Practice test questions 3. Flashcards

1
Q

A programmer is writing a script to calculate the disk space needed to perform a daily backup. The programming needs to store the amount of disk space in a temporary placeholder within the program that can be updated and changed during the script’s execution. What would be used to store the value of the disk space needed?

A

Variable. A variable is a placeholder in a script containing a number, character, or string of characters. Variables in scripts do not have to be declared (unlike in programming languages) but can be assigned a value. Then, the variable name is referenced throughout the script instead of the value itself. A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, the value to convert a number from F to C is always 5/9 because the formula is C = (F -32) * 5/9. A loop deviates from the initial program path to some sort of logic condition. In a loop, the computer repeats the task until a condition is met. Often implemented with For or While statements. For example, a short script like (For i=1 to 100, print I, next) would print the numbers from 1 to 100 to the screen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What information should be recorded on a chain of custody form during a forensic investigation?

A

Any individual who worked with evidence during the investigation. Chain of custody forms list every person who has worked with or who has touched the evidence that is a part of an investigation. These forms record every action taken by each individual in possession of the evidence. Depending on the organization’s procedures, manipulation of evidence may require an additional person to act as a witness to verify whatever action is being taken. While the chain of custody would record who initially collected the evidence, it does not have to record who was the first person on the scene (if that person didn’t collect the evidence). The other options presented by the question are all good pieces of information to record in your notes, but it is not required to be on the chain of custody form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An employee’s inbox is now filled with unwanted emails after their email password had been compromised last week. You helped them reset their password and regain access to their account. Many of the emails are coming from different email addresses such as @yahoo.com, @gmail.com, and @hotmail.com. What actions should the user take to help reduce the amount of spam they receive?

A

Mark each email as spam or junk. At the user level, the software can redirect spam to a junk folder or similar. Email filtering is any technique used to prevent a user from being overwhelmed with spam or junk email. Spam can be blocked from reaching an organization using a mail gateway to filter messages. Anti-spam filtering needs to balance blocking illegitimate traffic with permitting legitimate messages. Anti-spam techniques can also use lists of known spam servers by establishing a blocklist. If an allow list is used, only a small number of senders could send emails to the user. The technician should not create a domain-based email filter since the spammers are using Yahoo, Gmail, and Hotmail accounts to send the spam. If a domain-based email filter is created, it will block emails from all users on those email providers and prevent legitimate emails from being received.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You are the first help desk technician on the scene of a potential data breach. What is the FIRST thing you need to do as part of the incident response?

A

Identify the issue. When conducting an incident response, you must (1) identify, (2) report, and (3) preserve the data/device. Therefore, the first step of the incident response is to identify the issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What file types are commonly used by scripts in a web page?

A

.ps1.JavaScript is a scripting language that is designed to create interactive web-based content and web apps. The scripts are executed automatically by placing the script in the HTML code for a web page so that when the HTML code for the page loads, the script is run. JavaScript is stored in a .js file or as part of an HTML file. VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. Network administrators often use VBScript to perform repetitive administrative tasks. With VBScript, you can run your scripts from either the command-line or the Windows graphical interface. Scripts that you write must be run within a host environment. Windows 10 provides Internet Explorer, IIS, and Windows Script Host (WSH) for this purpose. Windows PowerShell enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 7 and later. It is fully integrated with the operating system and supports both remote execution and scripting. Microsoft provides the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) to help create and manage your Windows PowerShell scripts. If you want to save a series of PowerShell commands in a file to rerun them later, you effectively create a PowerShell script by creating a text file with a .ps1 extension. The file can contain a series of PowerShell commands, with each command appearing on a separate line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Your company’s wireless network was recently compromised by an attacker who utilized a brute force attack against the network’s PIN to gain access. Once connected to the network, the attacker modified the DNS settings on the router and spread additional malware across the entire network. What TWO of the following configurations were most likely used to allow the attack to occur?

A

Guest network enabled, and router with outdated firmware. Wireless networks that rely on a PIN to connect devices use the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS). It is a wireless network security standard that tries to make connections between a router and wireless devices faster and easier. WPS relies on an 8-digit PIN, but it is easily defeated using a brute force attack due to a poor design. Once connected to the network using the WPS PIN, the attacker may have logged into the router using the default administrative login credentials and then modified the router/gateway’s DNS. Commonly, many network administrators forget to change the default username/password of their devices, leaving an easy vulnerability for an attacker to exploit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A user is complaining that their profile is taking too long to load on their Windows 10 system. What is the BEST solution to this problem?

A

Rebuild you Windows profile. Each user will normally have a local profile, containing settings and user-created files. Profiles are stored in the “Users” folder or can be redirected to a network folder. Sometimes, a Windows profile can be corrupted over time, making it slow (or even impossible) to load. If this happens, you should re-create or rebuild the user profile and migrate the user’s personal data into the new profile. If you have email messages in an email program, you must import your email messages and addresses to the new user profile separately. Some applications previously installed may need to be reconfigured or reinstalled. If you were logged into Microsoft Store apps like the Store or Movies & TV you may need to log back into those apps to see your previous purchases or restore settings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Your boss from work just sent you an important email, but you are not in the office. You tried to open the email from your smartphone, but it is encrypted and won’t open. What should you do?

A

Verify the digital certificate is installed on the device. If an encrypted email does not open in your mail app, you most likely need to verify that your digital certificates are properly installed on the device as these are used to decrypt encrypted emails. If the email was sent to your Gmail account, it would be sent unencrypted. You should not ask for the email to be sent unencrypted since it removes the confidentiality and privacy of the email. Regardless of whether you are using the email client or the mobile web browser, if the digital certificate is not properly installed then the encrypted email will not be able to be read.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Every new employee at Dion Training must sign a document to show they understand the proper rules for using the company’s computers. This document states that the new employee has read the policy that dictates what can and cannot be done from the corporate workstations. What documents BEST describes this policy?

A

AUP. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document stipulating constraints and practices that a user must agree to for access to a corporate network or the internet. For example, an AUP may state that they must not attempt to break any computer network security, hack other users, or visit pornographic websites from their work computer. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract that outlines the detailed terms under which a service is provided, including reasons the contract may be terminated. A statement of work (SOW), or a scope of work, is a document that outlines all the work that is to be performed, as well as the agreed-upon deliverables and timelines. A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a preliminary or exploratory agreement to express an intent to work together that is not legally binding and does not involve monetary exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Your home network is configured with a long, strong, and complex pre-shared key for its WPA3 encryption. You noticed that your wireless network has been running slow, so you checked the list of “connected clients” and see that “Bob’s Laptop” is connected to it. Bob lives downstairs and is the maintenance man for your apartment building. You know that you never gave Bob your password, but somehow he has figured out how to connect to your wireless network. What actions should you take to prevent anyone from connecting to your wireless network without the proper WPA3 password?

A

Disable WPS. WPS was created to ease the setup and configuration of new wireless devices by allowing the router to automatically configure them after a short eight-digit PIN was entered. Unfortunately, WPS is vulnerable to a brute-force attack and is easily compromised. Therefore, WPS should be disabled on all wireless networks. If Bob could enter your apartment and press the WPS button, he could have configured his laptop to use your wireless network without your WPA3 password. While disabling the SSID broadcast could help prevent someone from seeing your network, the issue was someone connecting to your network without having the password. Disabling the SSID broadcast would not solve this issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A computer was recently infected with a piece of malware. Without any user intervention, the malware is now spreading throughout the corporate network and infecting other computers that it finds. What type of malware MOST likely infected these computers?

A

Worm. A worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. A worm can spread on its own, whereas a virus needs a host program or user interaction to propagate itself. A virus is malicious software designed to infect computer files or disks when it is activated. A virus may be programmed to carry out other malicious actions, such as deleting files or changing system settings. A trojan is a type of malware that looks legitimate but can take control of your computer. A Trojan is designed to damage, disrupt, steal, or in general, inflict some other harmful action on your data or network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Susan is installing several updates on a Windows computer. Nine of the updates were installed without any issues, but one update produced an error and failed to install. Susan restarts the computer as part of the troubleshooting process, and the computer automatically attempts to install the failed update again. Again, the update fails to install. What should Susan do NEXT?

A

Research the error number for the failed update an determine if there is a known issue with this update. If an automated system update fails to install, you should research the error number for the failed update to determine if the issue is a known error. Based on the error code, you can then determine the best method to overcome the issue. For example, a common cause of errors is inadequate space on the hard disk. If a technician needs to determine how to solve this issue best, researching the error code at Microsoft.com can help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You need to move a 75-pound box with a rack-mounted UPS in it. What actions should you take?

A

Ask a coworker to team lift it with you. Since the box is over 50 pounds, you should ask a coworker to team lift the box with you. Team lifting is when two or more people work together to pick up a heavy or bulky object. When you need to lift or carry items, be aware of what your weight limitations are, as well as any restrictions and guidance outlined in your job description or site safety handbook. Weight limitations will vary depending on context. When lifting objects, always lift using your legs and not your back. A rack-mounted UPS is a self-contained unit, making it impossible to carry up in multiple pieces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What commands is used on a Linux system to delete all the files and directories in a Linux system’s filesystem?

A

rm -rf/. The rm command is a command-line utility for removing files or directories. The “rm -rf /” is the most dangerous command to issue in Linux. The rm -rf command is one of the fastest ways to delete a folder and its contents. But a little typo or ignorance may result in unrecoverable system damage. The -r option means that the command will recursively delete the folder and its subfolders. The -f option means that even read-only files will be removed without asking the user. The use of / indicates that the remove command should begin at the root directory (/) and recursively force all files and folders to be deleted under the root. This would delete everything on the system. The . would only begin deleting from the current working directory and then delete all files and folders further down the directory structure, not the entire file system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You want to ensure that only one person can enter or leave the server room at a time. What physical security devices would BEST help you meet this requirement?

A

Access control vestibule. An access control vestibule is a physical security access control system comprising a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens. Video monitoring is a passive security feature, so it won’t prevent two people from entering at once. The thumbprint reader or cipher lock will ensure that only an authorized user can open the door, but it won’t prevent someone from piggybacking and entering with them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An attacker attempts to crack your Windows password by repeatedly guessing until they either guess your password or try every possible combination. What type of password attack is this?

A

Brute-Force. A brute force password attack attempts to match the user’s password against one of every possible combination that it could be. If the password is short (under seven characters) and non-complex (using only letters, for instance), someone might crack a password in minutes. Longer and more complex passwords increase the amount of time the attack takes to run. For example, if you wanted to break a four-digit pin, you could try 0000, 0001, 0002, 0003, …, 9998, and 9999. There are only 10,000 combinations to attempt, and you would crack the PIN in very little time using a computer. A dictionary attack is a technique for defeating a cipher or authentication mechanism by trying to determine its decryption key or passphrase by trying hundreds or sometimes millions of likely possibilities, such as words in a dictionary. A rainbow table is a tool for speeding up attacks against Windows passwords by precomputing possible hashes. A rainbow table is used to authenticate users by comparing the hash value of the entered password against the one stored in the rainbow table.

17
Q

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows 10 on a 32-bit system?

A

1 GB. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of hard drive space.

18
Q

What commands is used on a Linux system to search for lines that match a pattern within a file?

A

grep. The grep is a command-line utility for searching plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. The grep command works on Unix, Linux, and macOS operating systems. Grep is an acronym that stands for Global Regular Expression Print. The vi (visual) utility is a popular screen-oriented text editor in Linux, Unix, and other Unix-like operating systems. When using vi, the terminal screen acts as a window into the editing buffer. Changes made to the editing buffer shall be reflected in the screen display, and the position of the cursor on the screen will indicate the position within the editing buffer. The pwd command displays the present working directory (current directory) path to the terminal or display. If you are working on a Linux system and are unsure of where you are in the directory structure, type “pwd” and hit enter to display the path to the screen.

19
Q

An employee at Dion Training is complaining that every time they reboot their Windows 10 workstation a music application is loaded. Which of the following commands would you use to disable the program from starting up each time Windows reboots?

A

Task Manager. The task manager is an advanced Windows tool that has 7 tabs that are used to monitor the Processes, Performance, App History, Startup, Users, Details, and Services on a computer. If you click on the Startup tab, you will see every program configured to start up when Windows is booted up. This can be used to disable unwanted programs from launching during the boot-up process. System information (msinfo32.exe) is a utility that gathers information about your computer and displays a comprehensive list of hardware, system components, and the software environment that can be used to diagnose computer issues. The event viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It’s a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows problems.

20
Q

An employee at Dion Training complains that every time airplane mode is enabled on their laptop, their external mouse and headphones stop working. What technologies is being disabled by airplane mode and likely causing the issues experienced by this user?

A

Bluetooth. Bluetooth is a wireless connectivity method that is usually used by external mice and wireless headphones. When airplane mode is enabled, the GPS, cellular, wireless, and Bluetooth radios are usually disabled in smartphones, tablets, or laptops. If the Bluetooth radio is turned off/disabled, it will cause issues with Bluetooth-connected devices like mice and headphones. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO).

21
Q

What is the maximum amount of memory used in a 32-bit version of the Windows operating system?

A

4 GB. A 32-bit operating system can only access up to 4 GB of memory. Every byte of RAM requires its address, and the processor limits the length of those addresses. A 32-bit processor uses addresses that are 32 bits long. There are only 4,294,967,296, or 4 GB, possible 32-bit addresses. This 4 GB limit applies to the total system memory, so if the system has memory dedicated to the graphics, it is also considered a part of this 4 GB total limit.

22
Q

What umask should be set for a directory to have 700 as its octal permissions?

A

rwx——. RWX is 7 and — is 0. In Linux, you can convert letter permissions to octal by giving 4 for each R, 2 for each W, and 1 for each X. R is for read-only, W is for write, and X is for execute. The permissions strings are written to represent the owner’s permissions, the group’s permissions, and the other user’s permissions.

23
Q

What version should you use when installing a Linux operating system and are concerned with end-of-life support?

A

LTS release. The LTS (Long-Term Support) release is well-supported and will be regularly updated by the Linux distribution to support new hardware, performance, and security improvements. These LTS releases are supported for a long time (approximately 10 years), so they are great to use in production systems like servers. A beta release is a pre-release of a software product that is given out to a large group of users to try under real conditions. Beta versions have gone through alpha testing in-house and are generally fairly close in look, feel and function to the final product. A developer release is a pre-release of a software product that is given out to software developers to test and modify their existing products to the upcoming version of an operating system or application. Rolling release is a concept in software development where an application is frequently updated through the release of new features over time.

24
Q

Your company wants to ensure that users cannot access USB mass storage devices. You have conducted some research online and found that if you modify the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\UsbStor key, it will prevent USB storage devices from being used. What tools should you use to modify this key?

A

RegEdit. The registry editor (RegEdit) allows you to view and make changes to system files and programs that you wouldn’t be able to access otherwise. The registry is a database made up of hives and keys that control various settings on a Windows system. Incorrectly editing the Registry can permanently damage your computer, so it is important to be very careful when modifying the registry using RegEdit. MSConfig is a system utility to troubleshoot the Microsoft Windows startup processes MSConfig is used to disable or re-enable software, device drivers, and Windows services that run at startup, or to change boot parameters. Remote desktop services (RDS) is used to connect to a remote desktop session host servers or other remote computers, edit an existing remote desktop connection (.rdp) configuration file, and migrate legacy connection files that were created with the client connection manager to the newer .rdp connection file type.

25
Q

A user reports that every time they try to access https://www.diontraining.com, they receive an error stating “Invalid or Expired Security Certificate.” The technician attempts to connect to the same site from other computers on the network, and no errors or issues are observed. What settings needs to be changed on the user’s workstation to fix the “Invalid or Expired Security Certificate” error?

A

Date and Time. : There are two causes of the “Invalid or Expired Security Certificate.” The first is a problem with your computer, and the second occurs when the certificate itself has an issue. Since the technician can successfully connect to the website from other computers, it shows that the error is on the user’s computer. One of the common causes of an Invalid or Expired Security Certificate error is the clock on the user’s computer being wrong. The website security certificates are issued to be valid within a given date range. If the certificate’s date is too far outside the date on the computer, the web browser will give you an invalid security certificate error because the browser thinks something is wrong. To fix this, set the computer’s clock to the correct date and time.

26
Q

You work for Dion Training as a physical security manager. You are concerned that the physical security at the entrance to the company is not sufficient. To increase your security, you are determined to prevent piggybacking. What technique should you implement first?

A

Install an access control vestibule at the entrance. An access control vestibule, or mantrap, is a device that only allows a single person to enter per authentication. This authentication can be done by RFID, a PIN, or other methods. Once verified, the mantrap lets a single person enter through a system, such as a turnstile or rotating door. CCTV will not stop piggybacking, but it could be used as a detective control after an occurrence. Wearing security badges is useful, but it won’t stop piggybacking by a skilled social engineer. RFID badges may be used as part of your entry requirements, but it won’t stop a determined piggyback who follows an employee into the building after their authenticated RFID access has been performed.

27
Q

What command is used on a Windows server to create a connection to a Remote Desktop Session Host server or other computers?

A

mstsc. The mstsc (Microsoft Terminal Services Client) connects to Remote Desktop Session Host servers or other remote computers, edits an existing Remote Desktop Connection (.rdp) configuration file, and migrates legacy connection files that were created with Client Connection Manager to new .rdp connection files.

28
Q

You have submitted an RFC to install a security patch on all of your company’s Windows 2019 servers during the weekly maintenance window. What change request documents would describe why the change will be installed during this maintenance window?

A

Purpose. The purpose of the change defines why the change or installation will occur. The change request documentation should define the 5 W’s (who, what, when, where, why, and how) to define the why behind the change. For example, the purpose might be “to remediate several category one vulnerabilities so that our security is improved.” The change’s scope defines the area, number, size, or scale of a particular change. The change request documentation should define the exact scope of the change. In this example, only some of the Windows 2019 servers will receive the patch. If 50% of them are listed by their asset tracking number will receive the patch, this would clearly define this change’s scope. The plan of the change defines how the change or installation will occur. The change request documentation should define the 5 W’s (who, what, when, where, why, and how), with the plan documentation covering how the change is implemented. For example, the plan might say that the installation will be performed manually or through an automated patching process. It may also dictate that all servers will receive the update simultaneously or that five servers will receive it first, then another ten, then the remaining twenty.

29
Q

You have been asked to install a computer in a public workspace. Only an authorized user should use the computer. What security requirements should you implement to prevent unauthorized users from accessing the network with this computer?

A

Require authentication on wake-up. To prevent the computer from being used inadvertently to access the network, the system should be configured to require authentication whenever the computer is woken up. Therefore, if an authorized user walks away from the computer and goes to sleep when another person tries to use the computer, it will ask for a username and password before granting them access to the network. A screen lock can secure the desktop with a password while leaving programs running if a user walks away, as well. Single sign-on (SSO) is a type of mutual authentication for multiple services that can accept the credential from one domain or service as authentication for other services. A guest account is a Microsoft Windows user account with limited capabilities, no privacy, and is disabled by default. Using the same password for all users is considered extremely poor security and should not be done.

30
Q

You attempt to boot a Windows 10 laptop and receive an “Operating System Not Found” error on the screen. You can see the hard disk listed in the UEFI/BIOS of the system. What commands should you use to repair the boot sector of the hard disk?

A

bootrec/fixboot. To repair the drive’s boot sector, you should use the command “bootrec /fixboot” and reboot the computer. If the disk cannot be detected, enter the system setup and try modifying settings (or even resetting the default settings). If the system firmware reports the disk’s presence, but Windows still will not boot, use a startup repair tool to open a recovery mode command prompt and use the bootrec tool to repair the drive’s boot information. The “bootrec /fixmbr” command is used to attempt a repair of the master boot record of a drive. The “bootrec /rebuildbcd” command is used to add missing Windows installations to the Boot Configuration Database (BCD). The diskpart command is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Windows that is used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions.

31
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a newly installed WAP that is sporadically dropping connections to devices on the network. What should the technician check FIRST during troubleshooting?

A

WAP placement. For optimal network performance, the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) guidelines should be taken into consideration to ensure that the building’s construction doesn’t cause interference with the wireless signals. To determine if adequate coverage and signal strength is being received in the building, you can conduct a wireless site survey. The service set identifier (SSID) is a group of wireless network devices which share a common natural language label, such as a network name. The SSID would not affect the devices and cause sporadic connection drops. Bandwidth saturation is a phenomenon that occurs when all of a circuit’s available bandwidth in a given direction is being utilized by a large upload or download which can result in high latency and performance issues. Bandwidth saturation would not cause the wireless connection to drop, though. Encryption type refers to the type of security used on a wireless network, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3. The security type used on a network would not cause sporadic drops of the network connection, though.

32
Q

A user is having an issue with a specific application on their Android devices. The user works for DionTraining, and every employee has the exact same model of smartphone issued by the company. Whenever the user attempts to launch the application, the app fails and generates an error message. What should the technician attempt FIRST to solve this issue?

A

Clear the local application. To solve an issue with a mobile application, you should normally attempt the following steps. First, clear the application cache since this locally stored information can become glitchy and cause an app to crash. If you have two of the same smartphones having the same issue, it is unlikely to be the application cache causing the issue. In this case, the technician would then attempt to update the OS of the smartphones. Updating the operating system can minimize compatibility issues and fix crashing applications. Third, you can try reinstalling the application if the other two options don’t work.

33
Q

What command would a Linux user need to enter to change their password?

A

passwd. The passwd command changes passwords for user accounts. A normal user may only change the password for their account, while the superuser may change the password for any user. The chown command is used to change the owner of the file, directory, or link in Linux. The pwd command displays the present working directory (current directory) path to the terminal or display. If you are working on a Linux system and are unsure of where you are in the directory structure, type “pwd” and hit enter to display the path to the screen. The ps command is used to list the currently running processes, and their PIDs and some other information depend on different options. It reads the process information from the virtual files in the /proc file system. The /proc directory contains virtual files and is known as a virtual file system.

34
Q

A cybersecurity analyst from BigCorp contacts your company to notify them that several of your computers were seen attempting to create a denial of service condition against their servers. They believe your company has become infected with malware, and those machines were part of a larger botnet. What BEST describes your company’s infected computers?

A

Zombie. A zombie is a computer connected to the internet that has been compromised by a hacker, computer virus, or trojan horse program and can be used to perform malicious tasks of one sort or another under remote direction. Botnets of zombie computers are often used to spread email spam and launch denial-of-service attacks (DoS attacks). A zero-day attack happens once that flaw, or software/hardware vulnerability, is exploited, and attackers release malware before a developer has an opportunity to create a patch to fix the vulnerability, hence the term zero-day. A software bug is an error, flaw, or fault in an application. This error causes the application to produce an unintended or unexpected result, such as crashing or producing invalid results.

35
Q

What commands is used on a Linux system to list the currently running processes on a system?

A

ps. The ps command is used to list the currently running processes, and their PIDs and some other information depend on different options. It reads the process information from the virtual files in the /proc file system. The /proc directory contains virtual files and is known as a virtual file system. The kill command sends a signal to specified processes or process groups, causing them to act according to the signal. When the signal is not specified, it defaults to -15 (-TERM), which terminates the specified process by gracefully stopping it. If “kill -9” is used instead, it will immediately kill the process. The grep is a command-line utility for searching plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. The grep command works on Unix, Linux, and macOS operating systems. Grep is an acronym that stands for Global Regular Expression Print. The ls command lists the files or directories in the current path of a Unix, Linux, or Mac operating system. When invoked without any arguments, ls lists the files in the current working directory.

36
Q

You recently moved 1.5 TB of data from your office’s file server to a new 16 TB NAS and decommissioned the old file server. You verified all users had been given the same permissions to the new file shares on the NAS as they had on the old server. The users are receiving an error stating, “Windows cannot access \server10\shared" every time they click the Share drive icon on their desktop. What is MOST likely the source of this error?

A

The Users are still mapped to the old share drive. Based on the error shown, it appears that the users are still mapped to the old server and not the new NAS. This is a common issue and oversight that occurs when companies migrate from one server to another. Even if every computer has an S:\ (share drive) shown, it is just a link to a network resource (like \server10\shared). If the new server is not named “server10” and is called “server11”, then the mapping needs to be redone to reflect \server11\shared, for example.

37
Q

A user’s SOHO wireless network appears to have significantly slowed down today. Normally, they can download files at 900 Mbps or more, but today, they only averaged 23 Mbps when downloading. You check their wireless settings and see the following: Network SSID: DionTraining Security: WPA2 Password: diontraining Mode: AC ISP: Fiber1Gbps What is MOST likely the problem?

A

Other users have connected to the WiFi due to a weak password. Other users have likely connected to this wireless network since the SSID being broadcast and the password are both similar. The additional usage by those users could drastically slow down this user’s overall connection speed. For example, some attackers will look for open WiFi or wireless networks with weak passwords. When they find them, they will connect servers with illicit files on them for others to download. This would reduce the connection speed for legitimate users. The WAN type is displayed as a Fiber connection at 1 Gbps, therefore it does not need to be upgraded or changed. WPA2 and WPA3 are forms of encryption and do not affect the overall speed of the network drastically. There is no indication in the scenario that there is a weak signal or a low signal-to-noise ratio that would require additional transmission power to be added.

38
Q

You are trying to open your company’s internal shared drive from your Windows 10 laptop but cannot reach it. You open your web browser and can connect to DionTraining.com without any issues. What commands should you use to determine if the internal shared drive is mapped to your computer properly?

A

Net use. The net use command is used to connect to, remove, and configure connections to shared resources such as mapped drives and network printers. For example, “net use S: \SERVER\DATA /persistent:yes” would map the DATA folder on the SERVER to your local S: drive on a Windows computer. The chkdsk command is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors. The ping command is used to test a host’s reachability on an Internet Protocol network. The tracert (trace route) diagnostic utility determines the route to a destination by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to the destination.