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Equine final > pq3 > Flashcards

pq3 Flashcards

1
Q

The hoof abscess is not characterized by:

A. is associated with severe lameness

B. the cerebral arteries do not pulsate

C. the pain is usually well localized with the stream pliers

D. after opening the abscess, the lameness suddenly disappears

A

B. the cerebral arteries do not pulsate

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2
Q

Which statement is true?

A. Acute serum pneumon
ia is always a secondary disease

B. Acute serum pneumonia is a common complication of endotoxemia

C. both

D. none

A

C. both

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3
Q

Which statement is not true for plate osteosynthesis?

A. suitable for the treatment of fractures of young animals close to the joints

B. the most stable recording method

C. large bone fragments are required for its application

D. great exploration is required during its application

A

A. suitable for the treatment of fractures of young animals close to the joints

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4
Q

Which statement is true?

a. In load-type lameness, the cranial phase of the step is longer

B. the origin of load-type lameness is usually proximal

C. both

D. none

A

a. In load-type lameness, the cranial phase of the step is longer

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5
Q

Which statement is true?

A. 1-2% overhang of tendons causes partial rupture

B. 3-4% overhang in tendons causes complete rupture

C. in the case of tendons, complete rupture occurs above 5-6% overhang

D. none

A

D. none

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6
Q

The purpose of the “skyline” of the hock joint:

A. examination of the lateral trochelia of the talus

B. examination of the calcaneus and sustentaculum tali

C. examination of the medial malleolus

D. examination of the distal intermedial tibia of the tibia

A

B. examination of the calcaneus and sustentaculum tali

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7
Q

In case of ulcer fracture, the recommended surgical solution on horseback is:

A. Tightening screw
B. osteosynthesis with a plate mounted palmarisan
C. osteosynthesis with a plate placed dorsally
D. cerclage wire fixation

A

B. osteosynthesis with a plate mounted palmarisan

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8
Q

In case of nail entry on horseback, the following should be done:

A. nail removal as soon as possible, antibiotics, stream bonding

B. nail removal as soon as possible, antibiotic, tetanus serum, stream binding

C. Localization of the angle position based on LM X-ray, depending on the treatment

D. Tenoscopy is required in all cases

A

C. Localization of the angle position based on LM X-ray, depending on the treatment

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9
Q

Einschuss phlegmone

A. subcutaneous tissue forming on the forelegs of horses septic inflammation

B. subcutaneous tissue forming on the hind limbs of horses septic inflammation

C. subcutaneous tissue forming on the forelegs of horses aseptic inflammation

D. subcutaneous tissue forming in the hind limbs of horses aseptic inflammation

A

B. subcutaneous tissue forming on the hind limbs of horses septic inflammation

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10
Q

Treatment of chip fracture in the dorsal joint:

A. through arthrotomy
B. with arthroscopy
c. Administration of C. intraarticular hyaluronic acid
D. with tension screw fastening

A

B. with arthroscopy

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11
Q

During the radiological examination of the horse’s back, the aluminum wedge filter is placed here:

A. between the cassette and the horse
B. between the collimator plate of the X-ray machine and the horse
C. between the grid and the horse
D. between the grid and the cassette

A

B. between the collimator plate of the X-ray machine and the horse

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12
Q

Which statement is true?

A. parts of the loading phase of the step: ground grip, weight transfer, weight bearing, weight shift

B. parts of the loading phase of the step: ground grip, weight transfer, weight bearing, weight shift, bending stage, stretching stage

C. the weight shift phase can be divided into three parts: corner wall lifting, foot lifting, mountain wall lifting

D. none

A

A. parts of the loading phase of the step: ground grip, weight transfer, weight bearing, weight shift

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13
Q

Which statement is true?

a. In acute laminitis, raising the heel walls by 12 to 18 degrees can help prevent hoof bone

b. rotation

c. In acute laminitis, limb cooling is useful

d. both

e. none

A

d. both

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14
Q

The knee joint is not characteristic of OCD

A. in the femoro-patellar joint, the femur lat. trochle occurs

B. in the femoro-patellar joint, the femur med. trochle occurs

C. is associated with joint effusion

D. usually occurs at a young age

A

B. in the femoro-patellar joint, the femur med. trochle occurs

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15
Q

For simple sagittal fractures greater than 2 cm above the proximal surface, treatment should include:

A. plate osteosynthesis with LCP plate

B. Tension screw fixing with 4.5 or 5.5 mm cortical screws

C. Tension screw fixing with 2.4 or 3.5 mm cortical screws

D. application of conventional gypsum bandage

A

B. Tension screw fixing with 4.5 or 5.5 mm cortical screws

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16
Q

Which statement is true?

A. severe longitudinal rupture of the cornea
B. causes lameness in the cornea in the vast majority of cases
C. horizontal horn crack in the cornice
D. none

A

C. horizontal horn crack in the cornice

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17
Q

Localization of the cyst in the knee joint on horseback:

A. medialis condylus
B. lateralis condylus
C. medialis trochlea
D. lateralis trochlea

A

A. medialis condylus

18
Q

We need to pay attention to the high bandage placed on the front limb …

a. the bandage should be attached to the horns

b. protection of os carpi accessorium against fractures

c. protection of proximal sesame bones from fractures

d. the bandage should be above the elbow joint

A

b. protection of os carpi accessorium against fractures

19
Q

Staining of descemetocele with fluorescein is characterized by:

a. the descemet membrane is permanently stained

b. the stroma stains but the descemet membrane does not

c. the stroma does not stain, but the descemet mmbran does

A

b. the stroma stains but the descemet membrane does not

20
Q

Which disease can be treated with pars plana vitrectomy?

a. recurrent uveitise of horses
b. cornea abscess
c. retinal detachment
d. immune mediated keratitis (IMMK)

A

a. recurrent uveitise of horses

21
Q

f the indirect pupil light reflex (PLR) is retained in the right eye, it means that

a. intraocular pressure increased in the right eye
b. both eyes see
c. the retina senses light in the right eye
d. the retina senses light in the left eye

A

d. the retina senses light in the left eye

22
Q

What is subpalpebra drainage (SPL) used for?

a. to anesthetize the surface of the eye
b. for long-term surface treatment
c. to measure the intraocular pressure
d. to check the permeability of the tear duct

A

b. for long-term surface treatment

23
Q

What kind of pupil dilator would you use during the eye examination?

a. 1% tropicamide
b. 2% atropine
c. 2% lidocaine
D. 1% prilocaine

A

D. 1% prilocaine

24
Q

How does tetanospasmin work?

a. inhibits the release of glycine
b. inhibits the release of acetylcholine
c. inhibits the degradation of gamma-aminobutyric acid
d. inhibits the breakdown of glutamic acid

A

a. inhibits the release of glycine

25
Q

In which species is party wind dysplasia more common?

a. trotting
b. shire
c. quarter horse
d. Arabian thoroughbred

A

b. shire

26
Q

What is the most common autoimmune skin disease in horses?

a. discoid lupus erythematosus
b. systemic lupus erythematosus
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. pemphigus foliaceus

A

d. pemphigus foliaceus

27
Q

) How can I reliably diagnose spinal cord compression in horses?

a. with lateral native X-rays
b. with myelographic images
c. with detailed neurological examination
d. by laboratory examination of the liquor

A

b. with myelographic images

28
Q

Which of the following could be a brainstem form of rabies?

a. muscle twitching
b. hyperaesthesia
c. seizures
d. head position

A

d. head position

29
Q

What is the most common cause of heart failure in horses?

a. pericarditis
b. tachyarrhythmias
c. cardiomyopathy
d. key failure

A

d. key failure

30
Q

the administration of antiproteinase in surface treatment is suitable for the following treatment:

a. softening corneal ulcer
b. iris fallout
c. posterior synechia
d. increased IOP

A

a. softening corneal ulcer

31
Q

Which of the following diseases is associated with vitamin E deficiency?

a. motor neuron disease in horses
b. recurrent rhabdomyolysis
c. stiffness

A

a. motor neuron disease in horses

32
Q

Blood should be collected from horses for transfusion purposes. Which blood collection container would be appropriate?

a. EDTA
b. citrate
c. oxalate
d. heparin

A

a. EDTA

33
Q

Which lesion is part of the Fallot tetralogy?

a. large atrial hedge defect
b. aortic stenosis
c. right ventricular hypertrophy
d. pulmonary transposition of the truncus

A

c. right ventricular hypertrophy

34
Q

For subcutaneous injection in an intoxicated horse:

a. up to 3 ml injection can be given
cerebral form
b. n. infraorbital anesthesia is required
c. retrobulbar anesthesia is required
d. surface anesthesia is required

A

a. up to 3 ml injection can be given
cerebral form

35
Q

Which of the following drugs is suitable for the treatment of metabolic syndrome in horses?

a. pergolide
b. bromocriptine
c. metformin
d. cyproheptadine

A

c. metformin

36
Q

What is the so-called Caslick surgery?

a. surgical resolution of the retrovagina
b. surgical solution of the pneumovagina
c. surgical assistance during distress
d. surgical solution for bee screw

A

b. surgical solution of the pneumovagina

37
Q

in an 18-year-old horse, during routine listening, we hear a holodiastolic heartbeat of IV / VI on the left side. No other differences were observed on physical examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. mitral regurgitation
b. aortic valve failure
c. pulmonary stenosis
d. pulmonary valvular insufficiency

A

a. mitral regurgitation

38
Q

What is the clinical picture of a 180 degree uterine twist in a pregnant mare?

a. dead fetus, miscarriage
b. severe colic restlessness
c. obtipatio and agitation
d. mild colic restlessness and apathy

A

d. mild colic restlessness and apathy

39
Q

When is an procedure called segmental posthectomy used?

a. for solitary sarcoid lesions on the penis
b. for paramphymosis
c. in the case of priapism
d. for squamous cell carcinoma of the penis

A

a. for solitary sarcoid lesions on the penis

40
Q

What is the conformation of a healthy pair?

a. 1/3 of the gap should be above the arch
b. 1/2 of the gap must be above the seat arch
c. 2/3 of the gap should be above the arch
d. 1/4 of the gap should be below the seat arch

A

a. 1/3 of the gap should be above the arch

41
Q

The penis of a five-year-old Holstein stallion was kicked 12 hours before the test. Strong edematous infiltration is seen around the preputial ring, the stallion is unable to retract its penis. Which statement is true?

a. Hydrotherapy should be recommended for at least 8-10 days, twice a day. The stallion should not be used for 1 month.

b. Edema-reducing ointments can help with this situation quickly in most cases.

c. This marks the end of the stallion’s career, a phallectomy should be recommended in such a case.

d. The damaged penis should be returned to the preputium as soon as possible and kept there for days

A

d. The damaged penis should be returned to the preputium as soon as possible and kept there for days

42
Q

Which surgical procedure can be used to treat indolent chronic superficial corneal ulcers in horses?

a. transpalpebral enuclatio
b. subscleral cyclosporin implantation
c. retinal lobe
d. superficial keratectomy or keratotomy

A

d. superficial keratectomy or keratotomy

Equine final (5 decks)

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