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Question 1

Retinal detachment can be diagnosed

a. with ophthalmoscopy and ultrasound examination
b. slit lamp with biomicroscope
c. viewing
d. in case of corneal opacity in any way

Answer 1

a. with ophthalmoscopy and ultrasound examination

Question 2

Typical of posterior Synechia:

a. the pupil is maximally wide
b. the pupil can only have a regular shape
c. there is an adhesion between the iris and the cornea
d. there is an adhesion between the iris and the anterior capsule of the lens

Answer 2

d. there is an adhesion between the iris and the anterior capsule of the lens

Question 3

Which ultrasonographic window belongs to the method of targeted abdominal ultrasound examination of colic horses?

a. the 10th rib spacing on the left
b. upper right third of the abdominal cavity
c. the lower left third of the abdominal cavity
d. the 12th rib spacing on the right

Answer 3

a. the 10th rib spacing on the left

Question 4

Which mode of urination is most common in acute renal failure (AFR)?

a. normuria
b. anuria
c. polyuria
d. oliguria

Answer 4

d. oliguria

Question 5

Which drug is unsuitable for the treatment of bacterial pneumonia in adult horses?

a. penicillin
b. gentamicin
c. erythromycin
d. ceftiofur

Answer 5

c. erythromycin

Question 6

What is the normal knocking finding of the lower third of the abdominal cavity on the right side?

a. blunt
b. dull
c. blunt drummer
d. drummer

Answer 6

b. dull

Question 7

What are the characteristics of a grade 2 ulcer in the esophagus of the stomach of an adult horse?

a. hyperkeratosis and mucosal flushing are characteristic
b. an extensive, lonely ulcer is seen
c. a small bleeding ulcer is seen
d. five small ulcers are visible

Answer 7

d. five small ulcers are visible

Question 8

Which clinical feature is excluded by the definition of mild to moderate equine asthma (inflammatory airways
disease, IAD)?

a. performance degradation
b. tracheal excesses
c. resting difficulty breathing
d. cough

Answer 8

c. resting difficulty breathing

Question 9

Which of the following injuries has the worst prognosis?

a. Rupture of the superficial finger flexion tendon in the central part of the metacarpal region

b. Rupture of the deep flexor tendon in the central part of the metacarpal region

c. Rupture of superficial and deep flexor tendons in the central part of the metacarpal region

d. Rupture of the deep flexor tendon in the hamstring or inside the hooves

Answer 9

d. Rupture of the deep flexor tendon in the hamstring or inside the hooves

Question 10

in what direction should we insert the needle for anesthesia of N. palmaris lateralis at the height of the os carpi accessorium?

a. Medio-lateral direction
b. Palmaromedial-dorsolateral direction
c. In the direction of Palmaro-dorsalis
d. Proximo-distal direction

Answer 10

c. In the direction of Palmaro-dorsalis

Question 11

In which region is superficial finger flexion tendon injury most common in English thoroughbred racehorses?

a. In the upper common tendon sheath
b. In the central part of the metacarpal region
c. In the lower common tendon sheath
d. In the mood

Answer 11

b. In the central part of the metacarpal region

Question 12

In which part of the body can we perform an MRI scan while standing? Mark a correct answer!

a. Neck
b. Proximal metacarpal region
c. Knee
d. Elbow

Answer 12

b. Proximal metacarpal region

Question 13

What is the most likely diagnosis if: there is an echogenic,> 3cm fluid in the womb, there is a corpus luteum in one of the ovaries and the mare is empty?

a. subclinical endometritis
b. clinical endometritis
c. endometriosis
d. the mare is muddy

Answer 13

c. endometriosis

Question 14

Common findings in subfertile mares:

a. poor perineal conformation
b. ampoule clogging
c. verrose veins
d. melanoma

Answer 14

a. poor perineal conformation

Question 15

Which additional gonads are found in the stallion?

a. Ampoule, vesicular vesicularis, prostate
b. Ampoule, vesicular glandula, prostate, bulbourethral gland
c. prostate only
d. Ampoule, prostate and bulbourethral gland

Answer 15

b. Ampoule, vesicular glandula, prostate, bulbourethral gland

Question 16

May cause neoplastic ovarian enlargement…

a. … Persistent anovulatory follicle.
b. … Hemorrhagic follicles.
c. … Parovarial cyst.
d. … Granulosa cell tumor

Answer 16

d. … Granulosa cell tumor

Question 17

Karyotyping…

a. … A special diagnostic method for the examination of chromosomes in horses.
b. … Can be used to estimate ovulation time.
c. … Is used to examine the libido of stallions.
d. … A special method for analyzing breeding results.

Answer 17

a. … A special diagnostic method for the examination of chromosomes in horses.

Question 18

Appearance of a typical preovulatory follicle on ultrasound…

a. … No longer round, liquid-filled formula with a minimum diameter of 3.5-4.5 cm
b. … Is a round formula filled with a liquid 0.9 to 1.5 cm in diameter
c. … Small, compact echogenic structure
d. … Echogenic formula with a cavity in the middle

Answer 18

a. … No longer round, liquid-filled formula with a minimum diameter of 3.5-4.5 cm

Question 19

The testimeter her

a. … used to determine the sex of the fetus in a mare
b. … used to measure testicular volume
c. … Used to measure the testis (height, width, length)
d. … Used to detect testosterone in stallions

Answer 19

c. … Used to measure the testis (height, width, length)

Question 20

Which formula is abnormal on a mare’s ovary?

a. preovulatory follicles
b. corpus haemorrhagicum
c. corpus luteum
d. hemorrhagic anovulatory follicles

Answer 20

d. hemorrhagic anovulatory follicles

Question 21

Ventilation / perfusion disproportion (V / Q mismatch) during anesthesia is not true:

a. with increased end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) cannot be corrected
b. can also cause airway obstruction
c. saturation usually <90%
d. arterial blood gas results deteriorate

Answer 21

c. saturation usually <90%

Question 22

Not for premedication of a newborn foal:

a. diazepam
b. butorphanol
c. midazolam
d. xylazine

Answer 22

d. xylazine

Question 23

The following is true for morphine:

a. injected into a muscle for 1-2 hours
b. analgesic catheter analgesia
c. more potent analgesic than phenylbutazone for orthopedic pain
d. Causes hypertension after IV administration

Answer 23

b. analgesic catheter analgesia

Question 24

The purpose of balance anesthesia (PIVA) is:

a. reduction of cardiovascular depression during anesthesia
b. increase in intraoperative analgesia
c. improving the quality of awakening
d. all three listed earlier

Answer 24

d. all three listed earlier

Question 25

Not true for phenothiazine:

a. It relieves abdominal cramps well, so it is also used to examine colic horses

b. may be given to the mare during the temporary separation of mares and foals

c. can be given to a nervous horse during transport

d. added to premedication for elective surgery

Answer 25

a. It relieves abdominal cramps well, so it is also used to examine colic horses

Question 26

Indication for administration of atipamezole may include:

a. if the foal lies down for too long after intoxication
b. cattle lie away from the intoxicator
c. When waking up after a TIVA triple mixture
d. previous in all three cases

Answer 26

d. previous in all three cases

Question 27

A common consequence of equine recurrent uveitis (ERU) is:

a. development of cataracts
b. development of glaucoma
c. atrophy of the eyeball
d. all listed

Answer 27

d. all listed

Question 28

In equine recurrent uveitis (ERU), what could be the consequences of a chorioretinal scar?

a. previous photoreceptor and retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) damage
b. turbid hall water
c. posterior synechia
d. bacterial invasion of the eye

Answer 28

a. previous photoreceptor and retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) damage

Question 29

What is the surgical procedure for treating a corneal deep stromal abscess in a horse?

a. grid with keratotomy
b. enucleatioval
c. pars plana vitrectomyva
d. with perforating or lamellar keratoplasty

Question 30

What is the surgical procedure for treating a corneal deep stromal abscess in a horse?

a. grid with keratotomy
b. enucleatioval
c. pars plana vitrectomyva
d. with perforating or lamellar keratoplasty

Answer 30

d. with perforating or lamellar keratoplasty

Question 31

Which of the following parameters can be reduced usually in case of shock in horses ??

a. Hematocrit. writes woman
b. Albumin. writes woman
c. White blood cell count.
d. Lactate. writes woman

Answer 31

c. White blood cell count.

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms is typical of prepharyngeal dysphagia?

a. Bagging.
b. Nasal discharge.
c. Cough.
d. Tears

Answer 32

a. Bagging.

Question 33

Which antifungal agent can be used for topical treatment of airway mycosis?

a. Povidone iodine.
b. Ketoconazole.
c. Metronidazole.
d. Voriconazole.

Answer 33

b. Ketoconazole.

Question 34

What is the maintenance infusion dose for an adult horse receiving intravenous fluid therapy?

a. 20-40 ml / kg / day.
b. 40-60 ml / kg / day.
c. 60-80 ml / kg / day.
d. 80-100 ml / kg / day.

Answer 34

b. 40-60 ml / kg / day.

Question 35

) Which of the following skin symptoms is secondary?

a. Lichenificatio
b. Purulent bladder
c. Urticaria
d. Cyst

Answer 35

a. Lichenificatio

Question 36

Where is the aortic valve located in healthy horses?

a. Between the 4th rib on the left, below the shoulder line.

b. Between the 4th rib on the left, halfway between the shoulder line and the sternum.

c. Between the ribs 5 on the left, below the shoulder line.

d. Between the ribs 5 on the left, halfway between the shoulder line and the sternum.

Answer 36

a. Between the 4th rib on the left, below the shoulder line.

Question 37

Which statement is correct about equine derived red blood cell values?

a. MCV is often elevated in anemia.
b. MCH is often elevated in anemia.
c. MCV may decrease in iron deficiency.
d. MCHC is significantly reduced in haemolysis

Answer 37

c. MCV may decrease in iron deficiency

Question 38

Which statement is correct about testing for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

a. Abdominal puncture contributes to a definitive diagnosis in the vast majority of cases.

b. An oral glucose tolerance test is not usually required in the diagnosis of these diseases.

c. A negative histopathological finding of a biopsy taken from the rectum does not rule out the possibility of IBD.

d. Abdominal ultrasound shows abnormal bowel movements in all cases

Answer 38

c. A negative histopathological finding of a biopsy taken from the rectum does not rule out the possibility of IBD.

Question 39

A relatively audible murmur is observed between S1 and S2 around the heart of a horse. The noise is also audible in the widest area of the punctum, which is in the middle of the 5th rib. What can cause this heartbeat?

a. 2/6 strength mitral stenosis.
b. 2/6 severity mitral valve insufficiency.
c. 3/6 strength mitral stenosis.
d. 3/6 severity mitral valve insufficiency.

Answer 39

d. 3/6 severity mitral valve insufficiency.

Question 40

Which of the following is characteristic of the biochemical parameters of the blood of a horse with proximal enteritis?

a. Hyperchloraemia.
b. Metabolic alkalosis.
c. Hyponatraemia.
d. Hyperkalaemia

Answer 40

c. Hyponatraemia.

Question 41

At which rib is the caudoventral lung border in the shoulder joint line in a healthy horse?

a. 8.
b. 10.
c. 12.
d. 14

Answer 41

d. 14

Question 42

What is the sign that the horse is sleeping superficially during surgery?

a. Decreased heart rate
b. Pupil dilation
c. Apnea
d. Increase in blood pressure

Answer 42

d. Increase in blood pressure

Question 43

Which drug is suitable for raising intraoperative low mean arterial blood pressure (ABP)?

a. Dobutamine
b. Lidocaine
c. Guaiphenes
d. Atropine

Answer 43

a. Dobutamine

Question 44

The most common complication after anesthesia of a bronchial horse is:

a. Temporary blindness
b. Paralysis of N. facialis
c. Laryngeal spasm
d. Triceps myopathy

Answer 44

c. Laryngeal spasm

Question 45

What anesthesia system is suitable for anesthetizing horses?

a. Closed breathing
b. Swinging
c. Open breathing
d. Half open

Answer 45

a. Closed breathing

Question 46

How is phenylbutazone used as a premedication before anesthesia in horses?

a. IM
b. ARC
c. SC
d. CRI

Answer 46

b. ARC

Question 47

Intra-arterial injection of an alpha-2 receptor agonist may cause:

a. Collapse
b. Oxytocin-like effect
c. Awakening
d. Ileus

Answer 47

a. Collapse

Question 48

When should skin sutures be removed after a primary wound closure on a horse?

a. day 7 after surgery
b. 12-14 from surgery. day
c. 21st day after surgery
d. During the first bond change

Answer 48

b. 12-14 from surgery. day

Question 49

Put the wound healing stages in the right order
.
a.1. inflammation
b. 2. proliferation
c. Maturation 3
d. 4. repair-regeneration

Answer 49

a. 1. inflammation
b. 2. proliferation
c. Maturation 3
d. 4. repair-regeneration

Question 50

What is the best consideration for a high bandage to be placed on the front limb?

a. To secure the bandage to the horns
b. To protect the os carpi accesorium from breakage
c. To protect proximal sesame bones from fractures
d. So that the bandage reaches over the elbow joint

Answer 50

b. To protect the os carpi accesorium from breakage

Question 51

What to do next on horseback?

a. Nail removal as soon as possible, stream binding, antibiotic therapy

b. Nail removal as soon as possible, stream binding, antibiotic therapy, tetanus serum administration.

c. Determining the direction and depth of the angle based on bi-directional X-rays.

d. In most cases, tenoscopy / bursoscopy should be recommended.

Answer 51

c. Determining the direction and depth of the angle based on bi-directional X-rays.