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BRS/POM MOCKS > POM extra questions > Flashcards

POM extra questions Flashcards

1
Q

What can Haematoxylin and Eosin (H&E) identify?

A

Haematoxylin stains nuclei blue
Eosin stains cytoplasm pink

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2
Q

What can Ziehl-Neelson identify?

A

Acid-fast bacteria (mainly mycobacteria).

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3
Q

When is Leishman stain used?

A

Blood smears (contains eosin and Methylene blue)

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4
Q

Why does fat metabolism have to be balanced with carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Acetyl CoA from beta oxidation can only enter the TCA cycle if oxaloacetate is present. Oxaloacetate is formed from pyruvate which in turn is formed from carbohydrate metabolism.

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5
Q

Function of laminins?

A

Interacting with cell surface receptors (e.g. integrins and dystroglycans) |AND| self-associate or bind to other types of proteins to form basement membrane matrix.

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6
Q

What is the maximum amount of ATP molecules generated from a single glucose molecule, under aerobic conditions?

A

38

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7
Q

Clark electrode oxygen and current relationship?

A

Concentration of oxygen is directly proportional to the current.

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8
Q

Which ATP synthase F0 subunit rotates?

A

C subunit.

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9
Q

Where is hexokinase IV?

A

Liver.

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10
Q

Hexokinase IV properties?

A

High Km so less sensitive to blood glucose. Less sensitive to G6P inhibiton.

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11
Q

Where is FOXP3 found in?

A

T helper and Treg cells.

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12
Q

Which of the following is a mitogen used in the ‘Culture and Harvest’ method for karyotyping?

A

Phytohemagglutinin

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13
Q

What does growth pattern mean in cancer?

A

How much does the architecture of the tumour resembles the architecture of the tissue it is derived from.

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14
Q

What does differentiation in cancer mean?

A

This means how much do the cells of the tumour resemble the cells of the tissue it is derived from.

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15
Q

What kind of anaemia is seen in Acute Lymphoblastic Anaemia?

A

Normocytic Normochromic

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16
Q

What mediates cytoskeletal arrangement and extension of pseudopodia in the transmigration step on neutrophil extravasation?

A

PECAM

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17
Q

Type 2 interferon?

A

Interferon gamma.

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18
Q

Which of the following plasma proteins is most positively charged?

A

Gamma globulins.

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19
Q

How are myeloblasts recognisable?

A

Prominent nucleoli and open chromatin pattern.

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20
Q

A 49-year old male presents with the Epstein-Barr virus infection. A blood film was conducted, which is found?

A

Purplish patina. Scalloped margins. Basophilic cytoplasm

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21
Q

Contact dermatitis hypersensitivity type?

A

Type IV.

22
Q

Which marker of cardiac MI after 7 days is the best?

A

LDH.

23
Q

What are features of hyposplenism?

A

Target cells and howell jolly bodies.

24
Q

Cellular adaptation observed due to compensatory mechanism in one kidney upon donation of the other?

A

Hyperplasia

25
Q

What type of communication is exhibited by growth factors released from tumour cells?

A

Autocrine.

26
Q

Which sugar is encoded by the B-gene?

A

Galactose.

27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

A

Targets Topoisomerase II in Gm -ve and Topoisomerase IV in Gm +ve

28
Q

Which method of natural antibiotic resistance is associated with bacteriophages?

A

Bacterial transduction.

29
Q

Patient A was diagnosed with a Streptococcus pneumoniae infection, he was administered with erythromycin, however it was soon found that the bacteria developed resistance. What is the most likely mechanism?

A

Methylation of 50s ribosomal target site.

30
Q

Collagen specific structure?

A

3 Left Hand helices into 1 Right Handed Helix

31
Q

Which antibiotic targets RNA polymerase, and causes orange stools?

A

Rifamycin

32
Q

The growth pattern of a malignant tumour can be evaluated using the?

A

Gleason score.

33
Q

What kind of tumours are Melanoma, hepatoma, and lymphomas?

A

Malignant.

34
Q

Spread of cancer through nerves?

A

Perineural.

35
Q

Spread of cancer across cavity?

A

Transcoeolmic

36
Q

Deficiency in RAG genes causes what?

A

SCID. RAG genes encode for VDJ recombinase, enables DNA recombination

37
Q

What type of bacteria is Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Gram positive, coagulase +, catalase +

38
Q

A gene active chromosomal region was subjected to Giemsa staining, what is the most likely result?

A

Light bands

39
Q

Which aneuploidy has the greatest risk of miscariage?

A

Trisomy 16

40
Q

What role is performed by siderophores?

A

Iron chelation to prevent replication

41
Q

Which immunoglobulin is an indicator of a recent viral infection?

A

IgM.

42
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the more effective antiviral?

A

IgG

43
Q

Which viral vector is used for genetic treatments?

A

Lentivirus.

44
Q

Name of enzyme involved in somatic hypermutation?

A

Activation-Induced Cytidine Deaminase

45
Q

What is seen in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia in full blood count?

A

Leukocytosis (flagged by analyser), Anaemia, Thrombocytopenia.

46
Q

What is seen in chronic myeloid leukaemia in full blood count?

A

Increased neutrophils (neutrophilia), eosinophils (eosinophilia), basophils (basophilia).

47
Q

Consanguineous marriage increases the relative risk of what disorders?

A

Auto recessive

48
Q

Genome Wide Association Studies have found which group of genes the most?

A

Common low-risk variants. Has highest risk allele frequency

49
Q

How is tetanus administered as a vaccine?

A

Toxoid vaccine.

50
Q

What scan is typically done at 10-14 weeks of pregnancy, used as a screening test for chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Nuchal translucency

BRS/POM MOCKS (23 decks)

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