Pre-existing innate immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What lineage are NK cells derived from?

A

Lymphoid lineage (as are T and B cells)

However, unlike T/B cells, NK cells do not react to specific pathogens

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2
Q

How do NK cells recognize intracellular pathogen-infected cells or tumor cells?

A

By using the imbalance between target cell surface MIC (higher) and MHC class I proteins (lower)

Or the presence of IgG bound to the target cell surface

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3
Q

How do NK cells kill target cells?

A

By using perforin and granzyme to induce target cell apoptosis

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4
Q

What type of molecular signals do neutrophils respond to?

A

PAMPs and chemokines

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5
Q

What is typically the first leukocyte to enter an infection site?

A

Neutrophils

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6
Q

Function of activated neutrophil

A

Killing extracellular microbial pathogens:

Adhere and phagocytose unicellular microorganisms - afterward - cytoplasmic ganules fuse w/ the phagosome and the microorganism is killed by anti-microbial effectors

Also kills by releasing granule contents and reactive chemical species into the extracellular milieu to kill non-phagocytosed pathogens at site of infection (also contributes to tissue damage)

Stimulate wound healing

Major innate immune cells that kill unicellular bacteria and fungi

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7
Q

Does a neutrophil restore its granules after discharging?

A

No, once they are fully discharged, the nuetrophils die

Dead neutrophils contribute to the formation of pus

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8
Q

Band cells

CBC

A

Immature neutrophils

Increased band cells (left shift) indicate the a Pt has suffered a strong, often acute, inflammatory/infectious insult

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9
Q

Seg cells

CBC

A

Mature neutrophils

Increased segs often indicates ongoing bacterial or fungal infection

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10
Q

Macrophages

A
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11
Q

How do neutrophils and macrophages differ in function?

A

Macrophages continuosly recharge their lysosomes w/ anti-microbial compounds and do not die after killing microorganisms

Macrophages also bind both PAMPs and DAMPs

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12
Q

What is the fate of the phagosome after neutrophils/macrophages ingest a pathogen?

A

Fusions with the lysosome to kill pathogen with toxic lysosomal contents

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13
Q

Endocytic PRR’s expressed by macrophages/neutrophils

A
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14
Q

Opsonins

A

Bind to microbial surfaces, including encapsulated microbes

IgG and C3b are important opsonins

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15
Q

Mucus

A

Branched glycoprotein polymer made by mucosal goblet cells

Major function - retain water and keep mucosal epithelium moist

Binds IgA and anti-microbial peptides (AMPs)

IgA - neutralizes

AMPs - kill

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16
Q

What activates neutrophils?

A

Local inflammation induced by PAMP stimulated macrophages and mucosal epithelia

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17
Q

Pseudomembranous enterocolitis

A

C. diff secretes toxin that compromises integrity of the gut lining

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18
Q

Cationic anti-microbial peptides

A

Defensins
Histatins
Cathelicidins

Found in sweat, tears, and mucosal secretions

Many secreted by mucosal epithelium and Paneth cells

Others are made by macrophages and neutrophils

Forms pores and cause osmotic lysis of target cells

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19
Q

C-reactive protein

A

CRP - secreted from the liver into the blood/lymph and opsonizes pathogens

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20
Q

Lysozyme

A

Enzyme that degrades PPG

Found in tears, saliva, CSF, and is secreted by mucosal Paneth cells

Neutrophils also release lysozyme into tissues when they migrate to site of infection

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21
Q

Complement pathways

A

Alternative path

Lectin path

Classical path

Initiated differently but all three merge at the step where the C3 complement protein is cleaved into fragments C3a and C3b

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22
Q

C3b

A

Chemically reactive opsonin (macrophages and nuetrophils have surface C3b receptors)

Binds to pathogen surface and marks it for destruction - opsonization or stimulation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)

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23
Q

Pro-inflammatory mediators of the complement pathway

A

C3a

C4a

C5a

Induce inflammation in infected tissues where the cascades are activated

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24
Q

What activates the classical complement pathway?

A

Antibody or CRP binding to the surface of a pathogen

CRP binds to phosphocholine in bacterial and fungal cells walls (not to human phosphocholine)

At least two adjacent Ab Fc regions are required for activation - 1 IgM pentamer, 2 IgG molecules, or CRP bind to complement factor C1qrs

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25
C1qrs
Binds to IgG, IgM, or CRP Cleaves C4 and C2 into their a/b componenets
26
C4b
Binds to the pathogen surface, then binds C2a forming the **classical C3 convertase (C4b2a)**
27
Classical C3 convertase
C4b2a - cleaves C3 into its a/b componenets
28
C3b
Binds to the target cell surface to either acts as an opsonin or to complex w/ the classical C3 convertase to form the **classical C5 convertase (C4b2a3b)**
29
Classical C5 convertase
C4b2a3b - cleaves C5 into a/b components to start MAC formation
30
What activates the lectin complement pathway?
**Mannose binding lectin** (MBL) binding to mannose-containing surface structures on microorganisms
31
Mannose-binding lectin
**Acute phase protein** produced by the **liver** that is found in the bloodstream after an inflammtory insult
32
MBL-associated serine proteases (MASPs)
Part of the lectin complement pathway activation MASPs **cleave C4 and C2** - after which C4b attaches to pathogen surface and binds C2a forming the classical C3 convertase (C4b2a)
33
iC3
**Initiates the alternative complement pathway - C3** spontaneously hydrolyzes into C3(H2O) = iC3 **Rate of C3 hydrolysis is increased by LPS** and other pathogen surface componenets **iC3 binds factors B and D**
34
The alternative complement pathway
35
What induces factor B cleavage in the alternative complement pathway?
Binding of iC3 (C3H2O) to factors B and D -**D then cleaves B** Produces Bb and Ba and yields soluble C3 convertase = C3(H2O)Bb which cleaves C3 into C3a/C3b C3b binding to pathogen surface binds more factors B and D
36
C3bBb
Alternative C3 convertase
37
C3b2Bb
Alternative C5 convertase - cleaves C5 into a/b components to start MAC formation
38
MAC formation
39
What types of pathogens are C3 deficient patients susceptible to?
Encapsulated bacterial species (i.e. *Streptococcus pneumoniae*) Becuase of C3b opsonization is important in killing encapsulated pathogens early during infection before IgG is made | **Most severe form of complement deficiency**
40
What type of pathogens are patients with deficiencies in MAC componenets susceptible to?
They are susceptible to systemic infections by bacteria in the genus ***Neisseria*** (Gram -) ## Footnote These Pt's typically present after age of ten w/ recurrent episodes of *N. meningitidis* infections
41
CR1
Expressed primarily on macrophages, neutrophils, and erythrocytes **Binds to C3b** **Phagocytosis or to protect** RBCs from complement by inhibiting convertase formation
42
C3a/C4a/C5a receptors
Expressed on mast cells, macrophages, and neutrophils (along with others) Binding to C3a or C5a activates **release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and macrophages** **Neutrophil chemotaxis toward site of complement activation**
43
Major biologic functions of complement pathways
Cytolysis (MAC formation) Opsonization (C3b) Inflammation (C3a/C5a) Immune complex removal
44
Where are immune complexes deposited if unable to be removed?
Within areas of high pressure - microvasculature of the kidney glomeruli, joints, and skin
45
Characterize immune complex disease
Fever Acute kidney injury Skin rash Joint swelling and pain Clot formation SLE - immune complexes cause these issues
46
Passive regulation of complement
C3 and C5 convertases are unstable and active for only a short time after assembly - do not stay activated unless constantly stimulated by Ab/CRP binding, MBL binding, or present of bacterial cell wall components (i.e. LPS)
47
C1 esterase
aka **C1 inhibitor** Soluble in serum Binds C1 and blocks classical complement cascade initiation | **Only classical pathway**
48
Factor H/I
**Regulates all complement pathways** Soluble in serum **Bind and cleave C3b** = and all convertases that contain C3b | **Most important for turning off alternative pathway in absence of paths**
49
Decay accellerating factor (DAF/CD55)
Membrane bound host cell protein Bind C3b and blocks all C3 and C5 convertases containing C3b ## Footnote **Protects host cell surfaces from C3b opsonization and MAC by all pathways**
50
Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis
MIRL/CD59 Host cell membrane bound **Binds MAC and prevents C9 polymerization**
51
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CD55/DAF or CD59/MIRL deficiency Results from mutations in the **PIGA (phosphatidylinositol glycan class A) gene** and prevents addition of GPI (glycosyl phosphatidylinositol) anchors to host cell membrane-bound compliment inhibitory proteins CD55/DAF and CD59/MIRL during hematopoeisis **CD55/DAF and CD59/MIRL are no longer tethered to RBC membranes** Pt's present w/ episodic dark-colored uring (particularly in the morning) fatigue, tachycardia, and SOB - all due to anemia and reduced O2 saturation
52
Lab test to assess complement pathway function
CH50 and AH50 tests CH50 - assays classical and alternative complement pathway function combined AH50 - assays only alternative complement pathway function (Mg2+ - EGTA buffer inhibits classical pathway activation) ## Footnote If deficiency is indicated - antigen-capture ELISA will be used to determine which complement factor is lacking
53
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1
-Due to defective **beta-2-integrins (CD18)** -Results in **recurrent skin/mucosal infections without purulence** -Delayed umbilical cord separation -Peripheral leukocytosis ## Footnote May present w/ loss of adult teeth by adolescence due to periodontitis
54
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
Caused by a **defective lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (mutated LYST gene)** Immunodeficiency - recurrent infections w/ **pyrogenic bacteria** (i.e. LPS secreting Gram-) **Oculocutaneous albinism** Neurologic abnormalities Giant lysosomal granules w/i WBCs
55
Chronic granulomatous disease
Recurrent infections by **catalase-positive organisms** w/ normal immunoglobins and no leukopenia: *Staphylococcus aureus Kurkholderia cepacia Serratia marcescens Norcardia Asperigullus* **X-linked disorder** Results from neutrophils having and **impaired respiratory burst secondary to defective NADPH oxidase** ## Footnote **Nitroblue tetrazolium test** - dx CGD and check NADPH oxidase activity Absence of fluorescence on **dihydrohodamine** flow cytometry can also dx (dihydrorhodamine is normally oxidized and fluoresces green)
56
Myeloperoxidase Deficiency
Myeloperoxidase - enzyme in cytoplasm of **neutrophils** that catalyzes **production of hypochlorite** from H2O2 and Cl- Usually asymptomatic but may cause invasive ***Candida*** infections Green discoloration of pus or sputum seen during common bacterial infections is due to the presence of myeloperoxidase
57
Terminal complement deficiencies
Inability to form MAC - Pt's **susceptible to infections with *Neisseria* species** ## Footnote Evaluation will show decreased activity of the classical (CH50) complement cascade and of the alternative (AH50) cascade
58
Deficiency of complement factor C3
Associated w/ recurrent pyogenic infections due to impaired opsonization of bacteria
59
Hereditary angioedema
Characterized by recurrent episodes of cutaneous and mucosal swelling due to a **deficiency of C1 inhibitor along with low levels of serum C4**
60
Deficiency of what complement factor leads to excess production of bradykinin?
A **deficiency of C1 inhibitor** Excess production of bradykinin produces angioedema
61
Histologic characterization of granulomas
Aggregates of activated macrophages that assume an epithelioid appearance (epithelioid macrophages) Epithelioid macrophages may fuse together to form multinucleated cells (**Langhans giant cell**s) surrounded by a rim of **Th1 lymphocytes**
62
CD14
A monocyte marker | Stains the activated epithelioid macrophages that form granulomas
63
Non-caseating granulomas
Lack a central area of necrosis - i.e. sarcoidosis
64
Result of increased 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity in macrophages
**Hypercalcemia** - increased 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity **increases vitamin D formation**
65
Four stages of wound healing
1. **Hemostasis** (fibrin clot formation) 2. **Inflammation** (cellular infiltration) 3. **Proliferation** (reepithelization, fibroplasia, and angiogenesis) 4. **Maturation** (collagen remodeling)
66
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
Proinflammatory cytokine secreted primarily during the inflammatory phase of wound healing
67
When does the proliferation phase of wound healing occur?
3 days to 5 weeks after injury Characterized by angiogenesis - stimulated by **FGF** and **VEGF** and the deposition of **type III collagen**
68
What characterizes granulation tissue
Proliferating capillaries and fibroblasts
69
Remodeling (maturation) stage of wound healing
Occurs between 3 weeks and 2 years after injury **Type I collagen** is the primary collagen in mature scar tissue (also present in bones, tendons, ligaments, and skin) ## Footnote Myofibroblasts and metalloproteinase secretion is important for wound contraction
70
Healing by first intention
Involves **limited granulation tissue formation** (minimal scar formation and no wound contraction)
71
Keloids
Large, irregular masses that result from excessive deposition of **type I and type III collagen** in dermis due to the excess production of **transfroming growth factor-beta** (TGF-β) by fibroblasts More commong in African Americans - typical site being earlobes | Increased prod. of hyalinized collagen
72
Histologic characterization of keloid scars
Abnormally broad, disorganized eosinophilic bands of collagen in the dermis
73
Hypertrophic scars
Result from localized excess production of scar tissue (increased type III collagen) due to excess production of **transforming growth factor-beta** (TGF-β) ## Footnote Histologically - parallel organized arrangement of collagen in dermis
74
Dupuytren contracture
Consists of fibroblastic proliferation and thickening of the palmar fascia (palmar fibromatosis) Characterized by **inability to extend the fourth and fifth fingers** Fibrotic nodules and cords forming along the **flexor tendons** that limit the extension of the affected digits are pathognomonic
75
Congenital torticollis
**Unilateral fibrosis of sternocleidomastoid muscle** - often caused by intrauterin malposition of the fetal head - may be associated w/ a large body (fetal macrosomia) or decreased amniotic fluid (oligohydraminios) Contraction of the sternocleidomaastoid muscle causes **head to tilt toward** affected muscle - **chin points away** from affected muscle
76
What is the most common localized form of fibroblast proliferation?
Dupuytren contracture
77
Peyronie disease
Penile fibromatosis - curved penis due to localized proliferation of fibroblasts on the dorsolateral aspect
78
During tissue repair, what connective tissue is deposited first?
Type III collagen (by fibroblasts) and then it is replaced by type I collagen
79
Transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-ɑ)
Promotes epithelial cell proliferation, growth, and differentiation
80
Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)
Stimulates **proliferation of fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells** Also decreased degradation of extracellulalar matrix by metalloproteinases in the skin following an injury
81
Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
Found in **alpha granules of platelets** Stimulates the proliferation of fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells, and monocytes | PDGF in excess can cause fibrosis of bone marrow (**myelofibrosis**)
82
IL-12
Secreted by macrophages to induce CD4+ helpter T cells to differentiate into TH1 cells
83
What cytokines are secreted by Th1 cells
Interfereon gamma Interleukin-2 | Proinflammatory
84
Cytokines secreted by Th2 cells
IL-4 IL-5 IL-6 IL-10 IL-13
85
What cytokine converts macrophages to epithelioid cells?
INF-gamma | why anti-TNF therapy can cause disseminated TB
86
Basophils
Leukocyte with numerous deeply basophilic granules w/i cytoplasm that completely hide nucleus Have surface receptors for IgE Release histamine
87
Basic protein
Secreted by eosinophils - toxic to helminthic parasites
88
Arylsulfatase
Released by **eosinophils** - **neutralizes leukotrienes**
89
What cell secretes histaminase?
Eosinophils
90
WBCs involved in chronic inflammation
Often associated w/ increased numbers of monocytes and lymphocytes, but eosinophils and basophils are also types of chronic inflammatory cells
91
Neutrophils with more than five nuclear lobes
Hypersegemented, think megaloblastic anemia
92
What normally inactivates bradykinin?
ACE - why you cannot give ACE inhibitor (i.e. captopril) to Pt w/ C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency | Familial Angioedema
93
Familial angioedema
**Deficiency of C1 esterase** inhibitor Episodic nonpitting edema of soft tissue (esp the lips) Severe abdominal pain and cramps - occasionally accompanied by vomiting - may be caused by edema of GI tract **C1 esterase inhibitor prevents conversion of prekallikren and kininogen to bradykinin** - **Deficiency of C1 esterase** inhibitor leads to excess production of bradykinin and **increased vascular permeability** - stimulates smooth muscle contraction, dilates blood vessels, and causes pain | ACE inhibitors contraindicated since ACE inactivates bradykinin
94
CD18
beta-2-integrins - leukocytes adhesion and transmigration during acute inflammation ## Footnote Deficiency - neutrophils won't be found at sites of infection (no pus)
95
Which is the most important cell type for initiating inflammatory responses in tissues?
**Macrophages** - resident in tissue - recruit nuetrophils | PAMPs bind PRR and induce inflammation - secrete cytokines/chemokines
96
What complement pathway does LPS induce?
The alternative pathway
97
What deficiency is indicated by recurrent *Neisseria* infections of the same Pt?
Late complement deficiency (MAC assembly - C3 and later)
98
Which complement cascade pathway is responsible for clearing immune complexes once activated?
The classical complement pathway ## Footnote Therefore, **C1q/C2/C4** deficiencient patients are at increased risk for developing systemic erythematous lupus
99
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency ## Footnote Leukocyte adhesion deficiency, which is due to defective **beta-2-integrins (CD18)**, is characterized by failure of leukocyte adhesion and migration and results in recurrent skin and mucosal infections without purulence, delayed umbilical cord separation, and peripheral leukocytosis.
100
Mutations involving LYST ## Footnote Chediak-Higashi syndrome, which is caused by a **defective lysosomal trafficking regulator gene** (mutated LYST gene), is characterized by immunodeficiency (recurrent infections with pyogenic bacteria), oculocutaneous albinism, neurologic abnormalities, and giant lysosomal granules within white blood cells.
101
Defect involving NADPH oxidase ## Footnote Chronic granulomatous disease, which is characterized by recurrent infections by catalase-positive organisms with normal immunoglobulins and no leukopenia, results from neutrophils having an impaired respiratory burst secondary to defective NADPH oxidase.
102
Terminal complement deficiencies (C5-C9) result in inability to form the membrane attack complex, which renders affected patients more susceptible to infections with what pathogenic species.
*Neisseria*
103
INF-gamma ## Footnote Non-caseating granulomas, which lack a central area of necrosis, can be found in multiple different clinical disorders, such as sarcoidosis. Th1 cells produce IL-2 and interferon-gamma, which promote further T-cell response, activation of macrophages, and differentiation of macrophages into giant cells. INF-gamma converts macrophages to epithelioid cells, which forms granulomas, while IL-2 stimulates the autocrine proliferation of Th1 cells.
104
Inheritance pattern of chronic granulomatous disease
X-linked recessive
105
Dihidrordamine Test
Meaures NADPH oxidase activity - not concentration of neutrophils ## Footnote Low NADPH oxidase activity - multiple granulomas and chronic infection w/ *Aspergillus* (*Aspergillus* pneumonia)
106
What types of viruses does TLR3 detect?
All RNA viruses (even ssRNA - becomes dsRNA when it reproduces)
107
Healing by secondary intention
Larger defects that heal w/ granulation tissue formation and possible scar contraction (mediated by myofibroblasts)
108
Caseating granulomas
Characteristic of certain fungal infections and tuberculosis (classic infectious granulomatous disease)