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Practice Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is true?
a. The buffy coat contains only leukocytes and accounts for 2% of the
blood.
b. Erythrocytes account for 55% of the blood.
c. Plasma accounts for 45% of the blood.
d. The buffy coat contains leukocytes and platelets and account for
less than 1% of the blood.
e. None of the above are correct.

A

d. The buffy coat contains leukocytes and platelets and account for
less than 1% of the blood.

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2
Q

Plasma proteins include all of the following except:

a. albumin
b. urea
c. clotting factors
d. anticoagulants
e. globulins

A

b. urea …

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3
Q

The function of red blood cells is to:

a. remove carbon dioxide from active cells
b. carry nutrients from the digestive system to the liver
c. carry oxygen from the lungs to cells
d. a and c are correct.
e. b and c are correct.

A

d. a and c are correct.

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4
Q

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the:

a. bone marrow
b. kidneys
c. liver
d. spleen
e. heart

A

d. spleen …

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5
Q 
Blood that has anti-A antibodies in the plasma and B antigens on the erythrocyte 
would be type: 
a. A 
b. B 
c. B positive 
d. B negative 
e. AB
A

b. B …

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6
Q

If an Rh negative mother has a second fetus with Rh positive blood, then:

a. the mother should be transfused
b. the mother will begin to make Rh positive blood cells
c. anti-Rh antibodies may attack fetal cells
d. the mother should not be given Rh immune globins
e. the mother needs phototherapy

A

c. anti-Rh antibodies may attack fetal cells

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7
Q

Blood cells that become mast cells in the tissue are:

a. eosinophils
b. lymphocytes
c. basophils
d. neutrophils.
e. monocytes

A

c. basophils …

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8
Q 
The following is a list of steps involved in the process of hemostasis and 
clotting: 
1. coagulation 
2. fibrinolysis 
3. vascular spasm 
4. platelet plug formation 
5. clot retraction 
The correct sequence of these steps is:

a. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3,
b. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
c. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
d. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
e. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2

A

d. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

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9
Q

Which of the following statements about heart valves is/are correct?
a. Semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart from veins.
b. AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that they do not
prolapse into the atria.
c. The tricuspid valve separates the right atrium from the right
ventricle
d. b and c are correct.
e. a, b, and c are correct.

A

d. b and c are correct. …

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10
Q 
The myocardium of the \_\_\_\_\_\_ is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ because it generates a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
pressure 
a. right ventricle; thicker; higher 
b. left ventricle; thinner; lower 
c. right ventricle; thinner; higher 
d. left ventricle; thicker; higher
A

d. left ventricle; thicker; higher

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11
Q

An electrocardiogram shows an absence of the P wave. What part of the electrical conduction system is likely affected?

a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Bundle branches
d. Purkinje fibers

A

a. SA node

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12
Q

The blood contained in a ventricle during isovolumetric contraction is:

a. the end-systolic volume
b. the end-diastolic volume
c. the stroke volume
d. the ejection fraction
e. none of these, the ventricle is empty at that time of the cycle

A

b. the end-diastolic volume …

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13
Q

The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the:

a. right coronary artery
b. left coronary artery
c. circumflex artery
d. coronary sinus
e. aorta

A

a. right coronary artery …

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14
Q

All of the following produce an increase in stroke volume except:

a. increased end-diastolic volume
b. increased preload
c. increased contractility
d. increased afterload

A

d. increased afterload …

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15
Q

If the end-diastolic volume is 130 mL, the stroke volume 60 mL and the heart
rate 70 beats /minute, the cardiac output is ___________ and the person is likely
___________.
a. 9100 mL; resting
b. 4200 mL; exercising
c. 4200 mL; resting
d. 9100 mL; exercising

A

c. 4200 mL; resting

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16
Q

A positive ionotrope is an agent that:

a. increases contractility of the myocardium
b. decreases contractility of the myocardium
c. increases heart rate
d. decreases heart rate

A

a. increases contractility of the myocardium

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17
Q 
The sympathetic nervous system can change vessel size by acting on the 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the vessel wall. 
a. elastic tissue of the tunica media 
b. muscle tissue of the tunica interna 
c. muscle tissue of the tunica media 
d. endothelium 
e. tunica externa
A

c. muscle tissue of the tunica media …

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18
Q

Blood flow through a capillary is regulated by the:

a. vasa vasorum
b. capillary plexus
c. precapillary sphincter
d. arterial anastomosis
e. central channel

A

c. precapillary sphincter …

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19
Q

The velocity of blood flow decreases if:

a. vessel radius increases
b. distance from the heart decreases
c. the tissue requires more oxygen
d. viscosity increases

A

d. viscosity increases…

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20
Q

Each of the following changes will result in increased blood pressure, except:

a. increased levels of aldosterone
b. increased levels of angiotensin II
c. increased blood volume
d. increased levels of ADH
e. increased levels of atrial natriuretic factor

A

e. increased levels of atrial natriuretic factor

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21
Q

Which of the following pressures has the strongest effect on reabsorption of
plasma at the venous end of a systemic capillary?
a. blood hydrostatic pressure
b. blood colloid osmotic pressure due to albumin in the blood
c. tissue colloid osmotic pressure due to albumin in the tissue
d. tissue hydrostatic pressure

A

b. blood colloid osmotic pressure due to albumin in the blood …

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22
Q

During increased exercise:

a. vasoconstriction occurs at the active skeletal muscles
b. venous return increases
c. both cardiac output and stroke volume decrease
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

b. venous return increases …

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23
Q

The two common iliac veins form the _____________.

a. femoral vein
b. greater saphenous vein
c. inferior vena cava
d. hepatic portal
e. innominate

A

c. inferior vena cava

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24
Q

The brain receives blood from all of the following vessels except the:

a. basilar
b. vertebral
c. internal carotid
d. internal jugular
e. anterior communicating

A

d. internal jugular …

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25
Q 
Which of the following are lymphatic nodules located in the walls of the 
pharynx? 
a. tonsils 
b. thymus glands 
c. Peyer's patches 
d. lymph nodes
A

a. tonsils

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26
Q

An inflammatory response is initiated when:

a. red blood cells release pyrogens
b. neutrophils phagocytize bacteria
c. blood flow to an area increases
d. mast cells release histamine and serotonin

A

d. mast cells release histamine and serotonin …

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27
Q

What substance is secreted by cells that have been invaded by a virus?

a. complement proteins
b. membrane attack complexes
c. interferons
d. perforins

A

c. interferons

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28
Q

In artificial active immunity, the:

a. immune system attacks normal body cells
b. body is deliberately exposed to an antigen
c. body receives antibodies produced by another person.
d. body develops its own antibodies in response to a bacterial infection

A

b. body is deliberately exposed to an antigen

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29
Q

The major histocompatibility complex (MHC):

a. perforates a pathogen’s cell membrane
b. produces antibodies
c. is present only on antigen-presenting cells
d. is a membrane protein that presents antigens
e. is an antibody found on bacteria that stimulates an immune response

A

d. is a membrane protein that presents antigens …

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30
Q

Helper T cells do all of the following, except:

a. promote B-cell division
b. produce antibodies to fight infection
c. stimulate proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
d. enhance nonspecific defenses

A

b. produce antibodies to fight infection …

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31
Q

Antibodies perform all of the following functions except:

a. kill pathogens directly by perforating the cell with perforins
b. agglutination
c. neutralization
d. complement fixation

A

a. kill pathogens directly by perforating the cell with perforins …

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32
Q

Which of the following statements about the secondary immune response is
false?
a. It involves memory B cells.
b. It results in elevated titers of antibodies sooner than in the primary
response.
c. It generally prevents a person from showing symptoms of the
disease.
d. It can occur even if the second exposure occurs years after the
initial exposure.
e. Antibody levels peak 2 to 3 weeks after the second exposure

A

e. Antibody levels peak 2 to 3 weeks after the second exposure

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33
Q

The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the:

a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. laryngopharynx
d. vestibule
e. internal pharynx

A

b. oropharynx

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34
Q

The structures of the conducting division of the respiratory system that can
regulate the amount of air flow to the alveoli are the:
a. primary bronchi
b. secondary bronchi
c. tertiary bronchi
d. bronchioles
e. terminal bronchioles

A

d. bronchioles …

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35
Q

Which of the following factor(s) act(s) during inspiration?

a. intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure
b. temperature of the air increases as it travels to the lungs
c. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

d. a and b are correct

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36
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the pleurae?

a. to increase the temperature of air entering the lungs
b. to adhere to the rib cage
c. to adhere to lung tissue
d. to regulate the rate of recoil of the lungs

A

a. to increase the temperature of air entering the lungs …

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37
Q

Which of the following would normally have the highest value?

a. tidal volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume
c. expiratory reserve volume
d. vital capacity
e. residual volume

A

d. vital capacity

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38
Q

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is:

a. dissolved in plasma
b. bound to the heme of hemoglobin
c. in ionic form as solute in the plasma
d. bound to the globin of hemoglobin
e. carried by white blood cells

A

b. bound to the heme of hemoglobin …

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39
Q

Falling blood pH would lead to which breathing pattern?

a. increased rate of breathing
b. decreased rate of breathing
c. apnea
d. dyspnea
e. eupnea

A

a. increased rate of breathing …

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40
Q

More oxygen is unloaded from hemoglobin in which of the following situations?

a. an increase in temperature
b. an increase in pH
c. an increase in partial pressure of O2 in the tissue
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

a. an increase in temperature …

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41
Q

Which of these is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in the urine?

a. uric acid
b. urea
c. ammonia
d. creatinine
e. albumin

A

b. urea…

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42
Q

The __________ is the structure that collects the urine just before it enters the

ureter.
a. renal pelvis
b. renal vein
c. renal medulla
d. major collecting duct
e. confluence of collecting ducts

A

a. renal pelvis…

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43
Q

What is the net filtration pressure in the kidney if the blood hydrostatic pressure
is 60 mmHg, the capsular hydrostatic pressure is 20 mmHg, the blood colloid
osmotic pressure is 30 mmHg and the tissue colloid osmotic pressure is zero?
a. 70 mmHg pushing fluid out of the capillary
b. 10 mmHg pushing fluid out of the capillary
c. 0 mmHg
d. 10 mmHg pulling fluid into the capillary
e. 70 mm Hg pulling fluid into the capillary

A

b. 10 mmHg pushing fluid out of the capillary

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44
Q

In response to low blood pressure, the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes
_________, which acts indirectly to _______________.
a. angiotensin II; increase blood pressure
b. renin; increase blood pressure
c. aldosterone; increase sodium reabsorption
d. renin; decrease blood pressure
e. angiotensin II; decrease blood pressure

A

b. renin; increase blood pressure …

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45
Q

ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitors are used to treat high blood

pressure. They are useful because they act directly to:
a. increase aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex
b. increase renin secretion
c. decrease angiotensin II levels
d. increase angiotensin II levels
e. reduce the sensitivity of the juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

c. decrease angiotensin II levels

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46
Q 
The ion that is has the most direct effect on reabsorption of nutrients in the renal 
tubule is: 
a. calcium 
b. hydrogen 
c. sodium 
d. phosphate 
e. bicarbonate
A

c. sodium

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47
Q

. Sodium reabsorption in the collecting duct is increased by:

a. aldosterone
b. atrial natriuretic factor
c. ADH
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

a. aldosterone …

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48
Q

Micturition occurs when the _______________ contracts.

a. detrusor muscle
b. internal urethral sphincter
c. external urethral sphincter
d. muscles of the wall of the ureter
e. a and b are correct

A

a. detrusor muscle

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49
Q

Insensible water loss includes:

a. metabolic water
b. transpiration from skin and lungs
c. water in expired air
d. b and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct.

A

d. b and c are correct …

50
Q

The role of ADH in regulation of water balance includes which of the following?

a. ADH is secreted in response to decreased blood osmolarity.
b. ADH leads to the sensation of thirst.
c. ADH acts at the collecting duct to increase sodium and water
reabsorption.
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

b. ADH leads to the sensation of thirst. …

51
Q

Aldosterone will:

a. increase sodium reabsorption in the collecting duct.
b. promote an increase in blood volume.
c. promote an increase in blood pressure.
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

e. a, b, and c are correct

52
Q

Hypotonic hydration occurs with:

a. aldosterone hypersecretion
b. excess water intake after heavy sweating
c. chronic vomiting or diarrhea
d. excess consumption of diuretics
e. a, b, and c are correct.

A

b. excess water intake after heavy sweating

53
Q 
Deficiency of this ion is a cause of tetany:
a. potassium 
b. sodium 
c. phosphate 
d calcium 
e. chloride
A

d. calcium

54
Q

Which hormone acts to reduce blood calcium levels?

a. parathyroid hormone
b. thyroid hormone
c. calcitonin
d. calcitriol, or vitamin D
e. aldosterone

A

c. calcitonin …

55
Q

The principal determinant of intracellular osmolarity and cellular volume is:

a. protein
b. potassium
c. phosphate
d. sodium
e. chloride

A

b. potassium

56
Q

The most important chemical buffer in plasma is the:

a. protein buffer system
b. phosphate buffer system
c. bicarbonate buffer system
d. ammonia buffer system.

A

a. protein buffer system

57
Q

A person who suffers from chronic diabetes will exhibit signs of:

a. metabolic acidosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. respiratory alkalosis

A

a. metabolic acidosis

58
Q

The greater omentum is:

a. a sheet of connective tissue that attaches the stomach to the liver
b. a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera
c. a major portion of the stomach
d. important in the digestion of fats

A

b. a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera

59
Q

Which cells of the gastric glands release hydrochloric acid?

a. G cells
b. parietal cells
c. chief cells
d. enteroendocrine cells

A

b. parietal cells …

60
Q

Intrinsic factor is needed for:

a. production of acid in the stomach
b. emulsification of fat
c. digestion of protein
d. absorption of vitamin B12

A

c. digestion of protein

61
Q

A liver lobule processes nutrients from the intestine entering via the
___________; blood leaves the liver via the ______________
a. hepatic artery; hepatic portal vein
b. hepatic vein; hepatic portal vein
c. hepatic portal vein; superior mesenteric vein
d. hepatic portal vein; hepatic vein

A

c. hepatic portal vein; superior mesenteric vein …

62
Q

Bile:

a. contains bile salts, cholesterol, and bilirubin
b. is necessary to allow for digestion and absorption of fat
c. is produced by the liver
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

e. a, b, and c are correct

63
Q

The gland or organ that produces enzymes capable of digesting all four major
types of biological molecules is/are the:
a. salivary glands
b. pancreas
c. stomach
d. liver

A

b. pancreas

64
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the small intestine?

a. Absorption of amino acids, fatty acids, and sugars occurs here.
b. Little water is absorbed here.
c. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are digested here.
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

e. a, b, and c are correct…

65
Q

The second part of the small intestine is known as the:

a. jejunum
b. ileum
c. duodenum
d. cecum

A

a. jejunum

66
Q

Regional movements that occur in the small intestine and function to mix the
chyme and bring it into contact with the brush border are called:
a. haustral churning
b. mass movements
c. peristalsis
d. segmentation

A

d. segmentation

67
Q

All of the following statements about villi are correct except:

a. are found in the large intestine
b. contain lacteals
c. increase the surface area for absorption
d. are found in the small intestine

A

a. are found in the large intestine

68
Q

The gastroileal reflex:

a. is responsible for emptying the duodenum
b. promotes gastric secretion
c. decreases peristaltic secretion
d. opens the valve between the ileum and large intestine

A

d. opens the valve between the ileum and large intestine

69
Q

Kim went to a fast-food restaurant and had a cheeseburger and salad for lunch.
As Kim swallowed a bite of her cheeseburger, entry of food into the lower
respiratory passageways was prevented by:
a. C-shaped cartilages in the walls of the airways
b. elevation of the larynx and folding of the epiglottis
c. elevation of the soft palate and raising of the uvula
d. pharyngeal muscle contractions that pushed the bolus into the esophagus

A

b. elevation of the larynx and folding of the epiglottis

70
Q

Kim went to a fast-food restaurant and had a cheeseburger and salad for lunch.
After the bolus of food arrived in the stomach, all of the following occurred
except:
a. mixing waves churned the food
b. secretion of hydrochloric acid increased
c. activity of salivary amylase was enhanced by gastric acid
d. protein digestion was initiated.

A

c. activity of salivary amylase was enhanced by gastric acid …

71
Q

Kim went to a fast-food restaurant and had a cheeseburger and salad for lunch.
In the small intestine, digestion of fat from the cheeseburger:
a. required bile salts to emulsify the fat
b. produced monoglycerides and free fatty acids
c. required pancreatic lipase to catalyze hydrolysis of triglycerides
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct.

A

e. a, b, and c are correct.

72
Q

Kim went to a fast-food restaurant and had a cheeseburger and salad for lunch.
In the small intestine, digestion of the protein of the cheeseburger involved:
a. activation of trypsinogen in the pancreas
b. procarboxypeptidase secretion from the duodenum to activate
trypsinogen
c. enzymes in the brush border of the small intestine.
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

c. enzymes in the brush border of the small intestine. …

73
Q

Kim went to a fast-food restaurant and had a cheeseburger and salad for lunch.
In the small intestine, digestion of the major carbohydrate found in bun involved which of the following?
a. emulsification of glycogen
b. hydrolysis of glycogen, catalyzed by maltase
c. hydrolysis of sucrose, catalyzed by sucrase from the brush border
d. hydrolysis of glycogen to starch, catalyzed by glycogenase.
e. a and b are correct

A

c. hydrolysis of sucrose, catalyzed by sucrase from the brush border …

74
Q

Kim went to a fast-food restaurant and had a cheeseburger and salad for lunch.
Absorption of nutrients from Kim’s meal involved which of the following?
a. absorption of vitamin B12 by simple diffusion.
b. absorption of monosaccharides by facilitated diffusion
c. absorption of triglycerides by simple diffusion
d. absorption of Vitamin C in fat micelles

A

b. absorption of monosaccharides by facilitated diffusion…

75
Q

The most significant digestible polysaccharide in the diet is:

a. glycogen
b. chitin
c. starch
d. fiber
e. maltose

A

c. starch …

76
Q

Transport of triglycerides from the liver to the tissues is the function of:

a. LDL
b. HDL
c. VLDL
d. chylomicrons

A

c. VLDL …

77
Q

Which statement about complete and incomplete proteins is correct?
a. Complete proteins enter the digestive tract and are digested to
incomplete proteins.
b. Complete proteins have all essential amino acids, and incomplete proteins lack at least one essential amino acid.
c. Complete proteins are present in cooked meat, incomplete proteins
are present in raw meat.
d. Complete proteins contain all the essential vitamins, incomplete
proteins lack at least one essential vitamin.

A

b. Complete proteins have all essential amino acids, and incomplete proteins lack at least one essential amino acid.

78
Q 
Which mineral is required for muscle contraction, nerve function, and blood 
clotting? 
a. calcium 
b. sodium 
c. potassium 
d. magnesium 
e. phosphorus
A

a. calcium

79
Q 
Which vitamin is required for the synthesis of visual pigment, and is found in 
orange vegetables? 
a. A 
b. B 
c. C 
d. D 
e. E
A

a. A ….

80
Q

Which of the following is/are a water soluble vitamin?

a. vitamin C
b. folic acid
c. thiamine
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

e. a, b, and c are correct…

81
Q

Which of the following does not describe a group of essential nutrients?

a. all minerals
b. most vitamins
c. 15 of the amino acids
d. 1-3 of the fatty acids

A

c. 15 of the amino acids …

82
Q

This organ is most likely to be affected by hypoglycemia:

a. heart
b. kidneys
c. lungs
d. bones
e. brain

A

e. brain …

83
Q

Which step of cellular respiration produces the largest amount of ATP?

a. glycolysis
b. anaerobic fermentation
c. the matrix reactions, also called the Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle
d. the membrane reactions, or electron transport chain
e. β-oxidation

A

d. the membrane reactions, or electron transport chain…

84
Q

Glycogen degradation occurs:

a. when insulin levels are high
b. when insulin levels are low
c. when glucagon levels are high
d. when glucagon levels are low
e. b and c are correct

A

e. b and c are correct …

85
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a. production of clotting factors
b. storage of glycogen and some vitamins
c. synthesis of gamma globulins
d. metabolism of proteins and urea production
e. detoxification

A

c. synthesis of gamma globulins…

86
Q

A diet high in fats, but low in carbohydrates can lead to:

a. higher rates of cellular respiration
b. ketone body production
c. acidosis
d. b and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct.

A

d. b and c are correct …

87
Q

What is/are possible fate(s) of the amino group from an amino acid?

a. it may be transferred to form another amino acid
b. it may become ammonia
c. it may become part of urea
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

e. a, b, and c are correct

88
Q

During the absorptive, or fed state, glucose is:

a. stored in the liver as glucose
b. converted to glycogen
c. created by gluconeogenesis
d. released from glycogenolysis

A

b. converted to glycogen …

89
Q

The _________ synthesize(s) urea and the _____________ excrete(s) it.

a. heart; liver
b. liver; kidneys
c. kidneys; liver
d. kidneys; bladder
e. muscle; kidneys

A

b. liver; kidneys…

90
Q

The ductus deferens develops from the ______ of the male embryo.

a. mesonephric duct
b. paramesonephric duct
c. phallus
d. labioscrotal folds
e. urogenital folds

A

a. mesonephric duct

91
Q 
Which two structures of the female and male reproductive systems are 
homologous? 
a. clitoris – penis 
b. labia minora – scrotum 
c. labia majora – prepuce 
d. clitoris – testes 
e. ovary - scrotum
A

a. clitoris – penis

92
Q

Descent of the testes is achieved by contraction of a cord called the:

a. gubernaculum
b. spermatic cord
c. ductus deferens
d. pampiniform plexus
e. rete testis

A

a. gubernaculum …

93
Q

Sperm complete the maturation process while they are contained within this

structure:
a. the testis
b. the urethra
c. the prostate
d. the epididymis
e. the seminal vesicles

A

d. the epididymis

94
Q

The gland that surrounds the urethra inferior to the bladder in males is the:

a. seminal vesicle
b. prostate
c. epididymis
d. bulbourethral gland
e. ampulla

A

b. prostate

95
Q 
To regulate the temperature of the testes, which of the following muscles raises 
and lowers the scrotum? 
a. pampiniform plexus of muscles 
b. perineal raphe muscle 
c. dartos muscle 
d. cremaster muscle 
e. vaginalis muscle
A

d. cremaster muscle …

96
Q

An enlargement of this organ will impair both sexual reproduction and bladder emptying (voiding) in males

a. bulbourethral gland
b. seminal vesicle
c. seminiferous tubules
d. ampulla
e. prostate

A

e. prostate

97
Q

In response to ____________ the interstitial cells of the testes produce _______.

a. LH; testosterone
b. LH; ABP
c. FSH; testosterone
d. FSH; ABP
e. FSH; inhibin

A

a. LH; testosterone

98
Q

After meiosis I, what is the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell?

a. diploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid
b. diploid, and each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids
c. haploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid
d. haploid, and each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids.

A

d. haploid, and each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids.

99
Q

This part of the sperm contains enzymes that are used to penetrate the egg.

a. acrosome
b. midpiece
c. nucleus
d. principal piece
e. axoneme

A

a. acrosome

100
Q

The cell that creates the blood-testes barrier is the:

a. sustentacular cell
b. primary spermatocyte
c. secondary spermatocyte
d. interstitial cell
e. spermatogonium

A

a. sustentacular cell …

101
Q

The suspensory ligament in the pelvic region extends from the:
a. base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral wall of the pelvis
b. lateral surface of the uterus to the anterior surface of the sacrum
c. lateral margin of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the base
of the labia majora.
d. body of the uterus to the fundus
e. ovary to the body wall

A

e. ovary to the body wall …

102
Q

The stages of puberty in females follow which order, from beginning to end?

a. thelarche, pubarche, menarche
b. pubarche, menarche, thelarche
c. menarche, thelarche, pubarche
d. menarche, pubarche, thelarche

A

a. thelarche, pubarche, menarche …

103
Q

Which of the following is the inner most layer of the wall of the uterus?

a. perimetrium
b. cervical
c. myometrium
d. epithelium
e. endometrium

A

e. endometrium…

104
Q

Menopause is characterized by all of these except:

a. thinner vaginal walls
b. rising blood cholesterol
c. hot flashes
d. skin thinner
e. lower risk of osteoporosis

A

e. lower risk of osteoporosis

105
Q

On day 17 of a 28-day cycle in a woman:

a. FSH levels are rising
b. progesterone levels are rising
c. the functional layer of the endometrium is sloughed off
d. the uterus is in the proliferative phase

A

b. progesterone levels are rising …

106
Q

Menstruation is triggered directly by a drop in the levels of:

a. FSH
b. LH
c. relaxin
d. progesterone
e. human chorionic gonadotropin

A

d. progesterone

107
Q

Home pregnancy kits detect:

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. FSH
d. HCS, human chorionic somatomammotropin
e. HCG, human chorionic gonadotropin

A

e. HCG, human chorionic gonadotropin …

108
Q 
Which hormone is responsible for the enlargement of the uterus, development of 
the mammary glands, and softening of the pubic symphysis and the sacroiliac 
joints? 
a. estrogen 
b. progesterone 
c. growth factors 
d. human chorionic somatomammortropin 
e. LH
A

a. estrogen …

109
Q

Contraction of the myometrium during labour is induced by which hormone(s)?

a. prostaglandins
b. oxytocin
c. progesterone
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

d. a and b are correct …

110
Q

Which of the following hormones is/are involved with events of lactation?

a. prolactin
b. oxytocin
c. aldosterone
d. both a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct.

A

d. a and b are correct …

111
Q

Which of the following is not true about colostrum?
a. It contains IgA, which confers protection from gastroenteritis.
b. It is more watery than normal breast milk
c. It has one-third more fat than normal breast milk.
d. It is the only natural source of neonate nutrition for the first 2 to 3
days postpartum

A

c. It has one-third more fat than normal breast milk.

112
Q

Fertilization generally occurs in the:

a. uterine tube
b. ovary
c. uterus
d. vagina.
e. cervix

A

a. uterine tube

113
Q

Implantation of the blastocyst into the endometrium begins about:

a. 24 hours after ovulation
b. 6 hours after fertilization
c. 2 days after fertilization
d. 6 days after fertilization.

A

d. 6 days after fertilization. …

114
Q

Which of the following stages of embryonic development is a hollow sphere
formed by a single, outer layer of squamous cells and an inner cell mass?
a. blastocyst
b. embryoblast
c. trophoblast
d. syncytiotrophoblast
e. blastomere

A

a. blastocyst …

115
Q

All organs systems are present and definable by the end of the embryonic period at:

a. the blastocyst stage
b. 8 weeks post-fertilization
c. 12 weeks post-fertilization
d. 16 weeks post-fertilization
e. 20 weeks post-fertilization

A

b. 8 weeks post-fertilization …

116
Q

What is the dominant source of embryonic nutrition 15 weeks post-fertilization?

a. the glycogen glands in the endometrium
b. the trophoblast
c. the placenta
d. the syncytiotrophoblast
e. the cytoplasm of the egg

A

c. the placenta

117
Q 
Which of the following is not a normal part of the transitional period of the 
newborn? 
a. increased body temperature 
b. increased heart rate 
c. increased rate of breathing 
d. decreased body temperature
A

a. increased body temperature

118
Q

Nondisjunction in meiosis produces gametes that have

a. more chromosomes than normal
b. fewer chromosomes than normal
c. no chromosomes at all
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

A

d. a and b are correct …

119
Q 
Incomplete liver development in premature babies can lead to all of the 
following except: 
a. ineffective thermoregulation 
b. hypoproteinuria 
c. lack of clotting factors 
d. edema 
e. jaundice
A

a. ineffective thermoregulation …

120
Q 
What is the most important action a person can take to minimize the effects of 
senescence? 
a. maintain healthy body weight 
b. exercise more 
c. eat a well-balanced diet 
d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

Biology Final (10 decks)

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