Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NASM PES > Practice Tests > Flashcards

Practice Tests Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following is a contributor to subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)?

A

Bony deformity of the acromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following exercises provides an example of a muscle’s ability to use stored energy?

A

Vertical jump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during self-myofascial release?

A

Autogenic inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, which of the following motions is occurring?

A

Internal/external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What refers to the rate at which any individual nerve fiber transmits impulses per unit of time?

A

Rate coding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a serious risk associated with blood doping?

A

Bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A coach is focused on initiating structure and accomplishing a set of objectives and goals is using which type of leadership style?

A

Task-oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is true regarding casein?

A

80% of the proteins in milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is correct when preparing for a back squat?

A

Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time?

A

Strength and power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following exercises?

A

Prone iso-abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for an athlete in the Strength Level (Phases 2, 3, 4) of the OPT Model?

A

Bench Press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following techniques should a coach teach an athlete who struggles with physiological anxiety in pressure situations?

A

Breath control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to the text, which type of mental imagery is most effective for improving sports performance?

A

Kenesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-marathon upper respiratory infection in runners?

A

Beta-glucans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which exercise can help decrease perturbation and help achieve neuromuscular control?

A

Squat on a wobble board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During functional movements, which of the following is responsible for providing stabilization and eccentric control of the core?

A

Global stabilization system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-strength exercise?

A

Back extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete’s heart rate (HR)

A

HR goes up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A tempo of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT model?

A

Stabilization Endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following injuries often goes unrecognized and unreported?

A

Concussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptoms such as stress fracture, muscle strain, joint and muscle pain, and emotional fatigue are largely due to which of the following?

A

Exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For non-vegetarian strength athletes, how many g/kg body weight are recommended for protein intake?

A

1.6 - 1.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following must be taken over a period of weeks in conjunction with training to demonstrate an ergogenic effect?

A

Creatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle?

A

Anterior talofibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is considered a balance modality?

A

Sport beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which is the foundation from which a progressive sports performance training program is built?

A

Core training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies?

A

Mastery-oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which answer is an example of how the continuum of function should be progressed?

A

Simple to complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

According to NCAA Division 1 bylaws, which ergogenic aids can be provided to athletes by a university?

A

Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint training?

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following ranges represents cardiac output during maximal exercise?

A

20-25 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes?

A

1.6 - 1.8 g/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sports-specific, integrated, progressive, and systematic are characteristics of which type of program?

A

Functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When using skin fold calipers to assess body composition, what is the increased risk of error with being off as much as an inch from the appropriate site?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which integrated training variable utilizes tubing, cable machines, or dumbbells?

A

External resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is a key role of protein?

A

Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g. barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint mechanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production?

A

Phase 5: Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimum dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements?

A

Stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Single-leg front-to-back hops might be done by an athlete in which phase of OPT?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What assessment is appropriate to determine the lateral speed and agility of an athlete?

A

Lower extremity function test (LEFT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In which phase of a plyometric exercise must a muscle switch from overcoming force to producing it?

A

Amortization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as established by the Institute of Medicine?

A

2,300 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of tissue develops in the body following an injury?

A

Scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion?

A

Resisted knee drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why do females have a greater risk of ACL injury compared to males?

A

Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Training the muscle and tendon’s ability to load eccentrically and rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What principle states that when a muscle is stimulated to contract, it contracts completely?

A

All-or-none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which grade is recommended in downhill running for assisted speed drills?

A

5-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following exercises is performed in the frontal plane?

A

Ice skaters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following is an input that the human movement system uses to establish balance?

A

Visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?

A

6-8 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following is a typical resting heart rate

A

70 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what happens in competition?

A

Sport-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following best describes an athlete training in a vertically loaded workout?

A

Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?

A

Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which muscular system is predominantly involved in joint support and stabilization, and is not movement specific?

A

Local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which sport would benefit from the inclusion of assisted drills in an SAQ program

A

Football

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which antioxidants play a role in balancing the oxidative stress produced by free radicals during exercise?

A

C, E, beta carotene, selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following techniques is critical for maintaining stability in the sacroiliac joint?

A

Drawing-in maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which type of training overloads the stretch-shortening cycle to enhance neuromuscular efficiency, improve rate of force production, and reduce neuromuscular inhibition?

A

Plyometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the term for the systematic approach to program design using the General Adaptation Syndrome and the principle of specificity to produce adaptations?

A

Periodization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If a beginner athlete sprints 15 yards during week 1 of phase 1 SAQ training, how many yards should he be running by week 4?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which type of feedback is used after the completion of an exercise to help inform the athlete about the outcome of what was just performed?

A

Knowledge of results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is probably underactive for an athlete demonstrating low back arching during the pulling assessment?

A

Intrinsic core stabilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which coordinated muscle action does balance-stabilization training improve?

A

Co-contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which nutrient becomes the dominant fuel source when athletes train and compete at 65% or greater of the VO2max?

A

Carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which programming is optimal for SAQ training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?

A

Completed on days in between strength training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?

A

Outcome oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which predictable pattern best describes the adaptation to stress the body follows to maintain a state of physiological balance (or homeostasis)?

A

General Adaptation Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following is a major benefit of the bent-knee Achilles tendon stretch?

A

The gastrocnemius and the soleus are both stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When bracing is performed, which of the following has been activated?

A

Global stabilization system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following is a common postural compensation when performing a clean and jerk with a bar overhead?

A

Excessive lumbar extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press?

A

Rotator cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which Olympic lift moves the load from the ground to overhead in one single effort?

A

Snatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance training for which they are unprepared?

A

Synergistic dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur?

A

Longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When training in Phase 4: Maximal Strength, how many times per week should an athlete participate in resistance training?

A

2 to 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle?

A

Epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, adductor complex are classified as whcih of the following?

A

Global core stabilizers

81
Q

What is the duration that the average athlete will spend training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance?

A

4 weeks

82
Q

What is 70% of an athlete’s age subtracted from in the HRmax regression formula?

A

208

83
Q

What is the proper progression for plyometric-strength exercises?

A

Repeat squat jumps, lunge jumps, power step-ups

84
Q

During the snatch, which of the following refers to the barbell being elevated from the knees to the area between mid-thigh and the pubic bone?

A

Shift

85
Q

Plyometric-strength exercises are designed to do which of the following?

A

Improve dynamic joint stabilization

86
Q

What is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic athlete?

A

1,500 mg/day

87
Q

Winning the Stanley Cup is an example of what?

A

Extrinsic motivation

88
Q

The focus of a core training program must be on what?

A

Function

89
Q

Which type of training is designed to enhance power and power-endurance while allowing the metabolic systems ample time to recover between each repetition?

A

Repeated sprint

90
Q

What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?

A

Balance-stabilization

91
Q

Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?

A

Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.

92
Q

If the squat jump exercise is performed with a 3-5 second hold upon landing, in which level of the OPT model does it belong?

A

Stabilization

93
Q

Many of the issues surrounding an athlete’s functional qualification for the use of Olympic lifts can be determined by performing which assessment?

A

Overhead squat assessment

94
Q

When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training primarily occur?

A

In-season

95
Q

What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting 45-120 seconds?

A

Muscle glycogen

96
Q

Which of the following is the principle that states that faster motor units with larger axons are recruited second when more force and power are needed?

A

Henneman’s size principle

97
Q

What muscles are probably overactive when an athlete’s lower back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

A

Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi

98
Q

If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized?

A

Quickness

99
Q

What type of stretching helps improve soft tissue extensibility by taking the muscle to the point of tension and holding for 30 seconds?

A

Static

100
Q

Endurance athletes and those with small body mass and large sodium losses are at risk for which condition?

A

Hyponatremia

101
Q

What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance?

A

Pattern overload, aging, postural stress

102
Q

Movement patterns that occur during plyometric exercise involve which of the following?

A

A series of stretch-shortening cycles

103
Q

What is the eccentric action of the gluteus medius, posterior fibers?

A

Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation

104
Q

Which of the following selections describes a progression in an athlete’s plyometric training?

A

Single-leg

105
Q

Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the lifter drops rapidly into a squat position, moving the feet quickly sideways and extending the arms overhead to catch the bar and stop its descent?

A

Amortization and catch

106
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of selective attention?

A

Ability to focus on relevant cues

107
Q

What describes the best strategy to achieve a positive protein balance?

A

Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts

108
Q

What is the amount of time an athlete traditionally spends performing core-stabilization exercises?

A

4 weeks

109
Q

What is the lost of muscle fiber size called?

A

Atrophy

110
Q

The muscle groups of the lateral subsystem function in which plane of motion?

A

Frontal

111
Q

What is the term used for the technique that recruits local core stabilizers by pulling the navel in towards the spine?

A

Drawing-in maneuver

112
Q

To develop higher levels of stability, the best way an athlete can train is with which specific forms of exercise?

A

Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment

113
Q

What refers to the relationship of a muscle’s ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities?

A

Force-velocity curve

114
Q

An electromechanical delay in which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction is known as what?

A

Amortization phase

115
Q

Which tempo best corresponds to increases in maximal power?

A

As fast as can be controlled

116
Q

How many repetitions of plyometric exercises will an athlete training in Phase 3: Hypertrophy perform in each set?

A

8 to 10

117
Q

Which sport-specific drill is recommended for basketball, hockey, and volleyball

A

Push-up sprint

118
Q

A well-rounded active flexibility program utilizes which three techniques?

A

Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and neuromuscular stretching

119
Q

What is an effect of a lack of neuromuscular stabilization?

A

Altered force-couple relationships

120
Q

Which phase of the OPT model utilizes balance-stabilization exercises?

A

1

121
Q

Which of the following is a stage of the General Adaption Syndrome?

A

Resistance development

122
Q

Which of the following is the best strength exercise for an athlete who is new to resistance training?

A

Supported dumbbell row

123
Q

An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury?

A

Patellar tendinopathy

124
Q

Plyometric-stabilization exercises are designed to do which of the following?

A

Establish optimum landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular efficiency

125
Q

How many times per week should plyometric training be used with a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance athlete?

A

2 - 4

126
Q

When an athlete is thinking about who is in the stands during the competition, this is an example of which of the following?

A

Irrelevant cue

127
Q

What is the average resting heart rate for a male athlete?

A

70 beats per minute

128
Q

Why should supplements like creatine, beta-alanine, and nitric-oxide boosters NOT be recommended to athletes who are minors?

A

Most safety tests don’t test minors

129
Q

Where should a one-person spotter stand during a back squat?

A

Directly behind the lifter, hands on the lifter’s hips

130
Q

Which of the following is an independent quality that contributes to an athlete’s power capacity?

A

Maximum strength

131
Q

Which of the following represents a necessary joint range of motion for Olympic lifts?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion of 20 degrees

132
Q

Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-let squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

A

Shark skill test

133
Q

Which of the following is the last energy supply to be used?

A

Muscle glycogen + fatty acids

134
Q

What occurs when an activated muscle transitions from an eccentric contraction to a rapid concentric contraction?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

135
Q

A point guard who assesses the other team’s defense, calls a new play based on what he sees, and then imagines and executes his drive to the basket with a successful layup displays which fo the following?

A

Shifting attentional focus

136
Q

What is the primary adaptation of plyometric training?

A

Increased motor unit recruitment

137
Q

What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?

A

6-15%

138
Q

Which is the most difficult exercise in the single-leg balance reach progression?

A

Transverse plane balance reach

139
Q

Which athletes have the greatest risk for low vitamin D status?

A

Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure

140
Q

The reverse crunch is categorized as what type of exercise?

A

Core-strength

141
Q

What is the loss of muscle fiber size called?

A

Atrophy

142
Q

When administering the squat assessment, what is the appropriate increase in external resistance?

A

1-20% of initial load

143
Q

Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance level of training?

A

Standing cable chest press

144
Q

What three components make up the integrated flexibility continuum?

A

Corrective, active, functional flexibility

145
Q

Which drill progression is recommended for push-up sprints?

A

Have two athletes race

146
Q

When training for hypertrophy, what is the appropriate intensity at which resistance training should occur?

A

75-85%

147
Q

In which phases of the OPT model is it appropriate to use Olympic competition lifts?

A

Phases 5 and 6

148
Q

Which of the following involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the spine through a full range of motion?

A

Core-strength exercises

149
Q

Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain?

A

Syndesmotic ankle sprain

150
Q

Athletes who train very hard year round run the risk of compromising their immune system, thereby exposing them to the flu or common cold. Which of the following is most likely to help them recover and keep these systems strong?

A

Glutamine

151
Q

What is the maximum amount of rest to put in between sets for an athlete performing a single-let balance reach?

A

90 sec

152
Q

Training for optimum muscle function in all planes of motion, and utilizing the stretch-shortening cycle are part of what type of training?

A

Integrated training

153
Q

Which formula is used as a simple method to estimate an athlete’s maximum heart rate?

A

220 minus age

154
Q

The heart pumps blood into the aorta from which of the following structures?

A

Left ventricle

155
Q

Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves?

A

Transverse

156
Q

What is the ability of the Human Movement System to have optimal ROM in order to prevent injury and enhance functional efficiency?

A

Flexibility

157
Q

What are muscles that work in direct opposition to the prime mover called?

A

Antagonist

158
Q

What law describes how soft tissue models along the lines of stress?

A

Davis’s law

159
Q

When conducting a strength assessment, how long should an athlete rest between sets?

A

2 minutes

160
Q

Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative energy system?

A

Soccer

161
Q

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of androgenic-anabolic steroid use in men?

A

Impaired glucose tolerance

162
Q

Which of the following is the ultimate goal of plyometric training?

A

To improve the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum

163
Q

Among athletes who have a history of ankle sprain, what percentage of athletes are expected to re-sprain their ankle?

A

47-73%

164
Q

Which exercise is considered a chest-stabilization exercise?

A

Push-up feet on ball

165
Q

Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth?

A

Leucine

166
Q

Which of the following best defines the process which brings oxygen from the air, across the alveolar membrane, and into the blood to be carried by hemoglobin?

A

Pulmonary ventilation

167
Q

In which level of the OPT model is core training but recommended?

A

Strength

168
Q

Following a cycle of training in OPT Phase 5, what is the next progression to produce the highest levels of acceleration and rate of force production?

A

Maximal power training

169
Q

What is the preferred location for assessing resting heart rate?

A

Radial pulse

170
Q

When implementing concussion prevention programming, which of the following strategies can a trainer use to mitigate the effects of a concussive injury?

A

Strengthening the neck musculature in all planes of motion

171
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for plantar fasciitis?

A

Sudden increases in walking or running mileage

172
Q

Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A?

A

Reduced bone mineral density

173
Q

When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?

A

Rational thinking

174
Q

Which stride length is optimal for maximal linear speed?

A

2.3 - 2.5 times athlete’s leg length

175
Q

Which of the following is the most important reason why high glycemic foods are recommended during the post exercise period?

A

To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion

176
Q

In addition to its psychological benefits, which of the following strategies actually stimulates muscle contractions?

A

Imagery

177
Q

What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

A

functional strength

178
Q

Once an individual can correctly perform the drawing-in maneuver in a supine position, which of the following is the next progression?

A

Supine with marching

179
Q

If an athlete squats prior to performing a sagittal jump, which concept is employed?

A

Ballistic movement

180
Q

Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature?

A

Snatch deadlift

181
Q

What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete’s training program?

A

Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination

182
Q

What is the first question athletes should ask when trying to determine whether or not they should use supplements recommended by teammates?

A

“Is it safe and ethical?”

183
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover?

A

Synergistic dominance

184
Q

Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?

A

Beginning of the workout

185
Q

Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations?

A

Muscular endurance

186
Q

What is the smallest percentage of deformation of collagen tissue that can lead to micro-failure?

A

6%

187
Q

A coach who creates an outcome-oriented motivational climate implements rewards based on which of the following criteria?

A

Social comparisons

188
Q

For a 30-year-old athlete using the regression method, which of the following is the low-end of the heart rate training zome 2?

A

150

189
Q

Which of the following are Olympic competition lifts?

A

Clean and Jerk and the snatch

190
Q

Which of the following juices has been shown to exhibit potent anti-inflammatory and antioxidant effects?

A

Cherry

191
Q

Passive warming, using modalities such as heated pants or warming jackets, are most beneficial for which of the following?

A

Between multiple races, such as track or swim meets

192
Q

What muscle(s) are likely to demonstrate decreased neural control following an ankle sprain?

A

Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus

193
Q

What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit?

A

Blood flow resistance

194
Q

Which progression is recommended for drills focusing on agility/MDS?

A

Static, dynamic, reactive

195
Q

Which implement is a form of external resistance?

A

Medicine ball

196
Q

Which kind of muscle contraction does balance-stabilization training primarily focus on?

A

Isometric

197
Q

What is the typical body fat range for a female tennis player?

A

21-25%

198
Q

Which of the following is the ability of the central nervous system to gather and interpret sensory information to execute the proper motor response?

A

Sensorimotor Integration

199
Q

Which exercise is an example of a stabilization exercise?

A

Chest press on a stability ball

NASM PES (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions