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Strength and Conditioning > Practice Test > Flashcards

Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

A

Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

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2
Q

Which of the following is OUTSIDE of the scope of practice?

A

Compiling detailed nutritional programming and specific meal planning for clients

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3
Q

Intrinsic motivation in regards to exercise can be defined as

A

A person is engaged in exercise activity for the inherent pleasure of the experience

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4
Q

A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate in an exercise program most likely:

A

Has high self-efficacy related to exercise

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5
Q

People new to exercise typically have a hard time with program adherence. How can the personal trainer reduce the chance of their client quitting. Choose all that apply.

A
  • Help client create SMART goals
  • Create a well rounded program detailed to their clients needs
  • Make sure the client has positive experiences and interactions during training sessions
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6
Q

Lower levels of activity are seen with which of the following factors?

A
  • Fewer years of education
  • Lower income levels
  • Increasing age
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7
Q

Past program participation is the most reliable predictor of current participation.

A

True

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8
Q

There are several factors that influence exercise. Which of the following factors is related to a person’s health status.

A

Biomedical

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9
Q

What is the most common excuse used by people for why they do not exercise?

A

Lack of time

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10
Q

It is important to create a program that is unique to each client. Be patient, listen to their words, and be creative when designing a program.

A

True

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11
Q

Which of the following behaviors would most likely help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session?

A

Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening

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12
Q

Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates a SMART goal?

A

I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes for a 5 k in four months

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13
Q

What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?

A

Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback

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14
Q

A client who is beginning to perform basic body weight squats with fairly decent form is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine her squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario?

A

Associative

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15
Q

A client mentions that he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style?

A

Kinesthetic

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16
Q

Your client mentions to you that he recently went to the doctor and found out he is on the verge of diabetes. He has been neglecting his health for a couple of years now but knows that if he does not start to make some positive changes, he will end up dealing with some serious health problems. He decides to start by getting a trainer to help him get going on a workout program.

Based on this information, which behavioral theory model best describes this situation?

A

Health Belief Model

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17
Q

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise?

A

Past exercise performance

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18
Q

On a plane, the gentleman sitting next to you asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, he is most likely in which stage of behavioral change?

A

Contemplation

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19
Q

Which of the following processes is best exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work?

A

Stimulus control

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20
Q

According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be best for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future?

A

Positive Reinforcement

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21
Q

What is the difference between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?

A

skeletal muscle is voluntary and cardiac muscle is involuntary

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22
Q

What are the main hormones involved in muscle hypertrophy?

A

growth hormone and testosterone

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23
Q

Semitendinosis, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris are all part of which muscle group?

A

hamstrings

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24
Q

Flexibility is defined as:

A

the ability to move joints through their full range of motion

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25
Q

Your client is diabetic, what gland is not functioning correctly for them?

A

pancreas

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26
Q

Muscular strength is defined as:

A

the max force a muscle or muscle group can exert during contraction

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27
Q

Which muscle is the largest out of the following:

deltoid
latissimus dorsi
semitendinosus
gluteus minimus

A

latissimus dorsi

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28
Q

Which of the following is true about ATP?

A

While ATP can be stored in cells, it must be continuously resynthsized

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29
Q

Which of the following muscles does not act at the shoulder?

A

extensor digitorum longus

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30
Q

Your client has limited flexibility. He is unable to touch his toes. What muscles are suspected to be tight in his case?

A

hamstrings

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31
Q

According to the ACE IFT model, there are 2 components of training. What are they and what are their categories?

For full credit write in complete sentences.

A

The two components of training in ACE IFT model are Functional Movement and Resistance and Cardiorespiratory Training. Functional Movement involves movement that is needed for everyday living. In this component we focus on Stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and performance training. Cardiorespiratory training involves the strengthening of the heart and it includes Aerobic based training, Aerobic-efficiency training, anaerobic-endurance training and anaerobic-power training.

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32
Q

What are the 5 primary movements that are the focus of the movement training phase?

A

bend and lift, single leg, pushing, pulling, rotational

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33
Q

Performance training includes speed, agility, quickness, and reactivity drills that would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients?

A

45-year old male competitive tennis player

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34
Q

What are the Traditional training parameters?

A

aerobic fitness, muscular endurance, muscular strength, flexibility

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35
Q

Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which functional movement and resistance phase of the IFT model? Select all that apply.

A
  • Phase 3: Load training
  • Phase 4: Performance training
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36
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Function-Health- Fitness- Performance Continuum?

A
  • It suggests that the first step should be to re-establish proper function
  • It suggests that an exercise program should follow a progression
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37
Q

What do the following things have in common?

Health behavior change
Movement efficiency
Kinetic chain mobility
Core conditioning

A

They are all components of contemporary personal training

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38
Q

Which of the stages of a successful client-trainer relationship includes implementing strategies to improve motivation and promote long-term adherence?

A

Action

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39
Q

Empathy is defined as:

A

the ability to understand and share feelings of another person

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40
Q

The purpose to performing a risk stratification is to:

A

Identify the presence of known/unknown cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease

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41
Q

After performing a risk stratification on your client, you come to the total of 3 risk factors. The categories they received a point in were:

Age
Family History
Sedentary lifestyle
What risk level is this client considered?

A

Moderate Risk

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42
Q

Your new client is a 57-year-old woman who plays golf, tennis, and squash avidly. Her health-risk appraisal reveals only one positive risk factor (age) and that she has a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratificatio, what is this client’s risk level?

A

High risk

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43
Q

Male
47 years old
Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59
Smoking: quit smoking 20 years ago
Current exercise: walks dog 1-2 times a day for 10 minutes each walk
BMI: 29 kg/m
Blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg
Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg/dL
LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL
Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL
Goals: lose 20lb ; increase muscular strength and cardio respiratory fitness

What is this client’s “total score” using the ACSM risk stratification chart?

A

+3

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44
Q

Male
47 years old
Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59
Smoking: quit smoking 20 years ago
Current exercise: walks dog 1-2 times a day for 10 minutes each walk
BMI: 29 kg/m
Blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg
Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg/dL
LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL
Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL
Goals: lose 20lb ; increase muscular strength and cardio respiratory fitness
According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this clients level of risk?

A

Moderate Risk

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45
Q

Male
47 years old
Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59
Smoking: quit smoking 20 years ago
Current exercise: walks dog 1-2 times a day for 10 minutes each walk
BMI: 29 kg/m
Blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg
Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg/dL
LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL
Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL
Goals: lose 20lb ; increase muscular strength and cardio respiratory fitness
What are the recommendations regarding exercise testing based on this client’s risk stratification?

A

Trainer can perform submaximal fitness testing without a physician’s supervision

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46
Q

Trainers should be familiar with the more common medications that affect heart rate during exercise for the safety of the client.

A

True

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47
Q

What do the following items on this list have in common?

Onset of angina pectoris or angina-like symptoms that center around the chest
Significant drop (>10 mmHg) in SBP despite an increase in exercise intensity
Excessive rise in blood pressure: SBP >250 mmHg or DBP >115 mmHg
Fatigue, shortness of breath, difficult or labored breathing, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to intense exercise)
Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis, nausea, or cold and clammy skin

A

They are all criteria for exercise test termination

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48
Q

The ability to generate appropriate levels of force and movement at desired joints while stabilizing the entire kinetic chain against reactive and gravity-based forces is known as:

A

Stability and Mobility efficiency

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49
Q

A person’s static posture represents:

A
  • Alignment of the body’s segments
  • Holding proper position of postural muscles
  • Alignment of joints, muscles, and nerves
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50
Q

If your client suffers from Kyphosis what postural deviation would you see?

A

Increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

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51
Q

During the bend and lift screen you notice your client’s heels are unable to remain in contact with the floor as he squats down. Which main muscle/s are suspected to be tight?

A

Plantarflexors

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52
Q

During the bend and lift screen you notice your client’s heels are unable to remain in contact with the floor as he squats down. Which main muscle/s are suspected to be tight?

A

Plantarflexors

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53
Q

During the hurdle step screen you notice your client leaning forward and tilting their body laterally. What do you suspect is causing this?

A

Lack of core stability

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54
Q

Your client exhibits shoulder flexion ROM of approximately 100°. Is this considered normal?

A

No normal ROM for shoulder flexion is 150°-180°

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55
Q

The Thomas test measures:

A

Hip flexion and quad length

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56
Q

You are performing The PSL assessment on your client. You observe that the leg being raised achieves 60 degrees of movement before the pelvis rotates posteriorly. What are your interpretations?

A

The client has tight hamstrings

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57
Q

Which of the following tests assesses an individual’s static balance while standing with a reduced base of support while removing visual sensory information?

A

Sharpened Romberg test

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58
Q

Read the following observation criteria. Observe any bilateral discrepancies between the pulls on each arm. Observe the ability to stabilize the trunk during the pull movement.

What test is this for?

A

shoulder pull stabilization screen

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59
Q

You are working with a client who has hypertension and has been cleared by her physician for exercise. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for her initial resistance training program?

A

Circuit training consisting of 8-10 exercises using mostly tubing and body weight performed one time for 12-16 repetitions at 60-70% 1-rm

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60
Q

What effects does regular exercise have on dyslipidemia?

A

regular exercise can reduce LDL levels

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61
Q

You are working with a client that has type 1 diabetes and checks his blood glucose levels prior to each exercise session. Which of the following pre-exercise blood glucose levels would make you postpone the exercise session until his blood sugar is under control?

A

88 mg/dL

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62
Q

Which of the clients below meets the criteria for metabolic syndrome?

Client 1
33-year old male
waist circumference=36 in
triglycerides = 188mg/dL
HDL cholesterol=43 mg/dL
blood pressure= 130/82 mmHg
fasting blood glucose= 95 mg/dL

Client 2
42-year old female
waist circumference=36 in
triglycerides = 133mg/dL
HDL cholesterol=47 mg/dL
blood pressure= 128/87 mmHg
fasting blood glucose= 107mg/dL

Client 3
48-year old male
waist circumference=43 in
triglycerides = 125mg/dL
HDL cholesterol=44 mg/dL
blood pressure= 137/88 mmHg
fasting blood glucose= 91 mg/dL

Client 4
51-year old female
waist circumference=33 in
triglycerides = 172mg/dL
HDL cholesterol=54 mg/dL
blood pressure= 127/79 mmHg
fasting blood glucose= 98 mg/dL

A

Client 2

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63
Q

Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for personal trainers to take to reduce the risk of exercise induced asthma (EIA) episodes when working with clients who have asthma?

A

include an extended warm up and cool down

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64
Q

Which of the following repetition ranges is recommended to stimulate bone changes in clients who have osteoporosis?

A

6-8

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65
Q

Which of the following progressions is LEAST appropriate for clients who have osteoarthritis?

A

increasing the weight lifted instead of increasing the number of repetitions

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66
Q

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding exercise for people who have low back pain?

A

low back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed on a daily basis

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67
Q

Flexibility, muscle strength and cardiorespiratory exercises are not beneficial to individuals suffering from cancer or recovering from cancer and should be avoided all together.

A

False

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68
Q

What does body composition refer to?

A

the proportion of lean tissue to body fat tissue

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69
Q

What is the essential fat percentage for men and women?

A

Men: 2-5%; Women: 10-13%

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70
Q

What is the most commonly used test in the fitness industry to determine body fat?

A

Jackson Pollock Skinfold Measurement test

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71
Q

The following information is the correct skinfold test administration protocol. True or False?

All measurements are taken on the right side of the body while the client is standing

Identify locations using anatomical landmarks

Hold calipers in the right hand, grasping the skinfold site with the left hand (left-handed calipers are available)

Thumb and index finger approximately 1 inch apart. Grasp or pinch the skinfold site, making a fold line that corresponds with the site instructions

A

True

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72
Q

Which of the following are considered benefits of reducing adipose tissue?

A
  • improve athletic performance
  • decreasing the risk of major disease and dysfunction
  • lean appearance and weight loss
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73
Q

A BMI >25 increases a person’s risk for:

Cardiovascular disease
Metabolic syndrome
Hypertension
Type 2 diabetes

A

True

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74
Q

You are doing girth measurements on your client. You are preparing to measure their abdomen. What is the proper site of measurement?

A

a horizontal measure is taken at the greatest anterior extension of the abdomen. Usually at the level of the umbilicus

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75
Q

You are measuring your clients legs. What is the proper instruction to give them in order to get an accurate measurement of their upper thigh?

A

Stand, legs slightly apart(~4 inches

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76
Q

For every 1-inch (2.5-cm) increase in waist circumference in men, which of the following is an associated health risks?

A

blood pressure increases 10%

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77
Q

In an average person, approximately 35% of body fat is distributed just below the skin.

A

False

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78
Q

CRF depends on the efficiency and interrelationship of the cardiovascular, respiratory, and skeletal muscle systems.

A

True

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79
Q

Which of the following observations can be expected to happen during submaximal cardiorespiratory assessments?

A
  • heart rate and oxygen uptake exhibit a fairly linear relationship to workload
  • As workload increases, so do heart rate and oxygen uptake.
  • Submaximal cardiorespiratory assessments can provide relatively accurate values at a workload
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80
Q

Submaximal exercise testing is safer and, in many cases, provides a reliable indicator of maximal effort.

A

True

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81
Q

What is the 1.5 mile run test for?

A

The goal of the test is to run as fast as possible for 1.5 miles (2.4 km). Effective pacing is important for a successful outcome.

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82
Q

Field test are often used in the fitness industry and in team training. Why is that?

A
  • They are inexpensive
  • Can be used for testing multiple people at the same time
  • They are easy to administer
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83
Q

Which of the following is not considered a benefit of muscular fitness?

A

It is not helpful for individuals with weight problems such as obesity and type 2 diabetes

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84
Q

Muscular-endurance testing assesses the ability of a specific muscle group, or groups, to perform repeated or sustained contractions. What is an important aspect of conducting a muscular endurance test?

A

The client must maintain the integrity of the repetition and/or the recommended posture for the specific exercise movement.

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85
Q

What are the 3 muscular endurance tests discussed in this chapter? You can select more than one answer here.

A

Body weight squat test
Push up test
Curl up test

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86
Q

Strength can be expressed as either absolute strength or relative strength. What is the difference between absolute strength and relative strength?

A

Absolute strength is the greatest amount of weight that can be lifted one time and relative strength takes the person’s body weight into consideration for comparing individuals

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87
Q

Typically the 1-RM test is not done until the client reaches phase 3 or 4 of the IFT model because there is a certain amount of risk associated with maximal exertion, including musculoskeletal injury or worse. It is important to understand the client’s goals to determine whether this test is necessary.

A

True

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88
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice regarding training clients with weight loss goals?

A

Designing exercise programs that lead to increased energy expenditure and positive changes in body composition

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89
Q

Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to utilize when providing dietary advice for clients?

A

Resources developed or enforced by the Federal Government ie. www.choosemyplate.gov

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90
Q

Which of the following be OUTSIDE the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

A

Offering solutions to a client who exhibits signs of depression that impact exercise adherence

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91
Q

When working with clients who have been referred by their physicians for exercise programming, which of the following steps be most important for the personal trainer to take?

A

Obtain written permission from the client to communicating with the referring physician.

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92
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

A

Conducting fitness assessments and health screenings to identify exercise limitations.

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93
Q

What is the primary purpose of the ACE Certified Personal Trainer Certification Program?

A

To protect the public from harm

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94
Q

A client has soreness after a weekend tennis tournament. Which of the following is an appropriate action that is WITHIN the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

A

Discuss proper techniques for stretching the affected muscles

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95
Q

According to the for Centers of Disease Control and Prevention, which of the following is a key risk factor for chronic disease?

A

Lack of physical activity

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96
Q

A client has been released from physical therapy for shoulder impingement and is now working with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which course of action would be MOST appropriate for the personal trainer to take?

A

Build on the work done in physical therapy

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97
Q

What is the most appropriate solution for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to provide to a client who has tight iliotibial (IT) bands?

A

Prescribe a series of ballistic stretches

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98
Q

A client who has problems performing activities of daily living would benefit MOST from improving which of the following?

A

Functional Movements

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99
Q

Which of the following BEST describes what is at the heart of a client-centered approach to personal training?

A

The personal trainer is focused on the client, helping the client achieve his or her goals for health, fitness and improved quality of life.

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100
Q

A client who can work continuously for 10 min. at a moderate intensity before needing to take a break would start in which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model?

A

Base Training

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101
Q

Which exercise would be MOST appropriate in the Movement Training phase of the ACE IFT Model Muscular Training component?

A

Body weight lunges

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102
Q

In which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model would drills to build agility and power be incorporated?

A

Load/ Speed Training

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103
Q

A periodized training place that incorporates workouts below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), between VT1 and the second ventilatory (VT2) , and above VT2, would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients?

A

A woman training to qualify for the Boston Marathon

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104
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important factors for personal trainers to focus on to create a client-centered approach to personal training?

A

Building Rapport

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105
Q

Which of the following is one of the five primary movement patterns that are the focus of Movement Training?

A

Single-leg movements

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106
Q

When a client can consistently perform moderate-intensity physical activity for 20 min or more on at least 3 days per week, he or she should be training in which cardiorespiratory phase of the ACE IFT Model?

A

Fitness Training

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107
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer begins working with a new client who has obesity and is apprehensive about beginning an exercise program. Which of the following approaches would be MOST effective in helping the client achieve early success in this first session?

A

Have the client perform exercises that provide the trainer with basic feedback about the client’s current movement abilities and fitness

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108
Q

Which of the following should be developed early in the client-personal trainer relationship in order to build a strong foundation?

A
  • Rapport
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109
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a new client who has had a consistent exercise history. During the interview, the client explains that she enjoys all types of exercise and loves the way a workout makes her feel. Which of the following BEST describes this client’s motivation?

A
  • Autonomous Motivation
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110
Q

Which of the following is the BEST example of a process goal?

A
  • Making it to the fitness facility three times a week
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111
Q

Which of the following client types is MOST likely to exhibit positive health behaviors?

A

A client with an internal locus of control

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112
Q

Which of the following will MOST strongly influence a client’s current self-efficacy levels?

A

Past performance experiences

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113
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer receives a call from an individual who is inquiring about training in the gym, which she has never done previously. She seems very apprehensive and nervous, stating that she knows she needs to be more active but is not sure training is right for her. Based on this scenario, which of the following BEST represents the caller’s stage of change?

A

Contemplation

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114
Q

According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people’s perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?

A

Perceived Susceptibility

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115
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a long-term client who is in the maintenance stage of change. Which of the following goals would be BEST for this client?

A
  • Maintain interest and reduce risk for boredom
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116
Q

Which of the following is an important strategy for dealing with client lapses?

A
  • Discuss lapses with the client in advance
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117
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the self-perception that a person can successfully perform a task?

A
  • Competence
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118
Q

During an initial client interview, an ACE Certified Trainer “breaks the ice” by asking the new client about how her day has been going. Which of the following best identifies this stage of the client-personal trainer relationship?

A
  • Rapport
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119
Q

During a training session, a client begins talking about intimate personal issues and problems at home. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to take?

A
  • Redirect the conversation
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120
Q

During a training session, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer asks the client to explain what benefits might be gained by increasing her exercise frequency from 2 days/ week to 3 days/ week. Which of the following BEST identifies the type of communication skill used by the trainer?

A

Open-ended questioning

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121
Q

Which of the following is a key consideration when setting goals with a client?

A
  • Goals should be positive
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122
Q

Which of the following would BEST motivate a client for long-term program adherance?

A

Including process goals like completing an exercise workout, in addition to performance goals.

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123
Q

A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat and is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined and perfected is in which stage of learning?

A

Associate stage

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124
Q

Which of the following components of motivational interviewing is being displayed when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer deliberately pursues the welfare and best interests of the client?

A

Compassion

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125
Q

Which of the following OARS skills is being used when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer states. “Your intention to exercise 5 days this week was good, even through you were only able to make it to the gym 3 days”?

A

Offering affirmations

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126
Q

Which of the following is the BEST strategy for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to use when working with a client who is a visual learner?

A

Demonstrations

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127
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer has a new client sign a behavior-change contract that awards a free personal-training session if the client complies with 100% of the contract’s terms. Which of the following BEST describes the type of motivation used?

A

Extrinsic Motivation

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128
Q

Which of the following could cause a barrier to exercise if included in the exercise pre-participation health-screening process for a client?

A
  • Risk-factor profiling or classification
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129
Q

Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardiovascular events?

A

Desired intensity level

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130
Q

If an ACE Certified Personal Trainer makes the following statement early in a pre-participation health screening, which of the following is he or she trying to accomplish? “Managing your diabetes is important to you. How do you envision me helping to support your goals?”

A

Asking open-ended questions to get more detail

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131
Q

Which of the following forms collects more detailed medical and health information beyond the pre-participation health screening?

A

Lifestyle and health-history questionnaire

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132
Q

Which of the following antihypertensive medications increases the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys?

A

Diuretics

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133
Q

Which document includes a client’s medical information and explains physical activity limitations and/ or guidelines as outlined by his or her healthcare provider?

A

Medical release

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134
Q

For the past two months, a client has been following his healthcare provider’s exercise guidelines of 30 minutes of indoor cycling at a rating of perceived exertion of 8 (on the 6 to 20 scale). followed by mild stretching. The client has asked the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to add the elliptical machine to incorporate upper-body movements. Which would be the MOST appropriate response?

A
  • Explain that for his safety, a new medical release would be necessary to incorporate additional exercise
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135
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer’s client states she is interested in using an over-the-counter diuretic for rapid weight loss. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response?

A
  • Explain the dangers of using such a product
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136
Q

Which of the following is BEST defined as shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

A
  • Dyspnea
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137
Q

During an initial exercise session, a client presents with symptoms of dizziness and mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. Which would be the MOST appropriate action by an ACE Certified Personal Trainer?

A

Discontinue exercise and have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider’s clearance

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138
Q

A client asks an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to give her an eating plan designed after a diet she found on the internet. What wold be the MOST appropriate action for the personal trainer?

A
  • Refer the client to a registered dietician or other qualified healthcare professional
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139
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST example of a healthy eating pattern?

A
  • A diet that includes a variety of vegetables, fruit, grains, low-fat dairy, and protein-rich foods
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140
Q

What is the goals of a dietary intervention to decrease weight?

A

To create a caloric deficit so that fewer calories are consumed than are expended

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141
Q

Which of the following eating plans is recommended to optimize health and decrease blood pressure in individuals with hypertension?

A

DASH eating plan

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142
Q

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer working with a client makes the following statement: “You want to make these changes to manage your blood pressure, avoid medication, and improve your quality of life. What obstacles do you think might get in the way of these goals? Which of the following BEST identifies the approach the personal trainer is taking?

A

Breaking down barriers

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143
Q

A nutrition fact label states that one serving of the product contains 3,300 mg of sodium. Which of the following BEST categorizes this product’s sodium content?

A

High

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144
Q

A BMI of 20.0 - 24.9 is considered normal? True or False

A

False

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145
Q

A BMI of 30.0 - 34.9 is considered obese? True of False

A

True

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146
Q

As BMI decreases, so do health risks for several preventable causes of premature death? True of Falst

A

True

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147
Q

BMI is appropriate as the only method of accurately assessing body structure. Chances of misclassification are low. True or False

A

False

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148
Q

The PRIMARY purpose of professional certification is to:

A

Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence

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149
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

A

Assessing clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

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150
Q

Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

A

Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations

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151
Q

At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?

A

Which registering for an ACE certification exam

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152
Q

The PRIMARY reason ACE has established a minimum continuing education requirement of 20 hours every two years in order to maintain a certification is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers.

A

Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

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153
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

A

Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices.

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154
Q

A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if

A

The personal trainer becomes a licenses massage therapist

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155
Q

What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?

A

They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies

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156
Q

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?

A

Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as RD or MD, they do not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements.

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157
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the knowledge, skills, and abilities assessed by the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam?

A

Building nutrition plans

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158
Q

Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for children and adolescents?

A

Reduced risk of depression

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159
Q

Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for adults and older adults?

A

Improved sleep

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160
Q

Noncommunicable diseases are also referred to as..

A

Chronic Diseases

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161
Q

The overall purpose and intent of the Physical activity Guidelines for Americans are…

A

to provide individuals throughout the lifespan (children, adults and older adults), women during pregnancy and the postpartum period, and adults with chronic condition with specific physical-activity recommendations to following in an effort to improve multiple aspects of health-related fitness. These aspects include cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength, bone strength, and flexibility.

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162
Q

True or False? Personal trainers can prescribe dietary supplements to clients interested in improving perfomrance?

A

False

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163
Q

True or False? To truly affect chronic disease on a global level, health equity must be a priority for professionals across the full spectrum of healthcare in all communicites.

A

True

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164
Q

The role of personal trainers has changed over time. Explain what factors have contributed to the change and in what ways the role has changed.

A

Personal trainers was primarily focused on working with fitness enthusiasts in traditional fitness facilities. This role has changed due to the increasing number of adults and children who have overweight or obesity, are insufficiently physically active, and have related health issues stemming from physical inactivity. Personal trainers must now be prepared to work with clients ranging in age from youth to older adults and ranging in health and fitness status from physically inactive to athletic.

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165
Q

Scope of Practice

A

legal range of services that professionals in a give field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed.

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166
Q

What is the purpose of the ACE Code of Ethics?

A

The code serves as a guide for ethical and professional practices for all ACE Certified Professionals. This code is enforced through the ACE Professional Practices and Disciplinary Procedures

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167
Q

The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to…

A

Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence.

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168
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

A

Assessing clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design.

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169
Q

Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

A

Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations.

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170
Q

At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?

A

While registering for an ACE certification exam.

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171
Q

The Primary reason ACE has established a minimum continuing education requirement of 20 hours every two years in order to maintain a certification is to help aCE Certified Personal Trainers.

A

Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health.

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172
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Personal Trainer scope of practice?

A

Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices.

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173
Q

A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles an do so ONLY if…

A

The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist.

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174
Q

What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?

A

They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies.

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175
Q

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?

A

Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, they do not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements.

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176
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the knowledge, skills, and abilities assessed by the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam?

A

Building nutrition plans

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177
Q

Upon what foundational element is the ACE IFT Model build?

A

Developing rapport

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178
Q

What assessments are essential according toehold the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?

A

Collecting health-history data to identify limitations for exercise and the need for referral

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179
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavioral change for some clients?

A

Conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition

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180
Q

What five primary movements are the focus of the Movement Training phase?

A

Bend-and-lift, single-leg, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements

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181
Q

In what phase of the Muscular Training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if they have lumbar lordosis and limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders?

A

Functional Training

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182
Q

Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model?

A

Load/ Speed Training

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183
Q

Load/ Speed Training includes speed, agility, quickness, and power drills that would be MOST appropriate for which client?

A

45-year-old male competitive tennis player

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184
Q

A regular group exercise participant who works at a moderate intensity for 20-30 minutes, three times per week, and with no competitive goals is ready to progress to which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model?

A

Fitness Training

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185
Q

During which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model will intervals be introduced at intensities at and above the VT2 heart rate?

A

Performance Training

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186
Q

Cardiorespiratory exercise in the Fitness Training phase includes training at which intensities?

A

Below, at, and above VT1 and below VT2

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187
Q

Explain the function-health-fitness performance continuum

A
  • Human movement/ fitness can progress and regress along a spectrum
  • first develop or re-establish basic functional movements then advancing to specialized movements
  • Each individual is at a unique point on this continuum based on health status, physical limitations; frequency, intensity, and types of physical activities
  • Both lifecycle and lifestyle factors can influence where that individual fall on the continuum.
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188
Q

Describe how personal trainers can use and apply the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.

A
  • Clients ebb and flow along this continuum based on their lifecycle and lifestyle factors that impact positively or negatively
  • PT’s can help their clients by meeting them where they are providing personalized exercise programs/ coaching based on current health, fitness, goals.
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189
Q

Discuss how lifecycle factors and lifestyle factors are interrelated.

A
  • Lifestyle factors disrupt natural human development along the lifecycle which results n individuals regressing along the function-health-fitness-performance continuum
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190
Q

The ACE IFT Model includes tow training components, what are they?

A
  • Cardiorespiratory Training
  • Muscular Training
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191
Q

The greatest impact personal trainers can regularly have on the lives of their clients is to…

A

Help clients positively change health-related behaviors and establish positive relationships with exercise

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192
Q

Describe how personal trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method

A

Personal Trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method through use of the ACE ABC Approach:

  • Asking open ended question
  • Breaking Down Barriers
  • Collaborating with clients
193
Q

Base Training (Cardiorespiratory Training)

A
  • moderate-intense cardiorespiratory (RPE 3-4), focusing on enjoyment
  • Keep intensities below talk-test threshold (below VT1)
  • Increase duration/ frequency of exercise bouts
  • Progress to Fitness Training when client completes at least 20 min cardio/ 3x weekly
194
Q

Fitness Training (Cardiorespiratory Training)

A
  • Progress cardiorespiratory exercise duration/ frequency based on clients goals and available time.
  • Integrate vigorous- intensity (RPE 5-6) cardiorespiratory exercise intervals/ intensities below, at, above VT1 - just below VT2
195
Q

Performance Training (Cardiorespiratory Training)

A
  • Progress moderate- and vigorous- intensity cardiorespiratory exercise
  • Program sufficient volume for the client to achieve goals
  • Integrate near maximal/ maximal intensity (RPE 7-10) intervals above VT2 to increase aerobic capacity, speed, performance
  • Periodized training plans can be used to incorporate adequate training times, below VT1, VT1- below VT2, and at or above VT2
196
Q

Functional Training (Muscular Training)

A
  • Establish/ re-establish postural stability and kinetic chain mobility
  • Program should improve muscular endurance, flexibility, core function, static and dynamic balance.
  • Progress exercise volume/ challenge as function improves
197
Q

Movement Training (Muscular Training)

A
  • Focus on good movement patterns with good postural/ joint stability
  • Include exercises for all 5 primary movement patterns, in varied planes of motion
  • Integrate Functional Training exercises to maintain/ improve postural stability/ kinetic chain mobility.
198
Q

Load/ Speed Training (Muscular Training

A
  • Focus on application of external loads to movements to create increased force production to meet goals
  • Integrate 5 Primary movement patterns through exercises that load them in different planes/ combinations
  • Integrate Functional Training exercises to support postural stability/ kinetic chain mobility to increase workloads.
  • Focus on adequate resistance-training loads to help clients reach muscular strength, endurance, hypertrophy goals
  • Integrate drills to build speed, agility, quickness, and power.
199
Q

Bend-and-lift Daily Activities

A
  • Lift a box from the floor
  • Lifting a child/ puppy from the floor
200
Q

Single-leg Daily Activities

A
  • Stairs
  • Stepping on stool/ stepladder
201
Q

Pushing Daily Activities

A
  • Pushing luggage
  • Pushing a child on a swing
202
Q

Pulling Daily Activities

A
  • Starting a lawnmower
  • Pulling a textbook off a shelf
203
Q

Rotation Daily Activities

A
  • Reaching int the back seat of a car from the front seat
  • Twisting while mopping the floor
204
Q

The primary outcome of regular resistance training is…

A

Increase muscle fiber size and contractile strength

205
Q

True or False An additional benefit of exercise is an increase in your RMR. In the first 10 weeks of exercise the RMR can increase by 7-8% in previously reconditioned adults.

A

True

206
Q

Muscular strength is not closely related to muscular endurance? True or False

A

False

207
Q

During the first several weeks of training the strength gains are largely the result of neurological factors. As we repeat the resistance exercise movements the result is more efficient activation of motor units. This process is known as…

A

Motor learning

208
Q

Training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. True or False

A

True

209
Q

According to the general training frequency guidelines, those individuals who are “beginner” status in regards to exercise should train _______-per week.

A

2-3

210
Q

Which of the following would be considered a proper program progression?

A

Supported machines — unsupported machines

211
Q

Training intensity has two different applications in the area of resistance training. What are they?

A
  • The effort level achieved during exercise set
  • The percentage of maximum resistance used in an exercise
212
Q

A client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength about one-half the rate that it was gained. This is the definition of what principle?

A

Reversibility

213
Q

Which behavioral theory states that at least four variables influence a perso’s decision to change?

A

Transtheroetical Model of Behavior Change

214
Q

What are the four variables that influence a person’s decision to change in the behavioral theory, Thranstheroetical Model of Behavior Change

A
  • Stages of change
  • Prcesses of change
  • Self-Efficacy
  • Decisional Balance
215
Q

Self - determination theory examines two types of motivation. What are they and how do they differ?

A

Autonomous motivation - people feel as if they are behaving of their own free will. (doing cause they want to)

Controlled motivation - people doing sometjhing because htey feel pressured by demands from external forces.

216
Q

True or False

In reality, most adults experience some amount of controlled motivation.

A

True

217
Q

Describe 3 ways, as a personal trainer, can create an enviroment in which the basic physiological needs of your clients are met.

A

Competence- person believes in their ability to perform a task

Autonomy - feel their decision is self-determined

Relatedness - belongingness & connectedness

218
Q

Precontemplation Stage

A
  • people are phsyically inactive
  • do not intend to begin an activity program
  • do not see physical activity relevant in their lives
  • they discount the importance
219
Q

Contemplation Stage

A
  • People who are inactive
  • Thinking about becoming more active
  • Considering physical activity
  • Began to identify th eimplications of being inactive
220
Q

Preparation Stage

A
  • Some engagement
  • They are mentally/ physcially preparing to adopt an activity program
  • Might be sporadic walking, periodic visit to gym (inconsistent)
221
Q

Action Phase

A
  • People engaging in regular physical activity but have been doing so for less than 6 months.
222
Q

Maintenance Phase

A
  • Regular physical-activity participation for longer than 6 months
223
Q

Explain why the concept of self-eficacy is imporant to exercise-related behavior change.

A
  • One must believe they can change/ modify behavior on their own.
224
Q

Identify the six souces of self-efficacy

A
  • Past performance experience
  • Vicarious experience
  • Verbal persuasion
  • Physiological state appraisals
  • Emotional state & mood appraisals
  • Imaginal experiences
225
Q

Descibe decisional balance

A
  • Evaluating pros/ cons on whether to adopt or maintain a program.
226
Q

Discuss how willpower is a mind-body response and not a virtue.

A
  • Will power is inherently limited
  • Relying on one’s rational side to control the emotional side is not a fair fight.
  • Emotions are more powerful (white knuckling it)
227
Q

How are the cognitive and behavioral processes of change different?

A
  • cognitive processes results in new ways of thinkng are reinforce change
  • Behavioral processes involve action oreinted learning where clients experience the behaviors and adopt those that work for them.
228
Q

3 simple strategies that can help reframe a client’s thining related to time?

A
  • encourange clients to change perception of time
  • Goal setting
  • time mangement
  • prioritizing
  • time efficient exercises
  • make physical activity top priorities
229
Q

During the intial interview with a new client, you elarn the client’s desire to exercise regularly was based on the results of a recent medical exam revealing stage 1 hypertension (blood pressure = 137/ 88 mmHg), dyslipedemia (total serum cholesterol = 240 mg/dL), and a family history of cardiovascular disease. Based on the information, the client’s movitation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the followign componenets of behavioral change?

A

Perceived seriousness

230
Q

The person sitting next to you on a plane asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. They say that they do not currently exercise, but have been thinking about joining a gym and ask you for recommendations. Based on this information, this person is MOST likely in which of the following stages of behavioral change?

A

Contemplation

231
Q

A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10k and half marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two year ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running,with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, your client has MOST likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavioral change from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today?

A

Maintenance, contemplation, preparation

232
Q

According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future?

A

Positive reinforcement

233
Q

Which of the following is the BEST question a personal trainer can encourage a client to ask themself if they are experiencing a cognitive distortion?

A

What is the evidence for and against this thought?

234
Q

Which of the following processes is BEST exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on teh direct route between home and work?

A

Stimulus Control

235
Q

Which of the following strategies would be MOST likely to enhance a client’s willpower?

A

Planning in advance for moments of weak self-control

236
Q
A
237
Q

Identify the stages of the client-personal trainer relationship…

A
  • Rapport Stage
  • Investigation Stage
  • Planning Stage
  • Action Stage
238
Q

Which stage of the client-personal trainer relationship is charcterized by discussions about the client’s health, fitness, and lifestye?

A
  • Investigation Stage
239
Q

What two skills can a personal trainer apply during the investigation stage to understand their client and elicit as much helpful information as possible while uncovering a client’s motivation?

A
  • Active Listening
  • Motivational Interviewing
240
Q

Describe what takes place during the planning and action stages of the client-personal trainer relationship.

A
  • Setting Goals
  • SMART (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time)
  • Directed attention
  • Mobilized effort
  • Persistance
  • Strategy
241
Q

True/ False

If an individual has purchased a gym membership and personal-training sessions, this is a good indicator that they are committed to making lasting behavior changes.

A

False

242
Q

In which stage of learning should a personal trainer implement the “tell, show, do” teaching technique?

A
  • Cognitive Stage
243
Q

Compare Directing style of communication with guiding style of communication.

What are the differences?

A

Directive style - PT takes charge of the conversation, advises a clinet on what to do

Motivational style- establishes rapport, reducing resistance, eliciting a client’s own argumentfor change. Support peole as they resolve their ambivalence.

244
Q

Which of the following behaviors would MOST likely help you develop rapport with a client during the initial session?

A

Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and hands confortably resting when listening

245
Q

During the investigation stage, which of the following statements BEST describes active listening?

A

Empathetically listening to a client while maintaining an open mind and trying to put yourself in the client’s shoes.

246
Q

A client you have been working with for several months tells you that a close relative recently became serisouly ill. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate?

A

“I’m sorry, I can’t imagine how difficult that must be for you.”

247
Q

Which of the following statements BEST represents a SMART goal?

A

“I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10-40 min for 5k in four months.”

248
Q

Which of the following is MOST effective in helping a client develop program adherence?

A

Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal

249
Q

What is the MOST effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?

A

Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback

250
Q

A client has mastered the basics of body-weight squats and is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine their squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario?

A

Associative

251
Q

During the inital client investigation stage, which of the following questions is MOST important to ask?

A

“What are your likes and dislikes when it comes to activity?”

252
Q

A client mentions that they prefer tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style?

A

kinesthetic

253
Q

Which of the following strategties is NOT one of the four interconnected components comprising the spirit of motivation interviewing?

A

Dependence

254
Q

“spirit” of motivational interviewing is rooted in four key interconnected components…

A
  • collaboration
  • acceptance
  • compassion
  • evocation
255
Q

The new health-screening process is based on what three factors?

A
  • current level of physical activity
  • diagnosed cardiovascular, metabolic, renal disease
  • desired exercise intesity
256
Q

The new health-screening process is designed to identify what three categories of individuals?

A
  • those who need a medical clearance
  • clinically significant diseases
  • medical conditions that may require exclusions from training
257
Q

True/ False The risk of cardiovascular complications during exercise is low.

A

True

258
Q

Preparticipation health screening for individuals wanting to intiate an exercise program may be conducted using which document as a self-guided screening tool?

A

PAR Q+

259
Q

Explain why information about a client’s medication use is important to gather during the screening process.

A
  • medications can have a strong affect on the body’s response.
  • HR/ Breathing/ Oxygen
260
Q

Jack, a personal-training client, has participated in regular exercise for 10 years. In his last session, Jack complained of shortness of breath upon mild exertion, as well as dizziness, According to the algorithm, how would you respond?

A
  • Discontinue exercise
  • Seek medical clearance
261
Q

Sarah is a new personal-training client who does not currently particpate in regular exercsie and has type 2 diabetes. Is medical clearance recommended before initiating an exercise program?

A

Medical clearance is recommended, as she has a known metabolic condiition.

262
Q

Mike has been a personal-training client for several years. He has performed planned, strutured physical activity for at least 30 minutes on at least three days per week at a moderate intensity for the past year. However, he has an interest in adding two sessions of vigorous-intensity exercise to his weekly routine. He has a known history of diabetes. What would your next step be before having Mike engage in vigorous intensity exercise?

A
  • Medical clearance (within the past 12 months if no change in signs/ symptoms) is recommended before engaging in vigorous-intensity exercise
263
Q

A client has been using a beta blocker medication since they started working with you. As you do with several of your clients, you assign a target heart rate to this client as a means of gauging exercise intesity. Did you choose the most appropriate method for monitoring exercise intensity? Why or why not? What might you do differently and why?

A
  • The medications block beta-adrenergic receptors and limit sympatheic nervous system stimulation. In other words, they block the effect of catecholamines (epinephrine/ nonepinephrine) thoughout the body and reduce resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise intensity. Using rating of perceived exertion or the talk test versus target hert rate, for example, would be appropriate for a safe/ effective cardiorespiratory exercise program for someone on beta blockers.
264
Q

The risk of exercise-related acute myocardial infarction and sudden cardiac death is highest among individual with underlying cardiovascular disease who _______________.

A

Perform a level of physical activity to which they are not accustomed

265
Q

Beta blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors and ___________.

A

Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation

266
Q

If a client is on a beta blockers, the BEST way to monitor exercise intensity is to use ____________.

A

Rating of perceived exertion

267
Q

Calcium channel blockers ______________.

A

Lower blood pressure

268
Q

For what condition are diuretics usually prescribed?

A

High blood pressure

269
Q

The preparticpation guidelines from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) are designed to ____________.

A

Remove any unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active

270
Q

The PAR-Q+ is evidence-based and was developed with a goal of ______________.

A

Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise

271
Q

It is ACE’s position that personal trainers can and should share what type of nutrition information with their clients?

A

General nonmedical nutrition information

272
Q

List nutrition topics PT’s should be prepared to discuss with their clients…

A
  • Healthy nutrition/ preparation
  • Foods to be included in the balanced daily diet
  • Essential nutrients needed by the body
  • Action of nutrients on the body
  • Effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients
  • How nutrient requirements vary thought the lifecycle
  • Princples of pre-/ post-workout nutrition and hydration
  • Information about nutrients contained in foods/ supplements
273
Q

Ultimately, an individual personal trainer’s scope of practice related to nutrtion is determined by ______________.

A

State policies/ regulations, education/ experience, and competencies and skills.

274
Q

What re the four key Guidelines contained within the Dietary Guidelines?

A
  1. At every life stage, eat healthfully and choose food/ beverage choices for better support healthy dietary patterns.
  2. Follow healthy eating pattern that is enjoyable at all life stages across all ages, racial/ ethnic backgrounds, and socioeconomic statuses.
  3. Choose eating patterns that meet reccommendations for vegetables, fruits, grains, dairy, and protein foods with limited amounts of added sugars, saturated fats, and sodum.
  4. Choose nutrient dense foods/ beverages across all food groups. Consider cultural/ personal preferances to make shifts easier to maintain.
275
Q

Identify five ways to reduce the risk of foodborne illness while grocery shopping.

A
  • Check produce for bruises, feel/ smell for ripeness
  • Look for “sell-by” date for breads/ baked goods, “use-by” date on some packaged foods, “expiration date” on yeast/ baking powder, “packaged date” on canned and packaged foods.
  • Stay away from dented, cracked, bulging cans
  • Separate fish and poultry from purchases by wrapping separately
  • Pick up refridgerated/ frozen foods last
276
Q

What are the 2 main goals of a pre-exercise snack?

A
  • Optimize glucose availablity and glycogen stores
  • provide the fuel needed to support exercise performance
277
Q

On the day of the event, an athlete should should aim to eat a meal ______ hours before the event.

A

4 - 6 hours

278
Q

Refueling should begin within ________ after exercise.

A

30 min

279
Q

Identify 5 practical tips a personal trainer can share to help prepare the gut for exercise or competition.

A
  1. get acclimatized to heat
  2. Stay hydrated
  3. Practice drinking during training to improve competition-day comfort
  4. Avoid eating too much before/ during exercise
  5. Limit protein and fat intake
  6. ingest a high evergy/ high carb diet
  7. Avoid high fiber foods before exercise
  8. Limit nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), alcohol, caffeine, antibiotics, nutritional supplements before/ during exercise to avoid gastrointestinal discomfort (GI)
  9. Urinate/ deficate prior to exercise
280
Q

What nutrition strategies can a personal trainer use that are WITHIN their scope of practice?

A
  1. Host grocery shopping tours
  2. Hold cooking demonstrations
  3. Share evidence-based dietary guidelines
  4. Share MyPlate recommendations
  5. Share infor about types of foods to inlcude in a balanced diet
  6. Teach a client about the principles of healthy nutrition/ food preparation
281
Q

The level of intake of a nutrient that is adequate to meet the known needs of practically all healthy persons is referred to as the ______________.

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

282
Q

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every ____________ years.

A

5

283
Q

The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans suggest that _____________ is essential when making a lifestyle change because it increases the caloric deficit to speed weight loss and is crucial for maintaining weight loss.

A

Exercise

284
Q

Dark green vegetables are highest in what Vitamin?

A

Vitamin K

285
Q

Whole grains contain __________ grams of whole grain per 1 ounce-equivalent.

A

16 grams

286
Q

Individuals with hypertension are advised to follow the _______ eating plan.

A

DASH

287
Q

Which of the following is WITHIN the personal trainer’s scope of practice?

A

Offering grocery store tours

288
Q

Which of the following situations would require a personal trainer to refer a client to a registered dietitian?

A

Working with clients who present with signs of disordered eating

289
Q

In general, a pre-exercise or pre-workout meal or snack should be ________________.

A

Relatively low in fat and fiber and moderate in protein

290
Q

Which of the following claims is allowed on the packaging of a dietary supplement according to the regulatory requirements set forth by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994?

A

Fiber treats colon cancer

291
Q

Because past performance experience is a critical source of self-efficacy, on what should each early experience focus?

A
  • Creating success and building confidence
292
Q

__________ is a valid indicator of work intensity or stress on the body during exercise.

A

Heart Rate

293
Q

Resting heart rate (RHR) is affected by a number of factors. What are they?

A
  • fitness
  • fatigue
  • genetics
  • body composition
  • drug/ medication
  • alcohol
  • caffeine
  • stress
294
Q

True or False

It is crucial tht all personal-training clients be assessed using a comprehensive fitness assessment protocol.

A

False

295
Q

Sinus tachycardia

A

RHR > 100 bpm

296
Q

Normal sinus rhythm

A

RHR 60 - 100 bpm

297
Q

Sinus bradycardia

A

RHR < 60bpm

298
Q

Bioelectrical impedance analysis

(BIA)

A
  • Measures electrical signals as they pass through fat tissue, lean mass, and water in the body
  • noninvasive/ simple to administer
  • Accuracy can vary based on hydration level of the client
  • Many centers use BIA due to the simplicity of its use
299
Q

Air displacement plethysmography

A
  • Measures the amount of air that is displaced when a person sits in the machine
  • High accuracy
  • Expensive
  • Not common in fitness setting, too costly
300
Q

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

A
  • Delivers a low-dose x-ray that reads bone and soft-tissue mass to identify regional body-fat distribution
  • Accurate
  • Not typical in fitness center
301
Q

Hydrostatic weighing

A
  • Measures the amount of water displaced when a person is completely submerged in water; indirectly measures body fat via body density
  • Gold standard in body-fat assessment
  • uncomfortable procedure for many individuals
  • not common in fitness centers
302
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A
  • Uses magnetic fields to assess how much fat aperson has and where it is deposited
  • not practical for assessing body fat
  • no found in fitness centers
303
Q

Near-infrared interactance (NIR)

A
  • Uses a fiber optic probe connected to a digital probe that indirectly measures tissues composition
  • inexpensive and fast
  • Not as accurate
  • Yes in fitness centers
304
Q

Skinfold measurements

A
  • Uses calipers to pinch a fold of skin and fat
  • equation are used to calculate body-fat percentage
  • easily administered/ low cost
  • large margin of error
  • Yes in fitness centers
305
Q

Total body electrical conductivity (TOBEC)

A
  • Uses an electro-magnetic force field to assess relative body fat
  • Impractical and expensive
  • Not found in clinical settings
306
Q

Many new clients will begin a program with a ______________ self-efficacy for exercise ability.

A

very low

307
Q

The common sites for measuring the pulse are the ______________.

A

Radial and carotid arteries

308
Q

You have a client who is 5’9” (69 inches), weighs 185 pounds (84.09 kg). What is the body mass index?

A

BMI = Weight (kg)/ Height squared

or

weight (lb)/ height (inches) X 703

27.3 kg/m squared

309
Q

Essential fat for men is

A

2 - 5%

310
Q

Essential fat for women

A

10 - 13%

311
Q

Which of the statements about body mass index is MOST accurate?

A

It is associated with health, morbidity, and mortality

312
Q

An approach to estimating body fat that incorporates the measure of subcutaneous fat is

A

Skinfold measurements

313
Q

If a client has exteme obesity, some body-composition assessment approaches will be innacurate. In such cases, a practical approach a personal trainer can take is to use BMI or _____________.

A

Circumference measurements

314
Q

What are the 3 Cardiorespiratory Training Phases

A
  1. Base
  2. Fitness
  3. Performance
315
Q

What are the three Muscular Training Phases?

A
  1. Functional
  2. Movement
  3. Load/ Speed
316
Q

The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is determiend primarily by what two variables?

A

The ability to adequately ventilate the alveoli in the lungs and hemoglobin concentration of the blood

317
Q

What are 5 advantages using the talk test to determine exercise intensity?

A
  1. No equipment required
  2. Can easily be taught to clients
  3. Allows for personalized programming
318
Q

A rating of perceived exertion (RPE) of 5 to 6 on the 0 to 10 scale equates to what REPE terminology?

A

Hard

319
Q

What are some considerations when using metabolic equivalients (METs) to measure intensity?

A

Requires measured VO2 max for most accurate programming; limited in programming by knowledge of METs for given activities; relative MET ranges for programming are population-specific and not individually specific.

320
Q

When using perentage of heart-rate reserve (%HRR), zone 3 would quate to what percentage range?

A

>90%

321
Q

On the 6 to 20 RPE scale, what range is associated with training in zone 2?

A

14 - 17

322
Q

If using percentage of maximal heart rate (%MHR), what percentage range is associated with training in zone 1?

A

64% - 76%

323
Q

Describe each of the 3 componenets of a cardiorespiratory workout session.

A

Warm - up: lighter exercise preceding conditioning phase 5 -10 min for healthy adults

Conditioning phase: Primary component of a workout, aligned with client goals based on frequency, duration, intensity, and modality.

Cool Down: Occurs after the primary workout, 5 - 10 min and has the goal of helping the body return to pre-exercise state removing metabolic waste.

324
Q

The most important factor in cardiorespiratory fitness is _______________.

A

The delivery of blood to the active cells, which is a function of cardiac output.

325
Q

Cardiac output is the product of _______________ and ________________. It is the quantity of blood pumped per heartbeat.

A

Heart Rate

Stroke Volume

326
Q

Explain why a person exercising at high altitude will not be able to deliver as much oxygen to the working muscles and will experience a reduction in exercise intensity.

A

At moderate (5,000-8,000 feet) to high altitudes (8,000-14,000 feet) the relative availability of O2 in the air is reduced. Because there is less pressure to drive the O2 molecules into the blood as it passes through the lungs, the O2 carried in the blood is reduced.

327
Q

What are the differences between sedentary behavior and physical inactivity?

A

Sedentary behavior refers to too much sitting

Physical inactivity signifies too little exercise

An individal can be onsidered active according to current physical activity guidelines, but still spend too much time sitting in front of the TV - active couch potato phenomenon.

328
Q

Cardiovascular Adaptations

A
  • Heart muscle hypertrophy
  • Larger stroke volume
  • Some evidence suggests that the redistribution of cardiac output to active muscles may improve after training.
329
Q

Muscular Adaptations

A
  • Increased in size and number of mitrochondria
  • Growth in more capillaries around the recruited muscle fibers
  • could also be adaptations to contractile mechansim
  • increase in number of anerobic enzymes
  • may also be hypertrophy of the contractile proteins within the muscle fiber
330
Q

Respiratory Adaptations

A
  • Both strength and fatigue-resistance of respiratory muscles improve with training
  • May lead to an increase in tidal volume making ventilation more efficient
331
Q

Explain the phase of the IFT Model Base Training

A
  • Focus is to get clients who are physically inactive/ little cardiorespiratory fitness to begin engaging in regular exercise.
  • Create positive experiences for clients in order to facilitate program adherence and success.
  • Stay in Zone 1
  • Phase is starting point for deconditioned individuals, but these intensities will continue to be incorporated after progressing beyond Base training to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness.
332
Q

Explain the phase of the IFT Model Fitness Training

A
  • Principal training focus of increasing time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals to improve fitness and health.
  • Purpose to enhance the client’s cardiorespiratory efficiency by increasing duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible, introducing zone 2 intervals
  • Stay on Zone 1 and intro of Zone 2 intervals
  • Regular clients in a fitness facility who have goals for improving/ maintaining fitness and health
333
Q

Explain the phase of the IFT Model Performance Training

A
  • focuses on endurance - performance objectives, requires specialized training to ensure adequate training volume/ appropriate training intensity
  • help the client enhance their cardiorespiratory efficiency to ensure completion of goal events, while building anaerobic capacity to achieve endurance- performance goals.
  • Utilize all 3 zones
  • Clients who have endurance - performance objectives
334
Q

What are five strategies to help a client sit less…

A
  • Set a timer to get up and move every 90 minutes
  • Hold walking meetings
  • Rely less on email and visit co-workers face to face
  • walk an additional 10 minutes at lunch.
335
Q

Current guidelines recommended physical activity be performed ________________,

A

On most days of the week

336
Q

The most difficult variable of an exercise program to represent quantitatively is _____________.

A

Intensity

337
Q

____________ is a subjective method of measuring exercise intensity.

A

Rating of percieved exertion

338
Q

If a client can talk comfortably during exercise, they are in zone _____________.

A

1

339
Q

Green exercise refers to exercise conducted ____________.

A

In natural environments

340
Q

Exercise __________ is the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially when progressing a program.

A

Duration

341
Q

The primary emphasis for a personal trainer during Base Training is to _____________.

A

Help clients have positive experiences with exercise

342
Q

The fitness training phase involves ___________.

A

Increasing time of exercise

343
Q

Benefits gained from exercise and physical activity are

A

Dose Related

344
Q

Breaks from sitting should take place ___________.

A

Every 60 - 120 minutes

345
Q

What benefits does muscular training offer?

A
  • Increase physical capability, functional movement, reduced injury risk and disease prevention
346
Q

What is Wolff’s law?

A
  • Changes in bone structure coincide with bone function
  • stressful forces that occur in exercise, the skeleton responds by laying down more bone tissue increasing density
  • bed rest due to illness/ injury results in a loss of bone mineral and becomes less dense.
347
Q

The most common type of joint in the body is the ____________ joint, which is freely moveable.

A

Synovial

348
Q

What are the planes of motion?

A
  1. Sagittal - divides the bodies right and left halves
  2. Transverse - divides the body into superior/ inferior halves
  3. Frontal - dividing the body into anterior/ posterior halves
349
Q

The four angular movements defined for synovial joints are __________?

A
  • Flexion
  • Extension
  • Abduction
  • Adduction
350
Q

What are the differences between the sympathic and parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Symathetic nervous system - activates the stressor emergency from sever pain, anger, or fear. “fight” or “flight response

Parasympathetic nervous system - aids in controlling normal functions when the body is relaxed aids in digesting, food, storing energy, and promoting growth

351
Q

What’s the primary use of the (ankle/ foot) anterior tibialis?

A
  • Dorsiflexion at ankle
  • inversion at foot
352
Q

What is the primary function of the Ankle/ Foot gastocnemius?

A
  • Plantar flexion at ankle
  • Eversion at foot
353
Q

What is the primary function of the knee rectus femoris?

A
  • Extension most effective when the hip is extended
354
Q

What is the primary function of the knee biceps femoris?

A
  • Flexion
  • External Rotation
355
Q

What is the primary function of the hip gluteus maximus?

A
  • Extension

External rotation

  • Superior fibers
  • Abduction
356
Q

What is the primary function of biceps femoris (Hip)?

A
  • Extension
  • Abduction
  • Slight external rotation
357
Q

What is the primary function of rectus abdominis (spine)?

A
  • Flexion of the trunk
  • Lateral flexion of the trunk
358
Q

What is the primary function of Erector Spinae (Spine)?

A
  • Extension both sides/ lateral flexion of the trunk
359
Q

What is the primary function of shoulder girdle (trapezius)?

A
  • Upper: upward rotation/ elevation of scapula
  • Middle: upward rotation/ adduction of scapula
  • Lower: depression of scapula
360
Q

What is the primary function of rhomboid/ major and minor (Shoulder girdle)?

A
  • Adduction
  • Downward rotation
  • Elevation of scapula
361
Q

What is the primary function of pectoralis major (Shoulder)?

A
  • Flexion, extension, adduction, internal rotation, horizontal adduction.
362
Q

What is the primary function of deltoid (shoulder)?

A

Entire muscle: abduction, anterior fibers, flexion, internal rotation, horizontal rotation,

Posterior fibers: external rotation/ horizontal abduction

363
Q

What is the primary function of latissimus dorsi (Pectoralis major)?

A
  • Extension, adduction, horizontal abduction, and internal rotation.
364
Q

What is the primary function of biceps brachii (elbow

radioulnar joints)?

A

flexion at elbow

supination at forearm

365
Q

What is the primary function of tricepes brachii (elbow/ radioulnar joints)?

A
  • extension at elbow
  • arm extension (long head)
366
Q

What is the primary function of flexor carpi radialis (wrist)?

A

Flexion

367
Q

What is the difference between fast twitch and slow twitch muscles?

A

slow twitch fibers:

large amounts of mitochondria, more capillaries

higher myoglobin

resistant to fatigue and can sustain aerobic metabolism

contract more slowly than fast-twitch fibers

368
Q

What are the three main functions of intramuscular fascia (deep fascia)?

A
  • framework for proper alignment of muscle fibers, blood vessels and nerves
  • enable safe/ effective transmission of forces throughout the whole muscle
  • provide lubricated surfaces between muscle fibers that allow muscles to change shape during contraction and elongation.
369
Q

Access to the business and operating systems

A
370
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of Sole Proprietorship? (choose all that apply)

A
  • No formal paperwork
  • Owned and operated by one person
  • All financial responsibilities are owner’s responsibility
371
Q

True/ False

Partnerships can be created without formal paperwork, but you should have legal documents to establish the rules of the operation.

A

neither partner can implement a decision without the consent of the other

372
Q

Partnerships end when…

A

Its partners engage in illegal activity

A partner dies or becomes bankrupt

A partner is deemed to be mentally incapacitated

373
Q

True/ False

Corporations are formed and registered in the office of secretary of state (typically the state in which it operates)

A person forming a corporation must choose a name that has not previously been registered in that state.

A

True

374
Q

What does LLC stand for?

A

Limited Liability Company

375
Q

What is an advantage of Franchise Operation business models? (select all that apply)

A

Access to national advertising programs and ability to share costs

Obtain rights to a recognized brand name

Access to the business and operating systems

376
Q

A _____________ act can occur if a trainer fails to act (act of omission) or acts inappropriately (act of commission).

A

negligent

377
Q

True/ False

For trainers who own their own fitness clubs, insurance should be retained that covers potential problems with the facility as well as the instruction and supervision of the trainer.

A

True

378
Q

What program would you develop for general muscular fitness?

A

Sets: 1 - 4

Reps: 8 - 15

Rest Inteval 2 - 3 minutes

Intensity: 20 - 70% (1 RM)

379
Q

What program would you create for improving muscular endurance?

A

Sets: 2 - 3

Reps: >= 12

Rest interval: <= 30 seconds

Intesity: <= 67% 1RM

380
Q

What kind of program would you create for muscular hypertrophy?

A

Sets: 3 - 6

Reps: 6 - 12

Rest Interval: 30 - 90 seconds

Intensity: 67 - 85% 1RM

381
Q

What kind of a program would you create for greater muscular strength?

A

Sets: 2 - 6

Reps: <= 6

Rest Inteval: 2 - 5 min

Intensity: >= 85% 1 RM

382
Q

What kind of program would you create for a power lifter?

A

Sets: 3 - 5

Reps: 1 - 2

Rest Interval: 2 - 5 minutes

Intensity: 80 - 90% 1RM

383
Q

The new client is 47 year old woman who wants to lose weight, but is a bit apprehensive about muscular training because she does not want to “get big”. Based on this information what response would BEST facilitate muscular-training program adherence and motivation?

A

Explain the average adult muscle-tissue loss of 5lb (2.3 kg) per decade, and how resistance training can help her restore lost muscle and raise resting metabolism

384
Q

Which of the following statements about the role of type I muscle fibers during muscular-training exercises is most accurate?

A

They contract more slowly and create lower force outputs

385
Q

You are working with a new client who wants to begin muscular training in order to build muscular endurance. Which of the following set and repetition combinations would be BEST for helping them achieve that goal?

A

2 - 3 sets of 12 or more repetitions

386
Q

Anatomical position refers to a person standing erect with head, eyes, and palms facing _______________.

A

Forward

387
Q

Flexion occurs in what plane of motion?

A

Sagittal

388
Q

Extension is the opposite joint action of __________.

A

Flexion

389
Q

One property that all muscle tissue has in common is its ability to ____________.

A

Contract

390
Q

Skeletal System

A

Provides body support, facilitates movement, protects internal organs, stores, minerals, and involves blood cell formation.

391
Q

Nervous System

A

Brain, spinal cord, sensory organs, nerve tissue, responsible or communitcation/ control within the body

392
Q

Respiratory System

A

Gas exchange, external/ internal tissues of the body, adapts to exercise performance

393
Q

Cardiovascular System

A

Transports oxygen, nutrients, homrones

removes metabolic waste

links internal to external environment

394
Q

Vestibular System

A

Senses information related to the position of the head in space and coordinates with the central nervous system to produce movment and stabilize the eyes for postural stability.

395
Q

Describe the purpose of functional assessments

A

To help the personal trainer observe a client’s efficacies in posutral stabilitzation, balance, and core function

396
Q

What is the right-angle rule of the body

A

How the body represents itself in vertical alignment actoss major joints - ankle, knee, hip, shoulder, spine

Allows the personal trainer to observe postural deviations in all 3 planes (front to back, left to right)

397
Q

Why should personal trainers focus on obvious, gross imbalances and avoid getting caught up in minor postural asymmetries.

A

The body is rarely perfectly symmetrical, so overanalyzing asymmetries is time-consuming, potentially intimidating to clients, and may induce muscle fatigue in the client that can alter their posture even further.

398
Q

Anterior tilting of the pelvis frquently occurs in individuals with tight ____________.

A

Hip flexors

399
Q

An anterior pelvic tilt will increase _______________ in the lumbar spine.

A

Lordosis

400
Q

List 3 deviations of the thoracic spine and shoulders?

A

Shoulders not level

Asymmetry to midline

Protracted (forward, rounded)

Medially rotated humerus

Kyphosis and depressed chest

401
Q

It is observed that a client’s shoulders are not level, it might indicate….

A

Tightness in the upper trapezius, levator scapulae, and rhomboids

402
Q

If a personal trainer observes that a client has a medially rotated humerus, it might indicate ________.

A

Tightness in the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis muscles

403
Q

What muscles would you suspect are tight in a client with a forward-head position?

A

Cervical flexors

404
Q

The _____________ can be used to test a client’s static balance.

A

Unipedal stance test

405
Q

To assess dynamic balance, personal trainers can use the _______________.

A

Y Balance test

406
Q

The Y balance test is performed in ____________ directions.

A

3

407
Q

McGill suggests that a ratio between flexion and extension should be less than __________ to indicate balanced endurance among the muscle groups.

A

1.0

408
Q

The Thomas test is used to assess ____________.

A

Hip flexor length

409
Q

If a client exhibits lumbar dominance in the squat movement, this indicates _________________.

A

A lack of core and gluteal strength

410
Q

The body-weight squat assessment evaluates _____________.

A

Lower-extremity muscular endurance

411
Q

Muscles that Plantarflex the Ankle

A
  • Gastrocnemius
  • Soleus
  • Posterior tibialis
  • Flexor digitorum longus
  • Flexor hallucis longus
  • Peroneus longus
  • Peroneus brevis
412
Q

Muscles that Doresiflex the Ankle

A
  • Anterior tibialis
  • Extensor digitorum longus
  • Extensor hallucis longus
413
Q

Muscles that invert the foot

A
  • Anterior tibialis
  • Flexor digitorum longus
  • Flexor hallucis longus
  • Posterior tibialis
  • Extensor hallucus longus
414
Q

Muscles that Evert the foot

A
  • Peroneus longus
  • Peroneus brevis
  • Extensor digitorum longus
415
Q

Muscles the Extend the knee

A
  • Quadriceps

Vastus lateralis

Vastus medialis

Vastus Intermedius

Rectus femoris

416
Q

Muscles that Flex the knee

A
  • Hamstrings

Biceps femoris

Semitendinosus

Semimembranosus

  • Gracilis
  • Sartorius
  • Popiliteus
  • Gastrocnemius
417
Q

Muscles that flex the hip

A
  • Tensor fasciae latae
  • Pectineus
  • Sartorius
  • Illiopsoas

Iliacus

Psoas major and minor

  • Rectus femoris
418
Q

Muscles that extend the hip

A
  • Gluteus maximus
  • Hamstrings

Biceps femoris

Semimembranosus

Semitendinosus

419
Q

Muscles that Abduct the Hip

A
  • Tensor fasciae latae
  • Gluteus latae
  • Gluteus medius
  • Glueteus maximus (superior fibers)
  • Sartorius
420
Q

Muscles that Adduct the Hip

A
  • Adductor magnus
  • Adductor longus
  • Adductor brevis
  • Pectineus
  • Semimembranosus
  • Semitendinosus
  • Gracilis
421
Q

Muscles that Internally Rotate the Hip

A
  • Semimembranosus
  • Semitendinosus
  • Gluteus mimimus
  • Gluteus medius
  • Tensor fasciae latae
422
Q

Muscles that Externally Rotate the Hip

A
  • Gluteus maximus
  • Deep external rotators
  • Iliopsoas
  • Pectineus
  • Sartorius
423
Q

Primary Muscles of the Core

A
  • Transverse abdominis
  • Multifidi
  • Quadratus lumborum
  • Diaphragm
  • Pelvic floor musculature
  • Internal oblique (posterior fibers)
424
Q

Muscles that Flex the Spine

A
  • Rectus abdominis
  • Internal oblique
  • External oblique
425
Q

Muscles that Laterally Flex the Spine

A
  • Rectus Abdominis
  • Internal oblique
  • External oblique
  • Erector spinae
426
Q

Major Muscles that Rotate the Spine

A
  • Internal oblique

Rotation to the same side (ipsilateral)

  • External oblique

Rotation to the opposite side (contralateral)

427
Q

Major Muscles that Act at the Scapula (Shoulder Girdle)

A
  • Trapezius
  • Rhomboids (major/ minor)
  • Levator scapulae
  • Serratus anterior
  • Pectoralis minor
428
Q

Major Muscles that Act at the Shoulder Joint

A
  • Pectoralis major
  • Deltoid
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Teres Major
  • Corcobrachialis
  • Rotator Cuff

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres Minor

Subscapularis

429
Q

Muscles that Elevate the Scapula

A
  • Trapezius (upper)
  • Levator scapulae
  • Rhomboids (major and minor)
430
Q

Muscles that Depress the Scapula

A
  • Trapezius (lower)
  • Pectoralis minor)
431
Q

Muscles that Adduct (Retract)

the Scapula

A
  • Trapezius
  • Rhomboids (major and minor)
432
Q

Muscles that Abduct (Protract) the Scapula

A
  • Pectoralis minor
  • Serratus anterior
433
Q

Muscles that Rotate the Scapula (Upward)

A
  • Trapezius (middle to lower)
  • Serratus anterior
434
Q

Muscles that Rotate the Scapula (Downward Rotation of the Scapula)

A
  • Rhomboids (major and minor)
  • Pectoralis minor
435
Q

Muscles that Flex the Shoulder

A
  • Pectoralis major
  • Deltoid (Anterior)
  • Corcobrachialis (assists)
  • Biceps brachii (assists)
436
Q

Muscles that Extend the Shoulder

A
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Teres major
  • Deltoid (posterior)
  • Subscapularis

Triceps brachii (long head)

437
Q

Muscles that Abduct the Shoulder

A
  • Supraspinatus
  • Deltoid
438
Q

Muscles that Adduct the Shoulder

A
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Teres major
  • Pectoralis major
  • Subscapularis
  • Triceps brachii (long head)
439
Q

Muscles that Horizontally Adduct the Shoulder

A
  • Pectoralis major
  • Deltoid (Anterior)
  • Coracobrachialis
440
Q

Muslces that Horizontally Abduct the Shoulder

A
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Deltoid (posterior)
  • Infraspinatus
  • Teres minor
  • Triceps brachii (long head)
441
Q

Muscles the Externally Rotate the Shoulder

A
  • Deltoid (posterior)
  • Teres minor
  • Infraspinatus
442
Q

Muscles that Internally Rotate the Shoulder

A
  • Pectoralis major
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Deltoid (anterior)
  • Teres major
  • Subscapularis
443
Q

Muscles that Flex and Extend the Elbow

A
  • Elbow Flexors

biceps brachii

brachialis

brachiordialis

  • Elbow Extensors

Trceps brachii

444
Q

Muscles that Supinate and Pronate the Forearm

A
  • Forearm supinators

Supinator

Biceps brachi

  • Forearm Pronator

Pronator quadratus

Pronator teres

445
Q

Which is NOT considered a benefit of warming up?

A

Increased bone density

446
Q

Static stretching has been used for long time as part of a warm-up however; there is little evidence, if any, that pre-participation stretching prevents injury or soreness.

Ture/ False

A

True

447
Q

Dynamic stretching is defined as…

A

a form of stretching beneficial in sports utilizing momentum from form, and the momentum from static-active stretching strength, in an effort to propel the muscle into an extended range of motion not exceeding one’s static passive stretching ability

448
Q

What are the 2 different components of warm-up?

A

General

Specific

449
Q

The warm-up should progress gradually and provide sufficienty intensity to increase muscle and core tempertures without causing fatigue or reducing energy stores.

True/ False

A

True

450
Q

What is a specific warm up?

A

Incorporates movements similar to the movements of the athletes sport. Involves 8-10 minutres of dynamic stretching focusing on moving through the ROM required for that sport.

451
Q

A ___________________ is aimed to increase heart rate, blood flow, deep muscle temperture, respiration rate, and perspiration and to decrease viscosity of joint fluids.

A

General Warm Up

452
Q

Define flexiblity

A

A measure of range of motion and has static and dynamic components

453
Q

Which of the following are factors that affect the flexiblity of an individual?

A

Joint structure

Age

Gender

connective tissue

454
Q

When referring to connective tissue the terms elasticity and plasticity were used. What is the difference between these two terms?

A

Elasticity is the ability to return to original resting length after a passive stretch.

Plasticity is the tnedency to assume a new and greater legnth after a passive stretch.

455
Q

Which of the following contributes to a decrease in flexiblity in older adults?

A

Older people undergo a processs called fibrosis which is associated with inactivity and a tendency to use less of the available ROM of their joints.

456
Q

Increased muscle size or “bulk” may impede joint movement also resulting in less flexibiltiy for that individual.

True/ False

A

True

457
Q

The types of stretching are:

A

Static

Ballistic

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

Dynamic

458
Q

What is the primary outcome of regular resistance training?

A

Increase muscle fiber size and contractile strength

459
Q

Having a BMI greater than 25 increases a persons risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and type 2 diabetes?

True/ False

A

True

460
Q

Muscle is metabolically active tissue that is highly responsive to the stimuli of progressive resistance exercise

True/ False

A

True

461
Q

Hold-relax, contract-relax, and hold-relax with agonist contraction are all examples of which type of stretching technique?

A

PNF

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation Stretching

462
Q

Your client tells you they are “not flexible” and they have never been. What is the most appropriate response you should tell them?

A

We can incorporate some regular stretching routines at the end of each workout to help you gain more flexibility

463
Q

When developing an exercise program for someone who is new to resistance training, the initial stage should feature exercises with a low intensity. Why is this important?

A

Some individuals might perceive resistance training as painful and a high level of intesity could scare them away

464
Q

What is overload?

A

The process of gradually adding more exercise resistance than the muscles have previously encountered.

465
Q

The ability to perform work as exercise is known as

A

Physical Capacity

466
Q

Which is NOT a benefit of regularly participating in resistance training?

A

Enhanced knowledge about nutrition

467
Q

What is the typical RMR per day?

A

1500 calories

468
Q

During sleep, which muscles are responsible for 25% of our body’s calorie use?

A

Skeletal

469
Q

There are two main hormones associated with tissue development. What are they?

A

Testosterone and growth hormone

470
Q

Training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity.

True/ False

A

True

471
Q

For general fitness training goals, what is the recommended rest interval time between successive exercises?

A

30-90 seconds

472
Q

A client who stops working out will lose strength at about one half of the reate that is is gained. What is this know as?

A

Reversibility

473
Q

When a client has reached their genetic potential for muscle size and strength it is known as?

A

Dimishing returns

474
Q

The commonly recommended movement speed for resistance exercises is ________________ seconds per repetition?

A

6 seconds

475
Q

Why is it important to have a beginner perform an exercise at the recommended movement speed?

A

They can learn the proper muscles to engage during the movement

It can prevent them from injuring themself

They are still making motor neuron connections between their brain and body

476
Q

For those individuals who train for muscular strength and power lifting, single rep and multiple rep, the recommended rest interval times are?

A

2-5 minutes

477
Q
A
478
Q

Which of the following

A

Strength and Conditioning (14 decks)

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