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Anatomy and Physiology > Practice Exam > Flashcards

Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

How would you describe the position of point ‘b’ in “diagrams Z[left] and Z[right]”?

(a) Medial to ‘a’.
(b) Posterior to ‘c’.
(c) Lateral to ‘e’.
(d) Inferior to ‘f’.
(e) Deep to ‘e’.

A

(b) Posterior to ‘c’

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2
Q

Which of the following anatomical terms are opposites of one another?

(a) Distal, Inferior.
(b) Proximal, Distal.
(c) Superior, Posterior.
(d) Anterior, Superior.
(e) Medial, Anterior

A

(b) Proximal, Distal.

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3
Q

Which organ from the list below is located in the thoracic cavity?

(a) Heart.
(b) Stomach.
(c) Liver.
(d) Kidneys.
(e) Bladder.

A

(a) Heart.

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4
Q

Which of the following descriptions is not a characteristic of the anatomical position?

(a) Feet close together.
(b) Thumbs pointing laterally.
(c) Palms facing away from the viewer.
(d) Face orientated towards the viewer.
(e) Standing upright.

A

(c) Palms facing away from the viewer.

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5
Q 
John, a 35-year old male, visits a health professional and complains of persistent pain in his 
pectoral region. What body region would the health professional examine to find the cause of 
this pain? 
(a) Chest.
(b) Leg.
(c) Neck.
(d) Palm of the hand.
(e) Sole of the foot.
A

(a) Chest.

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6
Q

Which of the following spinal regions connects to the ribs?

(a) Thoracic.
(b) Lumbar.
(c) Cervical.
(d) Sacral.
(e) Coxal.

A

(a) Thoracic.

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7
Q 
Select the option which correctly completes the following scenario. You are a coach of a team of cyclists. During a road cycling training exercise, one of your cyclists is involved in an accident with a car. Despite wearing a helmet, there is a wound visible in the inferior and posterior aspect of her head (as indicated by the arrows in the adjacent figure). Since you have an excellent understanding of human anatomy, you are concerned that the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may have been damaged
by the impact. 
(a) temporal bone / cerebellum.
(b) occipital bone / cerebellum. 
(c) parietal bone / hypothalamus.
(d) parietal bone / cerebellum.
(e) temporal bone / thalamus.
A

(b) occipital bone / cerebellum.

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8
Q

An orthopaedic surgeon explains to an injured rugby league player that the reason they are experiencing pain when walking is because the lateral meniscus associated with their left knee joint has been damaged by a heavy tackle. Which of the following statements best describes the
lateral meniscus?
(a) The hyaline cartilage lining found on the superior surface of the tibia where it articulates
with the femur.
(b) A fluid filled sac which reduces friction associated with movement of the quadriceps
tendon across the knee joint.
(c) A spherical knob that fits into a deep depression in the adjacent bone.
(d) A crescent-shaped band of fibrocartilage that rests upon the lateral condyle of the tibia.
(e) A strip of dense fibrous connective tissue, external to the knee joint capsule, which links
the tibia to the femur.

A

(d) A crescent-shaped band of fibrocartilage that rests upon the lateral condyle of the tibia.

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9
Q

Imagine you are an expert in the identification of human skeletal remains and you are assisting the police in the collection of evidence at a crime scene. You recover several individual human bones and immediately separate these bones into two groups; (1) those of the axial skeleton and

(2) those of the appendicular skeleton. Which of the following are bones of the appendicular skeleton?
1. Cervical vertebrae.
2. Temporal bones.
3. Clavicle.
4. Coccyx.
5. Fibula.
6. Maxillae.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5.
(b) 3 and 5.
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 6.
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 6.
(e) 2, 3 and 4.

A

(b) 3 and 5.

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10
Q 
Which of the following terms describe joints of the skeleton which are not capable of any 
movement?
(a) Epiphyses.
(b) Karyokearthroses.
(c) Synarthroses.
(d) Amphiarthroses.
(e) Diarthroses.
A

(c) Synarthroses.

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11
Q

After a very energetic game of squash, one of the players experiences shoulder joint pain when
attempting to raise their right upper limb laterally to a horizontal position (as you would need to
do if forming the shape of the letter “T”). What is the name of the joint movement this player is
having difficulty performing?
(a) Pronation.
(b) Circumduction.
(c) Flexion.
(d) Abduction.
(e) Adduction.

A

(d) Abduction.

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12
Q

Which of the following options correctly describe the featureindicated on this bone?

(a) It is called the lateral epicondyle.
(b) It provides an attachment point for muscles of the thigh.
(c) It is called the greater tubercle.
(d) It provides an attachment point for the iliofemoral ligament.
(e) It is found in the forearm.

A

(c) It is called the greater tubercle.

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13
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. The prominent, upper edge of the cox bone is known as the ______________

(a) sacroiliac joint.
(b) acetabulum.
(c) ischium.
(d) iliac crest.
(e) pubis.

A

(d) iliac crest.

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes smooth muscle?

(a) Non-striated & voluntary.
(b) Non-striated & involuntary.
(c) Striated & voluntary.
(d) Striated & involuntary.
(e) Contracts in response to autonomic motor signals.

A

(b) Non-striated & involuntary.

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15
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. Upon reaching a skeletal muscle cell, a motor neurone impulse initiates a chain of events that result in the sliding of actin & myosin filaments in the _________.

(a) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(b) sarcolemma.
(c) perimysium.
(d) intercalated discs.
(e) sarcomeres.

A

(e) sarcomeres.

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16
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. The ability of a muscle to respond to stimuli is the behavioural characteristic known as _________

(a) extensibility.
(b) elasticity.
(c) irritability.
(d) contractility.
(e) plasticity.

A

(c) irritability.

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17
Q

You have been asked to perform an analysis of muscle function in a champion netball player. In particular, you will assess the force generated in the muscle that acts as the prime mover when the player stands on their toes to shoot a penalty goal. Which muscle would you analyse?

(a) Gastrocnemius.
(b) Biceps femoris.
(c) Tibialis anterior.
(d) Gluteus maximus.
(e) Vastus medialis.

A

(a) Gastrocnemius.

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18
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. The name of a muscle can indicate all of the following features except the __________

(a) origin point of the muscle.
(b) size of the muscle.
(c) action of the muscle.
(d) number of nerves that innervate the muscle.
(e) region of the body where the muscle is found.

A

(d) number of nerves that innervate the muscle.

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19
Q

A victim of an industrial accident has suffered damage to the motor roots of a spinal nerve.
Which of the following options is the most likely consequence of this injury?
(a) A loss of motor function in the area innervated by the spinal nerve.
(b) No effect from the injury.
(c) A loss of only sympathetic motor function.
(d) A loss of both sensory and motor functions in the area innervated by the spinal nerve.
(e) A loss of sensory reception in the area innervated by the spinal nerve.

A

(a) A loss of motor function in the area innervated by the spinal nerve.

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20
Q

Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease where the insulating linings of neurones in the brain and spinal cord are damaged. What is the name of the cell type responsible for lining neurones in the brain and spinal cord with myelin?

(a) Microglial cell.
(b) Astrocyte.
(c) Schwann cell.
(d) Oligodendrocyte.
(e) Satellite cell.

A

(d) Oligodendrocyte.

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21
Q

Which layer of the meninges is in direct contact with the brain?

(a) Dura mater.
(b) Alma mater.
(c) Pia mater.
(d) Arachnoid mater.
(e) Cranial mater.

A

(c) Pia mater.

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22
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system stimulates all of the following responses except __________

(a) dilation of the pupils.
(b) an increase in heart rate.
(c) copious sweating.
(d) an increase in metabolic rate.
(e) increase in activity of the stomach.

A

(e) increase in activity of the stomach.

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23
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. Each curved, raised area of the brain is called a __________

(a) sulcus.
(b) gyrus.
(c) lobe.
(d) ganglion.
(e) root.

A

(b) gyrus.

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24
Q

In what order must sensory impulses pass through the following structures to make us consciously aware that the skin on our foot has been touched?

  1. Somatosensory cortex.
  2. Spinal cord.
  3. Thalamus.
  4. Peripheral nerve.

(a) 4, 2, 1 and 3.
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4.
(c) 1, 4, 2 and 3.
(d) 3, 1, 2 and 4.
(e) 4, 2, 3 and 1.

A

(e) 4, 2, 3 and 1.

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25
Q

Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive system?

(a) Ileum.
(b) Oesophagus.
(c) Transverse colon.
(d) Liver.
(e) Small intestine.

A

(d) Liver

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26
Q

What is the anatomical / physiological term used to describe the chewing of food?

(a) Mastication.
(b) Bolus dissolution.
(c) Deglutition.
(d) Peristalsis.
(e) Munching.

A

(a) Mastication.

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27
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the layers of the walls of the digestive tract, starting from the innermost layer?

(a) Submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis externa.
(b) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa.
(c) Serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis externa.
(d) Mucosa, serosa, submucosa, muscularis externa.
(e) Muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, submucosa.

A

(b) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa.

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28
Q

How many pairs of extrinsic salivary glands empty into the oral cavity?

(a) 2.
(b) 3.
(c) 4.
(d) 5.
(e) 6.

A

(b) 3.

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29
Q

Which of the following digestive functions are affected by the exocrine secretions of the pancreas?

(a) Digestion of fats.
(b) Neutralisation of chyme.
(c) Digestion of carbohydrates.
(d) Digestion of proteins.
(e) All of the above are affected by the exocrine secretions of the pancreas.

A

(e) All of the above are affected by the exocrine secretions of the pancreas

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30
Q

Which of the following is/are major functions of the small intestine?

  1. Converting ingested food into a liquid called chyme.
  2. Conversion of food into a paste-like bolus.
  3. Removal of water from indigestible food waste.
  4. Absorption of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates into the blood.

(a) Only 1.
(b) Only 2.
(c) Only 4.
(d) 2 and 4 only.
(e) 3 and 4 only.

A

(c) Only 4.

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31
Q

If a patient with bowel cancer had a portion of their ascending colon removed, which digestive
processes would be most affected?
(a) Gastric juice secretion & protein digestion.
(b) Enzymatic digestion of food molecules & nutrient absorption.
(c) Water absorption & waste removal.
(d) Protein digestion & neutralisation of stomach acid.
(e) Production of bile & digestive enzymes.

A

(c) Water absorption & waste removal.

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32
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

An obstruction in the common bile duct caused by a tumour would be most likely to cause a reduced ability to digest ____________ in the small intestine.

(a) minerals.
(b) proteins.
(c) carbohydrates.
(d) fats.
(e) simple sugars.

A

(d) fats.

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33
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The three segments of the small intestine, beginning with the segment closest to the stomach are the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
(a) ileum, jejunum, and cecum.
(b) duodenum, jejunum and ileum.
(c) cecum, colon and ileum.
(d) jejunum, ileum and duodenum.
(e) ileum, duodenum and jejunum.
A

(b) duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

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34
Q

Given these structures of the large intestine:

  1. Rectum.
  2. Descending colon.
  3. Caecum.
  4. Transverse colon.
  5. Sigmoid colon.

Choose the arrangement below that correctly lists the order waste food / faeces would pass through as it progresses from the small intestine to the anus.

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
(b) 4, 2, 1, 5 and 3.
(c) 2, 5, 1, 3 and 4.
(d) 3, 4, 2, 5 and 1.
(e) 3, 1, 5, 2 and 4.

A

(d) 3, 4, 2, 5 and 1.

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35
Q

Which type of epithelium lines the urinary bladder?

(a) Stratified squamous epithelium.
(b) Simple columnar epithelium.
(c) Simple cuboidal epithelium.
(d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
(e) Transitional epithelium.

A

(e) Transitional epithelium.

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36
Q

What is the name of the region of the kidney indicated by thearrow?

(a) Renal capsule.
(b) Renal cortex.
(c) Renal pyramids.
(d) Renal medulla.
(e) Tunica externa.

A

(b) Renal cortex.

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37
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts on which of the following?

(a) Renal corpuscle.
(b) Glomerulus.
(c) Collecting duct and distal convoluted tubule.
(d) Loop of Henle.
(e) Proximal convoluted tubule.

A

(c) Collecting duct and distal convoluted tubule.

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38
Q

Using the following list of the microscopic parts of a nephron and associated structures, which answer indicates the correct order through which fluid passes?

  1. Collecting duct.
  2. Glomerulus.
  3. Proximal convoluted tubule.
  4. Distal convoluted tubule.
  5. Ascending limb of loop of Henle.
  6. Descending limb of loop of Henle.

(a) 5, 2, 1, 6, 4 and 3.
(b) 5, 6, 2, 1, 3 and 4.
(c) 5, 4, 1, 6, 2 and 3.
(d) 2, 3, 6, 5, 4 and 1.
(e) 3, 2, 1, 4, 6 and 5.

A

(d) 2, 3, 6, 5, 4 and 1.

39
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located between the _____________

(a) right and left ventricles.
(b) left atrium and left ventricle.
(c) left and right atria.
(d) left ventricle and the aorta.
(e) right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

A

(b) left atrium and left ventricle.

40
Q

Which of the following is composed of a double-layered membrane which surrounds the heart?

(a) Epimysium.
(b) Myocardium.
(c) Endomysium.
(d) Pericardium.
(e) Endothelium.

A

(d) Pericardium.

41
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

A man visits his doctor to check his blood pressure and obtains a reading of 120/80mmHg. The lower of these two values is
obtained when the _________
(a) ventricles contract.
(b) ventricles are relaxed.
(c) blood is in the process of being pumped into the aorta.
(d) semilunar valves are open.
(e) AV valves are closed.

A

(b) ventricles are relaxed.

42
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The wall of the right ventricle of the heart is thinner than the left ventricle wall because it _____

(a) holds less blood than the left ventricle.
(b) contracts at a slower rate than the left ventricle.
(c) ejects a smaller volume of blood than the left ventricle each time it contracts.
(d) only needs to generate sufficient force to pump blood to the head and upper limbs.
(e) only needs to generate sufficient force to pump blood to the lungs.

A

(e) only needs to generate sufficient force to pump blood to the lungs.

43
Q

Which of the following vessels contain deoxygenated blood?

  1. Coronary sinus.
  2. Inferior vena cava.
  3. Pulmonary veins.
  4. Pulmonary arteries.
  5. Left common iliac artery.
  6. Coeliac trunk.

(a) 3, 5 and 6 only.
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only.
(c) 5 and 6 only.
(d) 4, 5 and 6 only.
(e) 1, 2 and 4 only.

A

(e) 1, 2 and 4 only.

44
Q 
Which feature in the adjacent electrocardiogram (ECG) is 
indicated by the arrow?
(a) QRS complex.
(b) Q wave.
(c) T wave.
(d) SA wave.
(e) P wave.
A

(e) P wave.

45
Q

Imagine you are performing an analysis of cardiac function in a test subject. The subjects’ heart rate is 50 beats/min. You determine that during each cardiac cycle, 100 ml of blood is ejected from his left ventricle. How much blood is ejected into his systemic circulation per minute?

(a) 500 ml.
(b) 100 ml.
(c) 50 ml.
(d) 5,000 ml.
(e) 2,500 ml.

A

(d) 5,000 ml.

46
Q 
Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right atrium when the right ventricle 
contracts?
(a) Tricuspid.
(b) Aortic semilunar.
(c) Bicuspid.
(d) Pulmonary semilunar.
(e) Mitral.
A

(a) Tricuspid.

47
Q

Which blood vessel is indicated by the arrow in the adjacent image? Note: anterior view of organ is shown.

(a) Superior vena cava.
(b) Aorta.
(c) Pulmonary trunk.
(d) Inferior vena cava.
(e) Coronary artery.

A

(d) Inferior vena cava.

48
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. In one cardiac cycle _____.

(a) the right atrium and right ventricle contract at exactly the same time.
(b) atrial contraction is normally initiated by depolarization of the AV node.
(c) the AV valves are forced open by ventricular contraction.
(d) the ventricles are contracting when the two atria are relaxed.
(e) atrial relaxation is initiated by depolarisation of the SA node

A

(d) the ventricles are contracting when the two atria are relaxed.

49
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

After passing through the blood vessel indicated by the arrow, the next heart valve blood would pass through is the ________ valve.

(a) bicuspid (mitral).
(b) aortic semilunar.
(c) pyloric.
(d) tricuspid.
(e) pulmonary semilunar.

A

(a) bicuspid (mitral).

50
Q

Which event is indicated by the arrow in the adjacentimage of an ECG?

(a) Ventricular repolarisation.
(b) Atrial depolarisation.
(c) Atrial repolarisation.
(d) Ventricular depolarisation.
(e) Atrial fibrillation.

A

(a) Ventricular repolarisation.

51
Q

Which of the following respiratory system structures has the smallest internal diameter?

(a) Trachea.
(b) Primary bronchi.
(c) Bronchiole.
(d) Tertiary bronchi.
(e) Secondary bronchi.

A

(c) Bronchiole.

52
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The process by which air is continuously moved into and out of the lungs is ________________

(a) pulmonary ventilation.
(b) external respiration.
(c) respiratory gas transport.
(d) internal respiration.
(e) sinus arrythmia.

A

(a) pulmonary ventilation.

53
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The epiglottis is important for ________.

(a) opening the respiratory tract during swallowing.
(b) preventing entry of food and fluid into the larynx.
(c) warming and humidifying inhaled air.
(d) production of mucus.
(e) both of the reasons described in options (a) and (c) are correct.

A

(b) preventing entry of food and fluid into the larynx.

54
Q

What is the name of the structure indicated in the adjacent figure?

(a) Trachea.
(b) Bronchiole.
(c) Primary bronchus.
(d) Larynx.
(e) Secondary bronchus.

A

(d) Larynx

55
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The total amount of air that can be forced out of a person’s lungs in a 1 second interval is known as the __________ and can be used to estimate _______________.

(a) vital capacity / residual volume.
(b) tidal volume / airway resistance.
(c) vital capacity / breathing rate (breaths per min).
(d) FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in one [1] second) / airway resistance.
(e) FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in one [1] second) / breathing rate (breaths per min).

A

(d) FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in one [1] second) / airway resistance.

56
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The anatomical structure(s) found at the specific region of the respiratory tract indicated in the adjacent figure
________.
(a) is responsible for enabling speech/voice.
(b) is located inferior to the larynx.
(c) is called the palatine tonsil.
(d) is called the uvula.
(e) can close off the entry of air into the oesophagus

A

(a) is responsible for enabling speech/voice.

57
Q

Which of the following statements relating to the pleural membranes surrounding the lungs is correct?

(a) The pleural membranes are located in the abdominal cavity.
(b) The pressure between the visceral and parietal layers of the pleural membrane is always greater than atmospheric pressure.
(c) Pleural fluid is secreted by type II alveolar cells.
(d) The pressure between the visceral and parietal pleura is termed the transpulmonary pressure.
(e) None of the above statements are correct

A

(e) None of the above statements are correct

58
Q

The graphs above show the forced vital capacity (FVC) of two individuals. Which statement relating to these graphs is correct?

(a) From the graphs above it is possible to determine the tidal volumes of each patient.
(b) The residual volume of Patient B is less than that of Patient A.
(c) Patient A has a higher level of airway resistance than Patient B.
(d) Patient A has a higher forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) than Patient B.
(e) None of the above statements are correct.

A

(d) Patient A has a higher forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) than Patient B.

59
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs by which of the following processes:

  1. Diffusion.
  2. Filtration.
  3. Osmosis.
  4. Active transport mechanisms

(a) 1 only.
(b) 2 only.
(c) 2 and 3 only.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only.
(e) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

A

(a) 1 only.

60
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The receptors that monitor cerebrospinal fluid pH to detect excess carbon dioxide levels in the body are 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
(a) stretch receptors.
(b) proprioceptors.
(c) mechanoreceptors.
(d) peripheral chemoreceptors.
(e) central chemoreceptors
A

(e) central chemoreceptors

61
Q

You have been asked to assist with the diagnosis of a suspected respiratory disorder. As part of your investigation, you obtain the following readings:

  1. Tidal volume = 0.8 litres.
  2. Residual volume = 1.7 litres.
  3. Inspiratory reserve volume = 2.7 litres.
  4. Expiratory reserve volume = 1.6 litres.
  5. Breathing rate = 12 breaths per minute.

Based on the above readings, what is the vital capacity for this individual?

(a) 5.1 litres.
(b) 6.8 litres.
(c) 9.6 litres.
(d) 4.3 litres.
(e) 4.4 litres.

A

(a) 5.1 litres.

62
Q

Which endocrine gland is responsible for controlling body temperature?

(a) Hypothalamus.
(b) Thymus
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Pineal gland
(e) Thyroid gland

A

(a) Hypothalamus.

63
Q

Which of the following statements relating to the adjacent figure is incorrect?

(a) Structure A is part of the brainstem.
(b) The anterior lobe of organ B is composed of epithelial tissue.
(c) Growth hormone is produced by organ B.
(d) Structure A is called the hypothalamus.
(e) ADH is released by the posterior lobe of organ B.

A

a) Structure A is part of the brainstem

64
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the pancreas is incorrect?

(a) It produces fluids that assist digestion.
(b) It is located medial to the spleen.
(c) It produces glucagon that lowers blood glucose levels.
(d) It contains ducts that empty exocrine secretions into the duodenum.
(e) It produces insulin from beta cells.

A

(c) It produces glucagon that lowers blood glucose levels.

65
Q

Which activity (or event) would directly result in a decrease in the levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the blood?

(a) Eating a large slice of very sweet chocolate cake.
(b) Removing one of the testes in an adult male during surgery for testicular cancer.
(c) Not drinking any water for several hours.
(d) Not eating any food for several hours.
(e) Drinking 3 large glasses of water.

A

(e) Drinking 3 large glasses of water.

66
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

The testes are to the male reproductive system as the _______ is / are to the female reproductive system.

(a) scrotum.
(b) endometrium.
(c) prostate.
(d) ovaries.
(e) fallopian / uterine tubes

A

(d) ovaries.

67
Q

Which of the anatomical structures below is the site where fertilisation normally occurs?

(a) The cervix.
(b) The endometrium.
(c) The fallopian (uterine) tubes.
(d) The vulva.
(e) The vagina.

A

(c) The fallopian (uterine) tubes

68
Q

What is the name of the anatomical structure(s) where spermatozoa are produced?

(a) Seminiferous tubules.
(b) Urethra.
(c) Epididymis.
(d) Vas deferens.
(e) Ejaculatory duct.

A

(a) Seminiferous tubules.

69
Q

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.

Fluctuation in the levels of the hormone(s) _________ prepares the uterine wall lining for implantation of an embryo.

(a) oestrogen and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
(b) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH).
(c) oxytocin and progesterone.
(d) oestrogen and progesterone.
(e) progesterone and luteinising hormone (LH).

A

(d) oestrogen and progesterone.

70
Q

What is the region of this organ indicated by the arrow? figure is the ________

(a) The cervix.
(b) The isthmus.
(c) The pylorus.
(d) The fundus.
(e) The body

A

(d) The fundus.

71
Q

Spermatozoa would pass through which sequence of structures / organs in the male reproductive system before exiting the body?

  1. Urethra.
  2. Vas deferens.
  3. Epididymis.
  4. Ejaculatory duct.

(a) 2, 4, 3 and 1.
(b) 4, 1, 2 and 3.
(c) 1, 4, 2 and 3.
(d) 3, 2, 4 and 1.
(e) 3, 4, 2 and 1.

A

(d) 3, 2, 4 and 1.

72
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

(a) Transport of dietary fats.
(b) Defence of the body against viruses.
(c) Drainage of interstitial fluid.
(d) Defence of the body against bacteria.
(e) None. All of the above are functions of the lymphatic system.

A

e) None. All of the above are functions of the lymphatic system.

73
Q

What is the regional term used to describe the cluster of lymph nodes
indicated by the arrow in the adjacent figure?
(a) Cervical.
(b) Inguinal.
(c) Palatine.
(d) Mastoid.
(e) Axillary.

A

(e) Axillary.

74
Q

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement.

Goosebumps are a consequence of _______

(a) secretion of oil from sebaceous glands.
(b) blockage of hair follicles.
(c) contraction of dermal papillae.
(d) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
(e) secretion of sweat.

A

(d) contraction of arrector pili muscles.

75
Q

When attempting to describe the location of the trachea, a medical student states “the trachea
is located below the larynx”. The doctor instructing the class then requests that the student
repeat their answer, but use only the correct anatomical, directional terminology. The student
corrects their answer and states “The trachea is located ________ to the larynx”.

A

INFERIOR

76
Q

When we refer to the dorsal surface of a person, we are talking about the __________.

A

BACK SURFACE.

77
Q

Freely mobile joints are also known as __________ joints.

A

DIARTHRODIAL

78
Q

The specific joint that links the right and left parietal bones is the ____________

A

SAGGITAL SUTURE.

79
Q

The __________ of the scapula is a shallow depression which forms an articulation
with the head of the humerus.

A

GLENOID FOSSA

80
Q

Skeletal muscle is connected to bone by either __________ or aponeuroses.

A

TENDONS

81
Q

A rapid, involuntary, programmed response to a stimulus is known as a(n) __________

A

REFLEX RESPONSE.

82
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a disease characterised by abnormal mobility of the large intestine leading to episodes of diarrhoea and constipation. The specific layer of the gastrointestinal tract wall responsible for the mobility of the intestines is the __________

A

MUSCULARIS EXTERNA.

83
Q

The functional unit of the kidney responsible for producing urine is the __________

A

NEPHRON

84
Q

In an ECG, the physiological event represented by the T wave is ___________.

A

VENTRICULAR REPOLARISATION

85
Q

The wall that separates the ventricles from each other is the __________

A

INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTUM.

86
Q

A 62 year old female, Sarah, is told by her doctor that the reason she has been experiencing abdominal pain is that the first major branch of the abdominal aorta is partially blocked due to atherosclerosis. The doctor then mentions that this branch of the aorta supplies oxygenated
blood to the stomach, liver and spleen. The artery the doctor is referring to is the __________

A

COELIAC

TRUNK.

87
Q

The correct term used to describe the volume of air indicated in the adjacent spirometer trace is the __________

A

TIDAL VOLUME.

88
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in microscopic structures called ________

A

ALVEOLI.

89
Q

The nasal cavity contains oily, coated hairs called _________ that trap and prevent particles from entering the nose.

A

CILIA

90
Q

The adrenal cortex produces three groups of steroid hormones, including sex hormones, mineralocorticoids and __________ .

A

GLUCORTICOIDS

91
Q

All the lymph drained from the left upper limb and both lower limbs is returned to the blood
via the __________ duct.

A

THORACIC

92
Q

The hormone that stimulates milk production by the female mammary glands is __________.

A

PROLACTIN.

93
Q

In the female reproductive system, ovulation is triggered by a rapid increase in the levels of circulating __________ hormone.

A

LUTEINISING

94
Q

The structure that connects the foetus to the placenta is the __________.

A

UMBILICAL CORD

Anatomy and Physiology (14 decks)

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