Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aviation > PPL-AGK > Flashcards

PPL-AGK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the crankshaft responsible for?

A

Turning the linear motion of the piston into rotational motion of the propeller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the camshaft do?

A

Provides the timing sequence for the intake and exhaust valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the intake manifold

A

The ‘tube’ that the gas flows through into the cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the outlet manifold

A

The ‘tube’ that exhaust gases flow out from the cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four stages of the otto cycle?

A

Induction
Compression
Combustion
Exhaust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many revolutions of the crankshaft are involved in one cycle

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

power output depends on what?

A

The amount of gas induced into the cylinders

The temperature reached during combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is engine overspeed most likely to occur given no power changes

A

descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complete combustion only occurs at…

A

The stoichiometric ration (15:1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Air and fuel mixture will burn between

A

8:1 (rich) and 20:1 (lean)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the advantage to a richer mixture

A

Aids in engine cooling (result of excess fuel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is density affected by

A

Pressure
Altitude
Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does detonation occur

A

With spontaneous explosive combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some common causes of detonation

A

High CHT
bad/wrong fuel
over-leaned mixtures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an octane rating

A

resistance to detination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some symptoms of detonation

A

high CHT
significant power loss
Engine vibration
pinging sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If detonation is occurring, what actions should be undertaken

A

reduce power
increase IAS
richen mixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is pre-ignition

A

when the mixture ignites before the spark plugs fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some causes of pre-ignition

A

Cylinders too hot
high power with lean mixture
overheated spark plugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some symptoms of pre-ignition

A

rough running
backfire
high CHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What pressure is used for fuel delivery in a carby

A

low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What pressure is used for fuel delivery with a fuel injected system

A

high pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

avgas 100/130 colour

A

green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

avgas 100ll colour

A

blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

avtur colour

A

yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

mogas colour

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why is the fuel tank vent important

A

it prevents excessive pressure buildup and thus prevents implosions or tank damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what part of the carby sucks fuel to get mixed with air

A

the venturi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the three types of carby icing

A 
Impact ice (ice occurs on walls)
Evaporation ice (fuel vaporises)
Throttle ice (pressure drop results in temperature drop)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a symptom of carby icing

A

Drop in rpm without movement of the throttle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What conditions is carby ice most likely to occur

A

< 20 degrees C

>80% humidity

32
Q

What does carby heat do

A

Use heat from the engine rather than the intake

33
Q

Why is carby heat use on the ground undesirable

A

unfiltered air=bad for the engine

34
Q

Why do we want the carby heat OFF during take-off

A

warmer air=less dense air=less power output

35
Q

What doe the accelerator pump do?

A

Adds additional fuel to the air/fuel mixture to compensate for the lag that otherwise would occur (because the air travels faster than the fuel=leaner mixture=less power)

36
Q

What are two core disadvantages to a carby system

A

Carby icing

Can’t be operated inverted

37
Q

Why is the correct amount of fuel sent to the fuel injector nozzle in a fuel injection system?

A

Because the Fuel Control Unit monitors the position of the throttle and adjusts accordingly

38
Q

What two sources of power are available for a fuel pump

A

electrical system

Engine

39
Q

In the event of a fuel pump malfunction, what will occur

A

bypass opens allowing fuel to flow around the pump

40
Q

Is higher or lower temperature fuel more likely to vaporise?

A

high temperature

41
Q

Vapour locks can occur in what type of fuel system

A

Fuel injection system

42
Q

What is one way to alleviate a vapour lock

A

fuel pump/boost pump

43
Q

What is a likely indication of fuel vaporisation/vapour locks

A

fluctuating fuel pressure gauge

44
Q

define the chordline

A

straight line joining the leading edge and the trailing edge

45
Q

define the angle of attack

A

angle between chordline and relative airflow

46
Q

The single force that lift acts through is known as the

A

centre of pressure

47
Q

When will rpm be constant in terms of torque

A

Engine torque=Propeller torque

48
Q

If engine torque > propellor torque, what happens to rpm

A

increase

49
Q

If engine torque < propellor torque, what happens to rpm

A

decrease

50
Q

Coarse pitch propellors are most suitable for what airspeeds

A

High

51
Q

Fine pitch propellors are most suitable for what airspeeds

A

low

52
Q

What does a constant speed unit do?

A

Varies the pitch of the propellor to maintain an optimum angle of attack

53
Q

What is the aerodynamic twisting moment

A

A force which attempts to twist the blade towards coarse pitch ( a result of the total reaction force)

54
Q

What is the centrifugal twisting moment

A

The natural tendency for any rotating body to align itself with the plane of rotation (attempts to achieve fine pitch)

55
Q

Which is stronger, CTM or ATM

A

CTM

56
Q

Why are propellors twisted

A

Because if they weren’t, the outside travels further (therefore faster), and thus produces more thrust than the inside, resulting in uneven thrust being produced and the propellor bending.

57
Q

What does the term ‘feather’ refer to when talking about propellors

A

When the blade chord line is parallel with the aircraft’s relative airflow, minimising drag, and stopping the propellor from spinning.

58
Q

When reducing power on aircraft with pitch control, what rule can we follow

A

power down prop down

59
Q

When increasing power on aircraft with pitch control, what rule can we follow

A

mix up, prop up, power up

60
Q

CTM moved blades towards what pitch

A

Fine

61
Q

Hartzell is associated with …. pitch

A

fine

62
Q

McCauley is associated with …. pitch

A

coarse

63
Q

When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur

A

Low power settings when engine isn’t warm enough to burn excess oil

64
Q

What is a gyroscope

A

An object that has mass and is rotating

65
Q

What is rigidity

A

The tendency for an object to get all of its mass in the same plane of rotation

66
Q

What 3 factors affect rigidity

A

Mass
Radius of mass from the object
Angular velocity

67
Q

What is precession

A

The tendency to resist a force in one spot and displace it by 90 degrees in the direction of motion

68
Q

Why would electric gyros be necessary at high altitudes

A

Because it is likely that not enough vacuum can be generated

69
Q

What is the advantage of a vacuum driven gyroscope

A

Independent of electrical system

70
Q

What are the advantages of electrically driven gyroscopes

A

Operate more efficiently (more predictable)

71
Q

The AH operates off which gyroscopic principle

A

rigidity

72
Q

The DG operates off which gyroscopic principle

A

rigidity

73
Q

The turn coordinator operates off which gyroscopic principle

A

Precession

74
Q

what is PUDSUC (for the ASI)

A

Pitot blockage under-read descent

Static blockage under-read climb

75
Q

If the static vent becomes blocked, what does the altimeter do

A

over-reads on descent and under-reads in a climb (remains constant)

76
Q

If the static vent becomes blocked, what does the VSI do

A

reads zero

Aviation (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions