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BRS/POM MOCKS > BRS MOCK 2 - development 1, GI cancers, control of lung function > Flashcards

BRS MOCK 2 - development 1, GI cancers, control of lung function Flashcards

1
Q

Stages in the few days spanning before and after fertilisation?

A

Ovulated oocyte to zygote. Cleavage stages from zygote to 8 cell embryo. 8 cell cleaved embryo to morula. Morula to blastocyst.

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2
Q

When does the maternal to zygotic transition roughly take place?

A

4-8 cell stage.

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3
Q

What is happening before maternal to zygotic transition?

A

Embryo is dependent on maternal mRNA’s and proteins. None of the embryo’s genes are being transcribed.

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4
Q

When are the maternal mRNA’s and proteins used in the embryo during early embryo development produced?

A

Produced during oocyte development.

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5
Q

What happens during the maternal to zygotic transition?

A

Transcription of embryo genes (Zygotic gene activation), increase protein synthesis, organelle maturation (mitochondria, Golgi).

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6
Q

When does compaction take place?

A

8 cell stage or later.

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7
Q

What happens during compaction?

A

Formation of 2 distinct population of cells (outer and inner cells). Outer cells connect to each other through tight gap junctions and desmosomes. This forms a barrier to diffusion between inner and outer cells of embryo (outer and inner cells exposed to different environments). Outer cells become polarised (formation of apical and basolateral domains).

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8
Q

What happens after compaction?

A

Formation of blastocoel cavity.

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9
Q

How is the blastocoel cavity formed?

A

Formed by trophoblasts (outer layer) pumping Na+ into cavity to produced fluid filled cavity.

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10
Q

Zona pellucida function?

A

Prevents polyspermy and protects early embryo.

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11
Q

How does the blastocyst hatch?

A

Enzymatic digestion and cellular contractions.

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12
Q

Why does the blastocyst hatch?

A

To escape zona pellucida and implant in uterine endometrium.

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13
Q

How does the blastocyst implant in the uterine endometrium?

A

Fusion of trophoblasts with uterine endometrium to form syncitiotrophoblasts. Forms interface between embryo and maternal blood supply.

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14
Q

When blastocyst implantation occurs, what are the two types of cells that the inner mass cells differentiate into?

A

Epiblast and hypoblast.

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15
Q

What will the epiblasts form?

A

Fetal tissues.

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16
Q

What will the hypoblasts form?

A

Yolk sac (extra-embryonic structure).

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17
Q

How does an embryo ready itself for gastrulation?

A

Formation of new cavity called amniotic cavity. This forms a bi-laminar embryonic disc which separates the two cavities.

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18
Q

Before gastrulation what is secreted from what cell that provide basis of pregnancy testing?

A

Syncitiotrophoblasts secrete hCG and beta hCG in blood/urine is detected in pregnancy test.

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19
Q

Where does expansion to form primitive node occur?

A

Cranial end of primitive streak.

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20
Q

What is the process of cells falling into the primitive groove called?

A

Invagination.

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21
Q

What cells fall into the primitive groove?

A

Epiblast cells.

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22
Q

What do the first cells to invaginate the primitive groove do?

A

Replaces hypoblast cells.

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23
Q

Function of notochord?

A

Organising centre for neurulation and mesoderm development.

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24
Q

How does formation of the neural tube happen?

A

Notochord signals direct the neural plate ectoderm to invaginate to form the neural groove. This create two neural folds that run along cranial caudal axis. Neural folds move together over neural groove and fuse forming a hollow tube. Migration of neural crest cells to other tissues.

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25
Q

What is it called when there is a failure to close neural tube at head end? What can be seen in this condition?

A

Anencephaly. Absence of most of skull and brain.

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26
Q

What is it called when there is a failure to close neural tube at tail end.

A

Spina bifida.

27
Q

What are the 5 divisions of neural crest cells?

A

Cranial, Cardiac, trunk, vagal and sacral.

28
Q

What do trunk neural crest cells form?

A

Dorsal root ganglia, sympathetic ganglia, adrenal medulla, aortic nerve clusters and melanocytes.

29
Q

What do vagal and sacral neural crest cells form?

A

Parasympathetic ganglia and enteric nervous system ganglia.

30
Q

What are somites?

A

Paired blocks of paraxial mesoderm.

31
Q

Describe somitogenesis

A

Blocks of paraxial mesoderm condense and bud off in somite pairs with one of each pair on either side of the neural tube.

32
Q

What are the two types of tissue that somites form? What do these two types of tissue form?

A

Sclerotome and dermomyotome.

Sclerotome forms vertebrae and rib cartilage. Dermomyotome which forms dermatome and myotome.

Dermatome gives rise to dermis of skin, fat and connective tissue.

Myotome gives rise to muscles of the embryo.

33
Q

What are the two folding processes that form the primitive gut? Describe each one

A

Ventral and lateral folding.

Ventral folding - Where the head and tail ends curl together.

Lateral folding - Where the two sides of the embryo roll.

34
Q

How does ventral and lateral folding form the primitive gut?

A

Pinches off part of the yolk sac.

35
Q

What are the first 3 hallmarks of cancers?

A

Sustaining proliferative signalling. Evading growth suppressors. Activating invasion and metastasis.

36
Q

What is an Adenocarcinoma?

A

Cancer originating in glandular epithelium tissue.

37
Q

What is a cancer of the squamous epithelium called?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma.

38
Q

What are neuroendocrine tumours?

A

Tumour of enteroendocrine cell origin.

39
Q

2 screening tests for colorectal cancer?

A

Faecal immunochemical test (FIT) and a one-off sigmoidoscopy.

40
Q

What does faecal immunochemical test detect?

A

Haemoglobin in faeces.

41
Q

What is the purpose of doing a one-off sigmoidoscopy for cancer screening?

A

Remove polyps to reduce future risk of cancer.

42
Q

How is screening done for hepatocellular cancer?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein test, regular ultrasound.

43
Q

Why is a biopsy of a cancer done?

A

Provides histologic typing - what type of cell does the cancer come from. Provides molecular typing - what mutations do the cells have. Provides tumour grade.

44
Q

How do adenocarcinomas develop in the distal oesophagus?

A

Squamous epithelium becomes collumnar epithelium

45
Q

What term is used to describe cancer that begins in cells that have changed into another cell type?

A

Metaplastic

46
Q

What increases your risk of gastric cancer?

A

Chronic gastritis, pernicious anaemia, partial gastrectomy.

47
Q

What infections increase risk of gastric cancer?

A

H.pylori and epstein-barr virus.

48
Q

How does H.pylori increase risk of gastric cancer?

A

Causes acid overproduction.

49
Q

How does a partial gastrectomy increase risk of gastric cancer?

A

Bile reflux.

50
Q

What conditions can gastric cancer cause?

A

Anaemia.

51
Q

Where is breathing controlled in the brain?

A

Medulla oblongata.

52
Q

In the medulla oblongata what is the dorsal respiratory group responsible for?

A

Inspiration.

53
Q

In the medulla oblongata what is the ventral respiratory group responsible for?

A

Expiration.

54
Q

What does the apneustic centre do?

A

Stimulates dorsal respiratory group activity.

55
Q

What does the pneumotaxic centre do?

A

Inhibit dorsal respiratory group activity.

56
Q

What inhibits the apneustic centre?

A

Ventral respiratory group.

57
Q

How do nerves in the medulla detect changes in pH?

A

Carbon dioxide diffuses through capillary in brain into CSF. Reacts with water to produce H+ ions. H+ ions activate medulla neurones.

58
Q

What occurs when there is excessive inflation of lungs?

A

Pulmonary stretch receptors activated. Inhibition of dorsal respiratory group and apneustic centre by pneumotaxic centre and stimulation of ventral respiratory group. Inspiration inhibited and expiration stimulated.

59
Q

Where are J receptors found and what do they detect?

A

Alveoli. Swelling.

60
Q

How do lungs regulate pH?

A

Change ventilation rate. If blood pH is too low then ventilation rate increases to get rid of CO2.

61
Q

How do kidneys regulate pH?

A

Changes in the amount of bicarbonate or H+ excreted.

62
Q

Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors that detect changes in pH located?

A

Aortic arch and carotid sinus.

63
Q

Where are the central chemoreceptors that detect changes in pH located?

A

Medulla.

64
Q

What neurones connected to muscles cause increase in breathing rate when muscles move?

A

Proprioceptive afferent neurones from golgi tendon organ (responds to stretch on tendon) and muscle spindle (stretch receptors).

BRS/POM MOCKS (23 decks)

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