PPL Flight Theory Check Flashcards

1
Q

What qualifications must you have in order to obtain a PP(A)L?

A
  1. 17 years old
  2. Holds/ qualified to hold a flight radiotelephone operator licence (FROL)
  3. Pass in private pilot (aeroplane) licence theory examination
  4. Meets the standards set out in the Day VFR Syllabus
  5. Meets the aeronautical experience requirements
    (40 hours – 10 PIC (of which 5 is cross-country), 2 IF)
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2
Q

What does a PP(A)L authorise a person to do?

A

A private pilot (aeroplane) licence authorises the holder of the licence:

a) to fly an aeroplane as pilot in command, or as co-pilot, while the aeroplane is engaged in a private operation; and
b) to fly an aeroplane as pilot in command while the aeroplane is engaged in flying training operations for the purpose of increasing the holder’s flying skill.

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3
Q

How long is your PP(A)L valid for?

A

Forever (unless CASA revokes it due to you doing something illegal) as long as you can hold a Class 2 medical and meet the recent experience requirements you can use your PPL.

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4
Q

What kind of aeroplane may a PP(A)L fly?

A
  1. An aeroplane on which the pilot has a type or class endorsement; (SE < 5,700kg MTOW)
  2. If the aeroplane has a special design feature – a special design feature endorsement
    A PP(A)L autorises the holder to fly an aeroplane without holding an aircraft endorsement for the aeroplane;
    a. In dual flying training – for the purpose of satisfying the requirements for the issue of an aircraft endorsement for the aeroplane; or
    b. In any capacity – for the purpose of:
    i. Testing the aeroplane; or
    ii. Carrying out an experiment in relation to the aeroplane
    (if CASA has given permission under those circumstances)
    c. As pilot in command – for the purpose of satisfying the requirements for the issue of an aircraft endorsement for the aeroplane if:
    i. The aeroplane is a single place aeroplane (one seat)
    ii. CASA has given the holder permission
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5
Q

What are the recency requirements to carry passengers?

A

3 take-offs and 3 landings within 90 days (PIC, ICUS or dual)

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6
Q

How often must you conduct an aeroplane flight review?

A

Every 2 years

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7
Q

What sort of operations may you complete with a PP(A)L?

A

Private operations

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8
Q

List some Private Operations that you may conduct with a PP(A)L:

A

a) the personal transportation of the owner of the aircraft;
b) aerial spotting where no remuneration is received by the pilot or the owner of the aircraft or by any person or organisation on whose behalf the spotting is conducted;
c) agricultural operations on land owned and occupied by the owner of the aircraft;
d) aerial photography where no remuneration is received by the pilot or the owner of the aircraft or by any person or organisation on whose behalf the photography is conducted;
e) the carriage of persons or the carriage of goods without a charge for the carriage being made other than the carriage, for the purposes of trade, of goods being the property of the pilot, the owner or the hirer of the aircraft;
f) the carriage of goods otherwise than for the purposes of trade;
g) conversion training for the purpose of endorsement of an additional type or category of aircraft in a pilot licence

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9
Q

Can you take you parents on a flight around the city to take photos?

A

Yes

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10
Q

How must this flight be paid for?

A

Cost sharing or completely by PIC

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11
Q

Can you preform agricultural operations on the aircraft owner’s field?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Can you transport your cousin and his crates of veggies to Latrobe Valley to sell at the markets?

A

No

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13
Q

Can you transport your purchased crates of veggies back from Latrobe Valley markets?

A

Yes

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14
Q

What are the rules regarding the carriage of cargo when operating a private flight?

A

For private operations any cargo must be the property of the pilot/ owner

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15
Q

You have just gained your PPL and wish to advertise joy flights in the local newspaper.
Can it be a private operation if everyone (including you) shares the cost equally?

A

No. Advertising flight – commercial operation.

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16
Q

Can the holder of a PPL except payment for a flight if the payment is not in the form of currency?

A

No

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17
Q

What is the minimum period before a flight is commenced, that a pilot must abstain from consuming alcohol?

A

A person shall not act or perform any duties preparatory to acting as, a member of the operating crew of an aircraft if the person has, during the 8 hours immediately before the departure of the aircraft consumed any alcoholic liquor.

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18
Q

If you went out one night and drank heavily until 2am, and then you get a call from your friend to see if you can still fly at 10am that day, can you conduct the flight?

A

Only if you are not under the influence of alcohol at that time. 8 hours is not always enough to recover from the effects of alcohol

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19
Q

May a person enter an aircraft while they are intoxicated if they are not a member of the operating crew?

A

No, a person shall not while in a state of intoxication enter an aircraft.

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20
Q

You have flown your friends to Bendigo for the races. At the end of the day it is evident that two of your passengers are intoxicated. Can you depart? How would you handle the situation?

A

Cannot depart until they are no longer intoxicated.

Get them to drink water and rest and wait.

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21
Q

Can you take any over the counter drugs before flying? What precautions should you take?

A

Shouldn’t take any drugs without seeking the advice of a DAME.

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22
Q

What distance does the aeroplane need to be from the following during refueling operations?

A

Location of aircraft

a) within 5 metres of any sealed building
b) within 6 metres of other stationary aircraft;
c) within 15 metres of any exposed public area;
d) within 9 metres of any unsealed building in the case of an aircraft with a maximum take-off weight less than 5700kg;

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23
Q

From what point on the aeroplane is that distance measured from?

A

Fuel tank filler point (fuel caps)

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24
Q

Can fuel be loaded while your passenger are on board getting settled in?

A

No. Fuel cannot be loaded while passengers are on board, entering or leaving, the aircraft.

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25
Q

What precautions should be taken before the refueling equipment comes in contact with the aircraft?

A

The aircraft and all items of fuelling equipment shall be connected in such a way as to ensure that they are of the same electrical potential and, where a suitable earth point is available at the fuelling site, both the aircraft and the equipment shall be effectively connected to that point.

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26
Q

Should the aeroplane have its park brake on when refueling from a fuel truck? What about from a fuel bowser?

A

Where mobile refuelling equipment is used, the equipment shall be so placed that it can be rapidly moved in the event of fire. At fuel bowser the aeroplane park brake should be off so it can be pushed away.

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27
Q

How far away does once of your passenger have to be from you refuelling the plane to have a smoke?

A

15m clear of the aircraft and ground fuelling equipment.

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28
Q

What are the rules regarding fire extinguishers?

A

At least 2 fire extinguishers of approved type and capacity shall be positioned within 15 metres but not less than 6 metres from the aircraft and the fuelling equipment or carried on the fuelling equipment.
If the fire extinguishers are carried on the fuelling equipment they must have quick release brackets, be readily available from either side and be as far as practicable from the fuel tanks.

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29
Q

When must fuel drains be completed?

A

Before the first flight of the day, after each refuelling. (Oxford – before each flight)

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30
Q

What must be checked before refueling from drums?

A

All caps are sealed, test for water contamination before refueling commences or moving drum, expiry dates for the fuel checked (AVGAS has a shelf life of 2 years).

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31
Q

List some maintenance that you can perform?

A

Schedule 8 - Maintenance that may be carried out on a Class B aircraft

  1. Removal or installation of landing gear tyres, but only if the removal or installation does not involve the complete jacking of the aircraft.
  2. Repair of pneumatic tubes of landing gear tyres.
  3. Servicing of landing gear wheel bearings.
  4. Replacement of defective safety wiring or split pins, but not including wiring or pins in control systems.
  5. Removal or refitting of a door, but only if:
    (a) no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved; and
    (b) if the aircraft is to be operated with the door removed — the aircraft has a flight manual and the manual indicates that the aircraft may be operated with the door removed.
  6. Replacement of side windows in an unpressurised aircraft.
  7. Replacement of seats, but only if the replacement does not involve disassembly of any part of the primary structure of the aircraft.
  8. Repairs to the upholstery or decorative furnishings of the interior of the cabin or cockpit.
  9. Replacement of seat belts or harnesses.
  10. Replacement or repair of signs and markings.
  11. Replacement of bulbs, reflectors, glasses, lenses or lights.
  12. Replacement, cleaning, or setting gaps of, spark plugs.
  13. Replacement of batteries.
  14. Changing oil filters or air filters.
  15. Changing or replenishing engine oil or fuel.
  16. Lubrication not requiring disassembly or requiring only the removal of non-structural parts, or of cover plates, cowlings and fairings.
  17. Replenishment of hydraulic fluid.
  18. Application of preservative or protective materials, but only if no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved.
  19. Removal or replacement of equipment used for agricultural purposes.
  20. Removal or replacement of glider tow hooks.
  21. Carrying out of an inspection under regulation 42G of a flight control system that has been assembled, adjusted, repaired, modified or replaced.
  22. Carrying out of a daily inspection of an aircraft.
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32
Q

What must be completed in a daily inspection?

A

Refer CAR Schedule 5

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33
Q

How long is the MR valid for?

A

1 year or 100 hours (flight switch)

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34
Q

What are the different sections of the MR?

A

Part 1 – Scheduled maintenance, Part 2 - Unscheduled maintenance, Part 3 – Daily Insp. Cert.
Discuss filling out MR after daily inspection - what numbers to fill in (order to do so), not to use a pencil

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35
Q

What instruments would be required for a Day VFR Private operation?

A

As per CAO 20.18
1. ASI
2. Altimeter
3. Direct reading magnetic compass
4. An accurate timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds. This may be carried on the person of the pilot or navigator.
For Airwork (flight training)
Outside Air Temperature Gauge
Turn & Balance Coordinator
As per the aeroplane Flight Manual (C172)
Ammeter, Fuel quantity indicators, fuel flow indicator, Oil T’s & P’s, Tachometer, stall warning system, flap position indicator, elevator trim indicator

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36
Q

Could I depart on a private flight if the VSI was unserviceable?

A

YES.
VSI not required by CAO 20.18 or flight manual
A private or aerial work aircraft must not be operated under the V.F.R., unless:
a. all instruments and equipment required to be fitted to the aircraft under subsection 3 (Instrumentation for flight under Visual Flight Rules) are serviceable before take-off; or
b. CASA has approved the flight with the unserviceable instrument or equipment and any applicable conditions that CASA has specified in writing have been complied with; or

NOTE: Where flight is conducted with unserviceable instruments or equipment, the unserviceable instruments or equipment shall be prominently placarded ‘UNSERVICEABLE’ or removed from the aircraft.

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37
Q

What documentation is required to be carried on a private flight?

A

Flight crew licence and medical, aircraft flight manual, maintenance release

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38
Q

What if travelling outside Australia?

A

Certificate of airworthiness, certificate of registration

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39
Q

Where are these documents found?

A

In the aeroplane flight manual

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40
Q

Can you fly outside of Australia?

A

No. Only fly Australian registered aircraft, within Australia and its territories

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41
Q

What are the five uses of oil in an engine?

A

Lubricate, cool, clean, protect and seal

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42
Q

Why do we need a compass deviation card?

A

Allow for errors induced in the compass from the electrical equipment in the aircraft

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43
Q

What type of fuel does the C172 use? Can we use the green coloured fuel?

A

AVGAS 100LL. Green – 100/130, yes can use

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44
Q

What is the total capacity (liters) of the C172? What is the total useable fuel of the C172?

A

Total – 212L Useable – 201L

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45
Q

Define the following speeds: (draw ASI and label speeds and arcs)

A
VNE – 163kts
VNO – 129kts					
VA – 105kts @ 2550lbs - 90kts @ 1900lbs
VFE – 10° - 110kts, 20° & 30° - 85kts, 
VS – 48kts
Vso – 40kts
White Arc – full flap operating range (Vso - VFE)
Green Arc – normal operating range (VS – VNO)
Yellow Arc – operations in smooth air only (VNO – VNE)
Red Line – maximum speed
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46
Q

What is VA? When would you use it?

A

Speed above which full or abrupt control inputs cannot be made. Turbulence penetration speed.

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47
Q

What is the max crosswind for the C172?

A

15kts

48
Q

In flight the volt annunciator light comes on, what does this indicate? What would you do?

A

Alternator may have failed.
Master – OFF, Alternator Circuit Breaker – CHECK IN, Master – ON, Check M BUS volts>27.5/ M BUS amps charging
Master – OFF, Electrical Load – REDUCE (avionics, pitot heat, becon, lights OFF)

49
Q

Which instruments utilise static pressure?

A

Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator

50
Q

Which instruments utilize pitot pressure?

A

Airspeed Indicator

51
Q

What error would the instruments show if the static became blocked?

A

Descend Level Climb

ASI, Altimeter, VSI Overread No Error Underread

52
Q

What error would the instruments show if the pitot became blocked?

A

Descend Level Climb

Airspeed Underread No Error Overread

53
Q

In the C172 what processes the pitot-static pressure information?

A
ADC- Air Data Computer provides:
Altimeter
Airspeed Indicator
Vertical speed indicator
Outside Air Temperature Gauge
54
Q

In a conventional cockpit which instrument are operated by gyroscopes?

A

AH, DG and Turn & Balance

55
Q

In the C172 how do these instruments get their information?

A

AHRS-Attitude Heading Reference System provides:
Attitude Indicator
Horizontal Situation Indicator (Magnetic data sourced from Magnetometer in left wing)
Turn and Slip Indicator

56
Q

What instruments use gyros in the C172?

A

Standby AI. Also T&B for autopilot.

57
Q

What type of engine does the C172 have? (Italic = Important aspects)

A

Textron Lycoming. Normally aspirated, direct drive, air-cooled, horizontally opposed, fuel injected, four cylinder engine with 360 cu.in. displacements

58
Q

Describe the C172 electrical system?

A

28 volt DC electrical system. Belt driven 60-ampre alternator. A 24 volt main storage battery located inside the engine cowling on the left firewall

59
Q

What is run by the essential bus?

A

The PFD, ADC, AHRS, Nav 1, Engine indicating system, VHF COM 1, standby indicator lights

60
Q

What type of oil system does the C172 have?

A

Wet sump type lubrication system with 8 quartz capacity.
(Discuss) Oil is drawn from the sump through a filter screen to the engine driven oil pump then through the oil filter and oil cooler. Oil from the cooler is the circulated and lubricated the oil then returns to the sump by gravity.

61
Q

Describe the C172 fuel system?

A

Fuel flows by gravity from the two vented integral fuel tanks to an engine driven fuel pump to the fuel/air control unit which correctly proportions the fuel flow to the induction air flow. This fuel- air mixture is then injected into the intake valve chamber of each cylinder.

62
Q

What are the requirements for flight under the VFR?

A

AIP ENR 1.2 -1
Flight is conducted in:
• VMC
• When operating below 2000ft, navigate by visual reference to the ground or water
• Sub-sonic speeds
• Unless the pilot has an CIR or NVFR, the VFR flight must not depart before first flight or after last light unless the ETA for the destination (or alternate) is at least 10 minutes before last light after allowing for any required holding

63
Q

What are the VMC requirements when flying in:

A

ENR 1.2-2
Class C Airspace
5000m VIS, 1500m horizontal and 1000 feet vertical separation from cloud
Class G Airspace
Below 10000 ft AMSL
5000m VIS, 1500m horizontal and 1000 feet vertical separation from cloud
At or below 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL whichever is the higher:
5000m VIS, clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water & carry a radio
Class D Airspace
5000m VIS, clear of cloud 500ft vertically below, 1,000ft vertically above, 600m horizontal

64
Q

What is the Special VFR clearance?

A

AIP ENR 1.2-1

Clear of cloud and 1,600m visibility

65
Q

What is the VFR alternate minima?

A

ENR 1.1-87
More than SCT below 1500ft AGL
8km Visibility (or a probability that the visibility will fall below the minimum due fog mist dust)
Crosswind or downwind greater than the maximum permitted
When thunderstorms of their associated serve turbulence or their probability is forecast at the destination

66
Q

If you are flying from MB to YTDN and for your return to MB the weather is below the alternate minima do you require an alternate?

A

ENR 1.1-87 No. Within 50nm of the departure aerodrome.

67
Q

What are the 3 different types of NOTAMs?

A

Location, Head Office & FIR

68
Q

What does CAVOK mean?

A

Ceiling and Visibility OK. No significant cloud below 5,000ft, 10km or more visibility, not CB or TCu at any height, no significant weather.

69
Q

What is a METAR?

A

A METAR is a routine reports (METARs) of the actual conditions at the location of issue are issued at fixed times, hourly or half hourly.

70
Q

What is a TTF?

A

A Trend Forecast (TTF) is an aerodrome weather report (METAR/SPECI) to which a statement of trend is applied.
The TTF relates to weather conditions expected to affect the aerodrome of origin for the validity period of the forecast, which is normally 3 hours.

71
Q

What does the SHRA AND - GR mean?

A

Showers of rain and light hail

72
Q

Where would you find information regarding the requirements for landing areas/ aerodromes?

A

Civil Aviation Advisory Publication 92-1(1)
Purpose of CAAP 92-1(1) (Discuss)
Civil Aviation Regulation 92 (1) states that: “An aircraft shall not land at, or take-off from, any place unless: …(d) the place….is suitable for use as an aerodrome for the purposes of the landing and taking-off of aircraft; and, having regard to all the circumstances of the proposed landing or take-off (including the prevailing weather conditions), the aircraft can land at, or take-off from, the place in safety.” Regulation 92 (1) does not specify the method of determining which “circumstances”, other than the prevailing weather conditions, should be considered in any particular case. These matters are the responsibility of the pilot in command and, in some circumstances, are shared with the aircraft operator. These guidelines set out factors that may be used to determine the suitability of a place for the landing and taking-off of aeroplanes. Experience has shown that, in most cases, application of these guidelines will enable a take-off or landing to be completed safely, provided that the pilot in command:
a) has sound piloting skills; and
b) displays sound airmanship.

73
Q

What is a CAAP for?

A

The Civil Aviation Regulations set out the legal requirements that must be complied with in relation to the subject matter of this publication. There may be a number of ways of ensuring that the requirements of the Civil Aviation Regulations are met. This publication sets out methods that may be used and which experience has shown should, in the majority of cases, ensure compliance with the Regulations.

74
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find information on fuel flow at different cruising altitudes?

A

Section 5 – Performance

75
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find information on the C172 engine type?

A

Section 1 – General

76
Q

Where in the flight manual would you the checklist for an engine fire during start?

A

Section 3 – Emergency Procedures

77
Q

What is the checklist for an engine fire during start?

A
Magnetos switch – START (keep cranking)
Throttle – FULL
Mixture – IDLE CUT-OFF
Fuel Shut-off Valve – OFF (pull out)
Fuel Pump – OFF
Magnetos – OFF
STBY Batt. – OFF
Master – OFF
Park Brake – OFF
Fire Extinguisher – OBTAIN
Aeroplane – EVACUATE
Fire – EXTINGUISH
78
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find information on the C of G limitations?

A

Section 6 – Weight & Balance

79
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find airspeed limitations?

A

Section 2 – Operating Limitations

80
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find required instruments/ systems?

A

Section 2 – Operating Limitations

81
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find a description of the electrical system?

A

Section 7 – Airplane and System Description

82
Q

Where in the flight manual would you find the checklist for a Hot Start?

A

Section 4 – Normal Procedures

83
Q

What requirements must you meet in order to fly under the VFR?

A

In VMC, at subsonic speeds, when below 2,000ft AGL navigate in sight of ground or water, fly between the BoD and EoD-10 mins

84
Q

How long before last light do you need to plan to be on the ground?

A

10 mins (Oxford 30mins)

85
Q

What is the minimum altitude you may fly over terrain?

A

1,000ft AGL over populated areas. 500ft AGL over non-populated areas

86
Q

How often do you require a position fix?

A

Visual reference positive fix must not exceed 30 minutes

87
Q

What are the requirements on planning to avoid CTA?

A

0 – 2,000ft 1nm
2,000ft – 5,000ft 2nm
5,000ft – 10,000ft 4nm

88
Q

Do you need a clearance to track through Class E airspace?

A

No.

89
Q

When must you fly hemispherical levels?

A

When above 5,000ft AMSL

90
Q

After departing YMMB for a flight to YMAY what QNH should you set at TOC?

A

Area QNH

91
Q

How long is Area QNH valid for?

A

3 hours

92
Q

When would you set YMAY’s actual QNH you obtained off the ATIS?

A

At top of descent

93
Q

What is an Infant? How must they be carried on a flight?

A

0 – 3 year old. An infant may be carried in the lap of an adult (The infant must not be restrained by a seat belt) or restrained in an approve bassinet

94
Q

What is a Child?

A

3 – 12 years of age.

95
Q

What are the considerations you must make when sitting 2 children sides-by-side?

A

If their combined weight does not exceed 77kg, and they are restrained by lap strap only.
Known as an excess passenger.

96
Q

Can you take 5 children, each weighing 35kg, flying at the one time in your C172?

A

No. Only 1 excess passenger may be carried in aircraft with less than 7 seats.

97
Q

When are you required to wear a seatbelt?

A

Take-off and landing, below 1,000ft AGL, in turbulence, on instrument approach, when only crew member

98
Q

What needs to be included in a Passenger Brief?

A

Use of seats & seatbelts, Emergency exits, No smoking, Stowage of hand luggage, use of flotation, survival equipment

99
Q

What 6 conditions would result in the longest TODR?

A

High temperature, high PH, up slope, rough surface, nil wind, @ MTOW

100
Q

What is Pressure Height?

A

QNH adjusted for elevation

101
Q

How is Density Height different, what does it take into account that PH doesn’t?

A

Temperature

102
Q

What is the required climb gradient for takeoff?

A

6%

103
Q

What is the required climb gradient for en route?

A

4.5%

104
Q

What is the required climb gradient for landing configuration?

A

3.2%

105
Q

Where would you find these requirements?

A

CAO

106
Q

What is the safety factor we apply to take-off and landing charts? Why do we apply it?

A

1.15. In the CAO - to allow for loss in an aeroplanes performance over time.

107
Q

Do we use the wind from the TAF when calculating TODR & LDR?

A

No. Can only use ambient conditions (15minutes).

Plan using nil wind (worst case scenario)

108
Q

What would you do if you suffered a radio failure between YMBU and YBLT?

A

Check radio volume, listening selection and transmitting selection
Check headset jacks and headset volume
Check intercom volume
Check electrics (master circuit breakers and avionics master)
Try second COM (if AVBL)
Prefix all calls with ‘transmitting blind’ (Assume transmitter is working and make all radio calls)
Proceed to nearest suitable CTAF aerodrome and land.

109
Q

What would you do if you suffered a radio failure in CTA over YMAV?

A

Check radio volume, listening selection and transmitting selection
Check headset jacks and headset volume
Check intercom volume
Check electrics (master circuit breakers and avionics master)
Try second COM (if AVBL)
Prefix all calls with ‘transmitting blind’ (Assume transmitter is working and make all radio calls)
Squawk 7600
Listen out on ATIS/Voice Modulated NAVAIDS
- If no clearance limit has been received:
Proceed with latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
- If a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction has been received and acknowledged:
Maintain last assigned level, (or MSA if higher), for three minutes and/or
Hold at nominated location for three minutes, then
Proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
- If being radar vectored:
Maintain last assigned vector for two minutes, and
Climb if necessary to MSA to maintain terrain clearance, then
Proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
Stay in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome.
Report arrival to ATS

110
Q

When must you carry life jackets?

A

When planning to fly beyond a distance from land which would allow the aircraft to reach land with an engine inoperative.

111
Q

When do you need to wear life jackets?

A

Must be worn except when above 2,000ft, or where the normal takeoff or approach is over water.

112
Q

Where do life jackets need to be stowed?

A

Immediately adjacent to each seat.

113
Q

When must you carry life rafts?

A

On flights over water where the aircraft will be further than a distance equal to 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, or 100nm, whichever is less.

114
Q

What are the requirements when the carriage of lift rafts is necessary?

A

Must be able to accommodate everyone on board.

Carry a survival beacon (ELT)

115
Q

What must be carried when flying through designated remote areas?

A

Survival equipment applicable to the terrain being overflown