Practice Exam Study Flashcards

1
Q

Which activity is last under closing?

A

Customer satisfaction survey

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2
Q

Explain “finish-to-finish”

A

Finish to Finish is when the completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.

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3
Q

The confidence range for Budgetary estimates is ________

A

-10% to +25%

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4
Q

What is the OSCAR model and which domain is it used in?

A

The Outcome Situation Choices Actions and Review (OSCAR) model is a situational leadership model used to support team members who want to excel in their career and are seeking guidance. It’s used in the Team & Project work Domain.

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5
Q

What is the Salience model and which domain is it used in?

A

This model identifies stakeholders on 3 points: power to influence, stakeholder’s (legit) relationship with the project and stakeholders desire to engage with the project.

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6
Q

What does it mean to “crash” a task?

A

Accelerating tasks on the project’s critical path with the least amount of addn cost.

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7
Q

T/F: Fast tracking activities increases risk

A

T

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8
Q

Review business analyst roles in a project

A
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9
Q

T/F: Business analysts are heavily involved in the project scope.

A

T. They are involved in requirements elicitation, building the scope & monitoring any changes to it

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10
Q

Agile principles: Self organizing vs self directed

A

Self-organizing is the team’s ability to manage their own workload and make decisions without needing constant oversight from a manager or leader. Self directed is the ability of the team to complete the work without managerial supervision.

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11
Q

MOU’s, contracts and letters of intent are all types of _____ that go into a project charter.

A

Agreements

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12
Q

Describe Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)

A

It’s an agile project framework that focuses on iterative development, continuous communication, customer feedback and uses MoSCoW for prioritization.

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13
Q

Epics are used when the user story is too (large/small).

A

Large

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14
Q

The scope management plan is an output of which process?

A

The planning scope management process

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15
Q

What should be done when a risk that wasn’t planned for is identified during project execution?

A

Additional risk response planning

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16
Q

Which artifacts are the business analysts responsibility to create?

A

Stakeholder communication plan
Business case
Acceptance criteria
Documenting requirements

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17
Q

What part of the project process are assumptions heavily involved?

A

The planning process

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18
Q

What document contains information on a project’s overall risk exposure, response strategies and list of major project risks?

A

The risk register

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19
Q

What items are typically depicted on a RAM (Responsibility Assignment Matrix)?

A

Tasks
Resources
Task assignments

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20
Q

T/F: Scrum is best suited for smaller teams & projects

A

T

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21
Q

Which agile methodology is focused on incremental builds and customer focused enterprise design?

A

Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe)

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22
Q

Power/interest grid vs power/influence grid

A

pwr/inf grid is based on stakeholder authority and project involvement

pwr/int grid is based on stakeholder authority and concern on project outcomes

23
Q

T/F: Project deliverable verification is done internally

A

T

24
Q

T/F: Project managers are involved in the deliverable verification process

A

F. They facilitate the verification process but are not involved in the process themselves

25
Q

What are the 7 steps of Drexler/Sibbet’s team performance model?

A
  1. Orientation - reason for project (why)
  2. Trust building - project team (who)
  3. Goal clarification - teams learns more about project assumptions and expectations (what)
  4. Commitment - plans are created (how)
  5. Implementation
  6. High performance
  7. Renewal
26
Q

What are the 4 stages of the elicitation process?

A

Intro - set & share expectations
Body - Q&A
Close - Complete tasks
Follow -up - Confirm & share data

27
Q

What is the DEEP acronym mean & when is it used?

A

Detailed appropriately, estimated, emergent, prioritized

It’s used for refinement of the product backlog

28
Q

Which methodology focuses on extending singular scrum principles across multiple development teams?

A

Large Scale Scrum (LeSS)

29
Q

What are the inputs for the change control process?

A

Assumptions
Requested changes
Project management plan

30
Q

Which tools are good to use when interviewing stakeholders?

A

Expert judgement
Stakeholder analysis

31
Q

What is a monte carlos analysis?

A

A schedule analysis technique that uses risks and uncertainty to calculate possible schedule outcomes

32
Q

Which technique is used when obtaining formal acceptance of project deliverables?

A

Inspection (of the deliverables)

33
Q

Describe an information radiator & provide an example.

A

An information radiator displays info where everyone can see it. EX: Kanban board

34
Q

Describe a “work package”.

A

It’s the lowest level of a WBS

35
Q

What is disciplined agile?

A

An agile methodology that allows orgs to tailor agile principles to their needs. It focuses on the customer, simplicity and continuous improvement. It can also be scaled to the enterprise level.

36
Q

The critical path is the project path with the ____ duration.

A

Longest

37
Q

What is risk data quality assessment?

A

Determining how valuable data is to risk management

38
Q

T/F: The product owner & product manager are the most influential when it comes to establishing project priorities.

A

T

39
Q

What are the five techniques to conflict resolution?

A

Withdraw/avoid
Smooth/accommodate
Compromise/reconcile
Force/direct
Collaborate/problem solve

40
Q

T/F: The project charter contains project details.

A

F. The charter contains only high level requirements, not any details

41
Q

How is a quantitative risk analysis performed?

A

Determining the impact in project tasks and assigning numerical value to a list of prioritized risks.

42
Q

T/F: All the “plans” (ie. scope management, schedule management, etc) are part of the project management plan

A

T

43
Q

What should the project scope statement include?

A

Project scope description
Acceptance criteria
Project deliverables
Project exclusions

44
Q

What are the inputs to a solution release decision?

A

Transition plan
Approved requirements
Readiness assessment

45
Q

What are the communication models?

A

Cross-cultural communication
Effectiveness of communication channels
Gulf of execution and evaluation

46
Q

What are the change models?

A

Managing change in organizations
ADKAR
8-step process for leading change
Transition

47
Q

What are the inputs to the plan resource management?

A

Project charter
Project management plan
Project documents
Enterprise env factors
Org process assets
Requirement documentation
Stakeholder register

48
Q

What are some methods and artifacts used while collecting requirements?

A

Expert judgement
data analysis
data gathering techniques
decision-making techniques
data representation techniques

49
Q

What elements are included in a product roadmap?

A

Product vision
Success metrics
Milestones/timelines
Product strategy
interdependencies
market climate
release breakdown
Features & functionality

50
Q

The project _____ should sign and approve the project charter.

A

Sponsor

51
Q

What are the inputs to the acceptance criteria creation process?

A

aNALYSIS MODELS
Solution evaluation
Requirements

52
Q

Describe “code of accounts”.

A

Unique identifiers used for work packages in a WBS. Usually contained in the dictionary

53
Q

T/F: Only the project manager creates a RACI

A

T

54
Q

Define project scheduling “lag”

A

Lag is aa delay in an activity start or finish date due to relative to the preceding activities start or finish date