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PPL > PPL EXAM PREP > Flashcards

PPL EXAM PREP Flashcards

0
Q

Unless what conditions have passed, can a private pilot take passengers up?

A

3 take offs and landings either dual or solo in previous 90 days

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1
Q

How long after a blood donation can you fly?

A

24 hours

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2
Q

What is pilot in command responsible for?

A

Start, continuation, diversion and end of flight
Operation and safety of aircraft during flight
Safety of persons and cargo on plane
Conduct and safety of members of crew

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3
Q

What documents are required for flight within Australia?

A

Maintenance release
Licence and medical of operating crew
Flight manual

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4
Q

What conditions can you carry a dog?

A

Carried in passenger cabin of aircraft
Placed on moisture absorbent mat
Restrained in such a way that prevent dog from moving off mat

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5
Q

During refuelling, the aircraft and ground fuelling equipment must be how far away?

A 
5m sealed building
6m stationary aircraft
15m exposed public areas
15m unsealed building (mtow >5700)
9m unsealed building
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6
Q

An aircraft shall not be started or operated within?

A

5m sealed building
8m other aircraft
15m exposed public area
8 metres unsealed building

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7
Q

At what height can you fly over populous area?

A

1000ft

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8
Q

What defines an ‘overtaking’ aircraft?

A

Approach from the rear on line forming angle less than 70 degrees

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9
Q

What instruments are required for flights under vfr?

A

Airspeed indicating system
Altimeter
Direct reading magnetic compass
Timepiece

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10
Q

What tolerances must be applied in class e or g airspace?

A

0-2000 agl plus/minus 1nm
2001-5000 agl plus/minus 2nm
5001-10000 agl plus/minus 4nm
100001/ FL 200 plus/minus 8nm

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11
Q

How much holding fuel do you need with an INTER.?

A

30minutes

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12
Q

How much holding fuel do you need with a TEMPO?

A

60 minutes

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13
Q

How do you convert from east standard time to UTC?

A

Subtract 10 hours

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14
Q

Convert central standard time to UTC.

A

Minus 9.5 hours

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15
Q

Convert western standard time to UTC

A

Subtract 8 hours

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16
Q

What does CAVOK mean?

A

Visibility of 10km or more
Nil significant cloud (no cloud below 5000ft)
Nil significant weather

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17
Q

How often are routine reports (METAR) issued?

A

Hourly or half hourly

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18
Q

How often are special reports (SPECI) made?

A

When conditions fluctuate or below specified criteria

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19
Q

What is a weather report by pilots called?

A

AIREP SPECIAL

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20
Q

When shall life jackets be equipped on aircraft?

A

Single engine-over water and distance from land greater than that which would allow the aircraft to reach land with engine inoperative
Multi engine-greater than 50nm

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21
Q

When shall life rafts be carried on board?

A

Flown over water at a distance greater than permitted distance (30mins normal cruise speed or 100nm whichever is less)

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22
Q

What shall the PIC ensure passengers are briefed on?

A 
Smoking
Use and adjustment of seat belts
Location of emergency exits
Use of floatation devices
Use of O2 where applicable 
Stowage of hand luggage
Presence of survival equipment if applicable
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23
Q

When do you require an ELT?

A

Before undertaking a flight greater than 50nm from aerodrome of departure

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24
Q

What are the exceptions to requirements of ELT?

A

Flights within 50nm of aerodrome of departure
Aerial agriculture flight
Casa approval
If flight is for purpose of moving aircraft to place where ELT is to be installed, repaired or overhauled
Entry has been made in log book

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25
Q

What is CTAF.

A

Frequency which pilots at non towered aerodrome to make positional broadcasts

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26
Q

When should turns onto final be completed by?

A

Not less than 500ft above aerodrome elevation

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27
Q

What are the cruise levels for magnetic track?

A

0-179 degrees odd 1000s plus 500 (1500,3500,5500,7500)

180-359 degrees evens plus 500 (2500,4500,6500,8500)

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28
Q

In class d, what is distance from cloud horizontal and vertically?

A

600m horizontally

1000ft above 500ft below

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29
Q

How long is a class 1 medical valid for?

A

1 year

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30
Q

How long is a class 2 medical valid for?

A 
4 years (less than 40)
2 years (greater than 40)
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31
Q

A pilot must not fly if consumption of drugs or alcohol impairs capacity to act as PIC, true or false?

A

True

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32
Q

What is the permitted BAC.

A

0.02%

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33
Q

How long do you need to wait to fly after gastro?

A

At least 72 hours

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34
Q

What are some symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Impaired judgement
Tingling cyanosis (blue) fingers, toes, lips
Poor muscle control

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35
Q

What is the useful consciousness for pilot and person sitting quietly at 20000, 25000 and 30000ft?

A

Ft. Pilot. Sitting

  1. 10 mins. 20 mins
  2. 3mins. 5 mins
  3. 1mins. 3mins
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36
Q

What will happen to carbon monoxide detector in presence of carbon monoxide?

A

It will turn black.

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37
Q

At what g force will a pilot usually grey out?

A

3.5-4.5 g’s

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38
Q

At what g force will you black out?

A

5 g’s

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39
Q

How long should a pilot not fly for after scuba diving without decompression stops?

A

4 hours

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40
Q

How long should a pilot wait for after scuba diving less than. 4 hours with decompression stops?

A

12 hours

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41
Q

How long should a pilot wait foR after scuba diving for more than 4 hours with decompression stops?

A

48 hours

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42
Q

What is the recommended db level for wearing hearing protection?

A

80db

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43
Q

What is a threat?

A

Situation or event that has potential to negatively impact on safety of flight or any influence that promotes opportunity for pilot error
Occurs outside influence of crew
Anticipate, unexpected, latent, internal or external
Eg weather, traffic, weight and balance, high terraign, density altitude, runway length

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44
Q

What are errors?

A

Flight crew actions or inactions that lead to deviation from crew or organisation intentions or expectations, reduce safety margins and increase probability of adverse operations on ground or inflight.
Can be handling, procedural or communicational

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45
Q

What are your priorities in survival situation?

A

Protection
Location
Water
Food

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46
Q

What is the chord line?

A

Straight line between leading edge and trailing edge.

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47
Q

What is the relative airflow?

A

Opposite to direct of path or aircraft

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48
Q

What is the angle of attack?

A

Angle between chord line and relative airflow

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49
Q

What is chamber?

A

Curvature of aerofoil

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50
Q

What does increasing the camber of aerofoil do?

A

Cause airflow over it to accelerate more generating more lift at same angle of attack

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51
Q

What happens as angle of attack increases?

A

Lift increases
Speed decreases
Airflow becomes turbulent
Centre of pressure moves forward

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52
Q

What happens as angle of attack goes past stall angle?

A

Centre of pressure moves rearwards

Pitch couple increases

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53
Q

What is the tendency of banking during climb?

A

Over banking during climb due to increase speed and angle of attack on outer wing

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54
Q

What is the tendency of bank in descent?

A

Under bank in descent due to increased inner wing angle of attack

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55
Q

What is adverse aileron yaw and what causes it?

A

Tendency of aircraft to yaw out of turn

Caused by induced drag on down going aileron

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56
Q

How is adverse yaw minimised?

A 
Fries ailerons (offset hinges)
Differential ailerons (up going aileron goes higher than down going)
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57
Q

What is the load factor formulas?

A

Lift divided by weight

1/cos bank angle

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58
Q

What is the stall speed banked formula?

A

Stall speed / square root cos bank angle

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59
Q

What happens in a spin?

A

Down going wing stalls first as has larger angle of attack
Up going wing not completely stalled
Rolls due to lift plus secondary affect of yaw

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60
Q

How do we get true airspeed?

A

IAS corrected for instrument and pressure error gives CAS
CAS correct for compressibility error give EAS
EAS corrected for density error gives TAS

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61
Q

What is a rate one turn?

A

180 degrees in 1 minute
360 degrees in 2 minutes
3 degrees per second

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62
Q

What is the formula for angle of bank?

A

10% speed plus 7 = angle of bank (degrees)

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63
Q

What will increasing weight have on radius and rate of turn?

A

Increase weight will increase lift, TAS and radius of turn but decrease rate of turn

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64
Q

What will decreasing TAS have on radius and rate of turn?

A

Decrease TAS will decrease radius of turn and increase rate of turn

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65
Q

What affect will doubling the TAS have on radius of turn?

A

4times turn radius

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66
Q

What will increase angle of bank have on radius and rate of turn?

A

Increase angle of bank will decrease radius of turn and increase rate of turn

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67
Q

What affect will decreasing angle of bank have on radius and rate of turn?

A

Decreasing angle of bank will increase radius of turn and decrease rate of turn

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68
Q

What is maximum range?

A

Speed which produces minimum drag

Least power required for greatest TAS

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69
Q

What affect will head wing have on glide?

A

Decrease glide distance, no change to endurance

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70
Q

What affect will tail wind have on glide range?

A

Increase range, no change to endurance

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71
Q

What is maximum endurance?

A

Minimum power fuel consumption minimum

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72
Q

Along which axis is longitudinal stability?

A

Lateral axis (pitch)

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73
Q

Along which axis is lateral stability?

A

Longitudinal axis ( roll)

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74
Q

Along which axis is directional stability?

A

Normal axis (yaw)

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75
Q

Forward or rear centre of gravity will increase stability?

A

Forward

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76
Q

How is lateral stability increased?

A

Dihedral wings

Sweep back wings

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77
Q

When is wake turbulence greatest?

A

Heavy aircraft, slow with gear and flaps up

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78
Q

What is the connecting rod?

A

Forms a link between piston and cylinder

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79
Q

What is a crank shaft?

A

Changes straight line motion of piston into rotary turning motion required for prop

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80
Q

What is a camshaft?

A

Provides timing sequence for intake and exhaust valves

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81
Q

What are the cycles of combustion?

A

Intake -piston down drawing in air/fuel mixture
Compression -piston up compressing air/fuel
Combustion-spark ignites mixture and pressure forces piston down
Exhaust-piston forced up barrel expelling spent gas

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82
Q

In the 4 stroke cycle, how man revs of he crank shaft are produced?

A

2

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83
Q

What is the stichcometric ratio?

A

15 parts air to 1 part fuel

8: 1 rich
20: 1 lean

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84
Q

What affect does slightly rich mixture have on engine?

A

No great effect on power, excess fuel aids in cooling engine

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85
Q

What effect does slightly lean mixture have in power and engine?

A

Reduces power as not all air used and engine temperature increases

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86
Q

What happens to engine performance as altitude and temperature increase?

A

Density decreases resulting in lower engine performance

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87
Q

What is detonation and its symptoms?

A

Spontaneous explosive combustion
Caused by high CHT, expired fuel and incorrect (low) fuel grade.
Symptoms include high and increasing CHT, significant power loss, engine vibrating and pinging sound in engine

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88
Q

How do you rectify detonation?

A

Mixture rich, reduce power

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89
Q

What is pre ignition and its symptoms?

A

Fuel air mixture ignites before spark plugs fire
Caused by hot spots in cylinder (lead deposits) and high power with lean mixture
Symptoms include rough running, back firing and high CHT

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90
Q

How do you rectify pre ignition?

A

Mixture rich, reduce power

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91
Q

What type of engines is AVGAS used in?

A

Piston engines

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92
Q

What colour is 100/130 AVGAS?

A

Green

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93
Q

What colour is 100LL AVGAS?

A

Blue

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94
Q

What engines is AVTUR used in?

A

Jet engines

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95
Q

What colour is AVTUR?

A

Clear/straw

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96
Q

What colour is MOGAS?

A

Red

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97
Q

What would occur if there was no fuel vent?

A

Fuel would be unable to enter lines

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98
Q

What does the fuel vent allow?

A

Air to flow into tank to replace fuel used

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99
Q

When is carburettor ice likely to occur?

A

OAT is less than 20 degrees and humidity approx 80%

100
Q

What is impact ice?

A

Temperature of components falls below zero and supercooled water droplets freeze on impact with these surfaces

101
Q

What is evaporation ice?

A

As temperature decreases due to vaporisation of fuel, if there is water vapour in air, it will freeze to form ice

102
Q

What is throttle ice?

A

When operating at part throttle, as air accelerates over partially closed butterfly valve, it’s accelerated causing pressure drop and temp drop encourages ice to form

103
Q

What does carby heat do?

A

Prevents and/or removes carby ice

Directs hot unfiltered air from exhaust

104
Q

What is secondary effect if carby heat?

A

alternate air in emergency

105
Q

Why should prolonged use of carby heat be avoided?

A

Unfiltered air into engine

Reduction of power

106
Q

What is the main disadvantage of fuel injection system?

A

Prone to vapour lock

107
Q

What is the casa maximum and minimum amount of oil?

A

5-8 quartz

108
Q

What is the maximum and minimum pressure for oil?

A

45-90psi

109
Q

Where does the sum of all lifting forces act through?

A

Centre of pressure

110
Q

What is propeller torque?

A

Acts opposite motion of propeller blades

111
Q

What is engine torque?

A

Acts to overcome propeller torque and allows prop to rotate

112
Q

What happens when engine and propeller torque are equal?

A

RPM is constant

113
Q

What happens when engine torque is greater than prop torque?

A

RPM will increase

114
Q

What happens when engine torque is less then prop torque?

A

RPM decreases

115
Q

At constant RPM, what happens to angle of attack as TAS increase?

A

Angle of attack decreases

116
Q

At constant RPM, what happens to angle of attack as TAS decreases?

A

Angle of attack increases

117
Q

At constant TAS, what happens to angle of attack on the prop as RPM increases?

A

Angle of attack on prop increases

118
Q

At constant TAS, what happens to angle of attack in prop as RPM decreases?

A

Angle of attack on prop decreases

119
Q

What is aerodynamic twisting moment?

A

Force attempts to twist blades towards coarse pitch

120
Q

What is centrifugal moment?

A

Natural tendency for rotating body to align with plane of rotation, attempt to twist to fine pitch.
Stronger than ATM

121
Q

What does the governor do?

A

Maintains constant prop speed and therefore constant RPM. Done by changing blade angle through speeder springs and flywheels

122
Q

What does the McCauley system do?

A

Relies on oil pressure to move props to coarse pitch. Assisted by spring to return prop to fine. Loss in oil pressure will result in fine pitch stop

123
Q

What does the Hartzell system do?

A

Relies on oil pressure to move prop to fine pitch. Counter weight to move to coarse pitch. Loss in oil pressure cause the coarse pitch stop.

124
Q

What happens if the speeder spring fails?

A

Fly weights fling outward, governor sense overspend and blades coarsen. Result large RPM drop

125
Q

Why is battery kept well ventilated?

A

To prevent buildup of hydrogen gas.

126
Q

What does the centre zero amenter do?

A

Measures current to and from battery

127
Q

What does the left zero ammeter do?

A

Measures alternator output?

128
Q

What does a positive output on centre zero ammeter mean?

A

Current into battery is charge, normal with engine running

129
Q

What does a negative output mean on centre zero ammeter mean?

A

Current out of battery is discharge, normal when engine is not running

130
Q

What does excessive positive output on centre zero ammeter mean?

A

Battery is not holding charge

131
Q

What does excessive negative output mean on centre zero ammeter?

A

Alternator has failed.

132
Q

How long does standby battery supply power for?

A

Approximately 30 mins to essential bus

133
Q

What is a fuse?

A

Thin wire that melts if current too high.

134
Q

What is a circuit breaker?

A

Spring to separate line if too much current sensed. Once cooled you can reset but not more than once

135
Q

If left magneto is engaged, what is happening.

A

Left is engaged, right is earthed

136
Q

Which instruments run off vacuum driven gyro?

A

AH and DG

137
Q

What instruments run off electric driven gyro?

A

Turn coordinator

138
Q

If the static tube is blocked, what happens to VSI, ALT and ASI on climb?

A

VSI - 0
ALT - under read, constant
ASI - under read

139
Q

If the static tube is blocked, what will happen to VSI, ALT and ASI on descend?

A

VSI - 0
ALT - over read, constant
ASI - over read

140
Q

If QNH is set as 1017 when it is actually 1005, at 3500 what is actually height?

A

1017-1005=12
12x30=360ft
3500+360=3860ft actual height

141
Q

What are the compass errors?

A

Apparent turn to South when accelerating (east or west heading)
Apparent turn to North when decelerating (east or west heading)
Doesn’t occur when heading is north or south

142
Q

What are the turning errors?

A

Overshoot north by 30 degrees
Undershoot south by 30 degrees
Maximum when turning north and south headings
Minimum when East or west headings.

143
Q

What direction are all circuit patterns unless otherwise specified by ATC or ersa?

A

Left hand circuits

144
Q

If departing from non towered aerodrome, contrary to circuit direction when should turns be commenced?

A

1500ft AGL or 3nm

145
Q

An aircraft must not commence takeoff until preceding aircraft has?

A

Crossed upwind end of runway
Commenced turn
If runway longer 1800m, airborne and 1800m ahead
If both <2000kg, preceding airborne and 600m ahead
Vacated and taxing away
Crossed or stopped short runway

146
Q

An aircraft must not continue approach to land until?

A

Preceding aircraft us airborne and commenced turn and/or beyond point runway which landing aircraft could land, roll and manoeuvre safely.
Preceding aircraft vacated and taxing away
Preceding aircraft crossed or stopped short

147
Q

What is the minimum height for aerobatics?

A

3000ft above heighest obstruction with radius of 600m

148
Q

If flying outside Australia, what additional documentation do you require?

A

Certificate of registration
Certificate of airworthiness
Radio licence
List of names, placed of embarkation and destination for passengers

149
Q

What separation will ATC provide for wake turbulence?

A

Parallel runways less than 760m apart and when aircraft behind and same level or 1000m below

150
Q

How many fire extinguishers do we need and how far away?

A

2 within 15m but not less than 6m

151
Q

Can fire extinguishers be carried on refuelling equipment?

A

Yes only if:
Quick release brackets
Available either side
As as far as practicable from fuelling points

152
Q

What does white cone with red stripe mean?

A

Unserviceable area

153
Q

What does yellow cone with red stripe mean?

A

Parking area

154
Q

What does yellow cone mean?

A

Taxiway

155
Q

What does blue cone mean?

A

Helicopter manuerving area

156
Q

What does white gable marker mean?

A

Edge of runway

157
Q

What does yellow gable marker mean?

A

Used along taxiway

158
Q

What classes of airspace is VMC in?

A

C/E, D and G

159
Q

When should you plan to land before last light?

A

10mins before

160
Q

Avoiding CTA,

A

0-2000ft agl plus/minus 1nm
2001-5000 plus/minus 2nm
5001/10000 plus/minus 4

161
Q

What is QNH?

A

Pressure at mean sea level, pressure below 10000ft

162
Q

What do you use if local QNH is unknown?

A

Area forecast QNH, valid for 3 hours

163
Q

When asked by the ATC to change level, when must this be commenced by and what rate?

A

Commenced no later than a minute after being asked

No less than 500ft/minute but last 1000 must be at 500ft/minute

164
Q

When are you required to make a transmission on CTAF?

A 
Prior to 10nm inbound
Before joining circuit
Final approach
Departing circuit
In vicinity of aerodrome
Before taxi
Entering runway
165
Q

What must you be/done to gain a PPL.

A 
17 years old
Hold flight radio ops licence
Pass in ppl theory
Pass in ppl flight test
40 hours, 5pic, 5 cross country 2IF
one flight greater 150nm 1 full stop and 1 touch and go from 2 or more aerodromes
166
Q

How long before needing to see a dame can ppl be sick?

A

30 days

167
Q

When are you required to check fuel?

A

Before commenced of each days flight and immediately after refuelling

168
Q

When are seat belts required to be worn?

A 
Take offs and landings
Instrument approach
Less than 1000ft
In turbulence
By one pilot all times
169
Q

What is the maximum weight of cargo that can be placed on seat?

A

77kg

170
Q

2 children may occupy one seat if?

A

Combined weight less than 77

Seated side by side and lapstrap only

171
Q

From what heights is temperature assumed to be constant -56.7

A

36090 to 65617

172
Q

At what heights is temp assumed to rise by 1degree per 1000ft?

A

65617-104987

173
Q

What heights are polar and tropical tropopause?

A

25000 and 60000 ft

174
Q

At 5000ft AMSL, what is approximate hPa?

A

845

175
Q

What does more dense air do?

A

Generates more lift at lower speed

176
Q

What is convection?

A

Air that is heated at earth surface which will expand becoming less dense carrying best higher into atmosphere

177
Q

What is advection?

A

Horizontal motion of air, aka wind

178
Q

What is sea breeze?

A

Hot surface air rises and cool air from sea flows towards land in place of warmed air. Greatest mid arvo

179
Q

What is land breeze?

A

Warm air rises from water, at night land cools quicker.

180
Q

What is katabatic wind?

A

Cool parcel of air sinks down mountain slope, forms at night, strongest at dawn. Forms on high plateau sloping down terraign in clear skies and relative warm surrounding air.

181
Q

What is anabatic winds?

A

Wind blowing up sloping terrain during arvo. Mainly in westward facing slopes

182
Q

What is fohn wind?

A

Warmer drier sur on lee side of mountain. High moist air rising up mountain range with high dew point temperature.

183
Q

What are low level jet streams?

A

High pressure system circulating anti clockwise
Crowds isobars together, meaning high wind speed.
Greatest west of divining range in winter at dawn
From south over plain

184
Q

What conditions are associated with stable?

A

High pressure system
Cloud at great heights
Poor visibility
Smooth

185
Q

What conditions are associated with unstable?

A

Low pressure system
Turbulence
Showery rain if precipitation
Good visibility between showers

186
Q

Which clouds are rain bearing clouds?

A

Cumulonimbus, ice risk, turbulence in and below

187
Q

What is fog?

A

Visibility below 1000m
Nil turbulence or ice
Humidity 100%

188
Q

What is mist?

A

Visibility not below 1000m

Humidity approx 95%

189
Q

Hw far away can you experience severe changes in wind speed and direction in thunderstorm?

A

10miles

190
Q

What is frontal turbulence and how is it marked on synoptic chart?

A

Result of winds hear

Triangle

191
Q

Which direction does global circulation move in summer?

A

South

192
Q

Which direction does global circulation move in winter?

A

Moves north

193
Q

What are isobars?

A

Lines at join equal pressure

Indicates pressure fields

194
Q

What is a ridge?

A

High pressure finger

Wind turns to left

195
Q

What is a trough?

A

Low pressure finger

Wind turns to right

196
Q

What is a col?

A

Area between two highs and two lows

Wind light and variable

197
Q

What do closely spaced isobars mean?

A

Strong winds

198
Q

What does well spaced isobars mean?

A

Light winds

199
Q

Which direction do pressure gradient turn?

A

Right angle to isobar

200
Q

When flying towards high pressure system, which direction will wind be?

A

From left

201
Q

When flying towards a low, which direction. Will wind be from?

A

From right

202
Q

Over land, surface winds drop by how much?

A

2/3 and veers 30 degrees

203
Q

Over sea surface winds drop by how much?

A

By 1/3 and veers 10 degrees

204
Q

What is rime ice and what clouds will it form in?

A

Frail and brittle ice formed when supercooled droplets collide with leading edge.
Formed in altostratus and altocumulus

205
Q

What effect does rime ice have on performance?

A

Reduce lift

Increase drag requiring greater angle of attack

206
Q

What is clear ice and what clouds and temps does it form?

A

Freezing rain spread across taking longer to freeze.
5 to -15 degrees
Forms in thick altostratus and altocumulus clouds

207
Q

What affect does hoar frost have on aircraft?

A

Increase drafts decrease stall angle of attack and increase stall speed

208
Q

What is a cold front marked by on synoptic chart?

A

Triangle towards direction of travel

209
Q

What conditions may accompany cold front?

A

Thunderstorm, sever turbulence and wind shear

210
Q

What conditions may accompany a warm front?

A

Rain and snow

211
Q

What is the cloud height in area forecast?

A

Above mean sea level

212
Q

What is low level jet stream and what direction is wind from?

A

High pressure system, circulating anti clockwise

From south

213
Q

What is Va?

A

Manoeuvring speed, speeds above with full elevator deflection may cause airframe damage.

214
Q

What is Vb?

A

Turbulence penetration speed, loads imposed vertical gusts at 3000 ft/min

215
Q

What is formula for pressure height?

A

PH = elevation + (1013-QNH)x30

216
Q

What is ISA temperature?

A

15 - (ph x 2 / 1000)

217
Q

What is density height?

A

DH = PH + (ISA deviation x 120)

218
Q

What are ambient conditions?

A

Atmospheric pressure, temperature and wind at aerodrome with in period 15 mins preceding takeoff

219
Q

What is take off safety speed?

A

Not less than 1.2VS1

Gives climb performance 6% gear down out of ground effect

220
Q

What is approach speed?

A

Not less than 1.3 Vso

221
Q

What does an increased temperature do to performance?

A

Increased Temp decreases take off performance

222
Q

What does a decrease in QNH do to take off performance?

A

Decrease in QNH decreases take off performance

223
Q

What does an increase in elevation do to take off performance?

A

Decreases take off performance

224
Q

What does an increase in humidity do to take off performance?

A

Decrease take off performance

225
Q

What does an overweight aircraft do to stall speed, climb performance and take off distance?

A

Increase stall speed
Poorer climb performance
Increase tasked off distance

226
Q

A 1485 m long runway with tree 200m south, 22m tall. Is this an obstacle, if so how far do we need to move it?

A

200/20 + 30 = 40
As 40>0 it is inside the splay.

22m/20 = 10
As 10<12 we are in danger of hitting tree.

12-10=2
2x20=40
Must move it by 40m

227
Q

1minute of latitude is equal to now many nm?

A

1nm

228
Q

1 degree of latitude is equal to how many nm?

A

60nm

229
Q

All charts are in reference to what? True or magnetic?

A

True north, we need to convert to magnetic

230
Q

What is fixed reserve?

A

Fixed number of gallons or litres to be added for flight to be conducted safely

231
Q

What is variable reserve?

A

Fixed percentage, usually 15% fuel to be increased by

232
Q

How do we find QNH at aerodrome with known elevation?

A

Set elevation in altimeter and check subscale

233
Q

What are levels measured from local QNH?

A

Altitudes

234
Q

What are levels measured from 1013 datum?

A

Flight levels

235
Q

What is the highest altitude we can fly at?

A

A100

236
Q

What is the lowest flight level?

A

FL110

237
Q

How do you calculate time?

A

Distance divided by ground speed times by 60

238
Q

How do you calculate rate of climb?

A

Climb distance divided by time

239
Q

What is track error formula?

A

60 divided by distance travelled x distance off track

240
Q

What is CA formula?

A

60 divided by distance to go x distance off track

241
Q

What is the formula for heading to intercept?

A

TE + CA

242
Q

What are the errors for NDB?

A 
Co channel interference
Coastal refraction
Thunderstorm effect
Mountain effect
Night effect
Quadrant error
243
Q

What are VOR errors?

A 
Vertical polarisation
Terraign effect
Airborne equipment
Aggregate error
Ground station error
Site effect
244
Q

With 1013 set on subscale an altimeter will indicate?

A

Pressure altitude

245
Q

Imaginary plane in aircraft which measures of arm are taken is called?

A

Datum

246
Q

With regards to power setting what is true in regards to mixture and power?

A

Highest airspeed is attained with best power setting

247
Q

What is an indicator of vapour lock?

A

Fluctuating fuel pressure indicator

PPL (8 decks)

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