Air Law Flashcards

0
Q

What must a pic do when operating in or on vicinity of aerodrome?

A

Sight and monitor position of traffic
Confirm to normal circuit
Turn onto final completed not less than 500 ft above ground
In departure of non towered, wait until clear of circuit area before turning, normally 1500ft or 3nm

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1
Q

What are the requirements and privileges for a Spl?

A

16 yrs old
Fly flying training as pic
Operate radio for purpose of flight

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2
Q

At non controlled aerodrome an aircraft must not commence takeoff until preceding aircraft has?

A

Crossed upwind end of runway
Commenced a turn
If runway >1800m become airborne and 1800m ahead
If both aircraft have mtow<2000kg then preceding aircraft is 600m ahead

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3
Q

At non controlled aerodrome an aircraft must not commence takeoff until preceding landing aircraft has?

A

Vacated runway and is taxiing away

Aircraft using another runway has crossed or stopped short of runway

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4
Q

An aircraft must not continue its approach to land beyond threshold of runway until preceding departing aircraft has?

A

Commenced a turn
Beyond point on runway at which landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in event of missed approach

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5
Q

An aircraft must not continue its approach to land beyond threshold of runway until preceding landing aircraft has?

A

Vacated and taxing away from runway

Has crossed or stopped short of landing runway

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6
Q

What are the minimum heights while flying?

A

Over populated area - 1000ft
Over non populated area - 500ft
Horizontally - 600m

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7
Q

What are the exceptions for minimum heights for flying?

A
Stress of weather
Approved low flying operations
Executing a missed approach
Landing/taking off
Dropping operations
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8
Q

What is the minimum heights for aerobatics?

A

3000 ft above highest obstruction with radius of 600m

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9
Q

What documents are required for flight in Australia?

A

Maintenance release
Licences
Medical
Flight manual

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10
Q

When can you fly over a prohibited area?

A

Never

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11
Q

When can you fly over a restricted area?

A

If you have a clearance or area is not operational (NOTAM)

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12
Q

Do you require clearance for danger areas?

A

No, see and avoid principle in place

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13
Q

What are the responsibilities of pic before flight?

A
Instruments and equipment are installed and functionally
Gross weights within limits
Aircraft loaded correctly
Sufficient fuel
Aircrew in fit state
Complied with ATC
Current maps, charts and relevant info
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14
Q

What are the radios required for the different airspaces?

A

RPT - VHF & HR or 2VHF
CHTR - VHF or HF
NVFR - VHF
VFR (except class g below 5000ft) VHF

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15
Q

When must you have an ELT?

A

If departing aerodrome and travelling further than radium 50nm

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16
Q

When is an ELT not necessary?

A

If it has been removed for inspection, repair or modification
Entry been made into logbook
Not more than 90 days since ELT removed

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17
Q

ATC will apply wake turbulence separation to?

A

Parallel runways less than 760m apart

Aircraft behind each other and are at same level or 1000ft below

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18
Q

An aircraft shall not be started or operated within?

A

5m sealed building
8m other aircraft
15m exposed public area
15m unsealed building

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19
Q

During refuelling, aircraft or ground refuelling equipment shall be so located that no fuel tank filling point or vent outlets lie within?

A
5m sealed building
6m stationary aircraft
15m exposed public area
15m unsealed building(mtow>5700kg)
9m unsealed building (mtow<5700)
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20
Q

How far away must fire extinguisher be during refuelling?

A

2 within 15m but not less than 6m from aircraft and fuelling equipment

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21
Q

What are the different types of cones?

A

Red with white stripe - unserviceable area
Yellow with red stripe - parking
Yellow - taxi
Blue - helicopter manuerving

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22
Q

What is the horizontal white dumbbell stand for?

A

Use hard surfaces only

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23
Q

What does a white cross stand for?

A

Adjacent to wind sock - aerodrome unserviceable

On manuerving area - area unserviceable

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24
Q

What does a double white cross represent?

A

Gliders in operation

25
Q

What are the separations for VMC in class C & E?

A

Above 10000 - 1500m behind, 1000feet above and below cloud, 8km visibility
Below 1000 - 1500m behind, 1000ft above and below cloud, 5km visibility

26
Q

What are the separations in class D airspace?

A

600m horizontal, 500ft below cloud, 1000ft above, 5 km visibility

27
Q

What is special VFR and which classes does it apply for?

A

Clear of cloud and visibility greater or equal to 1.6km

Class C & D

28
Q

What are the separations for VMC in class G?

A

Above 10000 - 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from cloud, 8km visibility
Below 10000 above 3000 - 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from cloud, 5km visibility
Below 3000 above 1000 - clear of cloud, 5km visibility

29
Q

What are the tolerances for entering controlled airspace?

A

0-2000ft +/- 1nm
2001-5000ft +/- 2nm
5001-10000ft +/- 4nm

30
Q

Turn onto final must be completed not later then?

A

500ft above runway threshold

31
Q

For all operations at or below transition altitude, the altimeter reference setting will be?

A

Local QNH within 100nm

Current area forecast QNH if local isn’t known

32
Q

When asked by ATC to change level, this must be commenced when and how?

A

As soon as practice, not more than 1min
Not less than 500ft/min
Last 1000ft must be made at 500ft/min

33
Q

What are the light signals in flight?

A
Green - clear to land if pilot satisfied
Red - give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Flashing green - return for landing
Flashing red - do not land
Flashing white - no significance
34
Q

What are the light signals when taxing?

A

Green - clear to take off if safe to do so
Red - Stop
Flashing green - authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied
Flashing red - taxi clear of landing area
Flashing white - return to starting point

35
Q

Who uses class A and what are the heights?

A

IFR only
Within radar > 18000ft
Outside radar 24500ft-60000ft

36
Q

Where is an aircraft required to transmit on CTAF?

A
Prior to 10nm inbound
Before joining circuit
On final
When flying in vicinity or aerodrome
Immediately before taxi
Before entering runway
Departing circuit
37
Q

What are the qualifications for a PPL?

A
At least 17
Hold or qualified to hold FROL
Passed ppl or cpl theory test
Passed ppl flight test
Satisfied aeroplane syllabus
38
Q

What aeronautical experience must a ppl holder have?

A

At least 40 hours that includes:
5 hours PIC
5 hours cross country (1 flight at least 150nm, 1 full stop and take off at 2 or more aerodromes
2 hours instrument

39
Q

What does a PPL authorise a person to do?

A

Fly as PIC or copilot while engaged in private operation

Fly as pic while engaged in flying training operations for purpose of increasing holders flying skills

40
Q

What operations are classified as private?

A

Personal transport of owner of aircraft
Aerial spotting where no remuneration received by anyone
Agricultural operations on land owner and occupied by owner of aircraft
Carriage of goods other wise than for purposes of trade
Conversion training for purpose of endorsement of additional type or category of aircraft

41
Q

What plane can a pic fly in?

A
A type or class endorsement
Special design feature endorsement (if aircraft has special design feature)
42
Q

What recent experience must a ppl holder have to carry passengers?

A

3 take offs and landings within preceding 90 days

Completed an aeroplane flight review within preceding 2 years

43
Q

How long can you be sick for before going to a dame?

A

30 days

44
Q

What situations must a pilot provide an alternate route?

A

If proceeding more than 50nm from departure aerodrome under following:
>SCT below 1500ft AGL
Visibility <8km
Crosswind in excess of maximum

45
Q

How long will forecast apply for?

A

ETA 30mins after start of forecast till 60mins before end of forecast

46
Q

If conditions are associated with an INTER (30mins) or TEMPO (60mins) then?

A

You may elect to carry sufficient holding fuel to wait out weather

47
Q

INTER and TEMPO should be taken to occur how long before and after expected times?

A

30mins

48
Q

When must your take survival equipment?

A

When travelling through designated remote area

49
Q

When must seat belts always be worn?

A
During takeoff and landing
During instrument approach
When aircraft is less than 1000ft above terrain
In turbulent conditions
When instructed by pilot
At least one crew member at all times
50
Q

What must a passenger brief include?

A
Prohibition of smoking
Use and adjustment of seat belts
Location of emergency exits
Use of oxygen if available
Use of flotation device when applicable
Stowage of hand luggage
Presence if special survival equipment if applicable
51
Q

When are you not allowed to carry passengers?

A

Flying training to a person who hasn’t passed GFPT
practice of emergency procedures
Low flying practice
Testing aircraft or it’s components

52
Q

Cargo on the unoccupied passenger seat shall not exceed?

A

77kg

53
Q

What are the conditions for carrying two infants on one seat?

A

Combined weight doesn’t exceed 77 kg
Seated side by side
Restrained by lapstrap only

54
Q

What are the conditions for carrying a seeing eye dog?

A

Carried in passenger cabin
On a moisture absorbent mat as near to person as possible
Restrained in such a way to prevent dog from moving from the mat

55
Q

What actions should you take in the event of a radio failure?

A

Squawk 7600 and prefix calls with transmitting blind
Listen out on ATIS
Check volume and squelch
Check frequency

56
Q

When must life jackets be carried for single engine aircraft?

A

When operating over water beyond gliding distance from ‘land’
Land means land suitable for emergency landing

57
Q

Where life jackets are required, when are passengers required to wear them?

A

During flight at or below 2000ft

58
Q

When must a life raft be taken?

A

If aircraft flown over water at distance equal to 30 mins at normal cruise or 100miles, whichever is less

59
Q

What classifies a mercy flight?

A

Continue flying outside training area with a GFPT
fly at night without night rating
Fly in IMC without instrument rating

60
Q

When can a mercy flight be declared?

A

Urgent medical situation
Flood or fire relief
Evacuation flight from grave or immanent danger