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Boeing 767 Atlas Systems Class > Pre-Oral > Flashcards

Pre-Oral Flashcards

1
Q

Max Takeoff Field Elevation?

A

8400’

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2
Q

Max Tailwind

A

10 Kts

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3
Q

Max Crosswind

A

Recommended 25 kts

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4
Q

Max Altitude with flaps extended?

A

20,000 feet

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5
Q

Max Bleed Air APU altitude?

A

17000’

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6
Q

Apu provides power up to how high?

A

43,100’

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7
Q

Takeoff on Climbing we get Reverser Unlocked on climbout what do we do?

A

Aviate Navigate Communicate get out the checklist.

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8
Q

When are reversers usually unlocked?

A

On the ground due to air ground logic with reversers at idle.

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9
Q

Never say “affected side”

A

Say “Right thrust lever” or “left thrust lever”

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10
Q

Takeoff flaps are normally what?

A

5, 15, or 20

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11
Q

What does A/T Arm Switch do?

A

Arms the auto-throttles to become active when an auto throttle mode is selected.

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12
Q

Why am I turning of auto-throttle armed switch?

A

So that we are in control of

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13
Q

Who is moving thrust lever that we are Confirming Idle?

A

Pilot Flying

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14
Q

Who is moving Fuel Cutoff Switch to Cutoff?

A

Pilot Monitoring

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15
Q

What am I doing when I move Fuel Control Switch to Cutoff?

A

Closing Engine Fuel Valve
Closing Spar Valve
De-energizing Ignitors

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16
Q

Can 767 Fly on 1 Generator? What would be shed?

A

Yes
Coffee Maker
Utility Busses!
C2 Pump

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17
Q

What does EICAS Stand for?

A

Engine Indication Crew Alerting System

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18
Q

APU selector from OFF to ON what happens?

A
  1. Opens APU Inlet Door
  2. Energizes the ECU
  3. Energizes DC Fuel Pump in the Left Wing (if no AC power available) If it is available the left forward wing AC fuel pump is signaled to operate regardless of its switch position and the DC fuel pump is signaled off)
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19
Q

What does Fault Light mean on APU start?

A

Fuel Valves are opening

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20
Q

What happens when you move APU to start?

A

Selector Off to On to Start- it’s spring loaded so make sure it going back to On
-ECU unit begins start sequence of APU
-you will see fault light depicted ON then OFF- APU fuel valve went full open from full closed
RUN light will flicker twice (2 self test of circuitry for APU start)
Run light will come on and stay on steady- apu is now started
3 start attemps in 1 hour allow 1 min cooling between attempts
95% power is available- Run light stays on steady

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21
Q

When do you get steady run light?

A

95%

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22
Q

Ground Prox Flap Ovrd Switch does what?

A

Will get “too low flaps” without this pushed.
Allows me to land in a non standard config for landing.
Inhibits aural warning for the GPWS if the flaps are up

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23
Q

“Ground Prox Flap Ovrd” Switch does what?

A

Will get “too low flaps” without this pushed.
Allows me to land in a non standard config for landing without getting all the cautions and warnings for the position of the flaps.
Inhibits aural warning for the GPWS if the flaps are up.

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24
Q

TA Only will do what?

A

Prevent you from getting an RA.

(Like SFO on final)
(we inhibited this on the rev unlocked checklist because the TCAS if we got an RA is predicated on us having 2 engines climb rate so whatever it told us would be inaccurate)

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25
Q

What part of our wing gets anti ice?

A

Outboard leading edge slats

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26
Q

How long are our wings? No winglets

A

156’ 1

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27
Q

How long are our wings? Winglets

A

166’ 11

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28
Q

Landing at nearest suitable airport would be in concurrence with who?

A

Dispatch- they have internet!

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29
Q

If you have a flap look silly, can you make the decision to declare emergency?

A

No- you’re joint release with dispatch just call them and talk about it

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30
Q

When are you in ice crystal icing?

A

Authrottles Fighting to Maintain Power
Red Amber Radar
~0 C
Under an anvil of a storm, smells like atmosphere in the air, convective activity

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31
Q

What heats the tail?

A

Nothing! It doesn’t have any tail anti ice.

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32
Q

Why do I have to turn my wing anti ice on in ice crystal icing conditions below 22,000 feet?

A

Flameout mitigation: Prevent engines from having a cough! To increase bleed output on the engine to make it work harder and faster to keep itself clear of ice.

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33
Q

If we have to use alternate method to extend trailing edge flaps, why do we do this

A

Cautious to create an asymmetrical condition so Leave well enough alone

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34
Q

What holds reverser closed in the air?

A

Pneumatics

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35
Q

What moves flaps in alternate?

A

Electrical Power- Takes 4 minutes depending on where we are moving them

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36
Q

After checklist is complete what are you going to do?

A

Contact dispatch, consider MX, tell ATC of intentions if needed

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37
Q

What are Op Spec Mins for CAT I approach?

A

1800 where allowable by the approach chart

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38
Q

What is our normal flap setting for landing?

A

25

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39
Q

When would we use flaps 30 to land?

A

Deck Angle- Lowers the nose of the airplane for better visibility in low vis conditions
Shorter Runway
Contaminated Runway

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40
Q

What autobrake setting don’t we use?

A

1

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41
Q

When are auto brakes 3 and greater required?

A

CAT II and CAT III

Wet runway-must use autobrakes 3 or greater

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42
Q

What is considered wet runway by visibility?

A

3/4 of a mile or 4000 RVR- if below this, must use autobrakes 3 or greater

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43
Q

When do we get to the airplane?

A

1:30 minutes prior to departure

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44
Q

What bus is powered when we walk up to the airplane?

A

Ground Handling Bus

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45
Q

What is powering the Ground Handling Bus?

A

APU or External Power

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46
Q

How will I be able to clean up crumbs?

A

Power the ground service bus on the forward attendant panel

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47
Q

Walk into a dark cockpit what are you doing first?

A

Check Logbook for MX status- We rarely show up to dark airplanes at Atlas

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48
Q

If we have to power up the airplane what do we do?

A

Use supplemental procedure Section 6 of FCOM 1

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49
Q

What busses are powered before I push the Battery Switch to ON in the Power Up checklist?

A

Hot Battery Bus

Ground Handling Bus

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50
Q

When we push BATT button what are we doing?

A

Energizing the battery bus

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51
Q

What is on HOT BATTERY BUS?

A 
Fire Protection
Parking Break Valve
Manual Deployment of the RAT
Engine Fuel Valve
Captains Clock- Time keeping portion
Spar Valve
Backup for IRU- Yes airplane can keep track of where it is
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52
Q

Turning on BATT Switch how many batteries coming on?

A

2
Main BATT
APU Battery

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53
Q

Two discharge lights next to BATT what would that indicate?

A

1 light=30 minutes 1 battery
2 Discharge Lights mean they are LINKED for total of
90 minutes 2 batteries
Airplane has the ability to link the two for a total of 90 minutes

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54
Q

Stby power moved to AUTO does what?

A

If we lose AC power we will get DC power Powers 4 Busses
-Stby AC
-Stby DC
-

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55
Q

Where do we get DC power from?

A

Inverter

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56
Q

Stby power moved to AUTO does what?

A

If we lose AC power normally we will get DC power through inverters. Powers 4 Busses

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57
Q

Stby power moved to AUTO does what?

A

Allows Reversion to the battery. If we lose AC power normally we will get DC power through inverters. Powers 4 Busses

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58
Q

4 Busses from selecting STBY Power are?

A
  1. Hot Batt
  2. Main Batt
  3. Stby AC
  4. Stby DC
    (this is what your airplane will look like when you are in trouble)
    You have 30 minutes to get configured. Good luck! Start your clock!
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59
Q

What can you do on STBY power?

A 
Put flaps in
Alternate gear down
Talk on the radios Captain L VHF
Can shoot Center ILS Approach on stby instruments
You have IRUs 
Engine is getting fuel via suction (lower the altitude better you’re off)
Fuel QTY indicator on the panel
Xpdr
Yaw Damper
Stby AC BUS is allowing igniters to work
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60
Q

What can you do on STBY power?

A 
Put flaps in
Alternate gear down
Talk on the radios Captain L VHF
Can shoot Center ILS Approach on stby instruments
You have IRUs 
Engine is getting fuel via suction (lower the altitude better you’re off)
Fuel QTY indicator on the panel
Xpdr
Yaw Damper
Stby AC BUS is allowing igniters to work
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61
Q

Selecting BAT on the STBY power switch does what?

A

Standby power will now be only off the main battery and turns off the battery charger.

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62
Q

What bus does the battery charger come from?

A

Ground service bus

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63
Q

How many hydraulic electric primary pumps do we have?

A

2

C1 & C2

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64
Q

How many hydraulic demand pump switches do we have? What are they powered by?

A

3

1 ADP powered by Air

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65
Q

Why do we make sure hydraulic demand pump switches are off when doing electrical power up?

A

Don’t want to move anything hydraulically powered to hurt someone on the ground.

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66
Q

Why do I specifically want Center System Off for power up?

A

Sources for electricity are APU or EXT Power- Starting with APU will move air to move ADP and that will not be good.

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67
Q

Why do we want Landing Gear Handle Down?

A

We are on the ground

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68
Q

Why do we want Alternate Flap selector in NORM during power up?

A

They move electrically- we are applying electricity and don’t want them to move when we bring electricity onto the plane.

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69
Q

Why do I want BUS TIE switches in Auto?

A

I want them to distribute power and also to prevent paralleling. We have ground power and APU power coming so we must be cautious of paralleling.

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70
Q

If AVAIL light is on what does this mean?

A

Voltage and Frequency are adequate to power all busses

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71
Q

Push AVAIL light how many busses are powered?

A

ALL OF THEM! We can see now!

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72
Q

Starting Preflight- what are we checking in the logbook?

*don’t apply power without checking LOGBOOK FIRST

A

*don’t apply power without checking LOGBOOK FIRST
Match Tail with Log and with OFP
DDG for operating limitations or crew procedures- if something not in there that should be call mx
Deferrals
Autoland
Max Thrust Takeoff (if a 200)
LOOKING for Daily and Transit Check

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73
Q

How long for Autoland check?

A

30 days

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74
Q

Max Thrust Takeoff required on 300?

A

Don’t usually do but Dispatch will let you know!

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75
Q

When do you have to do MAX thrust takeoff check?

A

On the 200’s and 28 days max

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76
Q

When do we need a daily check?

A

Every 48 Hours from Block Out

i.e. we completed daily check at 10Z but didn’t block out till 16Z -the clock doesn’t start till 16Z

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77
Q

Can we keep operating beyond 48 hours if we took off at 47 and a half hours?

A

NO- Can NOT fly beyond 48 hours.

Daily check would’ve had to of been completed before block out.

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78
Q

Transit Check required when?

A

Every time we touch the ground unless we do a daily- Daily supersedes a transit check.

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79
Q

HOBOS

A

H ydraulics- Looking for “No RF” .75– “No OF” would be at 1.22
O xygen- 1250 / 1350 ETOPS- looking up for supernumeraries
B rake Parking Brake- Set It and check brake wear indicators during exterior inspection
O il Qty- 17 qts prior to engine start
S tatus Messages- Go through procedure to clear them. First square, first circle, last circle

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80
Q

When I set the Parking Brake what am I doing?

A

Press Toe Brakes and pulling parking brake handle : opens Brake Valves & closes return fluid from anti skid
Locks toe brakes in open position.

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81
Q

Why will the accumulator brake indication stop at 1000?

A

Nitrogen Pre Charge in accumulator pushes plunger of remaining pressure into the system at a minimum.

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82
Q

After setting parking brake and I turn on hydraulic pumps what happens?

A

Valves are open so when I apply pressure the hyrdaulic fluid will go into the valves to the brakes and squish calipers together. It will then come out through anti- skid and hit the parking brake valve - this pressure on the parking brake valve will set the brake.

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83
Q

Can I set parking brake without electricity?

A

Yes off the hot battery

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84
Q

Cyan Carrots displayed with a blank page below what do you do?

A

Brightness may be the issue! (turn it up)

If it had failed, it would condense the data and turn on the the Standby Engine Instruments

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85
Q

IRS- Off to NAV position- what is first thing I’ll see?

A

ON DC lights illuminate then extinguish- self check to see if it can find that source of power.
DC Fail light will illuminate if it’s unavail

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86
Q

After ON DC what does it show?

A

Steady Align Light

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87
Q

If ALIGN light flashes what does this mean?

A

NO BAD MOVE

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88
Q

IRS Fault Light indicates what?

A

Fault with IRU

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89
Q

What is the priority of entering your position?

A

GPS Position
Last Position
Airport Reference Position(find on jepp chart or if it’s in database use that)

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90
Q

If we use the airport reference point that is right in the center of the airport and we are more than 2 miles away from that position when we align the airport what will happen when we takeoff?

A

Beyond 1.8 miles when we push the thrust button the position will not update to the runway position. This is why we use gate position from -9 page.

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91
Q

If it shows 7 in the window when I’m aligning how long do I have to align left?

A

7 minutes or more-
takes 10 minutes usually

If in higher latitude could take up to 17

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92
Q

How do I quick align?

A

Align then back to NAV
Can only do quick align from an aligned system.
Do it to fix extreme map shift.

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93
Q

If IRS position starts flashing what is it telling you?

A

Go to SP

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94
Q

ATT Mode means what?

A

You’ve lost alignment

-Enter a heading from Mag Compass

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95
Q

Electronic Engine Controls do what?

A 
Atmospheric Compensation
Bleed Compensation
Auto Religh
Approach Idle
Overboost & Overspeed
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96
Q

If an EEC fails what mode does it go to? What does this mean?

A

Alternate Mode

Disconnects A/T
So they don’t keep moving
Match the throttles and can turn autothrottles back on

Are now missing overboost protection and just have overspeed protection

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97
Q

Overboost

A

Over torqueing the engine on the king air
relationship between N1 and power-
Fault in EEC- Lose Overboost protection

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98
Q

What do I lose when EEF fails and I am in alternate mode?

A

Overboost Protection

Atmospheric Compensation - throttles will stay in same position as you climb so you need to move them accordingly

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99
Q

What 2 systems need to be operational for Yaw Dampers to work?

A

Hydraulic System

1 IRU

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100
Q

Overspeed

A 
Overspeed: RPM protection:If you lose control of the engine – will have Protection of RPM in Normal mode. The EEC will take fuel away from fuel metering unit to make sure you don’t hit 117.6 on the red tick.
Red tick  (117.5) on the N1 gauge.
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101
Q

What does SYS pressure light mean?

A

System in entirety is unpressurized.

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102
Q

QTY light on Hydraulics

A

Less than 50% hydraulic fluid in that reservoir

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103
Q

What else is in a hydraulic reservoir?

A

Positive Head Pressure from Pneumatic Ducts to prevent Cavitation

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104
Q

Why is Center Hyd System heavy system?

A

Gear & Flaps -Big heavy stuff moving

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105
Q

What is Right Hyd System known for?

A

Normal Brakes- Gives you normal anti skid

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106
Q

What is Left Hyd System known for?

A

Rudder Ratio System
Flight Controls- Aileron elevator and rudder
Yaw Damper for Center System (remember the X)

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107
Q

Left system gets help from right system when?

A

Pitch Enhancement System
-Uses hydraulic motor in right hydraulic system to us the left hydraulic system trapped fluid to operate stabilizer.
Used by electric trim switch on the yoke at 1/4 the normal rate. Alternate and Automatic Trim will be inop.

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108
Q

If you lose Left & Center hydraulic systems in flight what activates?

A

Pitch Enhancement System

Used by electric trim switch on the yoke at 1/4 the normal rate. Alternate and Automatic Trim will be inop.

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109
Q

Types of trim?

A

Alternate
Automatic
Electric

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110
Q

What triggers RTO?

A

Throttles to idle

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111
Q

What system is RTO on that must be working?

A

Autobrake system- So need right system working as well as anti skid.
Speedbrake system- all 12 working

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112
Q

How long is the delay from pilot pushing brakes compared to RTO triggering?

A

3-5 seconds

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113
Q

In the air which speed brakes don’t work?

A

2 inboard

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114
Q

Master Caution is good until where?

A

80 knots

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115
Q

Master Warning is good until where?

A

Nosegear extension

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116
Q

Will you get a direct Engine Failure indication?

A

No- you feel it

Will see instruments spool down

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117
Q

How long do you think it’ll take demand pump to kick on in the loss of a primary engine pump?

A

A few seconds

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118
Q

Where does Right Electric Demand Pump get its power from? If you lose that source what will the power come from?

A

Right Main AC BUS

The Left Man AC Bus

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119
Q

What is on the Center System?

A 
Flaps & Slats
Flight Controls
Tail Skid
HDG
Alternate Brakes
Nosewheel Steering
Gear Actuation

Elevator Feels
Left Yaw Damper
Stab Trim
RAT

120
Q

What type of trips happen on Hydraulic panel in regards to electricity?

A

Scheduled Single Source Load Shedding

Engine Starting Left Demand Pump shed

121
Q

Entry Doors, who many do I have and where are they?What doors will turn on that light?

A

1L & 1R
4L & 4R
1 of 4 entry doors not closed locked or latched

122
Q

Emergency Doors

A

4 Overwing

2 L 2 R

123
Q

Cargo Doors

A

3
2 on right side- FWD & AFT Cargo
1 on left- BLK Cargo

124
Q

ACCESS DOORS light

A

2
Forward Equipment Bay-
Electrical Equipment E&E-

125
Q

CAPT PITOT, FO PITOT, L AOA, R AOA, L AUX PITOT, R AUX PITOT, TAT extinguish when?

When do they get powered?

A

Extinguish At engine start

Get Power At first engine start except for TAT which is Air Ground Logic

126
Q

STAB TRIM light-

A

Stabilizer trim rate is less than full
Motors are not working properly
Would get STAB TRIM light if working with PES because that is also less than full

127
Q

SPOILERS light

A

One or more pairs of spoilers are faulted and locked out now

128
Q

AUTO SPD BRK light

A

Auto Speedbrake system is faulted- Don’t arm them and be ready for manual deployment of speed brakes yourself

129
Q

UNSCHED STAB TRIM light

A 
Stab trim moving uncommanded
1st thing you do
Disconnect autopilot
Move yoke in opposite direction- will cancel the signal and stop running
Read the QRH
130
Q

RUDDER RATIO light

A

Rudder Ratio System has failed

131
Q

What does rudder ratio do?

A

-Limits the throw at high speeds
-Gives us full throw at low speeds
Changes ratio in regards of speed

132
Q

How does Rudder Ratio limit the throw of the rudder?

A

De-energizes the left rudder actuator- it now only has 2 actuators working now.

133
Q

If you’re in a xwind limit without rudder ratio what is it?

A

15 knots- I only have 2 of 3 rudder actuators working

134
Q

ANTISKID light

A

Fault in anti-skid system

135
Q

AIL LOCK light

A

If you’re at low speeds-
haven’t unlocked

If you’re at high speeds-
haven’t locked

136
Q

USB stands for what?

A

Upper Side Band

137
Q

L GEN CONT on electric panel

A

Arms generator control breaker
Reset Generator Control Breaker
Shows OFF when switch is on = Fault
Shows OFF when selected OFF

138
Q

What do BUS TIE switches do?

A
  1. Prevent Paralleling
  2. Isolate Fault
  3. Power the Opposite Side
139
Q

ISLN light on electrics mean what?

A

Isolated Faulted Bus

140
Q

AUTO Mode on

A

Will automatically open breaker to protect AC system

141
Q

BUS TIE Switch also controls what?

A

DC BUS TIE breakers-

142
Q

BUS OFF lights indicate

A

Bus is not powered

143
Q

UTILITY BUS Left and Right have what on them?

A

Non Essential Electrical Items

144
Q

When do Utility busses shed?

A

During Engine start

Down to a single source of generator power

145
Q

What kind of load shedding when we lose utility busses?

A

Overload Load Shedding- example is pressurizing hyrdaulics

146
Q

Engine Start: Single or Both

A

Selecting if you’re using 1 or 2 ignitors per engine- EEC makes this decision for us

147
Q

Engine Start: VALVE light means what?

A

Commanded position of the pneumatic air start valve is in disagreement.

148
Q

Engine Start: When you go to GRND what happens? 5 things

A
  1. Opens Start Valve
  2. Arms Ignition from selected ignitor
  3. VALVE light Flashes
  4. ECU is about to increase pneumatic output- ensures it goes to the starter by closing engine bleed valves to focus that air toward the starter
  5. Loadshed of L Elec Demand Pump & Utility Busses
149
Q

Engine Start: When does Starter go back to AUTO.

Why does it go back to auto?

A

50% N2
Called “starter cutout”

Because we want Ignitors to come on in specific situations.

  1. Engine Anti Ice On
  2. Flaps 1 - do this for leading edge out of up
  3. Gives auto-relight controlled by EEC
150
Q

Engine Start: Moving Engine start to both one engine to CONT and one engine to flight what is the difference between engines?

A

Flight Position engine will have higher spark output

151
Q

When do I need Continuous Ingition

A 
M oderate to Heavy Rain
M oderate to Severe Turblence
V olcanic Ash
I cing
S tanding water, slush on runway

*Automatically applied for takeoff and landing with engine anti ice is on with flap extension

152
Q

Jettison Fuel: EICAS message I get when Jettison fuel?

A

Window Heat

153
Q

Jettison Fuel: Moving selector from OFF to ON

A 
Energize 2 Jettison Pumps
Open 2 Fuel Transfer Valves
Inhibit Universal Fault Interruptor- will allow center tanks to activate
Inhibit Fuel Disagree Calculation
Loadshed L3 & R3 Window Heat
154
Q

Jettison Fuel: What happens when I push two candy cane switches?

A

Opens up the nozzle valves

155
Q

Jettison Fuel: Rate at which it is Jettisoned?

A

2600# per minute
Full Center tank 85,000 would be 30 minutes
Half Center tank 42,500 would be 15 minutes

156
Q

Jettison Fuel: Can I Jettison fuel on the ground?

A

Yes, but it is an abnormal thing that would be due to the tilt of the airplane not working making the airplane think it is on the ground.

157
Q

How many Fuel Pumps do I have?

A

Lots

158
Q

How do we burn fuel from this airplane?

A

CENTER tank 1st! Until less than 1200 pounds.

159
Q

When I descend, the airplane nose goes down- does the fuel slosh around? Yes!

A

The Fuel Config light will flash as the fuel sloshes.

160
Q

Fuel: Fuel Config Light in regards to 1200#

A

You have 1200# or more in center tank with the pumps turned OFF (they will still burn to 0)

161
Q

When do pumps turn off in center tank?

A

When UFI senses a low pressure in the system- Pressure is at 0 and the pump is uncovered.

162
Q

Fuel: Fuel Config Light Comes on when?

A

Less than 2200 in either main tank
Imbalance of 2000# +/- 500#
You have 1200# or more in center tank with the pumps turn off

163
Q

Fuel: Amount of fuel I can have in center tank without full main tanks?

A

22,050# not to exceed the MZFW- we are worried about structure of the center wing box- we want a balance over the main gear

164
Q

Fuel: Main Tank Limit

A

43,097#

165
Q

Fuel: Center Tank Limit

A

85,000#

166
Q

Fuel: Center Pumps turned on before start- Pressure lights go out, means what?

A

Fuel door is open

167
Q

Fuel: Center Pumps turned on, Pressure Light illuminated, when do they start working?

A

When the coinciding engine is started and N2 goes above 50%.

168
Q

Fuel: UFI turns off center pumps till we burn down to 0- If I select them off then back on what happens?

A

Can override by turning them back on. Is a 1 time thing- you want it , you got it- I tried to help you

169
Q

Fuel: Temp comes from where?

A

Left Wing- Coldest because it has fewest amount of heat exchangers

170
Q

Fuel: Lowest fuel temperature is?

A

3 degrees warmer than the freezing point of the kind of fuel we are using

JET A would be -37 because -40 is freezing

171
Q

Anti Ice: Icing Conditions exist when?

A 
On Ground & For Takeoff OAT or TAT 10 degrees or below 
Visible Moisture (clouds, fog, vis 1 sm or less, rain snow, ice crystals, standing water, slush)
172
Q

Anti Ice: Do I need Engine Anti Ice if I’m in a climb and it’s -42?

A

No

173
Q

Anti Ice: Do I need Engine Anti Ice if I’m in a descent and it’s -42?

A

Yes

174
Q

Anti Ice: ON GROUND & INFLIGHT- when do I need engine anti ice?

A

Icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when OAT is below -40C.

*MUST ALSO BE ON with engine thrust reduced for a descent or speed reduction while in visible moisture with the TAT less than 10C including SAT less than -40

175
Q

Anti Ice: Can I use engine anti-ice above 10C?

A

No

176
Q

Anti Ice: Do engine bleed valves need to be selected on to get engine Anti Ice?

A

No- in 641 are tapped upstream of bleed air valves

177
Q

Anti Ice: Does wing anti ice work with leading edge slats extended?

A

Yes

178
Q

Anti Ice: What else do you get with wing anti- ice?

A

Approach Idle

179
Q

Anti Ice: Windshield Wipers OFF means what?

A

Wipers are told to stow-

180
Q

Anti Ice: Windshiled wipers limitations

A

Can’t use on a dry window

181
Q

Auto On VOR Panel does what?

A

DME updating of the FMC position

Make sure they stay in auto as much as feasible

182
Q

In Manual VOR mode does the FMC update?

A

No

183
Q

Anti Ice: Engine Anti Ice must be ON when?

A

When IceCrystal Conditions exist even when the temp is below -40C OAT.

184
Q

FD ON does what?

A

Turns on flight director and

185
Q

When you turn flight director on you’re turning on what?

A

AFDS

*can also be turned on by pressing autopilot

186
Q

What modes will we get if we just turn on autopilot?

A

VS (present speed)/HDG Hold

187
Q

Thrust Button does what?

A
  1. Updates position of aircraft when on the ground

2. Engage the auto throttles before takeoff because we only want max commanded thrust for the takeoff.

188
Q

Thrust Button does what?

A
  1. Updates position of aircraft when on the ground

2. Engage the auto throttles before takeoff because we only want max commanded thrust for the takeoff.

189
Q

SPD mode does what 2 things?

A

Does an autothrottle mode- Speed at current speed I’m going

Does a pitch mode- VS at current rate

190
Q

VNAV mode does what 2 things?

A

Speed controlled by FMC

Pitch mode controlled by FMC

191
Q

FLCH mode does what 2 things?

A

Opens 2 modes
Autothrottle at your current speed
Pitch at your selected altitude

192
Q

LNVAV mode does what 2 things?

A

Moves at what is in your commanded

193
Q

The scoreboard means what?

A

Thrust Mode/Vert Mode/Lateral/ AFDS

194
Q

The scoreboard means what?

A

Thrust Mode/Vert Mode/Lateral/ AFDS

195
Q

When in VNAV I do what?

A

Pitch for a speed

Pitch for a path

196
Q

In FLCH what am I pitching for?

A

Pitching for speed- rate controlled by power

197
Q

FLCH will display what in FMA?

A

FLCH/ SPEED

198
Q

Heading select does what? What way will this turn?

A

Selects heading you want

The shortest distance- *NEVER turn heading beyond 180 degrees.

199
Q

Bank Limit

A

Bank angle limit in HDG SEL mode

200
Q

Heading hold does what

A

Push it will level the wings at that heading

201
Q

V/S button does what?

A

Opens speed window and allows for VS mode to be used

202
Q

Can only use V/S when?

A

RVSM to level off below 1000 fpm

Acceleration under single engine conditions after takeoff

203
Q

Altitude Hold Button does what

A

Flys back to the altitude it was at when I pushed it

204
Q

If I push altitude hold button again what will it do?

A

It will fly back to THAT altitude now

205
Q

LOC button does what?

A

Arms localizer when course is alive

206
Q

APP button does what?

A

Activate 3 autopilots
Arms LOC & GS (white)- When they turn green, It is landing!
Isolate 3 sources of power for 3 autopilots (center is isolated by DC static inverter)

207
Q

Ways to get rid of LOC & GS capture?

A

Turn off AFDS system by
Turning off Flight Directors & Auto Pilot simultaneously. Will go to SPD mode for ALT protection.
Also can press go around button

208
Q

Where are go around switches?

A

Back side of thrust levers

209
Q

When I push go around switches what do I get?

A

Pitch: Pitch for 15 degrees
Thrust: 2000 fpm climb will be commanded as thrust
Track: Track over ground will be whatever you were maintaining when you push the go around switch. Must be within 5 degrees
Speed: increases to indicate airspeed on the indicator or MCP window- whichever is higher

210
Q

When can I turn on autopilot?

A

When I have a valid pitch and a valid vertical mode.

211
Q

What does disengage bar do?

A

Disengages autopilot- to silence the bell I need to put my hand on the yoke to cancel it or turn the autopilot on

212
Q

How much reverse thrust do we usually use?

A

IDLE reverse! Do not yank bank!

213
Q

When can we deploy the reversers?

A

Throttles at Idle

When Main Gear and Nose Gear are on ground.

214
Q

How much reverse thrust is calculated into a normal landing condition?

A

ZERO unless noted

215
Q

When can I not use speedbrake?

A

Below 800’ RA

With landing flaps

216
Q

In Armed position when will speed brakes deploy?

A

Both Gear have to sense zero tilt

Thrust levers at idle

217
Q

If not armed how will speed brakes automatically deploy?

A
  • Wheel spin up
  • Thrust levers to idle
  • Lift Reverse levers up to Idle reverse (the first one that registers being in idle reverse is the first to deploy all panels)
218
Q

Alternate Stab Trim used when?

A

On ground when setting extended travel

219
Q

Can we use alternate stab trim with autopilot engaged?

A

Will not disconnect autopilot but will give UNSCH STAB trim because automatic stab trim should be working.

220
Q

Alternate stab trim won’t work when?

A

Glideslope active and multiple autopilots on

221
Q

What do we use RA set for?

A

CAT II

CAT III

222
Q

Why is my Radio Altimeter on the ground say -6?

A

Normal landing flare attitude (nose is approx 6 feet in the air) We want to know in our landing when the mains are going to touch

223
Q

Normal landing attitude

A

4 degrees

224
Q

Instrument Source: TOP Instrument Source SEL FLT DIR L C R

A

Commands the FCC source you are using on that side- Doesn’t change the flight director! Changes the input source ONLY

225
Q

Instrument Source: NAV FMC L, FMC R, CDU L- When would you make a selection of something other than on-side?

A

If FMC failed I would move it to the opposite side FMC.

I would have to match my ranges on my map

226
Q

Instrument Source: When would I go to CDU L?

A

When both Captain & FO Fail

227
Q

Instrument Source: What will I have available to me When would I go to CDU L?? Checklist?

A

Legs & Progress page- Need to put in LAT & LONG position manually now. Would use HDG mode to navigate now.

Checklist YES

228
Q

Instrument Source: What does that do?

A

Gives us
Symbol Generators-failure of these will show by being BLANK
ILS Receiver
Radio Altimeter

Pushing this button will source the above things from the Center
Lost my symbology on HSI and ADI – push this and will return the symbology

229
Q

Instrument Source: How many Radio Altimeters do we have?

A

3 “think autoland”

230
Q

Instrument Source: How do I know if I have a bad RA in the center?

A

NO LAND 3 would be displayed

231
Q

Instrument Source: IRS- what am I selecting?

A

Selecting this the Captain will fly off the Center IRS

What does IRU power that are displayed on ADI and HSI- READ IT OFF THE IRS PANEL
TK/GS, PPOS, WIND, HDG, ATTITUDE, +10 second trend vector (not shown)

Checklist for this!

232
Q

Instrument Source: Captains RDMI gets info from where?

A

Right side

In standby power situation will get it from Center

233
Q

Instrument Source: Air Data Computer

A 
Switching from Left to Right Side Air Data Computer
AS, VS, ALT- 
Left and Right ADC
They display altitude and airspeed
FO flys off Right
CA flys off Left
234
Q

Instrument Source: What does IVSI use ADC for?

A

Calibration- IVSI

235
Q

When does ALT light turn on?

A

Turns on when you are 900 feet of your level off and turns off when you are 300 feet from your level off

236
Q

What does ASA monitor?

A

RA
FCC Functionality
Autopilots

*Doesn’t monitor course

237
Q

Where does standby instruments get their info from?

A

Pitot Static System

238
Q

Where does ILS come from?

A

Center ILS

239
Q

FIRE Light Indicates what?

A 
Fire 
Engine 
APU
Cargo
Wheel Well
240
Q

CONGIF Light Means what?

A

Not configured for landing or takeoff

Takeoff: 4 things
Parking Brake still on, Speed brakes not stowed, Trim not in the green, Flaps not in T/o flap config

Landing Config: Gear Not down with flaps 25 or 30 selected
Below 800’ with Gear not down AND one thrust lever not idle

241
Q

Increase in performance WINDSHEAR light means?

A

Amber on ADI

242
Q

Decrease in performance WINDSHEAR is what color?

A

Red on ADI

243
Q

Autopilot disconnect gives you what?

A

Aural warning & light- double click a/p to silence

244
Q

Speed Brakes Light means what?

A

Speed Brakes Deployed below 800’ or when you have landing flaps.

245
Q

CABIN ALT light means what?

A

Comes on when your cabin altitude is 10000’
Aneroid wafer uses DC motor to close outflow valve at 11,000’.
14000’ Rubber jungle
Regain control of outflow valve at 9500’
8500’ Cabin Altitude light will go out

246
Q

OVRSPD light means what?

A

You’ve exceeded Vmo or Mmo

247
Q

ALT ALERT light means what?

A

Not going towards or at the altitude we have set and deviated by more than 300’ and it gives up at 900’

248
Q

AUTO PILOT light means what?

A

Fault- degraded mode

Amber line through it on FMA

249
Q

A/T Disconnect Light means what?

A

A/T Disconnected- to Clear turn the autothrottles back on or turn on another A/T mode

250
Q

GRND PROX G/S INHIBIT light means what?

A

Doing loc approach and g/s inop-if approach sets off the GPWS you can inhbit it

251
Q

SEI comes on when?

A

Failure of both EICAS computers
Failure of Both CRT’s
AC power failure
Single screen failure with a failure to compact to single screen

252
Q

AutoBrakes: What system do you need to operate the atuobrakes?

A

R Hyd System- Operates normal brakes

IRS’

253
Q

AutoBrakes: What autobrakes do we use?

A

3-MAX Auto

254
Q

AutoBrakes: Disarming the autobrakes can be done how?

A

Push more pressure on brakes Harder than the brakes are currently being engaged by the autopilot system
Advance thrust levers
Doing it manually by selecting Disarm
Stow the speed brakes

255
Q

TLR: How long is a TLR good for

A

Valid indefinately

256
Q

TLR: How to invalidate a TLR

A
  1. Weight +10000-300, +6000-200
  2. temp (drop of >10 degrees- Vmcg- too much power/performance. Too much thrust to counteract by the rudder.
  3. Pressure (drop .15 mercury) -less pressure less performance
  4. DDG item not already listed on remark section
257
Q

TLR: FDP window is good for how long?

A

8 hours

258
Q

TLR: Live Calc line is for what?

A

Fill in the blanks with dispatch manually

259
Q

TLR: Standard EFP turn begins when?

A

1000’ on a standard EFP

260
Q

TLR: Direct Turn means what?

A

We will turn in the shortest distance to that heading

261
Q

TLR: Special Means what?

A

Via Conditional Waypoints exactly what to do- Look in special section of TLR-

262
Q

TLR: If Departure said complex where would I get that info?

A

-9 pages- ATC doesn’t know what this will be so need to tell them what is up

263
Q

TLR: Load FMC and put in thrust- if it says TO what will I put in for temperature?

A

Won’t put in any temperature- leave it blank will do it’s own command with the EEC

264
Q

TLR: Pack Valves for takeoff?

A

Closed

265
Q

TLR: How to do a packs off takeoff?

A

Use supplimental procedure

266
Q

TLR: How to do a packs off takeoff?

A

Use supplemental procedure

267
Q

TLR: Ref 40 and Ref 80 are based off of what?

A

Vref30 +40 and Vref30 + 80

268
Q

TLR: Why don’t we have wet data for autobrakes 2?

A

On a wet runway our minimum brakes are 3- not 2. yes Airplane will still stop but you’re not supposed to use numbers in certain conditions.

269
Q

TLR: Can you use these numbers for a flaps 30 landing?

A

Yes, because flaps 25 is more conservative.

270
Q

TLR: Earliest we can start a turn on special EFP?

A

50’ or immediate if it has a notation in the climb via section it will tell me
Have to follow in IMC and at night.

271
Q

Preflight: Diverter strips are for what?

A

Static Discharge or Lightning Discharge

272
Q

Preflight: Gear well

A

Ensure nothing in here and condition good

273
Q

Preflight: Nose wheel Gear door gap-

A

Normal because it will seal itself in flight. Nose gear doors- Moved by mechanical armature- all through mechanical linkages. They are sealed shut by air pressure.

274
Q

Preflight: What color is it behind the Crew O2 Discharge disc? Green

A

HAS HAD OVERPRESSURE AND BLOWN OFF THE DISC. AN EMPTY HOLE NOW. needs mx

275
Q

Preflight: Red light on nose gear is what?

A

APU Fire
Someone is calling
IRU source of power is lost
E&E compartment overheated

276
Q

Preflight: Condition of tires

A

General condition

No bald spots

277
Q

Preflight: Bottom light on nose gear is what?

A

Taxi Light

278
Q

Preflight: Top 2 lights on nose gear are what?

A

Landing Lights

279
Q

Preflight: Ladder photo

A

Stow the gearpins in the E&E
MX could be working on airplane
Fueling airplane would lower the airplane

280
Q

Preflight: Line on ETOPS nosegear door?

A

Limit line

281
Q

Preflight: Are my landing lights always the same brightness?

A

No- when gear goes down they go to a higher brightness

282
Q

Preflight: Landing Light and what other light are on inboard?

A

Turnoff light

283
Q

Preflight: Engine

A 
Make sure all claps are down and flush, 
Tail-cone looks good
Back of engine for blocker panels
Tailpipe for general condition of fan blades
Clasps are firmly secured
284
Q

Preflight: Fuel vent is where and looks like what?

A

NACA vent

Yellow on outer of wing

285
Q

When we have fuel in the surge tank where does it drain back to?

A

Goes to Center tank when center tank is half full

286
Q

Preflight: When looking at a strut

A

Looking for SOME silver

287
Q

Preflight: How many brake wear pins on each tire?

A

2- need to be checked with parking brake set

288
Q

Preflight: Tailskid preflight ?

A

Check to see the paint scraped.

Sensor will be pushed out if you have tail strike

289
Q

Preflight: How many do we have?

How many static wicks can be missing?

A

Lots

Not more than 2 in a row

290
Q

Preflight: Inside outflow valve you’ll see 2 white things what are they?

A

2 AC motors/ actuators

291
Q

Preflight: Two holes under the 4L door

A

Turd Burgulars-Ventrui for the lav flush system

292
Q

How do lavs work on the ground?

A

Vacuum pump that works at each toilet to run a vacuum system if there is no venturi available because it’s on the ground.

293
Q

Preflight: Pitot Drain Mast is used for what?

A

Expels drain water from anything that needs it

294
Q

Preflight: Pack inlet has door what is it?

A

Will push door closed above 290 kts

295
Q

Preflight: Positive Pressure Relief Valve- round circles with hinges

A

Too much pressure these will open up and release pressure. After pressure reduces the valves close themselves but doors stay open.

296
Q

Preflight: Negative Pressure Valve any indication? Squae

A

No

Boeing 767 Atlas Systems Class (24 decks)

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