pq2 Flashcards

1
Q

What fluid can be used to wash joints?

a. Sterile, isotonic solution for infusion
b. sterile hypertensive solution for infusion
c. sterile, isotonic, 196 betadine solution
d. Sterile, hypertensive, betadine 196 solution

A

a. Sterile, isotonic solution for infusion

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2
Q

What are the time-dependent antibiotics?

a. aminoglycosides
b. aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones
c. Β-lactams and fluoroquinolones
d. Β-lactams and macrolides

A

d. Β-lactams and macrolides

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3
Q

Which statement is true?

a. the vulvus contusum is usually characterized by rapid wound healing

b. the vulnus contusum is usually characterized by a high degree of tissue damage

c. in the case of the vulvus contusum, traumatic schock is not common at all

d. anaerobic wound infection is particularly rare in the case of the contusum vulnus

A

b. the vulnus contusum is usually characterized by a high degree of tissue damage

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4
Q

What are the properties of fiberglass gypsum bonding?

a. Quick to apply, liquid permeable, lightweight

b. Quick to apply, does not let liquid through, light

c. Quick to apply, liquid permeable, inexpensive

d. Lightweight but less rigid than traditional plaster bonding.

A

b. Quick to apply, does not let liquid through, light

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5
Q

When anesthetized a newborn foal, the greatest risk is:

a. Induction with inhaled anesthetic without premedication

b. For intravenous maintenance: ketamine + diazepam

c. Propofol intravenously

d. Sevoflurane for anesthesia maintenance

A

a. Induction with inhaled anesthetic without premedication

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6
Q

What is the normal value of ETCO2 on a capnograph?

a. 0-35 mmHg
b. 345Hgmm
c. 35-45 mmHg
d. 55-65 mmHg

A

c. 35-45 mmHg

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7
Q

The crutch position of the hoof joint is performed during the “bakpata” surgical solution

a. a prox. check ligament incision
b. intersection of the distal check ligament
c. incision of the deep finger flexor
d. the incision of the superficial finger flexor

A

b. intersection of the distal check ligament

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8
Q

The posterior limb is n. used for tibial anesthesia

a. 3 ml mepivacaine
b. 5 ml of mepivacaine
c. 10 ml of mepivacaine
d. 20 ml of mepivacaine

A

d. 20 ml of mepivacaine

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9
Q

Which statement is true?

a. for anesthesia of the elbow joint approx. 25 ml of anesthetic solution is required

b. the elbow joint is accessible from both the cranial and caudal directions

c. both

d. none of them

A

c. both

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10
Q

It can be given to newborn foals during mild to moderate hoof crutches

a. 3 g oxytetracycline iv.
b. 3 g erithromycin iv.
c. 30 g. oxytetracycline iv.
d. 30 g erithromycin iv

A

a. 3 g oxytetracycline iv.

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11
Q

Incidence of OCD in the knee joint

a. medial condylus
b. lateral condylus
c. medial trochlea
d. lateral trochlea

A

d. lateral trochlea

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12
Q

In case of radius fracture on horseback, proper fastening for transport

a. full fiberglass gypsum bandage up to the elbow joint
b. stiffening on the lateral side of the limb up to the dorsal edge of the shoulder blade
c. palmarized stiffening to the elbow joint
d. the limb does not require special fixation

A

b. stiffening on the lateral side of the limb up to the dorsal edge of the shoulder blade

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13
Q

In case of joint injuries, the most important …

a. as soon as possible surgical solution
b. determination of joint involvement
c. appropriate antibiotic therapy
d. tetanus prophylaxis

A

b. determination of joint involvement

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14
Q

Ulcerative fractures on horses are characterized by:

a. it often becomes an open fracture
b. can be treated with good prognosis with squamous osteosynthesis
c. always with a slight degree of lameness
d. it never spreads to joints

A

b. can be treated with good prognosis with squamous osteosynthesis

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15
Q

Fixing the radius fracture for horse transport:

a. fixed fixation to the lateral side of the limb up to the scapula is recommended

b. gypsum fixation on the palmaris surface of the limb is recommended

c. full-fiber fiberglass plaster casting is recommended

d. does not require special fixing

A

a. fixed fixation to the lateral side of the limb up to the scapula is recommended

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16
Q

Which statement is true?

a. anesthesia of the shoulder joint in the humerus tub. majus pars cranialis et caudalis, m. infraspinatus

b. anesthesia of the shoulder joint in the humerus tub. majus pars cranialis et caudalis, m. infraspinatus

c. for anesthesia of the shoulder joint min. 40 ml of local anesthetic solution is required

d. answers 1 and 3 are also true

A

b. anesthesia of the shoulder joint in the humerus tub. majus pars cranialis et caudalis, m. infraspinatus

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17
Q

The most common localization of OCD in the hock joint

a. medialis malleolus
b. lateralis malleolus
c. lateral trochlea
d. tibia distalis sagittalis pereme

A

d. tibia distalis sagittalis pereme

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18
Q

Care should be taken when attaching a high bandage to the hind limb

a. to protect the Achilles tendon from the medial and lateral sides

b. protection of the humerus from the medial and lateral sides

c. attaching the bandage to the horns

d. the bandage should be above the knee joint

A

b. protection of the humerus from the medial and lateral sides

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19
Q

Full name of the “oxspring” recording used to examine the shear bone:

a. palmaroproximal-palmarodistal shrug
b. dorsoproximal palmarodistal regimen
c. caudoproximal-craniodistal shrug
d. palmarolateral uptake

A

b. dorsoproximal palmarodistal regimen

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20
Q

tement is true for the disabled hoof?

a. A. high corner walls, concave mountain wall, convex sole surface, thickened white line

b. turned corner walls, concave mountain wall, convex sole surface, thickened white line

c. inverted corner walls, convex mountain wall, convex sole surface, thickened white line

d. high corner walls, convex mountain wall, convex sole surface, thickened white line

A

a. A. high corner walls, concave mountain wall, convex sole surface, thickened white line

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21
Q

X-ray image of the lateral-palmaromedial sac (45 degrees) from the sacrum:

a. medial sesame
b. lateral sesame bone
c. statumen
d. a and c together

A

b. lateral sesame bone

22
Q

Which statement is true?

a. septic inflammation of the lower common tendon sheath is always accompanied by a severe degree of lameness

b. a characteristic symptom of septic inflammation of the lower common tendon sheath is the tendon sheath of elevated temperature

c. both

d. none of them

A

c. both

23
Q

Which statement is true?

a. high, narrow cornered and deep birch grooves predispose to birch rot
b. the etiology of birch rot is unknown
c. keeping birch moist is key in treating birch rot
d. birch rot is a deadly disease

A

a. high, narrow cornered and deep birch grooves predispose to birch rot

24
Q

Which statement is true for hoof cylinder syndrome?

a. causes load-type lameness
b. viewed in a circle, usually worse on the inner hand
c. both
d. none of them

A

c. both

25
Q

in which joint is the incidence of OCD uncommon?

a. tarsus
b. carpus
c. shoulder
d. knee

A

b. carpus

26
Q

Recommended treatment for podotrochlear bursa during nail entry:

a. bursoscopy through the lower common tendon sheath
b. bursoscopy through the hoof joint
c. excavation of the hoof from the sole surface
d. conservative treatment is recommended

A

a. bursoscopy through the lower common tendon sheath

27
Q

In case of joint injury, the ideal care …

a. wash the joint within 6 hours
b. wash the joint within 10 hours
c. wash the joint within 12 hours
d. wash the joint within 24 hours

A

a. wash the joint within 6 hours

28
Q

In case of multiple fractures of the tibia, the recommended surgical solution is:

a. tension screw fastening
b. use of transfusion gypsum
c. squamous osteosynthesis
d. application of fiberglass gypsum bandage

A

a. tension screw fastening

29
Q

Cerclage wire fixation cannot be used

a. for some long oblique or spiral fractures
b. for cracks
c. as a temporary fixation (for the duration of the repository)
d. as a stand-alone recording method

A

a. for some long oblique or spiral fractures

30
Q

What is my knee pain?

a. when the patella sprained medially
b. when the tibia compression test is positive
c. simultaneous injury of several ligaments of the knee joint
d. transient instability of the knee joint

A

d. transient instability of the knee joint

31
Q

What is a DCP not suitable for?

a. using oval holes for interfragmental compression
b. allows faster healing
c. provides temporary fixation of joints
d. allows minimal callus formation

A

?

32
Q

) Where is precise ostheosyinthesis absolutely necessary?

a. A. for multiple fractures
b. B. for oblique fractures
c. C. in the case of joint fractures
d. D. for open fractures

A

d. D. for open fractures

33
Q

Surgical solution for patella fixation on a horse

a. Cut through the lateral patella band
b. medialis patella cut through
c. Cut through the middle patella ribbon
d. Cut through medial and middle patella ligament

A

b. B. medialis patella cut through

34
Q

In the event of a fracture of the long tubular bones, what to do on the horse

A. shocking the animal, proper fixation of the limb, transport to the clinic

B. transport the patient to the clinic as soon as possible

C. appropriate antibiotic therapy

D. there is no treatment option

A

A. shocking the animal, proper fixation of the limb, transport to the clinic

35
Q

In the case of nail entry, which formulas may be involved in connection with the puncture injury?

A. bursa podotrochlearis, lower common tendon sheath

B. bursa podotrochlearis, lower common tendon sheath, hoof joint

C. bursa podotrochlearis, lower common tendon sheath, hoof joint, birch bone

D. bursa podotrochlearis, lower common tendon sheath, hoof joint, birch bone, partisan joint

A

C. bursa podotrochlearis, lower common tendon sheath, hoof joint, birch bone

36
Q

The minimum time required for the formation of radiologically visible osteophytes

A. 1 week
B. 3 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 7 weeks

A

B. 3 weeks

37
Q

In the case of horses, the open fracture …

A. can be treated with a good prognosis
B. cannot be treated surgically
C. with a poor prognosis, can be treated in a small percentage of cases
D. their care is no different from simple fracture treatment

A

C. with a poor prognosis, can be treated in a small percentage of cases

38
Q

What is the first step in fracture healing?

A. formation of primary callus
B. remodeling.
C. complete proliferation
D. hematoma formation

A

D. hematoma formation

39
Q

Liquid for joint washing

A. Sterile, isotonic solution for infusion
B. Sterile hypertensive solution for infusion
C. Sterile, isotonic, 1% betadine solution
D. Sterile, hypertensive, 1% betadine solution

A

. Sterile, isotonic solution for infusion

40
Q

in the Valgus position, the position of the hooves relative to the carpus:

A. abaxial
B. axial
C. cranialis
D. caudalis

A

A. abaxial

41
Q

In the caudocranial image of the knee joint, the medial direction is easily recognizable by the fact that:

A. the medial eminence of the tibia is greater
B. the medial eminence of the tibia is smaller
C. the fibula is located on the medial side
D. the scapula is located on the lateral side

A

A. the medial eminence of the tibia is greater

42
Q

Covered mechanical injuries do not include:

A. commotio
B. contusio
C. contaminatio
D. compression

A

C. contaminatio

43
Q

Which statement is true?

A. a n. lateral anesthesia of the palmaris is specific for the origin of the equatorial tape

B. a n. carpometacarpal is more likely to be anesthetized laterally in the palmar

c. joint penetration as when performing subcarpal anesthesia

d. C. a n. for lateral anesthesia of the palmaris min. 10 ml of anesthetic solution is required

e. D. all of them are fake

A

A. a n. lateral anesthesia of the palmaris is specific for the origin of the equatorial tape

44
Q

) What could be the cause of knee instability?

A. meniscus injury
B. OCD
C. avulsion of the lateral ligament of the knee joint
D. m. ext. dig. rupture of the tendon of the longum

A

C. avulsion of the lateral ligament of the knee joint

45
Q

Which statement is true?

A. the stride length of horses with podotrochlosis is shortened

B. podotrochlosis is a disease specifically of Friesian horses

C. both

D. none

A

A. the stride length of horses with podotrochlosis is shortened

46
Q

Which statement is true?

A. According to “Obel,” acute laminitis can be divided into 4 degrees of severity

B. Acute laminitis is more common in the hind limbs

C. corrective horseshoe is of great importance in the treatment of acute laminitis

D. In the early stages of acute laminitis, trotting on hard ground is useful

A

A. According to “Obel,” acute laminitis can be divided into 4 degrees of severity

47
Q

To examine the os carpale tertium (C3), the X-ray head should be tilted at the following angle:

A. 85
B. 55
C. 35
D. a and b together

A

C. 35

48
Q

Full name of the skyline image used for the examination of the shear bone:

A. palmaroproximal-palmarodistal regimen uptake

B. dorsoproximal palmarodistal regimen uptake

C. caudoproximal-craniodistal regimen uptake

D. palmarolateral uptake

A
48
Q

Full name of the skyline image used for the examination of the shear bone:

A. palmaroproximal-palmarodistal regimen uptake

B. dorsoproximal palmarodistal regimen uptake

C. caudoproximal-craniodistal regimen uptake

D. palmarolateral uptake

A

A. palmaroproximal-palmarodistal regimen uptake

49
Q

In the event of a fracture of the sacrum extending into the sagittal joint, the recommended therapy is:

A. conservative treatment, 2 months box rest
B. Tension screw fastening, fiberglass gypsum bonding
C. application of fiberglass gypsum bandage
D. use of a horseshoe horseshoe

A

B. Tension screw fastening, fiberglass gypsum bonding

50
Q

Which non-arthrosis sign is on the x-ray?

A. perichondral osteophyte formation
B. uneven subchondral bone
C. widened joint gap
D. cortical osteolysis

A

C. widened joint gap