Microcytic and macrocytic anemias Flashcards

1
Q

What is the unifying pathogenic mechanism for all microcytic anemias?

A

Defect in RBC hemoglobin synthesis at a cellular level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can a large RDW indicate?

In respect to microcytic anemia

A

The presence of a population of mixed normo/microcytic RBC population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dimorphic RBC populations

A

Classically associated w/ sideroblastic anemia (myelodysplastic variant)

Microcytic RBCs arise from the mutated clone and normal rbcs from the unmutated one

Can also be seen in Pt’s w/ iron deficiency anemia who are treated w/ iron - normal cells representing those produced in response to iron supplementation, and microcytic RBCs arising from the period of iron deficient erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathway abnormailities in microcytic anemia

A

Defect in cellular heme synthesis

Defect in globin chain synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Defect in heme synthesis in microcytic anemia

A

Unavailability of iron:
-iron deficiency; anemia of inflammation/chronic disease
-Defect in cellular heme/protoporpyrin synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Defect in globin chain synthesis in microcytic anemia

A

-Thalassemias
-Thalassemia-like hemoglobinopathies: :
HbC
HbE (both β globin);
Hb Constant Spring(HbCS (α globin))2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Decreased serum iron
Increased Tf/TIBC w/ decreased Tf/Fe saturation%

A

Iron deficiency anemia

In early stages, MCV might be normal but is typically low

Microcytic RBCs in in iron deficiency anemia are typically also hypochromic (decreased MCHC, expanded area of central pallor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of iron malabsorption

A
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Autoimmune gastritis
  3. Bariatric surgery
  4. Achlorhydria (acidic pH required for optimal iron apsorption)
  5. Resection duodenum/proximal ileum
  6. Iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia (IRIDA) TMPRSS6 mutation; congenital microcytic/hypochromic anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gene mutation associated w/ iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia (IRIDA)

A

TMPRSS6 mutation; congential microcytic/hypochromic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Qualitative defects of globin synthesis

A

Hemoglobinopathies - characterized by the production of abnormal hemoglobin w/ an abnormal α or (more commonly) β globin chain resulting from a mutation in the globin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Quantitative defects of globin synthesis

A

Thalassemias - . As a result of a mutation in a globin gene promoter, either α or β globin chains are not produced or are produced at a decreased level that leads to imbalance between α and β globin production. It is this imbalance that causes the anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Thalassemia associated w/ increased levels of HbF and/or HbA2

A

β thalassemia syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Asymptomatic Pt who is not anemic, has normal iron studies, but has MCV in the 70s

A

Almost certainly has a thalassemia syndrome (thalassemia trait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HbA2 and/or HbF are elevated

A

β thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Target cells

A

Thalassemia patients other than silent carriers have “target cells” (they look like targets).

infrequent in αα/-α thalassemia, β+/β thalassemia, more common in other phenotypes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nucleated RBCs in thalassemia

A

Indicates extramedullary hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A

HbH stained w/ new methylene blue or brilliant cresy blue

HbH cannot be quantified w/ HPLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Thalassemia that requires molecular testing

A

Since the most common α thalassemia syndromes do not produce an abnormal hemoglobin, the vast majority of α thalassemia patients will have normal hemoglobin quantitation. The diagnosis can be inferred by patient and family history, but requires molecular studies to confirm it. Molecular studies are almost never needed in β thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Thalassemia major

A

Transfusion dependent throughout life

Risk for Fe overload and complications like myocardial iron deposition-related heart disease and endocrinopathy (massive splenomagaly and extramedullary hematopoiesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Thalassemia minor

A

almost never require transfusion, are typically only mildly anemic;
many have mild splenomegaly but do not have the other complications above; and have a low risk of iron overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thalassemia intermedia

A

Require transfusion sometimes.

They have some risk of developing the same complications as thalassemia major patients, and if they start developing those problems, they are put on chronic transfusion programs to prevent excess ERFE
production and suppression of hepcidin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Thalassemia trait

A

are usually not anemic at all or just barely; they have microcytosis but nothing else.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HbH disease

A

Clinical phenotype of thalassemia major/TDT

Frequently also have a small abount of Hb Barts (present w/ hydrops fetalis, severe TDT, and short survival)

They mostly show HbA becuase HbH is unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A β thalassemia syndrome with no HbA

A

β0 thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A β thalassemia syndrome with HbA

A

β+ thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

α-/αα

α THALASSEMIA

A

clinically silent carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

–/αα or α-/α-

α THALASSEMIA

A

(α thalassemia trait type 1 (cis))
or
α-/α- (α thalassemia trait type 2 (trans)):thalassemia trait

Type 2 trait most common in Black/African ancestry

type 1 trait most common in Asian, rare with Black/African ancestry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

α-/–
ααND/–
αND-/α-

A

Hb H disease (Three absent or mutant genes; ND – non-deletion mutation, of which the best known is HbCS)

-TDT/thalassemia major; target cells; nucleated red cells
-Non-deletional mutations like αCS are associated w/ more severe phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

αND-/–
αND-/αND-

A

Hb Barts/hydrops fetalis (Four absent or mutant alleles total- two or three absent alleles with one or two mutant alleles)

-Severe TDT; short lived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

β/β+ or rarely β/β0

A

o Mild anemia, microcytosis, some targets
o β thalassemia minor
o Strictly speaking there is no “β thalassemia trait” but some β/β+ behave like it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

β/β0, or mild β0/β+

A

o Definite anemia, microcytosis, targets but typically no or rare transfusions
o β thalassemia intermedia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

β0/β+, β0/β0

A

o Severe anemia, transfusion dependent, microcytosis, target cells, nucleated red cells
o β thalassemia major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mechanism of anemia in thalassemias

A

Hemolysis due to cell damage from enbound globin chains

Patients with concurrent α thalassemia trait 2 (α-/α-) and β thalassemia minor are less anemic and microcytic than patients with beta thalassemia minor alone because they have less imbalance in α and β globin chain production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mechanism for iron overload

A

ERFE production/hepcidin suppression. Subsequent iron overload leads to osteoporosis and endocrinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

manifestation of extreme ineffective erythropoiesis causing
reactivation of embryonic blood production sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Luspatercept

A

activin receptor ligand trap that drives late stage erythropoiesis, is approved for use in thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Triad of saturnine gout

A

Patients with lead poisoning may have neuropathic abdominal pain, hypertension, joint pain, and kidney disease

Causes sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Macrocytosis/macrocytic anemia vs megaloblastic anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia - increased MCV, usually reflects presence of large RBCs (macrocytes)

Megaloblastic anemia - defects of nucleic acid synthesis results in specific morphologic changes in nucleated cells (particularly erythroid and myeloid precursors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In megaloblastic anemia where are megaloblastic changes present?

A

Bone marrow - macrocyte you see in peripheral blood is not a megaloblast

What you do see in the peripheral blood in megaloblastic anemia are large oval-shaped red cells (macroovalocytes) and neutrophils with a greater than usual number of nuclear lobes (hypersegmented neutrophils; usually 5 or more lobes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What anemia typically reflects an abnormality in B12 or folate metabolism?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
A

Megaloblastoid changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia (CDA)

A

Multinucleate erythroid precursors - hallmark of CDA

Do not have hypersegmented neutrophils in peripheral blood - do not have macroovalocytes

B12 and folate are normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Diamond-Blackfan anemia

A

Macrocytic

Congenital form of pure red cell aplasia that is associated w/ mutation in the ribosomal regulatory proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A

Chronic liver disease:

the lipid composition of the RBC membrane is abnormal, causing “extra” membrane that produces a higher surface-tovolume ratio.

These cells have the appearance of target cells except that the target cells of thalassemia and hemoglobinopathies are microcytic.

These cells are large and the “target” is not precipitated globin but rather a fold of cell membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Artifactual macrocytosis

A

MCV is measured as large but RBCs are normal size

  1. Rouleaux/RBC clumping
  2. RBC agglutination

Pt’s w/ rouleaux typically have eleved erythrocyte sedimentation rate and CRP (common labs to ID inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cryoglobulinemia type I

A

Associated w/ hematologic malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cryoglobulinemia type II

A

Associated w/ hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cryoglobulinemia type III

A

Nonspecific indicator of inflammation (mixed cyroglobulinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What enhances folate/THF retention in cells?

A

Polyglutamation

50
Q

What biochemical conversion does methylene-THF acts as a one-carbon donor for?

A

The conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to thymidylate monophosphate

Enzyme for conversion = thymidylate synthase

Leads to release of dihydrofolate (reduced back to THF by dihydrofolate reductase)

Required for DNA synthesis

51
Q

Methyl-THF

A

If methylene-THF is not metabolized by thymidylate synthase, it is irreversibly reduced by methylene-THF reductase (MTHFR) to methyl THF.

MethylTHF is not polyglutamated as effectively as other THF forms and tends to diffuse out of cells and be lost in the urine

Methyl-THF is convered to THF by methionine synthase (B12 dependent enzyme)

52
Q

Elevated homocysteine levels

In respect to anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia caused by either B12 or folate deficiency

53
Q

Methylmalonic acid accumulation

A

Accumulates in B12 deficiency only

54
Q

Haptocorrin

R-protein/factor

A

Glycoprotein produced in salivary glands - binds cobalamin in the stomach

Pancreatic proteases in the presence of bicarb digest haptocorrin - releases the cobalamin

Cobalamin then becomes bound to IF

55
Q

Intrinsic factor

A

Produced by parietal cells in stomach

After haptocorrin-cobalamin complex is degraded in duodenum, cobalamin binds IF

IF-cobalamin complexes then travel to ileum where they bind with the cubam receptor - internalized in lysosomes

56
Q

What exports IF-cobalamin complex from lysosomes?

A

2 receptors:

LMBD1 and ABCD4

57
Q

After exportation from the lysosome, what exports cobalamin B12 into circulation?

A

Transcobalamin

58
Q

What mediates cellular uptake of B12?

A

The transcobalamin receptor = CD320

59
Q

Deficiency of transcobalamin vs deficiency of haptocorrin?

A

TC deficiency - megaloblastic abnormality

HC deficiency - does not produce disease

60
Q

What are Pt’s w/ congenital hemolytic anemias and severe exfoliative skin diseases (i.e. psoriasis) at risk for?

A

Folate deficiency

61
Q

What drugs can induce actual or functional B12 deficiency?

A

NO

Metformin

Histamine-blocking agents or PPis

62
Q

Imerslund-Grasbeck syndrome

A

Defective cubam receptor leading to B12 deficiency

63
Q

Most commong cause of B12 deficiency?

A

Pernicious anemia - caused primarily by Abs against IF, and secondarily by autoimmune gastric atrophy leading to loss of parietal cells

64
Q

Drugs that interfere w/ folate activity

A

Antifolates: carbamazepine, methotrexate, premetrexed, phenytoin, sulfasalazine, trimethoprim, valproic acid

Drugs that require methylation: L-Dopa, α-lipoic acid, high dose niacin

65
Q

Inborn defects of folate metabolism

A

Methylene-THF DH deficiency (MTHFD1)

MTHFR deficiency does not cuase megaloblastic anemia

66
Q

Causes of megaloblastic anemia not due to B12/folate deficiency

A

Antineoplastic/immunomodulatory: Azathiprine, 5-fluorouracil, hydroxyurea, 6-mercaptopurine, mycophenolate mofetil

Tyr kinase inhibitors: imantinib, sunitinib

Antitetrovirals: zidovudine, stavudine

67
Q

Infancy-onset of megaloblastic anemia, sensorineural deafness, diabetes, optic atrophy. High dose thiamine corrects anemia

A

Thiamine responsive megaloblastic anemia

Autosomal recessive

SLC19A2 family gene for high affinity thiamine receptor

68
Q

Hereditary orotic
aciduria

A

Developmental delay with or without megaloblastic anemia. Responds to uridine

Autosomal recessive

Uridine monophosphate synthase
gene → impaired pyrimidine
synthesis

69
Q

Lesch-Nyhan
syndrome

A

Abnormal uric acid metabolism, severe neurobehavioral issues, and megaloblastic anemia

X-linked

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
mutation → impaired purine metabolism

70
Q

MCV greater than 115 fL

A

Increases the likelihood that macrocytic anemia is due to B12

Although MCVs that high or
higher are routine in patients taking
hydroxyurea

71
Q

Serum B12 assay

A

Measures both transcobalamin and haptocorrin

Normally - ~80% HC-B12 and ~20% TC-B12

72
Q

Elevated serum B12

A

primarily reflect elevated unbound (apo) HC, and less frequently elevated apo-TC. This occurs most commonly in liver disease but can be seen in myeloproliferative disorders (it was once considered a minor criterion for the diagnosis of polycythemia vera).

Elevated B12 levels do not carry an adverse implication in and of themselves.

73
Q

Elevated LDH and bilirubin

In context of megaloblastic anemia

A

Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and bilirubin may be mildly elevated, reflecting intramedullary hemolysis from ineffective erythropoiesis. Serum/plasma haptoglobin may low.

74
Q

Subacute combined degeneration in the posterior/lateral columns of the spinal cord

A

Reflects demyelination in B12 deficiency

MRI = hyperintense lesion in the posterior part of the verical spinal cord (V sign)

75
Q

Anti-IF Abs imply

A

Pernicious anemia

76
Q

Anti-parietal cell Abs imply

A

Atrophic gastritis

77
Q

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy tests for?

A

Achlorhydria/gastric atrophy

78
Q

Anti-endomysial IgA implies

A

Celiac disease

79
Q

Elevated serum gastrin implies

A

Achlorhydria/gastric atrophy

80
Q

Low serum pepsinogen implies

A

Immune or atrophic loss of parietal cells

81
Q

Mutation associated w/ HbE syndrome

A

β26 Gln(Q) → Lys (K)

82
Q

Two persons who each have alpha thalassemia trait type 2 (trans; α -/α -) are planning to have a child together. What is the likelihood that the child will have HbH disease?

A

0%

83
Q

What is the pathenogenic mechanism for X-linked sideroblastic anemia?

A

Impaired heme/protoporphyrin synthesis (defective 5-ALA synthase)

84
Q

Hypochromia

A

Increased central pallor of RBCs

85
Q

In a woman with a hematocrit of 40% (normal 36-48%), the reticulocyte production index (RPI) will be (greater than; lower than; or the same as;) the corrected reticulocyte count?

A

Same as

86
Q

Isoniazid-associated sideroblastic anemia can be prevented by?

A

Pridoxine (B6) supplementation

87
Q

Which of the following contributes to iron overload in Pt’s w/ congenital X-linked sideroblastic anemia?

A. Increased erythroferrone production
B. Increased 5-ALA synthase activitiy
C. Increased pyridoxal-6-phosphate metabolism
D. Increased hepcidin production

A

A. Increased erythroferrone production

88
Q

Reticulocyte index

A
89
Q

Frontal bossing

A

Typical characteristic of thalassemias

Due to infeffective heamtopoeisis

90
Q

Pathogenic mechanism of Hb constant spring (CS)

A

α142 STOP → Gln(Q)
(gives a long unstable α chain)

91
Q

Pathogenic mechansim of HbC syndrome

A

β6 Gln(Q) → Lys (K)

92
Q
A

B. Hemoglobin concentration

RBC# and red cell size (MCV) and hemoglobin concentration are only values that are measured directly

93
Q
A

C. 36%

94
Q
A

D. Polychromatophilic cytoplasm

95
Q
A

Restless legs syndrome

PICA - is the most specific sx

96
Q
A

C. Decreased cellular Hb synthesis

97
Q
A

C. Low serum ferritin

98
Q

MCV<75fL

A

Almost always hemoglobinopathy or thalassemia

99
Q
A

D. 0%

100
Q
A
101
Q

HbE syndrome

A
102
Q

Hb constant spring syndrome

A
103
Q
A

C. SF3B1 mutation

Tx w/ rhEPO; transfusion/chelation; Luspatercept

104
Q

Why is oral B12 replacement in pernicious anemia effective?

A

B12 is absorbed by intrinsic factor-independent processes

105
Q

How does high-dose niacin induce functional folate deficiency?

A

By depleting methyl groups required for folate effects

106
Q

How does infection w/ Giardia lamblia cause B12 deficiency?

A

Competition for intestinal cobalamins

Diphyllobothrium latum is another pathogen that competes with cobalamins

107
Q

The initial step in the metabolism of dietary folate naturally occurring in food is?

A

Hydrolysis by folypolyglutamate hydroxylase

108
Q

Where is haptocorrin (cobalaphilin) produced?

A

Salivary glands

109
Q

Which of the following participates in the reaction converting homocysteine to methionine?

A. Thymidylate monophosphate
B. Methelene-THF
C. Methylmalonyl CoA
D. Methyl-THF

A

D. Methyl-THF

110
Q

The peripheral blood smear of a patient with B12 deficiency anemia would be expected to contain which of the following?

A. Megaloblasts
B. Macroovalocytes
C. Giant metamyelocytes
D. Multinucleated erythroblasts

A

B. Macroovalocytes

111
Q

RBC agglutination is characteristic of which of the following disorders?

A. Multiple myeloma
B. Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C. Acute inflammatory arthritis
D. B12 deficiency

A

B. Mixed cryoglobulinemia

112
Q
A

D. Copper deficiency

113
Q

Non-megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia causes

A
114
Q

Common cause of copper deficiency induced macrocytic anemia

A

Zinc toxicity - copper and zinc compete for absorption

115
Q
A

A. Hepatitis C (cryoglobulinemia type II)

116
Q
A

B. Cubulin/amnion-less

Cubam, a multi-ligand receptor that absorbs vitamin B12 and reabsorbs proteins in the kidney, is made up of two proteins: cubilin and amnionless:
Cubilin: A cell receptor that recognizes the vitamin B12-intrinsic factor complex
Amnionless: A transmembrane protein that anchors the receptor to the membrane and helps with endocytosis

117
Q
A

B. Binding to protein-coupled folate transporter

Dietary folic acid is polyglutamated and needs to be hydrolyzed by folypolyglutamate hydroxylase before binding to protein-coupled transporter

118
Q
A

C. Both B12 and folate absorption (although folate is absorbed more broadly it will be impacted)

119
Q
A

B. Hemodialysis

All answer choices are associated w/ folate deficiency - only hemodialysis is associated w/ loss (B12 does not dialyze)

120
Q

Non-drug-related causes of folate deficiency

A

Methylene-THF DH (MTHFD1) - inborn defect of folate metabolism

Also; pregnancy, hemolytic anemia, exfoliative skin disease, leukemia, and hemodialysis

121
Q
A

C. Thiamine-responsive megaloblastic anemia

Due to defect in SLC19A2 family gene (high-affinity thiamine recetor

122
Q
A

C. Serum anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

Serum methylmalonic acid accumulation just indicates B12 deficiency

123
Q

Common causes of B12 deficiency

A

Obesity (common)
HIV (fairly common)