Practice Test

Question 1

Which is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

Answer 1

Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

Question 2

Which of the following is OUTSIDE of the scope of practice?

Answer 2

Compiling detailed nutritional programming and specific meal planning for clients

Question 3

Intrinsic motivation in regards to exercise can be defined as

Answer 3

A person is engaged in exercise activity for the inherent pleasure of the experience

Question 4

A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate in an exercise program most likely:

Answer 4

Has high self-efficacy related to exercise

Question 5

People new to exercise typically have a hard time with program adherence. How can the personal trainer reduce the chance of their client quitting. Choose all that apply.

Answer 5

• Help client create SMART goals
• Create a well rounded program detailed to their clients needs
• Make sure the client has positive experiences and interactions during training sessions

Question 6

Lower levels of activity are seen with which of the following factors?

Answer 6

• Fewer years of education
• Lower income levels
• Increasing age

Question 7

Past program participation is the most reliable predictor of current participation.

Answer 7

True

Question 8

There are several factors that influence exercise. Which of the following factors is related to a person’s health status.

Answer 8

Biomedical

Question 9

What is the most common excuse used by people for why they do not exercise?

Answer 9

Lack of time

Question 10

It is important to create a program that is unique to each client. Be patient, listen to their words, and be creative when designing a program.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

Which of the following behaviors would most likely help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session?

Answer 11

Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening

Question 12

Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates a SMART goal?

Answer 12

I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes for a 5 k in four months

Question 13

What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?

Answer 13

Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback

Question 14

A client who is beginning to perform basic body weight squats with fairly decent form is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine her squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario?

Answer 14

Associative

Question 15

A client mentions that he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style?

Answer 15

Kinesthetic

Question 16

Your client mentions to you that he recently went to the doctor and found out he is on the verge of diabetes. He has been neglecting his health for a couple of years now but knows that if he does not start to make some positive changes, he will end up dealing with some serious health problems. He decides to start by getting a trainer to help him get going on a workout program.

Based on this information, which behavioral theory model best describes this situation?

Answer 16

Health Belief Model

Question 17

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise?

Answer 17

Past exercise performance

Question 18

On a plane, the gentleman sitting next to you asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, he is most likely in which stage of behavioral change?

Answer 18

Contemplation

Question 19

Which of the following processes is best exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work?

Answer 19

Stimulus control

Question 20

According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be best for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future?

Answer 20

Positive Reinforcement

Question 21

What is the difference between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?

Answer 21

skeletal muscle is voluntary and cardiac muscle is involuntary

Question 22

What are the main hormones involved in muscle hypertrophy?

Answer 22

growth hormone and testosterone

Question 23

Semitendinosis, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris are all part of which muscle group?

Answer 23

hamstrings

Question 24

Flexibility is defined as:

Answer 24

the ability to move joints through their full range of motion

Question 25

Your client is diabetic, what gland is not functioning correctly for them?

Answer 25

pancreas

Question 26

Muscular strength is defined as:

Answer 26

the max force a muscle or muscle group can exert during contraction

Question 27

Which muscle is the largest out of the following: deltoid latissimus dorsi semitendinosus gluteus minimus

Answer 27

latissimus dorsi

Question 28

Which of the following is true about ATP?

Answer 28

While ATP can be stored in cells, it must be continuously resynthsized

Question 29

Which of the following muscles does not act at the shoulder?

Answer 29

extensor digitorum longus

Question 30

Your client has limited flexibility. He is unable to touch his toes. What muscles are suspected to be tight in his case?

Answer 30

hamstrings

Question 31

According to the ACE IFT model, there are 2 components of training. What are they and what are their categories? For full credit write in complete sentences.

Answer 31

The two components of training in ACE IFT model are Functional Movement and Resistance and Cardiorespiratory Training. Functional Movement involves movement that is needed for everyday living. In this component we focus on Stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and performance training. Cardiorespiratory training involves the strengthening of the heart and it includes Aerobic based training, Aerobic-efficiency training, anaerobic-endurance training and anaerobic-power training.

Question 32

What are the 5 primary movements that are the focus of the movement training phase?

Answer 32

bend and lift, single leg, pushing, pulling, rotational

Question 33

Performance training includes speed, agility, quickness, and reactivity drills that would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients?

Answer 33

45-year old male competitive tennis player

Question 34

What are the Traditional training parameters?

Answer 34

aerobic fitness, muscular endurance, muscular strength, flexibility

Question 35

Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which functional movement and resistance phase of the IFT model? Select all that apply.

Answer 35

- Phase 3: Load training - Phase 4: Performance training

Question 36

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Function-Health- Fitness- Performance Continuum?

Answer 36

- It suggests that the first step should be to re-establish proper function - It suggests that an exercise program should follow a progression

Question 37

What do the following things have in common? Health behavior change Movement efficiency Kinetic chain mobility Core conditioning

Answer 37

They are all components of contemporary personal training

Question 38

Which of the stages of a successful client-trainer relationship includes implementing strategies to improve motivation and promote long-term adherence?

Answer 38

Action

Question 39

Empathy is defined as:

Answer 39

the ability to understand and share feelings of another person

Question 40

The purpose to performing a risk stratification is to:

Answer 40

Identify the presence of known/unknown cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease

Question 41

After performing a risk stratification on your client, you come to the total of 3 risk factors. The categories they received a point in were: Age Family History Sedentary lifestyle What risk level is this client considered?

Answer 41

Moderate Risk

Question 42

Your new client is a 57-year-old woman who plays golf, tennis, and squash avidly. Her health-risk appraisal reveals only one positive risk factor (age) and that she has a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratificatio, what is this client's risk level?

Answer 42

High risk

Question 43

Male 47 years old Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Smoking: quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: walks dog 1-2 times a day for 10 minutes each walk BMI: 29 kg/m Blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: lose 20lb ; increase muscular strength and cardio respiratory fitness What is this client's "total score" using the ACSM risk stratification chart?

Answer 43

+3

Question 44

Male 47 years old Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Smoking: quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: walks dog 1-2 times a day for 10 minutes each walk BMI: 29 kg/m Blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: lose 20lb ; increase muscular strength and cardio respiratory fitness According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this clients level of risk?

Answer 44

Moderate Risk

Question 45

Male 47 years old Family history: mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Smoking: quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: walks dog 1-2 times a day for 10 minutes each walk BMI: 29 kg/m Blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: lose 20lb ; increase muscular strength and cardio respiratory fitness What are the recommendations regarding exercise testing based on this client's risk stratification?

Answer 45

Trainer can perform submaximal fitness testing without a physician's supervision

Question 46

Trainers should be familiar with the more common medications that affect heart rate during exercise for the safety of the client.

Answer 46

True

Question 47

What do the following items on this list have in common? Onset of angina pectoris or angina-like symptoms that center around the chest Significant drop (\>10 mmHg) in SBP despite an increase in exercise intensity Excessive rise in blood pressure: SBP \>250 mmHg or DBP \>115 mmHg Fatigue, shortness of breath, difficult or labored breathing, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to intense exercise) Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis, nausea, or cold and clammy skin

Answer 47

They are all criteria for exercise test termination

Question 48

The ability to generate appropriate levels of force and movement at desired joints while stabilizing the entire kinetic chain against reactive and gravity-based forces is known as:

Answer 48

Stability and Mobility efficiency

Question 49

A person’s static posture represents:

Answer 49

- Alignment of the body's segments - Holding proper position of postural muscles - Alignment of joints, muscles, and nerves

Question 50

If your client suffers from Kyphosis what postural deviation would you see?

Answer 50

Increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Question 51

During the bend and lift screen you notice your client’s heels are unable to remain in contact with the floor as he squats down. Which main muscle/s are suspected to be tight?

Answer 51

Plantarflexors

Question 52

During the bend and lift screen you notice your client’s heels are unable to remain in contact with the floor as he squats down. Which main muscle/s are suspected to be tight?

Answer 52

Plantarflexors

Question 53

During the hurdle step screen you notice your client leaning forward and tilting their body laterally. What do you suspect is causing this?

Answer 53

Lack of core stability

Question 54

Your client exhibits shoulder flexion ROM of approximately 100°. Is this considered normal?

Answer 54

No normal ROM for shoulder flexion is 150°-180°

Question 55

The Thomas test measures:

Answer 55

Hip flexion and quad length

Question 56

You are performing The PSL assessment on your client. You observe that the leg being raised achieves 60 degrees of movement before the pelvis rotates posteriorly. What are your interpretations?

Answer 56

The client has tight hamstrings

Question 57

Which of the following tests assesses an individual’s static balance while standing with a reduced base of support while removing visual sensory information?

Answer 57

Sharpened Romberg test

Question 58

Read the following observation criteria. Observe any bilateral discrepancies between the pulls on each arm. Observe the ability to stabilize the trunk during the pull movement. What test is this for?

Answer 58

shoulder pull stabilization screen

Question 59

You are working with a client who has hypertension and has been cleared by her physician for exercise. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for her initial resistance training program?

Answer 59

Circuit training consisting of 8-10 exercises using mostly tubing and body weight performed one time for 12-16 repetitions at 60-70% 1-rm

Question 60

What effects does regular exercise have on dyslipidemia?

Answer 60

regular exercise can reduce LDL levels

Question 61

You are working with a client that has type 1 diabetes and checks his blood glucose levels prior to each exercise session. Which of the following pre-exercise blood glucose levels would make you postpone the exercise session until his blood sugar is under control?

Answer 61

88 mg/dL

Question 62

Which of the clients below meets the criteria for metabolic syndrome? Client 1 33-year old male waist circumference=36 in triglycerides = 188mg/dL HDL cholesterol=43 mg/dL blood pressure= 130/82 mmHg fasting blood glucose= 95 mg/dL Client 2 42-year old female waist circumference=36 in triglycerides = 133mg/dL HDL cholesterol=47 mg/dL blood pressure= 128/87 mmHg fasting blood glucose= 107mg/dL Client 3 48-year old male waist circumference=43 in triglycerides = 125mg/dL HDL cholesterol=44 mg/dL blood pressure= 137/88 mmHg fasting blood glucose= 91 mg/dL Client 4 51-year old female waist circumference=33 in triglycerides = 172mg/dL HDL cholesterol=54 mg/dL blood pressure= 127/79 mmHg fasting blood glucose= 98 mg/dL

Answer 62

Client 2

Question 63

Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for personal trainers to take to reduce the risk of exercise induced asthma (EIA) episodes when working with clients who have asthma?

Answer 63

include an extended warm up and cool down

Question 64

Which of the following repetition ranges is recommended to stimulate bone changes in clients who have osteoporosis?

Answer 64

6-8

Question 65

Which of the following progressions is LEAST appropriate for clients who have osteoarthritis?

Answer 65

increasing the weight lifted instead of increasing the number of repetitions

Question 66

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding exercise for people who have low back pain?

Answer 66

low back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed on a daily basis

Question 67

Flexibility, muscle strength and cardiorespiratory exercises are not beneficial to individuals suffering from cancer or recovering from cancer and should be avoided all together.

Answer 67

False

Question 68

What does body composition refer to?

Answer 68

the proportion of lean tissue to body fat tissue

Question 69

What is the essential fat percentage for men and women?

Answer 69

Men: 2-5%; Women: 10-13%

Question 70

What is the most commonly used test in the fitness industry to determine body fat?

Answer 70

Jackson Pollock Skinfold Measurement test

Question 71

The following information is the correct skinfold test administration protocol. True or False? All measurements are taken on the right side of the body while the client is standing Identify locations using anatomical landmarks Hold calipers in the right hand, grasping the skinfold site with the left hand (left-handed calipers are available) Thumb and index finger approximately 1 inch apart. Grasp or pinch the skinfold site, making a fold line that corresponds with the site instructions

Answer 71

True

Question 72

Which of the following are considered benefits of reducing adipose tissue?

Answer 72

- improve athletic performance - decreasing the risk of major disease and dysfunction - lean appearance and weight loss

Question 73

A BMI \>25 increases a person’s risk for: Cardiovascular disease Metabolic syndrome Hypertension Type 2 diabetes

Answer 73

True

Question 74

You are doing girth measurements on your client. You are preparing to measure their abdomen. What is the proper site of measurement?

Answer 74

a horizontal measure is taken at the greatest anterior extension of the abdomen. Usually at the level of the umbilicus

Question 75

You are measuring your clients legs. What is the proper instruction to give them in order to get an accurate measurement of their upper thigh?

Answer 75

Stand, legs slightly apart(~4 inches

Question 76

For every 1-inch (2.5-cm) increase in waist circumference in men, which of the following is an associated health risks?

Answer 76

blood pressure increases 10%

Question 77

In an average person, approximately 35% of body fat is distributed just below the skin.

Answer 77

False

Question 78

CRF depends on the efficiency and interrelationship of the cardiovascular, respiratory, and skeletal muscle systems.

Answer 78

True

Question 79

Which of the following observations can be expected to happen during submaximal cardiorespiratory assessments?

Answer 79

- heart rate and oxygen uptake exhibit a fairly linear relationship to workload - As workload increases, so do heart rate and oxygen uptake. - Submaximal cardiorespiratory assessments can provide relatively accurate values at a workload

Question 80

Submaximal exercise testing is safer and, in many cases, provides a reliable indicator of maximal effort.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

What is the 1.5 mile run test for?

Answer 81

The goal of the test is to run as fast as possible for 1.5 miles (2.4 km). Effective pacing is important for a successful outcome.

Question 82

Field test are often used in the fitness industry and in team training. Why is that?

Answer 82

- They are inexpensive - Can be used for testing multiple people at the same time - They are easy to administer

Question 83

Which of the following is not considered a benefit of muscular fitness?

Answer 83

It is not helpful for individuals with weight problems such as obesity and type 2 diabetes

Question 84

Muscular-endurance testing assesses the ability of a specific muscle group, or groups, to perform repeated or sustained contractions. What is an important aspect of conducting a muscular endurance test?

Answer 84

The client must maintain the integrity of the repetition and/or the recommended posture for the specific exercise movement.

Question 85

What are the 3 muscular endurance tests discussed in this chapter? You can select more than one answer here.

Answer 85

Body weight squat test Push up test Curl up test

Question 86

Strength can be expressed as either absolute strength or relative strength. What is the difference between absolute strength and relative strength?

Answer 86

Absolute strength is the greatest amount of weight that can be lifted one time and relative strength takes the person's body weight into consideration for comparing individuals

Question 87

Typically the 1-RM test is not done until the client reaches phase 3 or 4 of the IFT model because there is a certain amount of risk associated with maximal exertion, including musculoskeletal injury or worse. It is important to understand the client’s goals to determine whether this test is necessary.

Answer 87

True

Question 88

Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice regarding training clients with weight loss goals?

Answer 88

Designing exercise programs that lead to increased energy expenditure and positive changes in body composition

Question 89

Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to utilize when providing dietary advice for clients?

Answer 89

Resources developed or enforced by the Federal Government ie. www.choosemyplate.gov

Question 90

Which of the following be OUTSIDE the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

Answer 90

Offering solutions to a client who exhibits signs of depression that impact exercise adherence

Question 91

When working with clients who have been referred by their physicians for exercise programming, which of the following steps be most important for the personal trainer to take?

Answer 91

Obtain written permission from the client to communicating with the referring physician.

Question 92

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

Answer 92

Conducting fitness assessments and health screenings to identify exercise limitations.

Question 93

What is the primary purpose of the ACE Certified Personal Trainer Certification Program?

Answer 93

To protect the public from harm

Question 94

A client has soreness after a weekend tennis tournament. Which of the following is an appropriate action that is WITHIN the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

Answer 94

Discuss proper techniques for stretching the affected muscles

Question 95

According to the for Centers of Disease Control and Prevention, which of the following is a key risk factor for chronic disease?

Answer 95

Lack of physical activity

Question 96

A client has been released from physical therapy for shoulder impingement and is now working with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which course of action would be MOST appropriate for the personal trainer to take?

Answer 96

Build on the work done in physical therapy

Question 97

What is the most appropriate solution for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to provide to a client who has tight iliotibial (IT) bands?

Answer 97

Prescribe a series of ballistic stretches

Question 98

A client who has problems performing activities of daily living would benefit MOST from improving which of the following?

Answer 98

Functional Movements

Question 99

Which of the following BEST describes what is at the heart of a client-centered approach to personal training?

Answer 99

The personal trainer is focused on the client, helping the client achieve his or her goals for health, fitness and improved quality of life.

Question 100

A client who can work continuously for 10 min. at a moderate intensity before needing to take a break would start in which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model?

Answer 100

Base Training

Question 101

Which exercise would be MOST appropriate in the Movement Training phase of the ACE IFT Model Muscular Training component?

Answer 101

Body weight lunges

Question 102

In which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model would drills to build agility and power be incorporated?

Answer 102

Load/ Speed Training

Question 103

A periodized training place that incorporates workouts below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), between VT1 and the second ventilatory (VT2) , and above VT2, would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients?

Answer 103

A woman training to qualify for the Boston Marathon

Question 104

Which of the following is the MOST important factors for personal trainers to focus on to create a client-centered approach to personal training?

Answer 104

Building Rapport

Question 105

Which of the following is one of the five primary movement patterns that are the focus of Movement Training?

Answer 105

Single-leg movements

Question 106

When a client can consistently perform moderate-intensity physical activity for 20 min or more on at least 3 days per week, he or she should be training in which cardiorespiratory phase of the ACE IFT Model?

Answer 106

Fitness Training

Question 107

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer begins working with a new client who has obesity and is apprehensive about beginning an exercise program. Which of the following approaches would be MOST effective in helping the client achieve early success in this first session?

Answer 107

Have the client perform exercises that provide the trainer with basic feedback about the client's current movement abilities and fitness

Question 108

Which of the following should be developed early in the client-personal trainer relationship in order to build a strong foundation?

Answer 108

- Rapport

Question 109

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a new client who has had a consistent exercise history. During the interview, the client explains that she enjoys all types of exercise and loves the way a workout makes her feel. Which of the following BEST describes this client's motivation?

Answer 109

- Autonomous Motivation

Question 110

Which of the following is the BEST example of a process goal?

Answer 110

- Making it to the fitness facility three times a week

Question 111

Which of the following client types is MOST likely to exhibit positive health behaviors?

Answer 111

A client with an internal locus of control

Question 112

Which of the following will MOST strongly influence a client's current self-efficacy levels?

Answer 112

Past performance experiences

Question 113

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer receives a call from an individual who is inquiring about training in the gym, which she has never done previously. She seems very apprehensive and nervous, stating that she knows she needs to be more active but is not sure training is right for her. Based on this scenario, which of the following BEST represents the caller's stage of change?

Answer 113

Contemplation

Question 114

According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people's perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?

Answer 114

Perceived Susceptibility

Question 115

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a long-term client who is in the maintenance stage of change. Which of the following goals would be BEST for this client?

Answer 115

- Maintain interest and reduce risk for boredom

Question 116

Which of the following is an important strategy for dealing with client lapses?

Answer 116

- Discuss lapses with the client in advance

Question 117

Which of the following BEST describes the self-perception that a person can successfully perform a task?

Answer 117

- Competence

Question 118

During an initial client interview, an ACE Certified Trainer "breaks the ice" by asking the new client about how her day has been going. Which of the following best identifies this stage of the client-personal trainer relationship?

Answer 118

- Rapport

Question 119

During a training session, a client begins talking about intimate personal issues and problems at home. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to take?

Answer 119

- Redirect the conversation

Question 120

During a training session, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer asks the client to explain what benefits might be gained by increasing her exercise frequency from 2 days/ week to 3 days/ week. Which of the following BEST identifies the type of communication skill used by the trainer?

Answer 120

Open-ended questioning

Question 121

Which of the following is a key consideration when setting goals with a client?

Answer 121

- Goals should be positive

Question 122

Which of the following would BEST motivate a client for long-term program adherance?

Answer 122

Including process goals like completing an exercise workout, in addition to performance goals.

Question 123

A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat and is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined and perfected is in which stage of learning?

Answer 123

Associate stage

Question 124

Which of the following components of motivational interviewing is being displayed when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer deliberately pursues the welfare and best interests of the client?

Answer 124

Compassion

Question 125

Which of the following OARS skills is being used when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer states. "Your intention to exercise 5 days this week was good, even through you were only able to make it to the gym 3 days"?

Answer 125

Offering affirmations

Question 126

Which of the following is the BEST strategy for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to use when working with a client who is a visual learner?

Answer 126

Demonstrations

Question 127

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer has a new client sign a behavior-change contract that awards a free personal-training session if the client complies with 100% of the contract's terms. Which of the following BEST describes the type of motivation used?

Answer 127

Extrinsic Motivation

Question 128

Which of the following could cause a barrier to exercise if included in the exercise pre-participation health-screening process for a client?

Answer 128

- Risk-factor profiling or classification

Question 129

Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardiovascular events?

Answer 129

Desired intensity level

Question 130

If an ACE Certified Personal Trainer makes the following statement early in a pre-participation health screening, which of the following is he or she trying to accomplish? "Managing your diabetes is important to you. How do you envision me helping to support your goals?"

Answer 130

Asking open-ended questions to get more detail

Question 131

Which of the following forms collects more detailed medical and health information beyond the pre-participation health screening?

Answer 131

Lifestyle and health-history questionnaire

Question 132

Which of the following antihypertensive medications increases the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys?

Answer 132

Diuretics

Question 133

Which document includes a client's medical information and explains physical activity limitations and/ or guidelines as outlined by his or her healthcare provider?

Answer 133

Medical release

Question 134

For the past two months, a client has been following his healthcare provider's exercise guidelines of 30 minutes of indoor cycling at a rating of perceived exertion of 8 (on the 6 to 20 scale). followed by mild stretching. The client has asked the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to add the elliptical machine to incorporate upper-body movements. Which would be the MOST appropriate response?

Answer 134

- Explain that for his safety, a new medical release would be necessary to incorporate additional exercise

Question 135

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer's client states she is interested in using an over-the-counter diuretic for rapid weight loss. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response?

Answer 135

- Explain the dangers of using such a product

Question 136

Which of the following is BEST defined as shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

Answer 136

- Dyspnea

Question 137

During an initial exercise session, a client presents with symptoms of dizziness and mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. Which would be the MOST appropriate action by an ACE Certified Personal Trainer?

Answer 137

Discontinue exercise and have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider's clearance

Question 138

A client asks an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to give her an eating plan designed after a diet she found on the internet. What wold be the MOST appropriate action for the personal trainer?

Answer 138

- Refer the client to a registered dietician or other qualified healthcare professional

Question 139

Which of the following would be the BEST example of a healthy eating pattern?

Answer 139

- A diet that includes a variety of vegetables, fruit, grains, low-fat dairy, and protein-rich foods

Question 140

What is the goals of a dietary intervention to decrease weight?

Answer 140

To create a caloric deficit so that fewer calories are consumed than are expended

Question 141

Which of the following eating plans is recommended to optimize health and decrease blood pressure in individuals with hypertension?

Answer 141

DASH eating plan

Question 142

An ACE Certified Personal Trainer working with a client makes the following statement: "You want to make these changes to manage your blood pressure, avoid medication, and improve your quality of life. What obstacles do you think might get in the way of these goals? Which of the following BEST identifies the approach the personal trainer is taking?

Answer 142

Breaking down barriers

Question 143

A nutrition fact label states that one serving of the product contains 3,300 mg of sodium. Which of the following BEST categorizes this product's sodium content?

Answer 143

High

Question 144

A BMI of 20.0 - 24.9 is considered normal? True or False

Answer 144

False

Question 145

A BMI of 30.0 - 34.9 is considered obese? True of False

Answer 145

True

Question 146

As BMI decreases, so do health risks for several preventable causes of premature death? True of Falst

Answer 146

True

Question 147

BMI is appropriate as the only method of accurately assessing body structure. Chances of misclassification are low. True or False

Answer 147

False

Question 148

The PRIMARY purpose of professional certification is to:

Answer 148

Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence

Question 149

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

Answer 149

Assessing clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

Question 150

Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

Answer 150

Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations

Question 151

At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?

Answer 151

Which registering for an ACE certification exam

Question 152

The PRIMARY reason ACE has established a minimum continuing education requirement of 20 hours every two years in order to maintain a certification is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers.

Answer 152

Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

Question 153

Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

Answer 153

Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices.

Question 154

A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if

Answer 154

The personal trainer becomes a licenses massage therapist

Question 155

What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?

Answer 155

They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies

Question 156

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?

Answer 156

Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as RD or MD, they do not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements.

Question 157

Which of the following is NOT part of the knowledge, skills, and abilities assessed by the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam?

Answer 157

Building nutrition plans

Question 158

Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for children and adolescents?

Answer 158

Reduced risk of depression

Question 159

Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for adults and older adults?

Answer 159

Improved sleep

Question 160

Noncommunicable diseases are also referred to as..

Answer 160

Chronic Diseases

Question 161

The overall purpose and intent of the Physical activity Guidelines for Americans are...

Answer 161

to provide individuals throughout the lifespan (children, adults and older adults), women during pregnancy and the postpartum period, and adults with chronic condition with specific physical-activity recommendations to following in an effort to improve multiple aspects of health-related fitness. These aspects include cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength, bone strength, and flexibility.

Question 162

True or False? Personal trainers can prescribe dietary supplements to clients interested in improving perfomrance?

Answer 162

False

Question 163

True or False? To truly affect chronic disease on a global level, health equity must be a priority for professionals across the full spectrum of healthcare in all communicites.

Answer 163

True

Question 164

The role of personal trainers has changed over time. Explain what factors have contributed to the change and in what ways the role has changed.

Answer 164

Personal trainers was primarily focused on working with fitness enthusiasts in traditional fitness facilities. This role has changed due to the increasing number of adults and children who have overweight or obesity, are insufficiently physically active, and have related health issues stemming from physical inactivity. Personal trainers must now be prepared to work with clients ranging in age from youth to older adults and ranging in health and fitness status from physically inactive to athletic.

Question 165

Scope of Practice

Answer 165

legal range of services that professionals in a give field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed.

Question 166

What is the purpose of the ACE Code of Ethics?

Answer 166

The code serves as a guide for ethical and professional practices for all ACE Certified Professionals. This code is enforced through the ACE Professional Practices and Disciplinary Procedures

Question 167

The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to...

Answer 167

Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence.

Question 168

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

Answer 168

Assessing clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design.

Question 169

Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

Answer 169

Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations.

Question 170

At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?

Answer 170

While registering for an ACE certification exam.

Question 171

The Primary reason ACE has established a minimum continuing education requirement of 20 hours every two years in order to maintain a certification is to help aCE Certified Personal Trainers.

Answer 171

Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health.

Question 172

Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Personal Trainer scope of practice?

Answer 172

Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices.

Question 173

A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles an do so ONLY if...

Answer 173

The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist.

Question 174

What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?

Answer 174

They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies.

Question 175

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?

Answer 175

Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, they do not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements.

Question 176

Which of the following is NOT part of the knowledge, skills, and abilities assessed by the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam?

Answer 176

Building nutrition plans

Question 177

Upon what foundational element is the ACE IFT Model build?

Answer 177

Developing rapport

Question 178

What assessments are essential according toehold the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?

Answer 178

Collecting health-history data to identify limitations for exercise and the need for referral

Question 179

Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavioral change for some clients?

Answer 179

Conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition

Question 180

What five primary movements are the focus of the Movement Training phase?

Answer 180

Bend-and-lift, single-leg, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements

Question 181

In what phase of the Muscular Training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if they have lumbar lordosis and limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders?

Answer 181

Functional Training

Question 182

Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model?

Answer 182

Load/ Speed Training

Question 183

Load/ Speed Training includes speed, agility, quickness, and power drills that would be MOST appropriate for which client?

Answer 183

45-year-old male competitive tennis player

Question 184

A regular group exercise participant who works at a moderate intensity for 20-30 minutes, three times per week, and with no competitive goals is ready to progress to which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model?

Answer 184

Fitness Training

Question 185

During which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model will intervals be introduced at intensities at and above the VT2 heart rate?

Answer 185

Performance Training

Question 186

Cardiorespiratory exercise in the Fitness Training phase includes training at which intensities?

Answer 186

Below, at, and above VT1 and below VT2

Question 187

Explain the function-health-fitness performance continuum

Answer 187

- Human movement/ fitness can progress and regress along a spectrum - first develop or re-establish basic functional movements then advancing to specialized movements - Each individual is at a unique point on this continuum based on health status, physical limitations; frequency, intensity, and types of physical activities - Both lifecycle and lifestyle factors can influence where that individual fall on the continuum.

Question 188

Describe how personal trainers can use and apply the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.

Answer 188

- Clients ebb and flow along this continuum based on their lifecycle and lifestyle factors that impact positively or negatively - PT's can help their clients by meeting them where they are providing personalized exercise programs/ coaching based on current health, fitness, goals.

Question 189

Discuss how lifecycle factors and lifestyle factors are interrelated.

Answer 189

- Lifestyle factors disrupt natural human development along the lifecycle which results n individuals regressing along the function-health-fitness-performance continuum

Question 190

The ACE IFT Model includes tow training components, what are they?

Answer 190

- Cardiorespiratory Training - Muscular Training

Question 191

The greatest impact personal trainers can regularly have on the lives of their clients is to...

Answer 191

Help clients positively change health-related behaviors and establish positive relationships with exercise

Question 192

Describe how personal trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method

Answer 192

Personal Trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method through use of the ACE ABC Approach: - Asking open ended question - Breaking Down Barriers - Collaborating with clients

Question 193

Base Training (Cardiorespiratory Training)

Answer 193

- moderate-intense cardiorespiratory (RPE 3-4), focusing on enjoyment - Keep intensities below talk-test threshold (below VT1) - Increase duration/ frequency of exercise bouts - Progress to Fitness Training when client completes at least 20 min cardio/ 3x weekly

Question 194

Fitness Training (Cardiorespiratory Training)

Answer 194

- Progress cardiorespiratory exercise duration/ frequency based on clients goals and available time. - Integrate vigorous- intensity (RPE 5-6) cardiorespiratory exercise intervals/ intensities below, at, above VT1 - just below VT2

Question 195

Performance Training (Cardiorespiratory Training)

Answer 195

- Progress moderate- and vigorous- intensity cardiorespiratory exercise - Program sufficient volume for the client to achieve goals - Integrate near maximal/ maximal intensity (RPE 7-10) intervals above VT2 to increase aerobic capacity, speed, performance - Periodized training plans can be used to incorporate adequate training times, below VT1, VT1- below VT2, and at or above VT2

Question 196

Functional Training (Muscular Training)

Answer 196

- Establish/ re-establish postural stability and kinetic chain mobility - Program should improve muscular endurance, flexibility, core function, static and dynamic balance. - Progress exercise volume/ challenge as function improves

Question 197

Movement Training (Muscular Training)

Answer 197

- Focus on good movement patterns with good postural/ joint stability - Include exercises for all 5 primary movement patterns, in varied planes of motion - Integrate Functional Training exercises to maintain/ improve postural stability/ kinetic chain mobility.

Question 198

Load/ Speed Training (Muscular Training

Answer 198

- Focus on application of external loads to movements to create increased force production to meet goals - Integrate 5 Primary movement patterns through exercises that load them in different planes/ combinations - Integrate Functional Training exercises to support postural stability/ kinetic chain mobility to increase workloads. - Focus on adequate resistance-training loads to help clients reach muscular strength, endurance, hypertrophy goals - Integrate drills to build speed, agility, quickness, and power.

Question 199

Bend-and-lift Daily Activities

Answer 199

- Lift a box from the floor - Lifting a child/ puppy from the floor

Question 200

Single-leg Daily Activities

Answer 200

- Stairs - Stepping on stool/ stepladder

Question 201

Pushing Daily Activities

Answer 201

- Pushing luggage - Pushing a child on a swing

Question 202

Pulling Daily Activities

Answer 202

- Starting a lawnmower - Pulling a textbook off a shelf

Question 203

Rotation Daily Activities

Answer 203

- Reaching int the back seat of a car from the front seat - Twisting while mopping the floor

Question 204

The primary outcome of regular resistance training is...

Answer 204

Increase muscle fiber size and contractile strength

Question 205

True or False An additional benefit of exercise is an increase in your RMR. In the first 10 weeks of exercise the RMR can increase by 7-8% in previously reconditioned adults.

Answer 205

True

Question 206

Muscular strength is not closely related to muscular endurance? True or False

Answer 206

False

Question 207

During the first several weeks of training the strength gains are largely the result of neurological factors. As we repeat the resistance exercise movements the result is more efficient activation of motor units. This process is known as...

Answer 207

Motor learning

Question 208

Training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. True or False

Answer 208

True

Question 209

According to the general training frequency guidelines, those individuals who are "beginner" status in regards to exercise should train \_\_\_\_\_\_\_-per week.

Answer 209

2-3

Question 210

Which of the following would be considered a proper program progression?

Answer 210

Supported machines --- unsupported machines

Question 211

Training intensity has two different applications in the area of resistance training. What are they?

Answer 211

- The effort level achieved during exercise set - The percentage of maximum resistance used in an exercise

Question 212

A client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength about one-half the rate that it was gained. This is the definition of what principle?

Answer 212

Reversibility

Question 213

Which behavioral theory states that at least four variables influence a perso's decision to change?

Answer 213

Transtheroetical Model of Behavior Change

Question 214

What are the four variables that influence a person's decision to change in the behavioral theory, Thranstheroetical Model of Behavior Change

Answer 214

- Stages of change - Prcesses of change - Self-Efficacy - Decisional Balance

Question 215

Self - determination theory examines two types of motivation. What are they and how do they differ?

Answer 215

Autonomous motivation - people feel as if they are behaving of their own free will. (doing cause they want to) Controlled motivation - people doing sometjhing because htey feel pressured by demands from external forces.

Question 216

True or False In reality, most adults experience some amount of controlled motivation.

Answer 216

True

Question 217

Describe 3 ways, as a personal trainer, can create an enviroment in which the basic physiological needs of your clients are met.

Answer 217

Competence- person believes in their ability to perform a task Autonomy - feel their decision is self-determined Relatedness - belongingness & connectedness

Question 218

Precontemplation Stage

Answer 218

- people are phsyically inactive - do not intend to begin an activity program - do not see physical activity relevant in their lives - they discount the importance

Question 219

Contemplation Stage

Answer 219

- People who are inactive - Thinking about becoming more active - Considering physical activity - Began to identify th eimplications of being inactive

Question 220

Preparation Stage

Answer 220

- Some engagement - They are mentally/ physcially preparing to adopt an activity program - Might be sporadic walking, periodic visit to gym (inconsistent)

Question 221

Action Phase

Answer 221

- People engaging in regular physical activity but have been doing so for less than 6 months.

Question 222

Maintenance Phase

Answer 222

- Regular physical-activity participation for longer than 6 months

Question 223

Explain why the concept of self-eficacy is imporant to exercise-related behavior change.

Answer 223

- One must believe they can change/ modify behavior on their own.

Question 224

Identify the six souces of self-efficacy

Answer 224

- Past performance experience - Vicarious experience - Verbal persuasion - Physiological state appraisals - Emotional state & mood appraisals - Imaginal experiences

Question 225

Descibe decisional balance

Answer 225

- Evaluating pros/ cons on whether to adopt or maintain a program.

Question 226

Discuss how willpower is a mind-body response and not a virtue.

Answer 226

- Will power is inherently limited - Relying on one's rational side to control the emotional side is not a fair fight. - Emotions are more powerful (white knuckling it)

Question 227

How are the cognitive and behavioral processes of change different?

Answer 227

- cognitive processes results in new ways of thinkng are reinforce change - Behavioral processes involve action oreinted learning where clients experience the behaviors and adopt those that work for them.

Question 228

3 simple strategies that can help reframe a client's thining related to time?

Answer 228

- encourange clients to change perception of time - Goal setting - time mangement - prioritizing - time efficient exercises - make physical activity top priorities

Question 229

During the intial interview with a new client, you elarn the client's desire to exercise regularly was based on the results of a recent medical exam revealing stage 1 hypertension (blood pressure = 137/ 88 mmHg), dyslipedemia (total serum cholesterol = 240 mg/dL), and a family history of cardiovascular disease. Based on the information, the client's movitation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the followign componenets of behavioral change?

Answer 229

Perceived seriousness

Question 230

The person sitting next to you on a plane asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. They say that they do not currently exercise, but have been thinking about joining a gym and ask you for recommendations. Based on this information, this person is MOST likely in which of the following stages of behavioral change?

Answer 230

Contemplation

Question 231

A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10k and half marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two year ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running,with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, your client has MOST likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavioral change from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today?

Answer 231

Maintenance, contemplation, preparation

Question 232

According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future?

Answer 232

Positive reinforcement

Question 233

Which of the following is the BEST question a personal trainer can encourage a client to ask themself if they are experiencing a cognitive distortion?

Answer 233

What is the evidence for and against this thought?

Question 234

Which of the following processes is BEST exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on teh direct route between home and work?

Answer 234

Stimulus Control

Question 235

Which of the following strategies would be MOST likely to enhance a client's willpower?

Answer 235

Planning in advance for moments of weak self-control

Question 237

Identify the stages of the client-personal trainer relationship...

Answer 237

- Rapport Stage - Investigation Stage - Planning Stage - Action Stage

Question 238

Which stage of the client-personal trainer relationship is charcterized by discussions about the client's health, fitness, and lifestye?

Answer 238

- Investigation Stage

Question 239

What two skills can a personal trainer apply during the investigation stage to understand their client and elicit as much helpful information as possible while uncovering a client's motivation?

Answer 239

- Active Listening - Motivational Interviewing

Question 240

Describe what takes place during the planning and action stages of the client-personal trainer relationship.

Answer 240

- Setting Goals - SMART (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time) - Directed attention - Mobilized effort - Persistance - Strategy

Question 241

True/ False If an individual has purchased a gym membership and personal-training sessions, this is a good indicator that they are committed to making lasting behavior changes.

Answer 241

False

Question 242

In which stage of learning should a personal trainer implement the "tell, show, do" teaching technique?

Answer 242

- Cognitive Stage

Question 243

Compare Directing style of communication with guiding style of communication. What are the differences?

Answer 243

Directive style - PT takes charge of the conversation, advises a clinet on what to do Motivational style- establishes rapport, reducing resistance, eliciting a client's own argumentfor change. Support peole as they resolve their ambivalence.

Question 244

Which of the following behaviors would MOST likely help you develop rapport with a client during the initial session?

Answer 244

Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and hands confortably resting when listening

Question 245

During the investigation stage, which of the following statements BEST describes active listening?

Answer 245

Empathetically listening to a client while maintaining an open mind and trying to put yourself in the client's shoes.

Question 246

A client you have been working with for several months tells you that a close relative recently became serisouly ill. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate?

Answer 246

"I'm sorry, I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you."

Question 247

Which of the following statements BEST represents a SMART goal?

Answer 247

"I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10-40 min for 5k in four months."

Question 248

Which of the following is MOST effective in helping a client develop program adherence?

Answer 248

Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal

Question 249

What is the MOST effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?

Answer 249

Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback

Question 250

A client has mastered the basics of body-weight squats and is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine their squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario?

Answer 250

Associative

Question 251

During the inital client investigation stage, which of the following questions is MOST important to ask?

Answer 251

"What are your likes and dislikes when it comes to activity?"

Question 252

A client mentions that they prefer tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style?

Answer 252

kinesthetic

Question 253

Which of the following strategties is NOT one of the four interconnected components comprising the spirit of motivation interviewing?

Answer 253

Dependence

Question 254

"spirit" of motivational interviewing is rooted in four key interconnected components...

Answer 254

- collaboration - acceptance - compassion - evocation

Question 255

The new health-screening process is based on what three factors?

Answer 255

- current level of physical activity - diagnosed cardiovascular, metabolic, renal disease - desired exercise intesity

Question 256

The new health-screening process is designed to identify what three categories of individuals?

Answer 256

- those who need a medical clearance - clinically significant diseases - medical conditions that may require exclusions from training

Question 257

True/ False The risk of cardiovascular complications during exercise is low.

Answer 257

True

Question 258

Preparticipation health screening for individuals wanting to intiate an exercise program may be conducted using which document as a self-guided screening tool?

Answer 258

PAR Q+

Question 259

Explain why information about a client's medication use is important to gather during the screening process.

Answer 259

- medications can have a strong affect on the body's response. - HR/ Breathing/ Oxygen

Question 260

Jack, a personal-training client, has participated in regular exercise for 10 years. In his last session, Jack complained of shortness of breath upon mild exertion, as well as dizziness, According to the algorithm, how would you respond?

Answer 260

- Discontinue exercise - Seek medical clearance

Question 261

Sarah is a new personal-training client who does not currently particpate in regular exercsie and has type 2 diabetes. Is medical clearance recommended before initiating an exercise program?

Answer 261

Medical clearance is recommended, as she has a known metabolic condiition.

Question 262

Mike has been a personal-training client for several years. He has performed planned, strutured physical activity for at least 30 minutes on at least three days per week at a moderate intensity for the past year. However, he has an interest in adding two sessions of vigorous-intensity exercise to his weekly routine. He has a known history of diabetes. What would your next step be before having Mike engage in vigorous intensity exercise?

Answer 262

- Medical clearance (within the past 12 months if no change in signs/ symptoms) is recommended before engaging in vigorous-intensity exercise

Question 263

A client has been using a beta blocker medication since they started working with you. As you do with several of your clients, you assign a target heart rate to this client as a means of gauging exercise intesity. Did you choose the most appropriate method for monitoring exercise intensity? Why or why not? What might you do differently and why?

Answer 263

- The medications block beta-adrenergic receptors and limit sympatheic nervous system stimulation. In other words, they block the effect of catecholamines (epinephrine/ nonepinephrine) thoughout the body and reduce resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise intensity. Using rating of perceived exertion or the talk test versus target hert rate, for example, would be appropriate for a safe/ effective cardiorespiratory exercise program for someone on beta blockers.

Question 264

The risk of exercise-related acute myocardial infarction and sudden cardiac death is highest among individual with underlying cardiovascular disease who \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 264

Perform a level of physical activity to which they are not accustomed

Question 265

Beta blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 265

Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation

Question 266

If a client is on a beta blockers, the BEST way to monitor exercise intensity is to use \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 266

Rating of perceived exertion

Question 267

Calcium channel blockers \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 267

Lower blood pressure

Question 268

For what condition are diuretics usually prescribed?

Answer 268

High blood pressure

Question 269

The preparticpation guidelines from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) are designed to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 269

Remove any unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active

Question 270

The PAR-Q+ is evidence-based and was developed with a goal of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 270

Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise

Question 271

It is ACE's position that personal trainers can and should share what type of nutrition information with their clients?

Answer 271

General nonmedical nutrition information

Question 272

List nutrition topics PT's should be prepared to discuss with their clients...

Answer 272

- Healthy nutrition/ preparation - Foods to be included in the balanced daily diet - Essential nutrients needed by the body - Action of nutrients on the body - Effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients - How nutrient requirements vary thought the lifecycle - Princples of pre-/ post-workout nutrition and hydration - Information about nutrients contained in foods/ supplements

Question 273

Ultimately, an individual personal trainer's scope of practice related to nutrtion is determined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 273

State policies/ regulations, education/ experience, and competencies and skills.

Question 274

What re the four key Guidelines contained within the Dietary Guidelines?

Answer 274

1. At every life stage, eat healthfully and choose food/ beverage choices for better support healthy dietary patterns. 2. Follow healthy eating pattern that is enjoyable at all life stages across all ages, racial/ ethnic backgrounds, and socioeconomic statuses. 3. Choose eating patterns that meet reccommendations for vegetables, fruits, grains, dairy, and protein foods with limited amounts of added sugars, saturated fats, and sodum. 4. Choose nutrient dense foods/ beverages across all food groups. Consider cultural/ personal preferances to make shifts easier to maintain.

Question 275

Identify five ways to reduce the risk of foodborne illness while grocery shopping.

Answer 275

- Check produce for bruises, feel/ smell for ripeness - Look for "sell-by" date for breads/ baked goods, "use-by" date on some packaged foods, "expiration date" on yeast/ baking powder, "packaged date" on canned and packaged foods. - Stay away from dented, cracked, bulging cans - Separate fish and poultry from purchases by wrapping separately - Pick up refridgerated/ frozen foods last

Question 276

What are the 2 main goals of a pre-exercise snack?

Answer 276

- Optimize glucose availablity and glycogen stores - provide the fuel needed to support exercise performance

Question 277

On the day of the event, an athlete should should aim to eat a meal ______ hours before the event.

Answer 277

4 - 6 hours

Question 278

Refueling should begin within ________ after exercise.

Answer 278

30 min

Question 279

Identify 5 practical tips a personal trainer can share to help prepare the gut for exercise or competition.

Answer 279

1. get acclimatized to heat 2. Stay hydrated 3. Practice drinking during training to improve competition-day comfort 4. Avoid eating too much before/ during exercise 5. Limit protein and fat intake 6. ingest a high evergy/ high carb diet 7. Avoid high fiber foods before exercise 8. Limit nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), alcohol, caffeine, antibiotics, nutritional supplements before/ during exercise to avoid gastrointestinal discomfort (GI) 9. Urinate/ deficate prior to exercise

Question 280

What nutrition strategies can a personal trainer use that are WITHIN their scope of practice?

Answer 280

1. Host grocery shopping tours 2. Hold cooking demonstrations 3. Share evidence-based dietary guidelines 4. Share MyPlate recommendations 5. Share infor about types of foods to inlcude in a balanced diet 6. Teach a client about the principles of healthy nutrition/ food preparation

Question 281

The level of intake of a nutrient that is adequate to meet the known needs of practically all healthy persons is referred to as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 281

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

Question 282

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every ____________ years.

Answer 282

5

Question 283

The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans suggest that _____________ is essential when making a lifestyle change because it increases the caloric deficit to speed weight loss and is crucial for maintaining weight loss.

Answer 283

Exercise

Question 284

Dark green vegetables are highest in what Vitamin?

Answer 284

Vitamin K

Question 285

Whole grains contain __________ grams of whole grain per 1 ounce-equivalent.

Answer 285

16 grams

Question 286

Individuals with hypertension are advised to follow the _______ eating plan.

Answer 286

DASH

Question 287

Which of the following is WITHIN the personal trainer's scope of practice?

Answer 287

Offering grocery store tours

Question 288

Which of the following situations would require a personal trainer to refer a client to a registered dietitian?

Answer 288

Working with clients who present with signs of disordered eating

Question 289

In general, a pre-exercise or pre-workout meal or snack should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 289

Relatively low in fat and fiber and moderate in protein

Question 290

Which of the following claims is allowed on the packaging of a dietary supplement according to the regulatory requirements set forth by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994?

Answer 290

Fiber treats colon cancer

Question 291

Because past performance experience is a critical source of self-efficacy, on what should each early experience focus?

Answer 291

- Creating success and building confidence

Question 292

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a valid indicator of work intensity or stress on the body during exercise.

Answer 292

Heart Rate

Question 293

Resting heart rate (RHR) is affected by a number of factors. What are they?

Answer 293

- fitness - fatigue - genetics - body composition - drug/ medication - alcohol - caffeine - stress

Question 294

True or False It is crucial tht all personal-training clients be assessed using a comprehensive fitness assessment protocol.

Answer 294

False

Question 295

Sinus tachycardia

Answer 295

RHR \> 100 bpm

Question 296

Normal sinus rhythm

Answer 296

RHR 60 - 100 bpm

Question 297

Sinus bradycardia

Answer 297

RHR \< 60bpm

Question 298

Bioelectrical impedance analysis | (BIA)

Answer 298

- Measures electrical signals as they pass through fat tissue, lean mass, and water in the body - noninvasive/ simple to administer - Accuracy can vary based on hydration level of the client - Many centers use BIA due to the simplicity of its use

Question 299

Air displacement plethysmography

Answer 299

- Measures the amount of air that is displaced when a person sits in the machine - High accuracy - Expensive - Not common in fitness setting, too costly

Question 300

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

Answer 300

- Delivers a low-dose x-ray that reads bone and soft-tissue mass to identify regional body-fat distribution - Accurate - Not typical in fitness center

Question 301

Hydrostatic weighing

Answer 301

- Measures the amount of water displaced when a person is completely submerged in water; indirectly measures body fat via body density - Gold standard in body-fat assessment - uncomfortable procedure for many individuals - not common in fitness centers

Question 302

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Answer 302

- Uses magnetic fields to assess how much fat aperson has and where it is deposited - not practical for assessing body fat - no found in fitness centers

Question 303

Near-infrared interactance (NIR)

Answer 303

- Uses a fiber optic probe connected to a digital probe that indirectly measures tissues composition - inexpensive and fast - Not as accurate - Yes in fitness centers

Question 304

Skinfold measurements

Answer 304

- Uses calipers to pinch a fold of skin and fat - equation are used to calculate body-fat percentage - easily administered/ low cost - large margin of error - Yes in fitness centers

Question 305

Total body electrical conductivity (TOBEC)

Answer 305

- Uses an electro-magnetic force field to assess relative body fat - Impractical and expensive - Not found in clinical settings

Question 306

Many new clients will begin a program with a ______________ self-efficacy for exercise ability.

Answer 306

very low

Question 307

The common sites for measuring the pulse are the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 307

Radial and carotid arteries

Question 308

You have a client who is 5'9" (69 inches), weighs 185 pounds (84.09 kg). What is the body mass index?

Answer 308

BMI = Weight (kg)/ Height squared or weight (lb)/ height (inches) X 703 27.3 kg/m squared

Question 309

Essential fat for men is

Answer 309

2 - 5%

Question 310

Essential fat for women

Answer 310

10 - 13%

Question 311

Which of the statements about body mass index is MOST accurate?

Answer 311

It is associated with health, morbidity, and mortality

Question 312

An approach to estimating body fat that incorporates the measure of subcutaneous fat is

Answer 312

Skinfold measurements

Question 313

If a client has exteme obesity, some body-composition assessment approaches will be innacurate. In such cases, a practical approach a personal trainer can take is to use BMI or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 313

Circumference measurements

Question 314

What are the 3 Cardiorespiratory Training Phases

Answer 314

1. Base 2. Fitness 3. Performance

Question 315

What are the three Muscular Training Phases?

Answer 315

1. Functional 2. Movement 3. Load/ Speed

Question 316

The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is determiend primarily by what two variables?

Answer 316

The ability to adequately ventilate the alveoli in the lungs and hemoglobin concentration of the blood

Question 317

What are 5 advantages using the talk test to determine exercise intensity?

Answer 317

1. No equipment required 2. Can easily be taught to clients 3. Allows for personalized programming

Question 318

A rating of perceived exertion (RPE) of 5 to 6 on the 0 to 10 scale equates to what REPE terminology?

Answer 318

Hard

Question 319

What are some considerations when using metabolic equivalients (METs) to measure intensity?

Answer 319

Requires measured VO2 max for most accurate programming; limited in programming by knowledge of METs for given activities; relative MET ranges for programming are population-specific and not individually specific.

Question 320

When using perentage of heart-rate reserve (%HRR), zone 3 would quate to what percentage range?

Answer 320

\>90%

Question 321

On the 6 to 20 RPE scale, what range is associated with training in zone 2?

Answer 321

14 - 17

Question 322

If using percentage of maximal heart rate (%MHR), what percentage range is associated with training in zone 1?

Answer 322

64% - 76%

Question 323

Describe each of the 3 componenets of a cardiorespiratory workout session.

Answer 323

Warm - up: lighter exercise preceding conditioning phase 5 -10 min for healthy adults Conditioning phase: Primary component of a workout, aligned with client goals based on frequency, duration, intensity, and modality. Cool Down: Occurs after the primary workout, 5 - 10 min and has the goal of helping the body return to pre-exercise state removing metabolic waste.

Question 324

The most important factor in cardiorespiratory fitness is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 324

The delivery of blood to the active cells, which is a function of cardiac output.

Question 325

Cardiac output is the product of _______________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. It is the quantity of blood pumped per heartbeat.

Answer 325

Heart Rate Stroke Volume

Question 326

Explain why a person exercising at high altitude will not be able to deliver as much oxygen to the working muscles and will experience a reduction in exercise intensity.

Answer 326

At moderate (5,000-8,000 feet) to high altitudes (8,000-14,000 feet) the relative availability of O2 in the air is reduced. Because there is less pressure to drive the O2 molecules into the blood as it passes through the lungs, the O2 carried in the blood is reduced.

Question 327

What are the differences between sedentary behavior and physical inactivity?

Answer 327

Sedentary behavior refers to too much sitting Physical inactivity signifies too little exercise An individal can be onsidered active according to current physical activity guidelines, but still spend too much time sitting in front of the TV - active couch potato phenomenon.

Question 328

Cardiovascular Adaptations

Answer 328

- Heart muscle hypertrophy - Larger stroke volume - Some evidence suggests that the redistribution of cardiac output to active muscles may improve after training.

Question 329

Muscular Adaptations

Answer 329

- Increased in size and number of mitrochondria - Growth in more capillaries around the recruited muscle fibers - could also be adaptations to contractile mechansim - increase in number of anerobic enzymes - may also be hypertrophy of the contractile proteins within the muscle fiber

Question 330

Respiratory Adaptations

Answer 330

- Both strength and fatigue-resistance of respiratory muscles improve with training - May lead to an increase in tidal volume making ventilation more efficient

Question 331

Explain the phase of the IFT Model Base Training

Answer 331

- Focus is to get clients who are physically inactive/ little cardiorespiratory fitness to begin engaging in regular exercise. - Create positive experiences for clients in order to facilitate program adherence and success. - Stay in Zone 1 - Phase is starting point for deconditioned individuals, but these intensities will continue to be incorporated after progressing beyond Base training to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness.

Question 332

Explain the phase of the IFT Model Fitness Training

Answer 332

- Principal training focus of increasing time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals to improve fitness and health. - Purpose to enhance the client's cardiorespiratory efficiency by increasing duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible, introducing zone 2 intervals - Stay on Zone 1 and intro of Zone 2 intervals - Regular clients in a fitness facility who have goals for improving/ maintaining fitness and health

Question 333

Explain the phase of the IFT Model Performance Training

Answer 333

- focuses on endurance - performance objectives, requires specialized training to ensure adequate training volume/ appropriate training intensity - help the client enhance their cardiorespiratory efficiency to ensure completion of goal events, while building anaerobic capacity to achieve endurance- performance goals. - Utilize all 3 zones - Clients who have endurance - performance objectives

Question 334

What are five strategies to help a client sit less...

Answer 334

- Set a timer to get up and move every 90 minutes - Hold walking meetings - Rely less on email and visit co-workers face to face - walk an additional 10 minutes at lunch.

Question 335

Current guidelines recommended physical activity be performed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,

Answer 335

On most days of the week

Question 336

The most difficult variable of an exercise program to represent quantitatively is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 336

Intensity

Question 337

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a subjective method of measuring exercise intensity.

Answer 337

Rating of percieved exertion

Question 338

If a client can talk comfortably during exercise, they are in zone \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 338

1

Question 339

Green exercise refers to exercise conducted \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 339

In natural environments

Question 340

Exercise __________ is the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially when progressing a program.

Answer 340

Duration

Question 341

The primary emphasis for a personal trainer during Base Training is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 341

Help clients have positive experiences with exercise

Question 342

The fitness training phase involves \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 342

Increasing time of exercise

Question 343

Benefits gained from exercise and physical activity are

Answer 343

Dose Related

Question 344

Breaks from sitting should take place \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 344

Every 60 - 120 minutes

Question 345

What benefits does muscular training offer?

Answer 345

- Increase physical capability, functional movement, reduced injury risk and disease prevention

Question 346

What is Wolff's law?

Answer 346

- Changes in bone structure coincide with bone function - stressful forces that occur in exercise, the skeleton responds by laying down more bone tissue increasing density - bed rest due to illness/ injury results in a loss of bone mineral and becomes less dense.

Question 347

The most common type of joint in the body is the ____________ joint, which is freely moveable.

Answer 347

Synovial

Question 348

What are the planes of motion?

Answer 348

1. Sagittal - divides the bodies right and left halves 2. Transverse - divides the body into superior/ inferior halves 3. Frontal - dividing the body into anterior/ posterior halves

Question 349

The four angular movements defined for synovial joints are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?

Answer 349

- Flexion - Extension - Abduction - Adduction

Question 350

What are the differences between the sympathic and parasympathetic nervous system?

Answer 350

Symathetic nervous system - activates the stressor emergency from sever pain, anger, or fear. "fight" or "flight response Parasympathetic nervous system - aids in controlling normal functions when the body is relaxed aids in digesting, food, storing energy, and promoting growth

Question 351

What's the primary use of the (ankle/ foot) anterior tibialis?

Answer 351

- Dorsiflexion at ankle - inversion at foot

Question 352

What is the primary function of the Ankle/ Foot gastocnemius?

Answer 352

- Plantar flexion at ankle - Eversion at foot

Question 353

What is the primary function of the knee rectus femoris?

Answer 353

- Extension most effective when the hip is extended

Question 354

What is the primary function of the knee biceps femoris?

Answer 354

- Flexion - External Rotation

Question 355

What is the primary function of the hip gluteus maximus?

Answer 355

- Extension External rotation - Superior fibers - Abduction

Question 356

What is the primary function of biceps femoris (Hip)?

Answer 356

- Extension - Abduction - Slight external rotation

Question 357

What is the primary function of rectus abdominis (spine)?

Answer 357

- Flexion of the trunk - Lateral flexion of the trunk

Question 358

What is the primary function of Erector Spinae (Spine)?

Answer 358

- Extension both sides/ lateral flexion of the trunk

Question 359

What is the primary function of shoulder girdle (trapezius)?

Answer 359

- Upper: upward rotation/ elevation of scapula - Middle: upward rotation/ adduction of scapula - Lower: depression of scapula

Question 360

What is the primary function of rhomboid/ major and minor (Shoulder girdle)?

Answer 360

- Adduction - Downward rotation - Elevation of scapula

Question 361

What is the primary function of pectoralis major (Shoulder)?

Answer 361

- Flexion, extension, adduction, internal rotation, horizontal adduction.

Question 362

What is the primary function of deltoid (shoulder)?

Answer 362

Entire muscle: abduction, anterior fibers, flexion, internal rotation, horizontal rotation, Posterior fibers: external rotation/ horizontal abduction

Question 363

What is the primary function of latissimus dorsi (Pectoralis major)?

Answer 363

- Extension, adduction, horizontal abduction, and internal rotation.

Question 364

What is the primary function of biceps brachii (elbow radioulnar joints)?

Answer 364

flexion at elbow supination at forearm

Question 365

What is the primary function of tricepes brachii (elbow/ radioulnar joints)?

Answer 365

- extension at elbow - arm extension (long head)

Question 366

What is the primary function of flexor carpi radialis (wrist)?

Answer 366

Flexion

Question 367

What is the difference between fast twitch and slow twitch muscles?

Answer 367

slow twitch fibers: large amounts of mitochondria, more capillaries higher myoglobin resistant to fatigue and can sustain aerobic metabolism contract more slowly than fast-twitch fibers

Question 368

What are the three main functions of intramuscular fascia (deep fascia)?

Answer 368

- framework for proper alignment of muscle fibers, blood vessels and nerves - enable safe/ effective transmission of forces throughout the whole muscle - provide lubricated surfaces between muscle fibers that allow muscles to change shape during contraction and elongation.

Question 369

Access to the business and operating systems

Question 370

Which of the following are characteristics of Sole Proprietorship? (choose all that apply)

Answer 370

- No formal paperwork - Owned and operated by one person - All financial responsibilities are owner's responsibility

Question 371

True/ False Partnerships can be created without formal paperwork, but you should have legal documents to establish the rules of the operation.

Answer 371

neither partner can implement a decision without the consent of the other

Question 372

Partnerships end when...

Answer 372

Its partners engage in illegal activity A partner dies or becomes bankrupt A partner is deemed to be mentally incapacitated

Question 373

True/ False Corporations are formed and registered in the office of secretary of state (typically the state in which it operates) A person forming a corporation must choose a name that has not previously been registered in that state.

Answer 373

True

Question 374

What does LLC stand for?

Answer 374

Limited Liability Company

Question 375

What is an advantage of Franchise Operation business models? (select all that apply)

Answer 375

Access to national advertising programs and ability to share costs Obtain rights to a recognized brand name Access to the business and operating systems

Question 376

A _____________ act can occur if a trainer fails to act (act of omission) or acts inappropriately (act of commission).

Answer 376

negligent

Question 377

True/ False For trainers who own their own fitness clubs, insurance should be retained that covers potential problems with the facility as well as the instruction and supervision of the trainer.

Answer 377

True

Question 378

What program would you develop for general muscular fitness?

Answer 378

Sets: 1 - 4 Reps: 8 - 15 Rest Inteval 2 - 3 minutes Intensity: 20 - 70% (1 RM)

Question 379

What program would you create for improving muscular endurance?

Answer 379

Sets: 2 - 3 Reps: \>= 12 Rest interval: \<= 30 seconds Intesity: \<= 67% 1RM

Question 380

What kind of program would you create for muscular hypertrophy?

Answer 380

Sets: 3 - 6 Reps: 6 - 12 Rest Interval: 30 - 90 seconds Intensity: 67 - 85% 1RM

Question 381

What kind of a program would you create for greater muscular strength?

Answer 381

Sets: 2 - 6 Reps: \<= 6 Rest Inteval: 2 - 5 min Intensity: \>= 85% 1 RM

Question 382

What kind of program would you create for a power lifter?

Answer 382

Sets: 3 - 5 Reps: 1 - 2 Rest Interval: 2 - 5 minutes Intensity: 80 - 90% 1RM

Question 383

The new client is 47 year old woman who wants to lose weight, but is a bit apprehensive about muscular training because she does not want to "get big". Based on this information what response would BEST facilitate muscular-training program adherence and motivation?

Answer 383

Explain the average adult muscle-tissue loss of 5lb (2.3 kg) per decade, and how resistance training can help her restore lost muscle and raise resting metabolism

Question 384

Which of the following statements about the role of type I muscle fibers during muscular-training exercises is most accurate?

Answer 384

They contract more slowly and create lower force outputs

Question 385

You are working with a new client who wants to begin muscular training in order to build muscular endurance. Which of the following set and repetition combinations would be BEST for helping them achieve that goal?

Answer 385

2 - 3 sets of 12 or more repetitions

Question 386

Anatomical position refers to a person standing erect with head, eyes, and palms facing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 386

Forward

Question 387

Flexion occurs in what plane of motion?

Answer 387

Sagittal

Question 388

Extension is the opposite joint action of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 388

Flexion

Question 389

One property that all muscle tissue has in common is its ability to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 389

Contract

Question 390

Skeletal System

Answer 390

Provides body support, facilitates movement, protects internal organs, stores, minerals, and involves blood cell formation.

Question 391

Nervous System

Answer 391

Brain, spinal cord, sensory organs, nerve tissue, responsible or communitcation/ control within the body

Question 392

Respiratory System

Answer 392

Gas exchange, external/ internal tissues of the body, adapts to exercise performance

Question 393

Cardiovascular System

Answer 393

Transports oxygen, nutrients, homrones removes metabolic waste links internal to external environment

Question 394

Vestibular System

Answer 394

Senses information related to the position of the head in space and coordinates with the central nervous system to produce movment and stabilize the eyes for postural stability.

Question 395

Describe the purpose of functional assessments

Answer 395

To help the personal trainer observe a client's efficacies in posutral stabilitzation, balance, and core function

Question 396

What is the right-angle rule of the body

Answer 396

How the body represents itself in vertical alignment actoss major joints - ankle, knee, hip, shoulder, spine Allows the personal trainer to observe postural deviations in all 3 planes (front to back, left to right)

Question 397

Why should personal trainers focus on obvious, gross imbalances and avoid getting caught up in minor postural asymmetries.

Answer 397

The body is rarely perfectly symmetrical, so overanalyzing asymmetries is time-consuming, potentially intimidating to clients, and may induce muscle fatigue in the client that can alter their posture even further.

Question 398

Anterior tilting of the pelvis frquently occurs in individuals with tight \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 398

Hip flexors

Question 399

An anterior pelvic tilt will increase _______________ in the lumbar spine.

Answer 399

Lordosis

Question 400

List 3 deviations of the thoracic spine and shoulders?

Answer 400

Shoulders not level Asymmetry to midline Protracted (forward, rounded) Medially rotated humerus Kyphosis and depressed chest

Question 401

It is observed that a client's shoulders are not level, it might indicate....

Answer 401

Tightness in the upper trapezius, levator scapulae, and rhomboids

Question 402

If a personal trainer observes that a client has a medially rotated humerus, it might indicate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 402

Tightness in the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis muscles

Question 403

What muscles would you suspect are tight in a client with a forward-head position?

Answer 403

Cervical flexors

Question 404

The _____________ can be used to test a client's static balance.

Answer 404

Unipedal stance test

Question 405

To assess dynamic balance, personal trainers can use the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 405

Y Balance test

Question 406

The Y balance test is performed in ____________ directions.

Answer 406

3

Question 407

McGill suggests that a ratio between flexion and extension should be less than __________ to indicate balanced endurance among the muscle groups.

Answer 407

1.0

Question 408

The Thomas test is used to assess \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 408

Hip flexor length

Question 409

If a client exhibits lumbar dominance in the squat movement, this indicates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 409

A lack of core and gluteal strength

Question 410

The body-weight squat assessment evaluates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 410

Lower-extremity muscular endurance

Question 411

Muscles that Plantarflex the Ankle

Answer 411

- Gastrocnemius - Soleus - Posterior tibialis - Flexor digitorum longus - Flexor hallucis longus - Peroneus longus - Peroneus brevis

Question 412

Muscles that Doresiflex the Ankle

Answer 412

- Anterior tibialis - Extensor digitorum longus - Extensor hallucis longus

Question 413

Muscles that invert the foot

Answer 413

- Anterior tibialis - Flexor digitorum longus - Flexor hallucis longus - Posterior tibialis - Extensor hallucus longus

Question 414

Muscles that Evert the foot

Answer 414

- Peroneus longus - Peroneus brevis - Extensor digitorum longus

Question 415

Muscles the Extend the knee

Answer 415

- Quadriceps Vastus lateralis Vastus medialis Vastus Intermedius Rectus femoris

Question 416

Muscles that Flex the knee

Answer 416

- Hamstrings Biceps femoris Semitendinosus Semimembranosus - Gracilis - Sartorius - Popiliteus - Gastrocnemius

Question 417

Muscles that flex the hip

Answer 417

- Tensor fasciae latae - Pectineus - Sartorius - Illiopsoas Iliacus Psoas major and minor - Rectus femoris

Question 418

Muscles that extend the hip

Answer 418

- Gluteus maximus - Hamstrings Biceps femoris Semimembranosus Semitendinosus

Question 419

Muscles that Abduct the Hip

Answer 419

- Tensor fasciae latae - Gluteus latae - Gluteus medius - Glueteus maximus (superior fibers) - Sartorius

Question 420

Muscles that Adduct the Hip

Answer 420

- Adductor magnus - Adductor longus - Adductor brevis - Pectineus - Semimembranosus - Semitendinosus - Gracilis

Question 421

Muscles that Internally Rotate the Hip

Answer 421

- Semimembranosus - Semitendinosus - Gluteus mimimus - Gluteus medius - Tensor fasciae latae

Question 422

Muscles that Externally Rotate the Hip

Answer 422

- Gluteus maximus - Deep external rotators - Iliopsoas - Pectineus - Sartorius

Question 423

Primary Muscles of the Core

Answer 423

- Transverse abdominis - Multifidi - Quadratus lumborum - Diaphragm - Pelvic floor musculature - Internal oblique (posterior fibers)

Question 424

Muscles that Flex the Spine

Answer 424

- Rectus abdominis - Internal oblique - External oblique

Question 425

Muscles that Laterally Flex the Spine

Answer 425

- Rectus Abdominis - Internal oblique - External oblique - Erector spinae

Question 426

Major Muscles that Rotate the Spine

Answer 426

- Internal oblique Rotation to the same side (ipsilateral) - External oblique Rotation to the opposite side (contralateral)

Question 427

Major Muscles that Act at the Scapula (Shoulder Girdle)

Answer 427

- Trapezius - Rhomboids (major/ minor) - Levator scapulae - Serratus anterior - Pectoralis minor

Question 428

Major Muscles that Act at the Shoulder Joint

Answer 428

- Pectoralis major - Deltoid - Latissimus dorsi - Teres Major - Corcobrachialis - Rotator Cuff Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Teres Minor Subscapularis

Question 429

Muscles that Elevate the Scapula

Answer 429

- Trapezius (upper) - Levator scapulae - Rhomboids (major and minor)

Question 430

Muscles that Depress the Scapula

Answer 430

- Trapezius (lower) - Pectoralis minor)

Question 431

Muscles that Adduct (Retract) the Scapula

Answer 431

- Trapezius - Rhomboids (major and minor)

Question 432

Muscles that Abduct (Protract) the Scapula

Answer 432

- Pectoralis minor - Serratus anterior

Question 433

Muscles that Rotate the Scapula (Upward)

Answer 433

- Trapezius (middle to lower) - Serratus anterior

Question 434

Muscles that Rotate the Scapula (Downward Rotation of the Scapula)

Answer 434

- Rhomboids (major and minor) - Pectoralis minor

Question 435

Muscles that Flex the Shoulder

Answer 435

- Pectoralis major - Deltoid (Anterior) - Corcobrachialis (assists) - Biceps brachii (assists)

Question 436

Muscles that Extend the Shoulder

Answer 436

- Latissimus dorsi - Teres major - Deltoid (posterior) - Subscapularis Triceps brachii (long head)

Question 437

Muscles that Abduct the Shoulder

Answer 437

- Supraspinatus - Deltoid

Question 438

Muscles that Adduct the Shoulder

Answer 438

- Latissimus dorsi - Teres major - Pectoralis major - Subscapularis - Triceps brachii (long head)

Question 439

Muscles that Horizontally Adduct the Shoulder

Answer 439

- Pectoralis major - Deltoid (Anterior) - Coracobrachialis

Question 440

Muslces that Horizontally Abduct the Shoulder

Answer 440

- Latissimus dorsi - Deltoid (posterior) - Infraspinatus - Teres minor - Triceps brachii (long head)

Question 441

Muscles the Externally Rotate the Shoulder

Answer 441

- Deltoid (posterior) - Teres minor - Infraspinatus

Question 442

Muscles that Internally Rotate the Shoulder

Answer 442

- Pectoralis major - Latissimus dorsi - Deltoid (anterior) - Teres major - Subscapularis

Question 443

Muscles that Flex and Extend the Elbow

Answer 443

- Elbow Flexors biceps brachii brachialis brachiordialis - Elbow Extensors Trceps brachii

Question 444

Muscles that Supinate and Pronate the Forearm

Answer 444

- Forearm supinators Supinator Biceps brachi - Forearm Pronator Pronator quadratus Pronator teres

Question 445

Which is NOT considered a benefit of warming up?

Answer 445

Increased bone density

Question 446

Static stretching has been used for long time as part of a warm-up however; there is little evidence, if any, that pre-participation stretching prevents injury or soreness. Ture/ False

Answer 446

True

Question 447

Dynamic stretching is defined as...

Answer 447

a form of stretching beneficial in sports utilizing momentum from form, and the momentum from static-active stretching strength, in an effort to propel the muscle into an extended range of motion not exceeding one's static passive stretching ability

Question 448

What are the 2 different components of warm-up?

Answer 448

General Specific

Question 449

The warm-up should progress gradually and provide sufficienty intensity to increase muscle and core tempertures without causing fatigue or reducing energy stores. True/ False

Answer 449

True

Question 450

What is a specific warm up?

Answer 450

Incorporates movements similar to the movements of the athletes sport. Involves 8-10 minutres of dynamic stretching focusing on moving through the ROM required for that sport.

Question 451

A ___________________ is aimed to increase heart rate, blood flow, deep muscle temperture, respiration rate, and perspiration and to decrease viscosity of joint fluids.

Answer 451

General Warm Up

Question 452

Define flexiblity

Answer 452

A measure of range of motion and has static and dynamic components

Question 453

Which of the following are factors that affect the flexiblity of an individual?

Answer 453

Joint structure Age Gender connective tissue

Question 454

When referring to connective tissue the terms elasticity and plasticity were used. What is the difference between these two terms?

Answer 454

Elasticity is the ability to return to original resting length after a passive stretch. Plasticity is the tnedency to assume a new and greater legnth after a passive stretch.

Question 455

Which of the following contributes to a decrease in flexiblity in older adults?

Answer 455

Older people undergo a processs called fibrosis which is associated with inactivity and a tendency to use less of the available ROM of their joints.

Question 456

Increased muscle size or "bulk" may impede joint movement also resulting in less flexibiltiy for that individual. True/ False

Answer 456

True

Question 457

The types of stretching are:

Answer 457

Static Ballistic Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation Dynamic

Question 458

What is the primary outcome of regular resistance training?

Answer 458

Increase muscle fiber size and contractile strength

Question 459

Having a BMI greater than 25 increases a persons risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and type 2 diabetes? True/ False

Answer 459

True

Question 460

Muscle is metabolically active tissue that is highly responsive to the stimuli of progressive resistance exercise True/ False

Answer 460

True

Question 461

Hold-relax, contract-relax, and hold-relax with agonist contraction are all examples of which type of stretching technique?

Answer 461

PNF Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation Stretching

Question 462

Your client tells you they are "not flexible" and they have never been. What is the most appropriate response you should tell them?

Answer 462

We can incorporate some regular stretching routines at the end of each workout to help you gain more flexibility

Question 463

When developing an exercise program for someone who is new to resistance training, the initial stage should feature exercises with a low intensity. Why is this important?

Answer 463

Some individuals might perceive resistance training as painful and a high level of intesity could scare them away

Question 464

What is overload?

Answer 464

The process of gradually adding more exercise resistance than the muscles have previously encountered.

Question 465

The ability to perform work as exercise is known as

Answer 465

Physical Capacity

Question 466

Which is NOT a benefit of regularly participating in resistance training?

Answer 466

Enhanced knowledge about nutrition

Question 467

What is the typical RMR per day?

Answer 467

1500 calories

Question 468

During sleep, which muscles are responsible for 25% of our body's calorie use?

Answer 468

Skeletal

Question 469

There are two main hormones associated with tissue development. What are they?

Answer 469

Testosterone and growth hormone

Question 470

Training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. True/ False

Answer 470

True

Question 471

For general fitness training goals, what is the recommended rest interval time between successive exercises?

Answer 471

30-90 seconds

Question 472

A client who stops working out will lose strength at about one half of the reate that is is gained. What is this know as?

Answer 472

Reversibility

Question 473

When a client has reached their genetic potential for muscle size and strength it is known as?

Answer 473

Dimishing returns

Question 474

The commonly recommended movement speed for resistance exercises is ________________ seconds per repetition?

Answer 474

6 seconds

Question 475

Why is it important to have a beginner perform an exercise at the recommended movement speed?

Answer 475

They can learn the proper muscles to engage during the movement It can prevent them from injuring themself They are still making motor neuron connections between their brain and body

Question 476

For those individuals who train for muscular strength and power lifting, single rep and multiple rep, the recommended rest interval times are?

Answer 476

2-5 minutes

Question 478

Which of the following