Practice test questions Flashcards

1
Q

successful recruitment and management of informants pivots:

A

the ability of the investigator to recognize the motivation of the informant

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2
Q

Control of informants is best achieved through:

A

frequent personal contacts with them

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3
Q

After the cover story for the UC officer is established, what must take place to uncovering criminal wrongdoing?

A

a methodical process of infiltration

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4
Q

2 problems UC may have:

A
  • maintaining criminal identity

- the process of reintegration back to normal investigation duties

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5
Q

Extent of homicide

A
  • adults ages 20-24 will be victims of murder
  • murderers were most commonly 20-24 years old
  • largest category of murderers are listed at acquaintances
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6
Q

the most important variable effecting the decomposition of a body is:

A

Accessibility to insects; especially flies

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7
Q

Gunshot wounds: Smudging

A

indicates the victim was close to the assailant

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8
Q

Robbery

A

takes property from its rightful owner; acts without owners permission; intends to steal property and uses force or intimidation against the owner

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9
Q

Most common type of robbery

A

Street robberies

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10
Q

Most stalking laws require that

A

the perpetrator make a credible threat of violence against the victim or a member of their family

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11
Q

Rape victim’s level of resistance:

A

consent may involve submission, but submission does not necessarily imply consent

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12
Q

In 2010 Registered Sex Offender was an abductor in how many children cases

A

1

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13
Q

The immediate search zone for a missing child should be described as:

A

perimeter of the child’s zone of safety

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14
Q

Investigation for Battered Child syndrome steps

A
  • interviewing witnesses about prior injuries
  • obtaining a reasoning for the injuries by caregiver
  • assessing the conclusions of a medical professional who may have seen the victim before
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15
Q

Forensic interviews for child abuse- sexual assault

A
  • cognitive
  • step wise
  • narrative elaboration
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16
Q

People are presumed innocent until:

A

each element of the offense is proven beyond a reasonable doubt

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17
Q

What is not stored on a DCF ( digital case file)

A

in car video footage

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18
Q

if a firearm can not be unloaded and secured for evidence submitting, who do you contact

A

on call evidence specialist

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19
Q

If the equipment committee manager deems you are negligent in your lost or stolen items, you are responsible for

A

may have to reimburse for a maximum of 500 per item

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20
Q

00 buckshot range

A

20-25 yards

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21
Q

If an on duty officer fails the second qualification for firearms, what occurrs

A

be places on non duty capacity by learned skilled units, AND remedial classes

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22
Q

You can not live further than _ for a take home vehicle

A

25 miles

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23
Q

Employees will not serve in a civil process or render assistance unless

A

THE CITY IS A PARTY

  • statutory duty to do so
  • a court order requires assistance
  • authorized by a supervisor
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24
Q

During SIU investigations, if asked for a reenactment the following is true

A

the officers reenactment is voluntary and is considered a waiver of the officers 5th amendment right against self incrimination

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25
Q

externally initiated complaints of a serious nature require immediate notification of:

A

an available supervisor

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26
Q

Admin inquires into critical incidents or other incidents instructed by the chief or designee will be assigned to:

A

the appropriate unit or division based on the circumstances of the inquiry

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27
Q

Employees who refuse to answer questions directly related to an ADMIN investigation, may be ordered to answer question or subject to discipline for insubordination BUT:

A

Nothing administratively ordered can be provided to a criminal investigator

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28
Q

Officer final classification agreement ( OFCA)

A
  • officer accepts responsibility for their actions
  • a complaint shall receive a final disposition of sustained
  • officer will not receive discipline exceed 3 days for internal complaints when OFCA is accepted by officer
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29
Q

Education based discipline

A

officers must voluntarily accept it

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30
Q

primary purpose of progressive discipline is:

A

assist the employee to understand that a performance problem or opportunities for improvement exists

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31
Q

Notice of sustained allegations to attend DM - Discipline meeting

A

once the commander notifies the officer of the outcome

the officer:
may request an independent discipline review

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32
Q

Admin investigation: DRH - discipline review hearing

A

are conducted for temporary suspensions of 16 or more days

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33
Q

Under what circumstances may positive drug test results be used against an officer in a criminal proceeding

A

THEY WILL NOT BE

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34
Q

If an officer is harasses or placed in fear by a subject on contamination of blood/saliva etc who can authorize the blood / saliva draw

A

Austin public health

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35
Q

Hours of vacation payable upon separation

A

vacation 240

exceptional vacation 160

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36
Q

Who has the final say on what Association material can be posted on the bulletin boards

A

Chief of police

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37
Q

A final disposition for officer misconduct done by a INDEPENDENT investigator is subject for public release only after

A

the chiefs final disciplinary decision has been given to the officer whether or not it was served

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38
Q

SXSW rooster shall be open for

A

21 days after which the department can fill from other sources

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39
Q

Step 1 Agreement Grievance procedures

A
  • officer files with the Association grievance committee
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40
Q

Any grievance found to be valid by the Association Grievance committee shall be submitted to the chief of police within

A

15 days

  • brief statement of grievance
  • facts or events its based upon
  • the section of agreement which was violated
  • proposed resolution for grievance
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41
Q

Elements of offense means:

A
  • forbidden conduct
  • required culpability
  • any required results
  • the negation to any exception of the offense
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42
Q

can not be prosecuted or convicted for any offenses occurring before the age of ____ with exceptions

A

younger than 15 years old

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43
Q

A person who intentionally, knowingly abducts another for the purpose of a ransom, reward or to hold as a shield hostage committs

A

Aggravated kidnapping

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44
Q

Indecency with a child ( under 17)

A

Second degree felony

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45
Q

Prohibited sexual conduct :

A

third degree felony

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46
Q

Theft of service: rental agreement

A

fails to return property within 3 days after receiving notice demanding the return AND it is valued at 2,500 or MORE

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47
Q

Ransomware

A

restricts access by an authorized person to a computer, computer system, network, or data in a computer

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48
Q

A Statement is material: regardless of the admissibly of the statement for evidence

A

could affected the course or outcome of the official proceeding

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49
Q

Weapon free zone within how many feet of a school

A

300 ft

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50
Q

grounds for issuance of a search warrant on obscene materials

A

Must be kept or prepared for COMMERCIAL distribution and exhibition

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51
Q

Dating relationship established based on

A

length
nature
frequency

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52
Q

The court may render a protective order for greater than TWO years IF the court finds the subject in the protective order caused SBI to applicant or family member OR :

A

was the subject for two or more previous protective orders rendered to protect the applicant

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53
Q

determining if computer evidence can be collected and preserved must check:

A

the warrant for what can and cannot be seized

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54
Q

Duties of first officer on scene for a burglary call

A

determine if a crime is currently in progress

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55
Q

Answers to questions asked in the preliminary investigations of Auto Theft allow officers to:

A

determine if a crime has been committed or if another situation is at hand such as vehicle reposession

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56
Q

50 % of fire related property damage is in the US is caused by

A

arson for profit

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57
Q

Federal foreign relations authorization acts 4 primary elements

A
  • premeditated
  • political motivated
  • violent
  • committed against non combatants targets
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58
Q

5 forms of Terrorism

A
  • criminal
  • ideological
  • nationalistic
  • state sponsored
  • revolutionary
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59
Q

In the majority of cases, extremist become radicalized to a great extent through:

A

intensifying social interaction with other people with similar beliefs

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60
Q

The most visible and immediate effective tactic of the US terrorist financing strategy has been:

A

designating and blocking the accounts of terrorist and those associate financing terrorist activities

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61
Q

Deductive reasoning is reasoning based on

A

specific pieces of evidence to establish proof that the suspect is guilty of the offense

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62
Q

Researches suggest that the investigative process is valid in crime detention but should be augmented by:

A

the use of protective patrol programs

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63
Q

The redefining role of the patrol officer is intended to ensure that:

A

evidence supporting the continual investigation or case closure is collected at the earliest possible point in the investigation process

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64
Q

In order to report objectively, the officer must distinguish between:

A

facts and hearsay

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65
Q

Which method is used to sketch FIXED object ( commonly outdoor)

A

Triangulation method

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66
Q

Which crime scene method is done by dividing a room in half and having two investigators search each half

A

zone search

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67
Q

Elimination samples of fingerprints and DNA can be used to:

A

determine whether the evidence comes from the suspect or someone else

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68
Q

Which of the following is correct about Anticipatory search warrants:

A

they may not be executed until some SPECIFIC event ( a triggering condition), other than the passage of time has occurred

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69
Q

Courts have held that a suspect is seized within the meaning of the 4th amendment when:

A

a law enforcement restricts their movement to leave

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70
Q

Responsive force recognized by our society

A
  • right to self defense, including taking the life of another
  • the power of control for those whom some responsibility for care and custody have been granted to an authority figure
  • The institution of a police group that has relatively unrestricted authority to use force as required
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71
Q

When is it permissible to ask questions to a subject under arrest when not reading them miranda ?

A

concern for public safety

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72
Q

To best facilitate the overt intelligence collection process, agency administers should

A

require officers from all divisions to document any information on suspected criminal activity and pass on such information to intelligence officers

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73
Q

Tactical intelligence furnishes the police agency with:

A

specifics about individuals, organizations and different types of criminal activity

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74
Q

Flowcharting is a common technique used in data description and integration phase of information analysis. TWO MOST USEFUL TYPES OF FLOWCHARTING ARE:

A

EVENT FLOW

COMMODITY FLOW

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75
Q

Flipping is a widely used procedure, requiring the approval of:

A

local prosecutor

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76
Q

During a homicide investigation, officers must be prepared to take certain immediate actions, the focus being;

A

Identify any aspects of the scene that might be subject to a CHEMICAL CHANGE by dissipation or change because something was moved

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77
Q

The sentence of life imprisonment without parole is mandatory on conviction of a capital felony if:

A

the individual committed the offense when 18 years of age or older

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78
Q

Adequate cause

A

actions that would commonly produce a degree of anger, , rage, resentment , or temper in a person of ordinary temper. Sufficient to render the mind incapable of cooling reflections

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79
Q

pecuniary loss refers to:

A

the fair market value of property at the time and place of its destruction

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80
Q

THEFT SJF:

A

2,5000 or more but less than 30,000

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81
Q

Access device/connection/device

A

make intelligible an encrypted , encoded, scrambled or other nonstable standard signal carried by a multichannel video or information services provider

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82
Q

Counterfeit communication

A

acquire, intercept, receive etc the use of telecommunications without consent of the telecommunication service provider

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83
Q

False caller ID display

A

CLASS A misdemeanor :

with intent to defraud or cause harm, makes a call or engages in any technology that results in the display of ANOTHERS ID

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84
Q

Polygraph exams:

A

a complaint may not be dismissed solely on the basis of the results of the polygraph taken by the complainant

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85
Q

To justify seizure of personal property under “ Preventing consequences of theft” there must be reasonable ground to believe:

A

the property is stolen

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86
Q

Under what condition can the contract mandate work furlough or leave without pay

A

disciplinary actions

87
Q

DONATION BANK FOR OFFICERS

A

can give up to 40 hours of VACATION OR SICK leave to the donation bank

88
Q

PANEL REVIEW BOARD

A

8 hours to review information in the IA file with officer and representation.. for critical incident and civil rights violations

89
Q

Following the completion of rehabilitation or counseling in an officers LAST CHANCE AGREEMENT

A

probationary period not to exceed 1 year

90
Q

Arbitration Grievance procedure should be:

A

shall be conducted informally, without strict evidentiary or procedural rules

91
Q

Facts are generally learned by

A

information learned personally by investigators

92
Q

LOCARDS EXCHANGE PRINCIPLE

A

every contact by the perp leaves a trace. two things come in contact with another will leave behind evidence

93
Q

Which line- up ensures there is no way either party involved can contaminate the results

A

double blind line up

94
Q

Leon case - evidence seized on a search warrant

A

immune from suppression even if signed by a judge, was wrong there was no PC

95
Q

Minimum requirement for an arrest is

A

probable cause

96
Q

Advantage to the PROBING TECH in an interview is

A

the investigator can control the interview

97
Q

liars often lie by using

A

SPECIFICS

98
Q

Potential problematic issues with use of informants

A

difficult to control
credibility can be questioned in court
can become a source of public embarassment

99
Q

Interview of a rape victim

A

opening remarks of empathy

let them direct the interview

100
Q

Primary motivation for child abducted murderers was

A

sexual desire/ sexual assault

101
Q

Most dangerous type of missing child case

A

non family member

102
Q

What percent of child abductor murderers were killed within 24 hours

A

89%

103
Q

In nearly every case of child abuse, the caretaker will

A

not be consistent in their explanation of the injuries over time

104
Q

child porn

A

usually abuse that is ongoing victimization that progressive over months or years

105
Q

first rule of them for receipt of stolen property is

A

must be identified as stolen

106
Q

According to the FBI, the most commonly committed crime of personal gain is:

A

Larceny / theft

107
Q

motor vehicle theft fraud

A

owner gives up, 30 day specials, phantom vehicles

108
Q

Why do bombers call communicate a bomb threat

A

the caller wants to create an atmosphere of anxiety to disrupt normal activities

AND

caller wants to minimize personal injury

109
Q

A foreign protective order that include provisions in favor of both

A

mutual foreign protective order

110
Q

A medical professional who treats a person for injuries that the medical professional has reason to believe were caused by family violence shall:

A

(1) immediately provide the person with information regarding the nearest family violence shelter center;
(2) document in the person’s medical file:

(A) the fact that the person has received the information provided under Subdivision (1); and

(B) the reasons for the medical professional’s belief that the person’s injuries were caused by family violence; and

(3) give the person a written notice in substantially the following form, completed with the required information, in both English and Spanish:

111
Q

under what conditions is a person reporting family violence not protected from liability

A

a person who reports family violence in bad faith

112
Q

Aggravates sexual assault

A
  • less than 14 years of age
  • disabled person
  • elderly
113
Q

money laundering

A

(1) acquires or maintains an interest in, conceals, possesses, transfers, or transports the proceeds of criminal activity;
(2) conducts, supervises, or facilitates a transaction involving the proceeds of criminal activity;
(3) invests, expends, or receives, or offers to invest, expend, or receive, the proceeds of criminal activity or funds that the person believes are the proceeds of criminal activity; or
(4) finances or invests or intends to finance or invest funds that the person believes are intended to further the commission of criminal activity.

114
Q

Public servant commits offense of Abuse of Official capacity when:

A

intent to benefit the public servant OR

harm or defraud another

115
Q

Commits offense of Unlawful Transfer of certain weapons to someone YOUNGER THAN 18 years of age unless:

A

parent or person having legal custody of the minor has given written permission of effective consent for the transfer

116
Q

In a felony, an officer may break down the door of any home for the purpose of making an arrest if:

A

in possession of an arrest warrant

117
Q

Only officers working _____ percent of their shift after 12:00PM in a 28 day calendar are eligible for shift differential pay

A

50%

118
Q

Final written examination for promotion appeal decision will be done by

A

the civil service commision

119
Q

modify hiring process

A
  • shall complete the same probationary period as those of regular academy
  • upon the completion of the academy, the chief can determine the pay for EACH officer in the modified class
  • upon completing probation, modified officers can not not file grievances regarding disciplinary actions
120
Q

Drug testing procedure : 2 steps

A

initial screening testing AND

confirmation test

121
Q

Drug testing results shall remain confidential to an extent; expect:

A

to an extent used in disciplinary appeal

122
Q

The dispute resolution authority for complaints on the OPO is:

A

city manager

123
Q

officers should NOT be provided a copy of complaint in regards to:

A

DRH - dismissal review hearing AND

admin heading to determine officers punishment for misconduct

124
Q

Chief, may authorize an officers accumulated vacation to cover all or part of an officer suspension for a period of time that is LESS THAN

A

15 days

125
Q

Any timeline of deadline provided in article 20- Grievances may be extended by:

A

mutual written agreement of the parties involved at the particular step of where the timeline applies

126
Q

Family Violence cases where the suspect is a JUV:

A

will be reported the same as an adult if they are 10-16 years of age

127
Q

FV where the child is 14 years or younger and the suspect is a family member who does NOT have care, custody or control of the child at the time of the incident shall be handled by:

A

CHILD ABUSE UNIT

128
Q

The decision to file CONT. FAMILY VIOLENCE is made by:

A

arrest review

129
Q

Officers should not interview SEXUAL ASSAULT VICTIMS YOUNGER THAN

A

12 years of AGE OR YOUNGER

130
Q

Death of a child under the age of 17 is a reportable death by:

A

homicide unit AND reviewed by the Travis county child fatality review team

131
Q

critical incident debriefing

A

are not related to any department investigation and results will not be reported to investigators

132
Q

Neglect of duty examples

A
  • failure to take appropriate action on occasion of a crime, investigation, or other deserving police attention
  • repeated poor evaluations
  • written record of repeated infractions, rules, regulations or order of the department
133
Q

Before attempting to negotiate with the suspect to secure a more serious charge against ANOTHER suspect will:

A

consult with the investigator assigned to the original suspects original charges

134
Q

A supervisor receiving a complaint of a criminal nature has to immediate notify the following:

A
watch commander
duty command
IA
SIU
involved employees chain of command
135
Q

When an investigation has insufficient evidence to sustain a complaint, the designation shall be:

A

INCONCLUSIVE

136
Q

Progressive discipline is most successful when

A

it assist an individual in becoming an effective performing member of the organization

137
Q

Guidance Advisory Program ( GAP) track 3 categories of officers:

A

response to resistance
sick leave
complaints received by IA

138
Q

the department takes what approach to domestic violence

A

continuum- ???????

seeking first to educate at all phases of an employees career

139
Q

supervisors receiving word about an employee being arrest shall contact:

A

follow up memo detailing the specifics to IA

140
Q

Reasonable suspicious drug or alcohol testing

A

supervisor will accompany the employee to the testing site and remain at the site until the testing is complete

141
Q

employees IDENTIFIED BY SUPERVISORS because of disciplinary problems on or off duty, as having drug or alcohol problems shall refer to:

A

APD PSYCH

142
Q

most important factor to the successful conclusion to a vehicle pursuit

A

self discipline and sound judgement

143
Q

once a candidate pool for a transfer has been determined: the candidate will be ranked in order by the posting supervisor based on:

A
  • work history and experience
  • qualifications and preferred qualifications
  • seniority
144
Q

HUMAN RESOURCES HANDLES:

A
  • disability
  • FMLA leave
  • religious accommodations
145
Q

When a county or district court subpoena does not indicate “ MUST APPEAR” for a jury trial, employees shall:

A

contact the court liaison for specific appearance instructions

146
Q

Employees contact with the defense attorney should be limited to those necessary to speed the prosecution of criminal case

A

protect the legal rights of the accused

147
Q

Employees unable to attend mandatory training shall contact the class instructor and notify their supervisor within

A

1 hour

148
Q

final disposition for the apd extended (non FMLA) request form will be made by:

A

APD human respources

149
Q

each employee shall be accountable to ONE supervisor refers to:

A

unity of command

150
Q

Any subpoena duces tecum or discovery request should be promptly :

A

provided to a supervisor for review and processing

Duces tecum: A subpoena duces tecum is an Order that requires a witness to bring documents, books or other items under his, her or their control, that he she or they is bound by law to produce into evidence.

151
Q

once a criminal history record information has served its purpose, an employee shall:

A

destroy documents by shredding

152
Q

Under what condition does the use of a chemical agent require supervisor approval

A

Demonstration

153
Q

when is a supervisor required to complete a supplement for a response to resistane

A

level 1 incident

154
Q

in a pursuit, police vehicles shall not attempt to make a fleeing vehicle take any action:

A

other than continuing straight on the road upon which it is already traveling

155
Q

officers should consider engaging or continuing a foot pursuit when:

A
  • officer is acting alone
  • officer is unsure of the location
  • officer loses radio traffic or communication
  • the subjects location is no longer known
  • subject enters a building etc…
  • two or more officers become separated
156
Q

closing a channel to ensure officer safety - dispatch or any supervisor can do this

A

low audible beep every 8-10 seconds

157
Q

if a warrant confirmation is not received in 10 minutes, the officer can:

A

release the subject or continue to wait

158
Q

officer receiving information that a felony violator is inside a private residence, may only enter and search for the violator when:

A
  • possession of a valid search warrant
  • they have received consent from the person in care, control and custody of the property
  • they can articulate that delaying would expose someone to SBI, death or the violator fleeing
  • they have personally observed the felony violator enter at that time
159
Q

in the case of a felony, the officer may break down the door if:

A

if he be refused entry after giving notice of his authority and purpose

160
Q

Criminal oversight review process

A

the process shall not be used or permitted to gather evidence, contact or interview witnesses, or otherwise independently investigate a complaint of MISCONDUCT by an officer

161
Q

Not less than ___ business days, prior to the panel meeting, the OPO shall provide IA and the president with the association, a copy of the panel meeting agenda

A

5 business days

162
Q

If a period is not stated in a protective order, the order is in effect until the ___ anniversary of the date the order was issues

A

2nd

163
Q

At the direction of the staff LT, HR will send the promotion notification letter and physical exam checklist to the candidate no sooner than ___ days prior to the anticipated promotion

A

60 days

164
Q

The requirements for officers who wish to carry a short barrel rifle, is that the barrel length needs to be:

A

10.5”

165
Q

A search warrant for ELECTRONIC DATA must be executed within:

A

10 days

166
Q

The LARD shall not be used as a:

A

sonic weapon

167
Q

Each officer testing for the rank of SGT shall be entitled to up to a maximum of ____ time in rank points to be added to the final score

A

7

168
Q

Up to 1 year in jail, up to $4,000 fine

A

Class A misdemeanor

169
Q

Supervisors will notify HR when an employee:

A
  • has an overnight stay in hospital
  • sick for 3 consecutive days without reason
  • 40 hours or more consecutive days of sick
170
Q

A vehicle may be impounded after having been ticketed:

A

after 10 minutes

171
Q

Gift to a public servant:

A

if the gift is less than $50.00

172
Q

False statement underoath

A

Perjury - Class A misdemeanor

ENHANCEMENT:(1) is made during or in connection with an official proceeding; and

(2) is material.
(b) An offense under this section is a felony of the third degree.

173
Q

Calls 911 and remains silent or has abusive language

A

silence or abusive calls to 911 service- Class B

174
Q

If an assessment center or technical skills evaluation is administered, written examination score -____ factor in for the rank of SGT and for LT or commander ___

A

.30/.50

175
Q

Criminal Trespass may rely on:

A
  • Video footage
  • Credible person
  • another officer statement
176
Q

NTSB- national transportation safety board

A

Investigations of aircraft

177
Q

Investigation records that resulted in NOT Sustained are retained for ___ years

A

3 years

178
Q

A written reprimand caused a loss of ___ eligibility in regards to HONORABLE CONDUCT years

A

6 months

179
Q

Escape

A

Unauthorized departure from custody or a failure to return following temporary leave

180
Q

Up to what percent of each police academy class consist of interns who successfully completed the Police internship program

A

38%

181
Q

No officer hired after ____ will be eligible for intermediate of advance certification pay

A

MARCH 25, 2001

182
Q

GAP ( SICK)

A

160 hours or more in 12 month period

183
Q

The ranking SIU supervisor on a level 1 incident has how many days to respond to the R2R incident review packet

A

45 calendar days/ can be EXTENDED by ASSIST CHIEF

EVERYONE ELSE is 8 days for supervisor to conduct the incident packet ( SHAREPOINT)

184
Q

Submission for public request records:

A
  • APD MAIN HEADQUARDERS
  • AUSTIN CITY HALL 301 2nd street Austin
  • email to public.infomation@austintexas.gov
  • city website Austin texas.gov
  • Mailed to city of austin public information request P.O box Austin
185
Q

preventing execution of civil process is what degree

A

class c misdemeanor

186
Q

To be appointed, the arbitrator must be available to hear the arbitration within ____ days or a selection and decision shall be made within ___ week of the hearing

A

30 days

__ week?

187
Q

An officer, and the Chief or his designee may agree to extend the deadline of (180 days) for imposing discipline for a period not to exceed additional ____ day increments

A

30 day

188
Q

Bilingual pay

A

175 dollars per month to those certified, per contract established by the Chief

189
Q

MSC shall have at least ___ days to select materials that would be qualitative and relevant to the rank of the vacant position

A

30 days

190
Q

FAIL ON PURPOSE STEP 3

A

learn ( maxwell) book

191
Q

Death in the family: officer may utilize

A

40 hours for immediate family as defined in the city of austin personnel policies

192
Q

APD risk management will select random CAD audit dates and notify the LT and SGT quarterly. This shall be done within __ days fro the date of the notification.

A

10 days

193
Q

Officers will NOT engage in a pursuit when the road surface is wet or otherwise slippery unless the violator has committed a:

A

felony involving violence

194
Q

A notice sent my EMAIL will be deemed timely if addressed to the TWO correct email addresses for the CITY or ASSOCIATION and sent by:

A

4:59PM on the DUE DATE

195
Q

A person who it the SUBJECT of a protective order may ( NOT EARLIER) on the ___ anniversary of the protective order date, request that the order be REVIEWED to determine if there is continuing need for the order

A

1st anniversary

196
Q

The involved employee’s commander/manager will ensure the department psychologist is notified within ___ hours of a critical incident. The department psychologist will conduct a debriefing session within ____hours of the incident

A

notify within 24 hours

Psychologist has a debriefing within 72 hours of incident

197
Q

Each eligibility list created as a result of the process for HIRING shall remain effective for:

A

24 months after certification by the civil service commission

198
Q

SARA- PROBLEM SOLVING MODEL

A

S- Scanning
A- Analysis
R - Response
A- Assessment

199
Q

Community policing

A

Building positive relationships, one contact at a time, by being present, engaged, and visible in our community to address crime and improve the general well- being of residents and visitors of Austin

200
Q

Community engagement

A

The department supports and is involved with civic and neighborhood events when possible.

201
Q

Succession of command when Chief is Unavailable

A
  • Chief of staff
  • assistant chief, in order of seniority
  • commander, in order of senority
202
Q

An eligibility list may be maintained for a period not to exceed

A

6 months

203
Q

Kinetic energy projectiles shall NOT be used:

A
  • fire into a crowd

- crowd control

204
Q

Officers holding an INTERMEDIATE TCOLE certification will be paid:

A

50 dollars per month

205
Q

7000 hours

A

during the first 10 days of the calendar year for the agreement, 7000 is the number of hours contributed to the ABL ( association business leave) by the city

206
Q

community involvement

A

Effective means of eliciting public support… in resolving community issues

207
Q

Questions posed at the DRH to not consistitue:

A

an investigation

208
Q

Invasie visual recording

A

STATE JAIL FELONY
A person commits an offense if, without the other person’s consent and with intent to invade the privacy of the other person, the person:

(1)  photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of an intimate area of another person if the other person has a reasonable expectation that the intimate area is not subject to public view;
(2)  photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of another in a bathroom or changing room;  or
(3)  knowing the character and content of the photograph, recording, broadcast, or transmission, promotes a photograph, recording, broadcast, or transmission described by Subdivision

209
Q

Employees will update their PIF ( email) within ___ days of any changes

A

10 days

210
Q

What are generally the safest tactics for apprehending fleeing suspects

A

surveillance and containment

211
Q

Officers must agree to a suspension of 16 to 90 days in lieu of:

A

indefinite suspension

212
Q

Appeals criteria committee is composed of

A

7 people

3 appointed by the association
2 appointed by the chief
1 appointed by director of civil service
1 appointed by the chair of the police civil service committee

213
Q

battered intervention program from a family violence protective order

A

60th day after the date the order was rendered

214
Q

A person ordered to attend counseling or a program resulting from a family violence arrest has

A

30th day before the expiration date OR the 30th date before the 1st anniversary date the order was issued