity?

A

Muscle has intact and functioning motor nerve but descending controls from brain are not working.
Will elicit increased muscle tone and higher resistance to stretch

126
Q

What are smooth muscles?

A

They are involuntary and visceral (found in organs).

127
Q

What are the structure and appearance of smooth muscles?

A

Smooth, no visible striations.

Individual fibers are elongated, spindle-shaped (fusiform) cells with great length range.
Cigar shaped nucleus are found at center of fiber.

128
Q

What are the structure and appearance of cardiac muscles? (5)

A
  1. Fibers are shorter than striated muscles and have less prominent striations.
  2. Has single nucleus located near center of fiber.
  3. Has intercalated discs (seen clearly on longitudinal sections) which bolts 2 contractile cardiac cells together. It passes across fibers at irregular intervals at sites of end-to-end attachments between adjacent cells.
  4. Multiple intercellular junctions to maintain mechanical integrity.
  5. Fibers branches to form complex networks.
  6. Forms a major part of walls of heart chambers and origin of great vessels.
129
Q

What are the structure and function of muscle cells?

A

Cytoplasm is packed with contractile fibers to produce contractile force (actin moves over myosin with aid of accessory proteins)

130
Q

Location of the pelvic cavity

A

Lies within the bony pelvis
Continuous with abdominal cavity
Between pelvic inlet (sacrum + ilium + pelvic bone) and pelvic outlet (anterior pubic bone + ischial tuberosity)

131
Q

What is the pelvic floor

A

An internal wall of skeletal muscle (pelvic diaphragm) that separates pelvic cavity and perineum

132
Q

What is the perineum

A

Inferior to pelvic floor. Way out from the pelvic outlet. Found between proximal parts of LL

133
Q

Pelvic floor openings (3)

For female

A
  1. Renal tract (External urethral orifice)
  2. Reproductive tract (Vaginal orifice)
  3. Distal alimentary tract (most posterior) (anus)
134
Q

What is the pelvic roof?

A

Formed by parietal peritoneum which is lining of the abdominal cavity that is firmly attached to abdominal walls and drapes over pelvic viscera

135
Q

Pouches in female

A
  1. Vesico-uterine pouch
  2. Rectouterine pouch (Douglas) - most inferior part of peritoneal cavity in an upright female –> prone to infection via collection of pus/abscess/excess fluid/blood
136
Q

What are the female reproductive organs and accessory reproductive organs?

A

Main: Ovaries
Secondary: Uterine tubes, uterus, vagina

137
Q

Layers of uterine wall

A

From superficial: Perimetrium, Myometrium (thick, elastic tissue), Endometrium

138
Q

Segments of the uterine tube (4)

A
  1. Uterine part (very short segment passing through wall of uterus to enter uterine cavity)
  2. Isthmus (part which enters uterine body)
  3. Ampulla (widest & longest part)
  4. Infundibulum (funnel shaped lateral end opening into peritoneal cavity through abdominal ostium)
139
Q

Route of fertilization

A

Ova develops in ovaries –> 1 ovum released during menstrual cycle from surface of ovary into peritoneal cavity –> gathered by fimbriae into infundibulum –> moved along uterine tube via cilia –> unfertilized ovum expelled by myometrium contraction along with layer of endometrium

140
Q

Where does fertilization and implantation occur?

A

Fertilization: ampulla
Implantation: posterior or anterior uterine wall

141
Q

What is ectopic pregnancy and its danger?

A

Fertilized ovum implants outside of uterine cavity (97% tubal pregnancy; mum & fetus rarely survive abdominal pregnancy). There is a danger of hemorrhage thus a potential emergency (not enough elastic tissue).

142
Q

Spread of STI via Uterus

A

Can spread from uterus, through uterine tubes and into peritoneal cavity –> peritonitis

143
Q

How is female sterilization carried out?

A

Via tubal ligation of BOTH uterine tubes. Can be clipped, cauterized or cut –> lumen blocked.

144
Q

How can STI cause infertility in females?

A

Can damage or occlude the uterine tubes via scar tissue accumulation.

145
Q

Anatomical position of penis

A

Erected

Anterior surface is the base

146
Q

Development of the testis

A

Testis originates from posterior wall of uterine cavity –> descends into scrotum via anterior abdominal wall (inguinal canal) by birth

Vas deferens follow testis into scrotum

147
Q

Where is the sperm produced

A

Seminiferous tubules

148
Q

Conditions needed for optimal sperm production

A

Temperature 1 deg below core body temperature
Dartos smooth muscle helps to control temperature (Cold environment -> contract and bring testis closer to body)
1500 sperm every second
Takes 64 days to mature

149
Q

Route of sperm

A

Seminiferous tubule -> Rete Testis –> Head of Epididymis –> Tail of Epididymis –> Vas Deferens (within spermatic cord) –> passes through anterior abdominal wall within inguinal canal –> pelvic cavity –> connect with duct from seminal gland (produces seminal fluid) –> forms ejaculatory duct (semen) –> right and left ejaculatory ducts combine within prostate gland (immediate inferior to bladder) –> prostatic urethra –> urethra –> external urethral meatus

150
Q

What does the spermatic cord contain?

A

Vas deferens, Testicular Artery, Pampiniform plexus of veins

151
Q

Outcomes of testicular torsion?

A

Twisting of spermatic cord disrupts blood supply and causes severe pain –> results in potential testicular necrosis

152
Q

What are the spongy tissues in the penis

A

3 cylinders of erectile tissue can become filled with blood at arterial pressure during erection

153
Q

Organs and accessory organs of male reproductive system

A

Main: Testes
Secondary: Vas deferens, seminal glands, prostate gland, penis

154
Q

How is male sterilization performed?

A

Vasectomy.

BOTH Vas deferens is transected and lumen is sutured closed.

155
Q

What are the functions of the epithelium (8)?

A
  1. Sensation (neuroepithelium - taste buds)
  2. Contractility (myoepithelium)
  3. Mechanical barrier (skin)
  4. Chemical barrier (stomach lining)
  5. Absorption (Intestinal lining)
  6. Secretion (salivary glands)
  7. Containment (urinary bladder lining)
  8. Locomotion (cilia in uterine tube)
156
Q

What is the structure of the epithelium? (4)

A
  1. Has nerve supply
  2. Basal lamina (layer of ECM where cells attach to)
  3. Mostly Non-vascular (nutrients diffuse from underlying capillaries over basal lamina)
  4. Polarized (Apical and Basal ends)
157
Q

2 types of epithelium

A

Glandular and Covering

158
Q

Structure of the covering epithelium

A

3 types of layers: Single, Stratified, Pseudostratified (all cells still in contact with basal lamina)
3 types of shape: Squamous, Cuboidal, Columnar

Presence of specialized cell types: Goblet cells (single cell mucus gland)

Cell surface specializations: Prominent micro-villi (Brush borders; non-motile), Cilia, Layers of keratin protein (outer surface, dead, very flat, no nuclei, no organelles)

159
Q

Structure of the glandular epithelia (produces secretory products)

A
  1. Exocrine: Ducted, secretes toward apical end into lumen of internal space, duct or body surface
  2. Endocrine: Ductless, secretes towards basal end and distributes via vasculature system (capillaries)
160
Q

Characteristic of Epithelium (4)

A
  1. Covers surface of body and cavities at interface, lines hollow/ solid organs and form glands
  2. Sheets of cell
  3. Varies widely in shape, size, arrangement, orientation and function
  4. Strong adhesion between epithelial cells (intercellular junctions) –> forms sheets of cells with minimum intercellular space (little ECM)
161
Q

Function of nervous tissue

A

Control function and rapid communication between different parts of body

162
Q

Ratio of neurons: glia cells in CNS

A

1:10

163
Q

What surrounds nervous tissue?

A

CT coat
CNS: meninges
PNS: Epineurium

**No CT inside brain

164
Q

Types of glia cells in the CNS (3)

A
  1. Oligodendrocytes: Produces myelin
  2. Microglia: Immune surveillance
  3. Astrocytes: Support ion transport, induce blood brain barrier
165
Q

Types of glia cells in the PNS (1)

A
  1. Schwann cells: Produce myelin, support axons
166
Q

Types of neurons (3)

A
  1. Multipolar (many dendrites but only 1 axon)
    - E.g. Pyrimidal cell in cerebral cortex
  2. Bipolar (1 dendrite, 1 axon)
  3. Pseudounipolar (1 axon in both directions)
  • Dendrite toward soma, Axon away from soma
167
Q

What are the roles of nerves?

A
  1. Sense both internal and external environment
    - sensory functions (E.g. Pain, touch, temperature)
    - special senses (Taste, smell, sight, hearing, balance)
  2. Respond appropriately to environment (protective role)
    - motor functions
    - movement
    • voluntary locomotion (skeletal muscle movement)
    • involuntary (smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle)
  3. Reflex functions
  4. Sensory, motor portion and central connection between the 2
168
Q

What comprises the CNS?

A

Brain, Spinal Cord

- Act as central controller

169
Q

What comprises the PNS

A

All other nervous tissue not within the CNS including

  1. Spinal nerves (connect with spinal cord)
  2. Cranial nerves (connect with brain)
  3. Autonomic nerves (Organs, smooth muscle, glands, visceral afferents, sympathetic & parasympathetic nerves)
    - Act as wiring
170
Q

What is a collection of nerve cell bodies called?

A

Ganglion

171
Q

What are bundles of axons called? and what surrounds them?

A

Tract in CNS, Nerve in PNS

Surrounded by myelin sheath

172
Q

What are peripheral nerves?

A

They are bundles of axons (nerve fibers) wrapped in connective tissue traveling to/from the same region or structure (can leave as branches)

173
Q

What peripheral nerves are named?

A

The larger peripheral nerves supply body wall, body cavities and organs.

174
Q

What are the modalities that a SINGLE nerve fiber can conduct?

A
  1. Somatic sensory function
  2. Somatic motor function
  3. Special sensory function
  4. Visceral afferent function
  5. Sympathetic function
  6. Parasympathetic function
175
Q

What kind of nerve fibers/ axons have mixed modalities?

A
  1. Spinal nerves and branches (mixed somatic motor, somatic sensory and sympathetic)
  2. 5 cranial nerves
176
Q

Direction of Action potential of motor and sensory nerves?

A

Motor (efferent) carries AP towards body wall, body cavity or organ.
Sensory (afferent) carries AP towards brain.

177
Q

What comprises of the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Cortex (Gyri- protruding part; Sulci-fissures)

178
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the cerebral hemisphere?

A

Parietal, Frontal, Temporal, Occipital

179
Q

What are the names of the CNs? How many pairs?

Are they sensory, motor or both?

A

Refer to notes.

180
Q

Are there any sympathetic axons in cranial nerves?

A

No.

181
Q

Components of the brain stem from anterior to posterior?

A

Midbrain -> Pons -> Medulla Oblongata

182
Q

Direction of exit of cranial nerves?

A

Anterior to posteior; Medial to Lateral (except CN XII)

183
Q

What are the foraminae that each of the CNs use to enter/ exit the cranial cavity?

A

Anterior cranial fossa
1. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone: CN I

Middle cranial fossa

  1. Optic canal: CN II
  2. Superior orbital fissure: CN III, IV, V1, VI
  3. Foramen rotundum: CN V2
  4. Foramen ovale: CN V3

Posterior cranial fossa

  1. Internal acoustic meatus: CN VII, VIII
  2. Jugular foramen: CN IX, X and XI
  3. Hypoglossal canal: CN XII
  4. Foramen magnum: Exit of spinal cord
184
Q

What does the spinal cord connect with and what is it protected by?

A

It connects to the brain and it is protected by the vertebral canal.

185
Q

What are the 4 segments and 2 enlargements of the spinal cord?

A
  1. Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral/coccygeal

2. Cervical (UL control) and Lumbosacral (LL control)

186
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A 
31 pairs.
C1-C8
T1-T12
L1-L5
S1-S5
Co
187
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

It ends inferiorly at L1/L2 IV disc level (Conus Medullaris) thus lumbar & sacral nerve roots have to descend in the vertebral canal to their respective IV foraminae (Cauda Equina)

188
Q

How many vertebrae are there?

A
  1. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused to form 1 sacrum but sacral foraminae still exists), 4 coccygeal (fused to form 1 coccyx)
189
Q

How are spinal nerves names in relation to vertebrae?

A

Named according to vertebrae above but in cervical region, they are named according to vertebrae below it.
* C8 nerve is between C7 and T1 vertebrae

190
Q

Why does the vertebrae increase in size as it goes down?

A

To support increasing body weight until it is transferred to lower limb (thus lower sacrum and coccyx are smaller)

191
Q

What are the rules of the spinal nerve?

A

Each pair supply a segment of the soma and are located only within the intervertebral foramina. Thus from the intervertebral foramina, they connect with structures of soma via rami and connect to the spinal cord via roots and rootlets.

192
Q

What does the posterior rami supply?

A

It supplies a small posterior strip of soma. It is smaller compared to the anterior rami.

193
Q

What does the anterior rami supply?

A

It supplies the remainder of the posterior part, the lateral and the anterior part of the strips.
It supplies all the limbs via plexus.

194
Q

Route of spinal nerves

A

From grey matter (inner spinal cord) –> Left/Right anterior(ventral)/posterior(dorsal) rootlets –> roots –> converge into a spinal nerve –> branches into anterior and posterior rami
** Posterior- sensory; Anterior - motor

195
Q

Modalities of the rami and root/rootlets

A

Rami - mixed modalities

Root - only 1 function

196
Q

What are dermatomes?

A

They are an area of skin supplied by both the anterior and posterior rami of spinal nerve (limbs have no posterior rami!)

  • T4: nipple
  • T10: umbilicus
197
Q

What are nerve plexus and where do they supply?

A

They are networks of intertwined anterior rami.
Cervical plexus: C1-C4 –> posterior scalp, neck wall, diaphragm
Brachial plexus: C5-T1 –> UL
Lumbar plexus: L1-L4 –> LL
Sacral plexus: L5-S4 –> LL, gluteal region and perineum

198
Q

What are the 2 functional subdivisions?

A

Somatic and Autonomic (Involuntary) nervous system

199
Q

What does the somatic nervous system include?

A

The soma and external environment.
The soma includes head and neck walls, chest walls, back, diaphragm, abdominal wall, pelvic wall and limbs.
Structures include skin, fascia, skeletal muscle, skeleton and internal lining of body cavities.

200
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system include?

A 
It is a visceral motor system of the internal environment.
Includes viscera (heart, lungs, intestines, kidneys), glands (mucous, sweat, salivary), smooth & cardiac muscle, external lining of organs.
It is located in internal organs in body cavities such as chest, pelvic and abdominal cavity and body wall organs (sweat glands, arrector smooth muscles and arterioles)
201
Q

What are the somatic sensation that can be felt by the soma?

A

Mechanoreceptors: Coarse touch, fine touch, vibration & proprioception
Thermoreceptors: Temperature
Nociceptors: Pain (Sharp, stabbing, well-localized)

202
Q

Somatic sensory conduction route

A

Receptors in dermatome stimulated –> AP conducted along axons within rami –> plexus (if from anterior) –> dorsal root ganglion –> dorsal roots –> rootlets –> posterior horn of spinal cord segment –> AP crosses midline –> ascends to brain

203
Q

Somatic motor conduction route

A

Motor axons cross over in brainstem –> descend to anterior horn –> AP conducted along axons within anterior rootlets –> roots –> spinal nerves –> plexus –> synapse onto skeletal muscle –> contracts and move

204
Q

What is the role of the sensory neurone of the autonomic nervous system? What do they sense?

A

They sense the internal environment (organs), thus involved in HR, BP, digestion and gland secretions. Known as visceral afferents - transmit sensations from organs to CNS.

  1. Touch
  2. Temperature
  3. Pain
    a. Ischemic (Reduced blood flow)
    b. Colicky (Obstruction) - can be sharp or localized
    - ‘dull, achy, nauseating, poorly localized’
    - pain may be referred to soma
205
Q

Role of sympathetic division of ANS

A

Supplies ALL internal organs and body wall organs and arterioles.
Triggers a flight or fight response.

206
Q

What is the sympathetic outflow?

A

It originates from the autonomic centers in the brain and passes down the spinal cord –> sympathetic axons exits with T1-L2 spinal nerve (aka thoracolumbar outflow) via ANTERIOR root/rootlets–> sympathetic axons travels to sympathetic chains running the length of vertebral column via rami communicans, and anterior & posterior rami to supply body wall structures

207
Q

How do sympathetic axons go to the rest of the body?

A

They travel with arteries to all head and neck organs and skin. They travel via splanchnic nerve to reach organs.

208
Q

What are the lateral horns in spinal cord T1-L2 for?

A

For cell bodies of the next sympathetic neurones in the chain.

209
Q

Role of parasympathetic division of ANS

A

They often supply same internal organs as sympathetic division but DO NOT SUPPLY body wall organs or arterioles. They induce a rest and digest response to effect a homeostatic response.
It compliments/opposes the sympathetic system.

210
Q

What is the parasympathetic outflow?

A

All parasympathetic axons leave CNS via CN III, VII, IX and X and via sacral spinal nerves (Craniosacral outflow).
Supplies internal organs not body wall.
1. Parasympathetic ganglia in head: To lacrimal and salivary glands
2. Vagus nerve: Organs of neck, chest, abdomen as far as the mid-gut
3. Sacral spinal nerves: carries parasympathetic nerves to hind-gut, pelvis & perineum

211
Q

Sensory and motor supply of Soma

A

Somatic sensory and somatic motor

212
Q

Sensory and motor supply of organs (including body wall organs)

A

Visceral afferent

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

213
Q

Special sense organs

A

Special sensory

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

214
Q

Composition of biomolecules in a cell

A 
75-80% H20 (90% free, 5% bound)
10-20% protein
2-3% lipid
~1% carbohydrate
1% inorganic
215
Q

What are the 3 cytoskeletal proteins?

A

Microfilament < Intermediate filament < Microtubules

216
Q

What is microfilament made up of?

A

Fine-strands of actin which assembles and dissociates.

Found in ALL cells

217
Q

What are intermediate filaments?

A

Consist of 6 main protein of different cell types that bind intracellular element together and to cell membrane

218
Q

What are microtubules?

A

2 tubulin proteins (alternating between alpha and beta subunits) form a network through cytosol.
It is hollow and assembles/dissembles.
It originates from centrosome and includes stabilising proteins (MAP). It polymerizes from centre and radiates out.

219
Q

What is the motorway network of cell in microtubules?

A

2 ATPase:
Dynein moves towards centre
Kinesin moves to periphery
*Associates with membrane of organelles and vesicles

220
Q

What are centrosomes?

A

They are special organising centre with a pair of centrioles at the core made of specialised microtubule segment.

221
Q

What is the difference between Euchromatin and Heterochromatin?

A

Euchromatin: Dispersed DNA, Active, White
Heterochromatin: Highly condensed, inactive, grey

222
Q

Function of SER?

A

Continues protein processing from RER, role in lipid synthesis especially in cells producing steroid hormones

223
Q

What are the 3 intercellular junctions?

A

Occluding, Anchoring and Communicating junctions.

224
Q

What is the role of the occluding junction?

A

Focal region of close apposition between adjacent cell membrane to prevent diffusion.
AKA tight junctions/zona occludens

225
Q

What is the anchoring junction?

A

Adherent junctions linking sub-membrane actin bundles of adjacent cells via binding of transmembrane Ca2+ dependent Cadherin at extracellular space. AKA Zona adherens

226
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

Sub-membrane intermediate filament of adjacent skills. AKA Macula Adherens found in skin.

227
Q

What are communicating junctions?

A

Allow for selective diffusion of molecules between cells. Consist of a circular patch with several hundred pores (produced by connexon proteins).
Found in Epithelia, Cardiac and some smooth muscle cells. AKA Gap junction.

228
Q

Activity in the nucleus

A

Chromosomes: DNA and RNA synthesis
Nucleolus: rRNA transcription
Nucleus: mRNA and tRNA transcription

229
Q

Cis and trans golgi apparatus

A

Cis faces towards ER

Trans faces towards cell membrane

230
Q

What are the types of salivary glands?

A

Parotid: Largest gland, longest duct, Serous secreting cells
Sub-mandibular: Both serous and mucous secreting cells
Sublingual: Both serous and mucous secreting cells, produces more mucous than water, shorter distance to mouth

231
Q

What are the striated ducts in salivary glands?

A

They modify saliva passing through but pumping salt of out the fluid –> salive hypotonic to blood.
Basal striations are infoldings of the cell membrane with lines of mitochondria to power the pump

232
Q

What are the 4 major layers of the oesophagus?

A
  1. Mucosa
    - Epithelium (on Basal lamina)
    - Lamina Propriae (loose CT)
    - Muscular Mucosae (thin layer of SM)
  2. Submucosa (loos CT)
  3. Muscularis Externa/Propria (2 thick layers of smooth muscle)
    - Inner circular layer
    - Outer longitudinal layer
  4. Outer CT
    - Serosa: Unbound
    - Adventitia: Embed tissue down
233
Q

Tissue type by function

A

Protective: Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium (upper GI, stomach, anal canal)
Secretory: Simple columnar epithelium with extensive tubular glands (stomach)
Absorptive: Simple columnar epithelium with villi and tubular glands (Small intestine)
Protective and Absorptive: Simple columnar epithelium with tubular glands (Large intestine)

234
Q

Where are nervous tissue of the enteric nervous system found?

A

Found between 2 muscular layer in muscularis externa.

Live in groups (Ganglia)

235
Q

Histology of the liver

A

Made up of large number of lobules with similar hexagonal arrangement with each corner being a branch of the hepatic portal vein and artery delivering blood to the lobule.
Blood travels to centre via hepatic sinusoids (sheets of hepatocytes).
At the centre: terminal hepatic venule (central vein) –> drains to hepatic vein

236
Q

What is the portal triad?

A

Branch of Hepatic portal vein, hepatic arteriole and bile duct

237
Q

Histology of the pancreas

A

Exocrine: Epithelial origin, have ducts
- Protease, Lipase, Nuclease enter pancreatic duct to duodenum and activated by cleavage enzymes
Endocrine: Small, scattered island of tissue (Islet of Langerhans); hormones diffuse through basal lamina
- A cells: Glucagon
- B cells: Insulin

238
Q

What are pericytes?

A

Connective tissue cells found in capillaries at intervals just outside the basal lamina.
Has contractile properties.

239
Q

What are postcapillary venules?

A

Endothelial cell-lined and has thin layer of connective tissue with occasional pericytes. Important site for exchange (cells moving into tissue in inflammation)

When vessels begin to acquire intermittent smooth muscle cells in tunica media, they become venules.

240
Q

Are ribosomes protein or RNA?

Where are they produced?

A

RNA

Nucleolus (appears dark in micrographs)

Principles (14 decks)

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