Potential exam questions

Question 1

What dose of clindamycin should be prescribed?

Answer 1

7.5 mg/kg -> 300mg

Question 2

How often should clindamycin be taken?

Answer 2

8 hourly for 5 days

Question 3

What dose of metronidazole should be prescribed?

Answer 3

10 mg/kg -> 400mg

Question 4

How often should metronidazole be taken?

Answer 4

12 hourly for 5 days

Question 5

What is the difference between a cvek pulpotomy and a normal pulpotomy?

Answer 5

A cvek pulpotomy is a pulpotomy in which the affected pulp is removed until 1 - 3mm below the inflamed pulp tissue.

A pulpotomy is the removal of pulp tissue from the pulp chamber

Question 6

What is the treatment of a complicated crown fracture in primary teeth?

Answer 6

Primary teeth: Extract or refer to paeds. Paeds will do a cvek pulpotomy and restore.

Question 7

What is the prevalence of MIH?

Answer 7

1 in 6

Question 8

What is a Turner tooth?

Answer 8

A tooth that has reduced enamel thickness (hypoplasia) caused by infection or trauma in primary tooth affecting the permanent tooth as it’s developing.

Question 9

What are the indications for a stainless steel crown?

Answer 9

Multisurface carious lesions affecting >3 surfaces. >2 under GA

High caries risk

Following pulp therapy

Defects of enamel

Fractures

Evidence of bruxism

Greater than 2/3rds root structure remaining

No pulpal pathology

Posterior tooth marginal ridge breakdown with no root caries?

Question 10

Name 2 types of dental materials that have fluoride in them and the concentration of fluoride in them:

Answer 10

Fluoride varnish = 22600 ppm

Normal toothpaste = 1000 - 1500 ppm

Neutrafleur5000 = 5000 ppm

Question 11

What is the difference between hypomineralisation and hypoplasia?

Answer 11

Hypomineralisation = qualitative defect of enamel

Hypoplasia = quantitative defect of enamel

Question 12

What are the 3 types of amelogenesis imperfecta and how are they different?

Answer 12

Hypoplastic

Hypomineralised

Hypomature

Question 13

What is the maximum dose of articaine?

Answer 13

7mg/kg like lidocaine

Question 14

What is the cause of discolouration in primary teeth?

Answer 14

Trauma

Developmental defect

Question 15

Name 2 conditions caused by cocksakie A virus:

Answer 15

Herpangina

Hand foot and mouth disease

Question 16

What is the function of the vasoconstrictor in anaesthetics?

Answer 16

Reduce bleeding

Decrease systemic level of LA (decrease toxicity)

Question 17

How does silver diamine fluoride work?

Answer 17

Bactericidal to cariogenic bacteria (Primarily strep mutans)

Inhibits growth of cariogenic biofilms on teeth

Remineralisation increased and decreased demineralisation

Question 18

What is the concentration of fluoride in silver diamine fluoride?

Answer 18

44800ppm

Question 19

What is subluxation and how is it treated?

Answer 19

Damage to PDL fibers leading to loosening and mobility

Treated conservatively with soft diet, analgesia, ongoing review and monitoring

Question 20

What is avulsion? How is it treated?

Answer 20

Avulsion is when the tooth is completely removed from the socket,

Treated by cleaning the wound and suturing, If tooth is a primary tooth DO NOT REPLANT.

Question 21

What is the calcification date of the maxillary lateral incisors?

Answer 21

10 - 12 months

Question 22

When do the maxillary lateral incisors erupt?

Answer 22

8 - 9 years

Question 23

What is the calcification date of maxillary first premolars?

Answer 23

18 - 24 months

Question 24

When do the maxillary first premolars erupt?

Answer 24

10 - 11 years

Question 25

What is the calcification date of the maxillary third molars?

Answer 25

7 - 9 years

Question 26

When do the maxillary third molars erupt?

Answer 26

17 - 30 years

Question 27

How should a spreading odontogenic infection be treated?

Answer 27

Metronidazole 400mg 12 hourly for 5 days

+ either:

Penicillin V 12.5mg/kg up to 500mg 6 hourly for 5 days

Or

Amoxycillin 15mg/kg up to 500 mg 8 hourly for 5 days

Question 28

How should a spreading odontogenic infection be treated in people hypersensitive to penicillins?

Answer 28

Clindamycin 7.5 mg/kg up to 300 mg 8 hourly for 5 days

Question 29

What is the formula for calculating maximum LA dosage?

Answer 29

Max dose (ml) = Max dose (mg/kg) x (weight (kg)/10)x (1/concentration of LA)

Question 30

Name 3 medicaments used in pulpotomies and give pros and cons of using each:

Answer 30

Formocresol:

Adv: very high effectiveness (90 - 100% success rate)
Disadv: Carcinogenic

Ferric sulphate:

Adv: Equivalent clinical and radiographic performance to formocresol, operator and patient friendly, and financially viable.

Disadv: Induces inflammation, and technique sensitive

MTA:

Adv: Biocompatible, better seal than ZOE or amalgam, stimulates hard tissue formation

Disadv: Difficult to place and remove, long setting time, discolouration of the tooth, expensive

Question 31

What is the dose of ibuprofen used for pain management?

Answer 31

5 - 10 mg/kg 6 - 8 hourly (max daily dose 2400)

Question 32

What is the dose of paracetamol prescribed?

Answer 32

15 mg/kg 4 - 6 hourly

Question 33

What are the skeletal indicators of anterior open bite?

Answer 33

Increased anterior open bite

Steep mandibular plane

Excessive vertical growth of maxilla

Downward rotation of the mandible

Excessive eruption of posterior teeth

Question 34

What causes anterior open bite?

Answer 34

Skeletal:

Maxilla that has grown more posteriorly compared to anteriorly tipping the mandible downward and backwards.

Short mandibular ramus leading to downward backward rotation of mandible.

Dental: Thumb sucking leading to labial tipping of upper incisors and lingual tipping of mandibular incisors. Reduced eruption of incisors and overeruption of posterior teeth

Question 35

How can anterior open bite be treated?

Answer 35

Cease the thumb sucking habit.

Skeletal problems more complex refer to ortho. Tx is to prevent downward growth of the maxilla and further eruption of posterior teeth in both arches. This is done via high pull headgear to maxillary molars, splint, or functional appliance.

Surgical treatment can also be used for vertical problems

Question 36

What are the features of a skeletal deep bite?

Answer 36

Anterior deep bite

Mandibular deficiency

Class II div 2 malocclusion

Reduced lower face height

Everted and prominent lips

Low mandibular plane angle

Long mandibular ramus

Decreased eruption of maxillary and mandibular posterior teeth

Anteriorly directed growth pattern with upward and forward rotation of the mandible

Question 37

What is the cause of a deep bite?

Answer 37

Skeletal: caused by growth pattern leading to long mandibular ramus, decreased gonial angle, flat mandibular plane, decreased eruption of posterior teeth, anteriorly directed growth pattern with upward and forward rotation of the mandible.

Dental: Overeruption of the mandibular incisors

Question 38

How is a deep bite treated?

Answer 38

In the case of skeletal deep bite the objective is to allow more eruption of the maxillary posterior teeth compared with the mandibular teeth and increasing the lower face height. This is done by using cervical pull headgear or a deep bite functional appliance. Deep bite functional appliance also improves A-P jaw relationship by controlling vertical movement of teeth during growth.

Question 39

How does a deep bite functional appliance work?

Answer 39

It improves the A-P jaw relationship by controlling vertical movement of teeth during growth. Eruption of maxillary posterior teeth and incisors in both arches is blocked and so the mandibular teeth can erupt allowing levelling of the curve of spee.