Prenatal Screening Flashcards

1
Q

What types of testing is available during pregnancy?

A

Non-invasive:
Ultrasound scan
Blood tests at various stages of pregnancy inclu. NIPT.

Invasive:
CVS
Amniotic Fluid

Specialist centres:
PGS / PGD

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the Ultrasound Scan?

A

Check NT measurement, date the pregnancy, check growth and check for structural abnormalities.
Check the uterine environment e.g. how much fluid, placental position, umbilical blood flow.

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3
Q

What blood tests are offered?

A

1st trimester: blood test for pregnancy associated alpha protein-A and free beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin.

2nd trimester: quad test - triple hormones and inhibin A.

DNA test - cell free DNA, fetal DNA circulating in mums plasma from 10 weeks onwards. NIPT.

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4
Q

What is NIPT? Why is it useful?

A

Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing.
It utilises cell-free fetal DNA in mums plasma.
Comes from placenta and is caused by death of old/unwanted cells.
Can be tested to find out genotype of fetus.
Can be used from around 10 weeks onwards.

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5
Q

What are the basics of NIPT?

A

Mum has blood test, plasma is isolated and DNA is extracted.
DNA is amplified and then sequenced. The small fragments that are produced are aligned against the genome to work out where they come from. The ratio of sequences for each chromosome is calculated and regions that have a higher than expected number of reads indicate trisomy e.g. higher than expected number of reads for chromosome 21 = trisomy 21.

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6
Q

What are the drawbacks to NIPT? What could be the cause?

A

False positive and false negative e.g. test comes back positive and baby is normal or test comes back normal and baby is abnormal at birth.
Sample uses cells from placenta so could be due to confined placental mosaicism (CPM).
Uses cells sloughed off from placenta so could be affected by a vanishing twin or maternal mosaicism.

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7
Q

What would happen if a patient was given a positive NIPT?

A

They are offered an invasive test to confirm.

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8
Q

What is NT and why is it important?

A

Nuchal translucency.
Measurement of translucent space at back of neck of fetus (>4mm could be aneuploidy).
Fluid accumulates here when certain abnormalities are present such as +21. Can be measured between 11 and 14 weeks.

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9
Q

What types of abnormalities can be seen by ultrasound?

A

Size of NT.
Neural tube defects such as Spina Bifida and anencephaly.
Abdominal wall defects such as omphalocele and gastrochisis.
Heart defects.
Facial defects such as cleft lip/palate.

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10
Q

List some US markers that would be seen in trisomy 13.

A
Associated with midline defects due to defect in fusion of the prechordal plate during 3 week of development.
Holoprosecephaly
Club/rocker bottom feet
Heart defect
Cleft lip/palate
Talipes
Polydactyly 
Cystic kidneys
Omphalocele
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11
Q

List some US markers that would be seen in trisomy 18.

A
Diaphragmatic hernia
Omphalocele 
Rocker bottom feet
Neural tube defect
Ventriculomegaly
Clenched fists
Talipes
Micrognathia 
Cleft lip/palate
Heart defect
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12
Q

What US finding might you expect in a case of Turner’s?

A

Cystic hygroma.

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13
Q

List some US markers that you might see in trisomy 21?

A
Cystic hygroma
Heart defect (Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, AVSD, tetralogy)
Ventriculomegaly
Short femur
Nasal bone absent in 60-70% of t21 fetus
Duodenal atresia
Hydrops (accumulation of fluid)
Increased NT
May also be able to see sandal gap and macroglossia.
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14
Q

What is a soft marker?

A

Minor abnormality seen in the normal population and in isolation nothing of concern.
However, occurs in higher proportion of pregnancies with aneuploidy.
Their occurrence prompts a search for other ‘abnormalities’.
Includes: increased NT, echogenic bowl, short long bones, choroid plexus cysts.

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15
Q

What is the cut off at which a termination can be completed on non-medical (social) grounds?
What would allow a termination to be carried out after this date?

A

<24 weeks of gestation.
A ‘clause E’ termination, this is a termination on medical grounds. The abnormality has to be barn door pathogenic for it to fall under this category.

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16
Q

What types of microarray findings should always be reported in a prenatal according to the guidelines?

A

Any variant that will inform management of the pregnancy or the family, either in the context in which the array was done or in the future should be reported

17
Q

What types of things are included in the reportable category?

A
  • high penetrance neuro-susceptibility loci which are associated with a risk of a severe phenotype
  • neurosusceptibility loci that are associated with scan findings for which detailed scans could be carried out
  • deletion of dystrophin in a female fetus as this gives the parent the option to test a male fetus in any further pregnancy
18
Q

What types of variants shouldn’t be reported according to the guidelines?

A

Finding that isn’t linked to a potential phenotype in the pregnancy/child or has no clinically actionable consequence for that child or family.

Low penetrance neuro-susceptibility loci

19
Q

What are the indications for prenatal testing?

A
  • abnormal ultrasound scan
  • prenatal screening suggests increased risk of chromosome abnormality (biochemical plus NT measurement or NIPT result)
  • carrier of chromosome rearrangement
  • previous abnormal preganancy
20
Q

How many cells need to be analysed in a prenatal conventional analysis case? What is the minimum banding score?

A

2 fully analysed and a further 1 cell checked (BPG).
All homologues must be cleared at least twice.
Minimum banding score of 4 (5 for microdels but not relevant anymore).

21
Q

What is PGD?

How does it compare to PGS?

A

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
Used in conjunction with IVF and allows an embryo to be tested for the presence of a KNOWN genetic disease.
Only healthy embryos are transferred.
Available on the NHS in certain cases.

Testing for a specific genetic disease v screening for chromosome number in embryo from normal parents .

22
Q

Can you have PGD for all diseases?

A

It has to be on a list of approved diseases by the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority (HFEA)

If it isn’t, you have to have your IVF in an approved centre and they can put a request into the HFEA to allow the use of PGD.

23
Q

Who are the HFEA?

A

Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority.

UK governments independent regulator of fertility treatment and research.

24
Q

What is PGS? Why might this be preferable to invasive testing during pregnancy?

A

Screening of embryos for common causes of miscarriage such as aneuploidies
Done on a couple of cells taken from the embryo
NOT currently available on the NHS - guidelines say it doesn’t improve success rate of IVF and they have no intention of recommending it on NHS.

Only healthy embryos are implanted - couple aren’t faced with a decision of whether to TOP which would be the case if CVS/amnio showed +21.