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Principles > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What term describes
“Maintenance of steady states within our bodies by coordinated physiological mechanisms essential for function and survival of cells”?

A

Homeostasis

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2
Q

What types (2) of cells are influenced by changes to membrane potential?

A

Muscle and nerve cells

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3
Q

What are the 2 types of physiological controls to maintain homeostasis?

A

Intrinsic - local and inherent to organ

Extrinsic - accomplished by nervous and endocrine system

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4
Q

What is a response made in ANTICIPATION of change known as? Give an example.

A

Feedforward.

Exercise.

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5
Q

What is a feedback response?

A

Response AFTER change has been detected

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6
Q

What are the 2 types of feedback response?

Give an example for each

A

Positive - AMPLIFIES initial change (E.g. Uterine contraction during labour)
Negative - OPPOSES initial change (E.g. BP, Temp)

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7
Q

What are the 3 components in a feedback response? (Closed-loop)

A

Sensor - monitors MAGNITUDE
Control centre - COMPARES with a SET POINT
Effector(s) - RESPONSE to bring desired effect

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the baroreceptor reflex?

A

Short-term moment to moment control of MAP

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9
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

Outwards hydrostatic pressure exerted on arteries during cardiac contraction (Sytole) or relaxation (Diastole)

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10
Q

What is the cut-off for hypotension?

A

=/< 90/60mmHg

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11
Q

What is the normal pulse pressure range?

A

30-50mmHg

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12
Q

Is CO and SV based on both or 1 ventricle?

A

1 ventricle

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13
Q

What is the normal MAP range?

A

70-105mmHg

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14
Q

At least how much MAP is needed for vital perfusion?

A

60mmHg

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15
Q

What are the 3 components in a baroreceptor feedback response for MAP?

A

Sensor: Baroreceptor (Carotid sinus/ bifurcation via CN IX/ Hering’s nerve) & (Aortic arch via CN X)
Control centre: Medulla oblongata
Effectors: Heart (HR, SV) and Blood vessesls (SVR)

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16
Q

How does MAP affect the firing rate of the afferent neurons of the baroreceptors?

A

MAP rises - firing rate increases

MAP decreases - firing rate decreases

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17
Q

What is SVR?

A

Sum of all resistance of all vasculature in the systemic circulation

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18
Q

How much effect does CN X have on ventricular contractility?

A

Little

Mostly by sympathetic

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19
Q

What are the major resistance vessels? (Biggest change in pressure)

A

Arterioles

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20
Q

What regulates SVR?

A

Vascular smooth muscle - changes diameter thus resistance

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21
Q

Why are arterial smooth muscles partially contracted at rest?

A

Due to vasomotor/ sympathetic tone where there is tonic/continuous discharge and release of noradrenaline by sympathetic nerve

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22
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of arterial smooth muscle can be found in ONLY which body parts?

A

Penis and clitoris, otherwise no.

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23
Q

What happens when firing rate of afferent baroreceptor neurons decrease?

A

Reduced cardiac vagal efferent nerve fiber activity
Increased cardiac sympathetic efferent nerve fibre activity
Increased sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerve fibre activity

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24
Q

Sympathetic constrictor tone influences which vessels and what are the outcomes of each?

A

Veins - influences venous return hence SV

Arteries - influences SVR

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25
Q

What happens to the firing of baroreceptors in CHRONIC high BP?

A

Firing rate decreases

Only resets and fires again if there is an acute change above the NEW set point

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26
Q

How is MAP controlled in the long-term?

A

Control of blood volume (E.g. GI, Kidneys) - mainly endocrine

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27
Q

Does SV increase or decrease if cardiac contractility is increased?

A

Increase

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28
Q

Where does the medulla first synapse and what happens after that?

A

Nucleus tractus solitarius

Then relays information to other brain regions

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29
Q

Where is the vagal outflow for the heart relayed to in the CNS?

A

Nucleus ambigus in medulla

And regulation of spinal sympathetic neurons

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30
Q

If the baroreceptor reflex (autonomic nervous system) if an extrinsic control of SV then what governs the intrinsic control?

A

Frank-starling mechanism.

Direct relation between EDV and SV

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31
Q

How does blood flow in normal arteries? Any sound?

A

Smooth laminar fashion.

Inaudible.

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32
Q

What sound is heard when BP cuff exceeds SBP?

A

No sound as flow is blocked

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33
Q

What sound is heard when BP cuff is kept between SBP and DBP? Why?

A

Korotkoff sound.

Due to turbulent flow when BP intermittently exceeds cuff pressure.

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34
Q

What is the formula for MAP?

A

DBP + 1/3 (SBP-DBP)

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35
Q

How much longer is diastole compared to systole in a single cardiac cycle?

A

Twice longer

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36
Q

What is the normal pulse rate?

What else should you note for when taking a pulse? (3)

A

60-100bpm.

Rhythm, volume, character

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37
Q

What is the normal resp rate?

A

12-20/min

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38
Q

What is the normal capillary refill time?

A

<2s

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39
Q

How is consciousness recorded?

A

AVPU

or GCS

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40
Q

What is the normal O2 sat?

A

> 95%

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41
Q

At what temperature is the core body maintained at?

A

37.8

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42
Q

Increased body temp increases cell metabolism.

But what can overheating result in? (4)

A

Protein denaturation, nerve malfunction, convulsion, death

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43
Q

What can low body temp result in?

A

Slow down cell reaction and metabolism

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44
Q

What site is good for measuring body temp in hypothermia? (<35)
What is the normal range?

A

Rectal (more representative of core temp)

36.7 - 37.5

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45
Q

Other than rectal, what other sites can be used to measure body temp?

A

Tympanic - 35.5 - 37.5

Oral - affected by foods and drinks

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46
Q

Body temp shows slight diurnal variation.

When is body temp lowest?

A

Early morning

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47
Q

When is body temp higher in menstrual cycle?

A

2nd half from time of ovulation

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48
Q

What contributes to heat generation in the internal environment (3)?

A
  1. Brown fat
  2. Muscle activity (E.g. Shivering)
  3. Oxidation of metabolic fuel
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49
Q

What increases BMR?

A

Hormones such as adrenaline, noradrenaline, thyroxine

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50
Q

What contributes to heat generation from the external environment? (3)

A 
Mostly radiation (50%).
Convection, conduction
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51
Q

What contributes to heat loss to the external environment? (4)

A

Radiation, convection, conduction, evaporation

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52
Q

Is water or air a better conductor of heat?

53
Q

What is forced air movement across body surface (E.g. by wind or fan)

A

Carries more heat away in a given period (Wind chill factor)

54
Q

Convection works with which other process?

A

Conduction.

E.g. Air warmed via conduction from skin before rising

55
Q

What is passive evaporation?

A

Occurs continuously and not subjected to physiological control

56
Q

What is active evaporation?

A

E.g. Sweating

Controlled by sympathetic NS

57
Q

What is one environmental factor that affects evaporation?

58
Q

What is evaporation?

A

Energy from body required to convert water on skin surface and lining of respiratory airways into vapour

59
Q

What are the 3 component for the feedback response to regulate temperature?

A

Sensor: Central thermoreceptors found in hypothalamus, abdominal organs for core temp. Peripheral thermoreceptors found in skin

Control centre: Hypothalamus
Effectors: Skeletal muscle, skin arterioles, sweat glands (and indirectly lead to behavioural changes)

60
Q

What does the posterior and anterior hypothalamic centre contribute in terms of temperature regulation?

A

Posterior - cold

Anterior - warmth (A&W)

61
Q

What are the outcomes of a cold response? (3)

A

Skin arteriole (SNS): Vasoconstriction restricts blood flow to skin surface to conserve heat

Skeletal muscle: Increased muscle tone, shivering, increased voluntary movement to produce heat/ warm the body

Behavioural changes: Postural change to reduce exposed surface area, warm clothes

62
Q

What are the outcomes of a warm response? (4)

A

Skin arteriole (SNS): Vasodilate to promote blood to skin surface to lose heat

Skeletal muscle: Decrease muscle tone, decrease voluntary movement

Sweat glands: Sweat –> evaporation

Behavioural change: Cool clothing

63
Q

What happens to temp control in infection/ inflammation?

What response is initiated?

A

Macrophage release endogenous pyrogens which stimulate prostaglandins release in the hypothalamus.
Body temp raised to a higher setpoint –> cold response initiated –> body starts to warm –> Fever (38-40 deg)

64
Q

When is the setpoint restored back normal from a fever? (2)

What response is initiated?

A
  1. Pyrogen release reduced/stopped (E.g. Antibiotics)
  2. Prostaglandins synthesis reduced (E.g. NSAIDs)

Initiates hot response to cool body –> temp brought down to normal hypothalamic set point `

65
Q

What can failure of heat regulating mechanism result in?

A

Hyperthermia (>40 deg)

66
Q

What is hypothermia?

67
Q

What component of the phospholipid bilayer have an influence on fluidity?

A

Cholesterol

68
Q

What influences the thickness of the phospholipid bilayer?

A

R groups at the end of the fatty acid tail

69
Q

How often do phospholipid flip to the other leaflet?

70
Q

What kind of molecules are able to cross the lipid bilayer freely?

A

Small, uncharged polar molecules

Lipid soluble molecules

71
Q

What appearance does the cell membrane give off in the electron micrograph?

A

Laminar appearance with less dense layer in the middle

72
Q

What are the 3 types of membrane proteins?

A

Peripherally associated membrane proteins
Integral membrane proteins
Docking-marker acceptors

73
Q

Are peripheral membrane proteins covalently bonded to integral proteins?

74
Q

What do peripheral membrane proteins adhere tightly to?

A

Cytoplasmic or extracellular surface of plasma membrane

Not embedded within membrane

75
Q

How are integral membrane proteins intimately associated with the bilayer? (3)

A
  1. Span lipid layer once or several times (a-helical) - transmembrane proteins
  2. embedded but do not cross bilayer
  3. linked to lipid component of membrane of fatty acid derivative in the membrane
76
Q

What are the 5 functions of integral membrane proteins

A
  1. Ligand-binding receptors
  2. Adhesion molecules (E.g. Integrins, Cadherins)
  3. Transmembrane movement of water soluble substance by acting as pores (passive), carriers (facilitated) or pumps (active)
  4. Enzymes (E.g. membrane bound carbonic anhydrase)
  5. Intracellular signalling role (E.g. Kinases and GTP-binding proteins at cytoplasmic surface)
77
Q

Where are docking-marker acceptors located?

A

V-SNARE on Inner membrane surface of vesicle coat (coatamer)

78
Q

What do docking-marker acceptors interact with?

A

V-SNARE interact with t-SNARE docking marker acceptor of targeted plasma membrane

79
Q

How are appropriate cargo from the golgi lumen selected for export into vesicles?

A

Recognition markers in outer membrane of Golgi binds only to the sorting signals of protein molecules to be secreted

80
Q

What is glycocalyx made of

A

Glycolipids and glycoproteins

81
Q

What do membrane carbohydrates serve as?

A

Self-identify markers for growth, development and interaction

82
Q

What kind of pump is usually found at the basolateral region of the epithelial cells?

A

Na+/K+ ATPase

83
Q

What kind of transport do tight junctions promote and prevent?

A

Promotes transcellular and prevent/ reduce paracellular

84
Q

Which part of the lateral edges of epithelial cells do tight junctions join at?

A

Near apical side

85
Q

Do desmosomes allow materials to move around in the intercellular space?

86
Q

What kind of tissues have desmosomes?

A

Those subjected to stretching

87
Q

What is the polarity of the connexins/ channels of gap junctions?

A

Hydrophilic

*Allows charged ions and small molecules to pass

88
Q

What are the 2 factors involved in permeability of a particle to pass through a membrane?

A
  1. Lipid solubility

2. Size

89
Q

What are the 2 types of driving force for movement across a membrane?

A

Passive and active (ATP)

90
Q

What kind of membrane transport involves molecules and ions that are passively driven across membrane down concentration/ electrical gradient?
*Give 2 examples

A

Unassisted membrane transport

Simple diffusion, Osmosis

91
Q

When does simple diffusion stop?

A

When NET diffusion becomes zero - dynamic equilibrium

*NB there’s still ongoing movement of substance but gradient = 0

92
Q

What are the 3 directly proportional factors and 2 inversely proportional factors of Fick’s law that affects RATE of NET diffusion across membrane?

A

Direct: Magnitude of gradient, surface area of membrane, lipid solubility of substance
Inverse: Molecular weight of substance, diffusion distance (bilayer thickness is fairly constant throughout)

93
Q

Electrical gradient promotes movement of ios towards area of?

A

Opposite charge

*Like charges repel

94
Q

What are the 2 types of ion-specific channel proteins?

A

Leak (always open)

Ligand-gated

95
Q

What consist of an electrochemical gradient?

A

Simultaneous electrical and chemical gradient acting on an ion

96
Q

What channels do water pass through readily in the plasma membrane?

A

Aquaporins (passive)

97
Q

Osmosis is the NET diffusion of WATER from an area of higher to lower what?

A

Solute concentration

98
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

Concentration of osmotically active particles in solution

99
Q

What is the effect of solution on cell volume known as?

100
Q

What is assisted membrane transport for? (2)

A
  1. Poorly lipid soluble molecules

2. Transport against concentration gradient

101
Q

What are the 4 types of assisted membrane transport?

A
  1. Carrier-mediated - depends on carrier specificity and saturation (movement of molecule/time) and substance competition to carrier
  2. Facilitated - carrier transports down concentration gradient
  3. Vesicular - requires energy to form vesicles; endocytosis and exocytosis
  4. Active - Energy required to go against gradient; Primary and secondary. Another flashcard
102
Q

Other than secreting enzymes and hormones, what else does exocytosis contribute to?

A

Adding carriers, channels or receptors to plasma membrane.

103
Q

What is primary active transport?

Give an example of a pump

A

ATP hydrolysed by carrier protein, Pi binds to carrier and increases affinity for ion
Ion binds, conformation change, affinity reduced, ion and Pi released, shape reverts

Na+/K+ ATPase

104
Q

What does transport 3 Na OUT and 2 K IN help in? (2)

A
  1. Regulate cell volume (solute concentration)

2. Indirectly serves as energy source for secondary active transport

105
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

Uses second-hand energy (indirectly) stored in ion concentration gradient (Na+ will want to go back into cell), acting as driving force to couple with transport solute across plasma membrane

106
Q

What are the 2 types of secondary active transport?

A
  1. Symport - Solute and Na+ in same direction (E.g. GI absorption)
  2. Antiport - opposite direction (E.g. Na+/H+ to regulate intracellular pH)
107
Q

What is the ‘separation of opposite charges across membrane to do work’ known as?

A

Membrane potential

108
Q

What does the magnitude of membrane potential depend on?

A

Depends on number of opposing charges separated (concentration gradient and permeability to the ions)

109
Q

At resting membrane potential, is the membrane more permeable to K+ or Na+

A

K+, by 100x

110
Q

Are large negatively charged intracellular proteins permeable?

111
Q

What is the movement of K+ based on concentration and electrical gradient like?

A

K+ moves out down concentration gradient -> ECF becomes more positive and moves back into cell down electrical gradient due to negatively charged proteins

When both opposing gradients are at equilibrium, net movement = 0

**Same for Na+ but opposite (ECF becomes more negative due to Cl-)

112
Q

Why is the resting membrane potential slightly more positive than EK+ (Equilibrium potential of K+) in nerve cell?

A 
Resting = -70mV
EK+ = -90mV upon net diffusion outwards

More positive due to inward leak of Na+

113
Q

What does Na+/K+ pump do to the membrane potential?

A

Hyperpolarises

114
Q

Why does K+ preferentially move outwards in potassium selective channels?

A

Outward concentration gradient energy > inward electrical gradient energy

115
Q

As an ion becomes more permeable, what does it drive the membrane potential towards?

A

It drives it closer to the ion’s own equilibrium potential

116
Q

What are the stimuli that regulate gated-ion channels? (3)

A
  1. Voltage
  2. Ligand/ chemical
  3. Physical (Mechanical/ thermal)
117
Q

What does action potential do to the polarity of the membrane?

A

Brief reversal

118
Q

Generation of action potential follows which principle?

A

All or None

119
Q

Activation of Na+ selective channel is?

What is the outcome?

A

Self-reinforcing

Opening of a few channels will open more (Positive feedback)

120
Q

What happens to Na+ channels during maintained depolarisation?
What does it contribute to (2)?

A

Goes from open to non-conducting, inactive state which contributes to repolarisation and refractory period

121
Q

What happens to Na+ channels during repolarisation?

A

Becomes closed (ready for depolarisation)

122
Q

Activation of K+ selective channel is?

What is the outcome?

A

Self-liming

Repolarisation closes the channel (Negative feedback)

123
Q

What are the 2 refractory periods? When do they each occur?

A
  1. Absolute - during repolarisation (no stimulus can elicit 2nd AP; all Na+ channel inactivated)
  2. Relative - during hyperpolarisation (stronger than normal stimulus can elicit 2nd AP - mix of inactivated and closed Na+ channels)
124
Q

Action potential amplitude, magnitude and velocity. Do they fluctuate when propagated along the axon?

A

No, they stay constant

125
Q

How to increase passive current spread which increases AP velocity (2)?

A
  1. Increase axon diameter

2. Decrease current leak across axon via insulation (Myelin)

126
Q

How do myelinated and unmyelinated axons conduct AP?

A

Myelinated - salutatory conduction (jump from node of ranvier to next) –> faster
Unmyelinated - passive current spread

127
Q

Demyelinating disorders slow nerve conduction.

Give 1 example from the CNS and PNS

A

CNS: Multiple sclerosis
PNS: Guillain Barre Syndrome

128
Q

What kind of channels are clustered at the node of ranvier?

A

Voltage-activated Na+ channel

129
Q

What microglial cells are responsible for myelin sheath production in the CNS and PNS?

A

PNS: Schwann cells - many surround a single axon thus multiple myelin layers
CNS: Oligodendrocytes - one cell surround many axons

Principles (14 decks)

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