POLITY ONLYIAS - Sheet6 Flashcards

Question

25,"In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?",(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers; (b) Absence of restraint; (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes; (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully,2019

Answer 1

25,d,"""Opportunity to develop oneself fully” covers liberty fully, therefore, one may surmise that the purpose of ensuring ‘liberty’ is that one has no obstacles or hindrances to realise one’s full potential. Additional Information: “Protection against the tyranny of political rulers” is a partial definition and has a connotation more towards fundamental rights rather than liberty. “Absence of restraint” only covers part of the definition of liberty. Liberty does not mean ‘licence’ to do whatever one likes; it is to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself"

Answer 2

26,d,"The question of whether the Preamble is a part of the Constitution has been addressed in three landmark Supreme Court judgments: In the Berubari Union Case (1960), the Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. However, in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) and the LIC of India Case (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features' of the Constitution."

Answer 3

27,b,"The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is a brief introductory statement reflecting the hopes and aspirations of the people. It is based on the ideals behind the 'Objective Resolution' drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947. The original Preamble declared India a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”, and later, it was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) to include three new words– “Socialist, Secular and Integrity”."

Answer 4

28,a,"Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for single citizenship only, which is Indian citizenship. A citizen of India cannot simultaneously be a citizen of another country. Statement 2 is incorrect: Both citizens by birth and naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of President in India. Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian citizenship can be terminated by the Central government under specific conditions, such as obtaining citizenship through fraud, disloyalty to the Constitution, unlawful activities during wartime, imprisonment, or continuous residence outside India."

Answer 5

29,d,"Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a writ that commands and directs public officials to perform their duties. It cannot be issued against private individuals. Statement 2 is correct: Mandamus cannot be issued against private individuals or companies unless they have a public duty to perform. It also cannot be issued against a legislature. Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is a writ issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office. It can be sought by any interested person."

Answer 6

30,c,"Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 of the Constitution mandates that all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no provision for communal representation in the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme aims to enhance opportunities for education and ensure equitable share for minorities in economic activities and employment, including recruitment to government jobs in districts with substantial minority populations."

Answer 7

31,c,"Statement 1 is correct: Article 23 of the Indian Constitution, under the Right Against Exploitation, includes provisions for prohibition of trafficking in human beings, which encompasses various forms of exploitation such as selling and buying of men, women, and children, immoral trafficking, devadasi system, and slavery. Statement 2 is incorrect: Abolition of Untouchability is covered under the Right to Equality, not Right Against Exploitation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Cultural and Educational Rights, which are covered under Articles 29 and 30, do not fall under the Right Against Exploitation. Statement 4 is correct: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children in factories, and the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, was enacted to establish commissions for the protection of child rights and provide speedy trials for offenses against children or violations of child rights."

Answer 8

32,a,"In a constitutional democracy like India, rights and duties have an organic relationship. Rights are correlative with duties, as the state provides rights and lays down duties for citizens to peacefully coexist. For example, one's right to life implies that others should provide protection and security, and one cannot enjoy the right to a clean environment if others do not conserve it. Thus, there is an intrinsic relationship between rights and duties."

Answer 9

33,a,"Equality in society is maintained by ending formal systems of inequality and ensuring the absence of privileges. Equality Before Law ensures that all individuals are subject to the ordinary law of the land, administered by ordinary law courts, without any special privileges regardless of their status."

Answer 10

34,c,"Option (c) is correct: Rights are claimed by citizens against the state to prevent exploitation. They are inherent to citizens and are not privileges granted by the state. Option (a) is incorrect because rights are claimed against the state, not by the state against citizens. Option (b) is incorrect because rights are not privileges, they are fundamental entitlements. Option (d) is incorrect because rights are not privileges of a few citizens; they are equally available to all."

Answer 11

35,a,"Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution, added by the 1st Amendment (1951), protect laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. Statement 2 is incorrect: While laws in the Ninth Schedule were initially protected from judicial review, the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) established that laws violating the basic structure of the Constitution are subject to judicial review. Additionally, the IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu case (2007) ruled that all laws, including those in the Ninth Schedule, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution."

Answer 12

36,c,"Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Rule of law, as enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, incorporates the principle of equality before law, which is derived from A.V. Dicey's concept of Rule of Law. The three fundamental principles of the Rule of Law are the absence of arbitrary power, equality before the law, and the primacy of individual rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: In a democratic setup, the government is accountable to the people, not vice versa."

Answer 13

37,c,"Article 21 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to life and personal liberty. In the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that privacy is a natural right inherent in all individuals, and any restriction on this right must pass the tests of legislative mandate, legitimate state purpose, and proportionality. Additional Information is provided about Article 14 (Right to Equality) and Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability)."

Answer 14

38,b,"Article 21 of the Indian Constitution safeguards the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to marry the person of one's choice. This was affirmed in the Hadiya Case (2017) by the Supreme Court. Additional information is provided about Article 19 (Right to Freedom) and Article 25 (Freedom of Religion)."

Answer 15

39,d,"Articles 14 to 18 deal with the Right to Equality, which includes protection against discrimination based on various grounds, equality of opportunity in public employment, abolition of untouchability, and abolition of titles. Additional information is provided about other fundamental rights related to Right to Freedom, Right Against Exploitation, and Right to Constitutional Remedies."

Answer 16

40,d,"Statement 1 is correct: The objectives of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, such as justice, equality, and liberty, reflect the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). Statement 2 is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) aim to provide social and economic justice, similar to the principles outlined in UDHR Article 22 regarding social security. Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental duties (Article 51A) are civic and moral obligations of Indian citizens, which are aligned with the principles of human rights. Additional information about specific articles of the UDHR is provided."

Answer 17

41,c,"Article 21 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to life and personal liberty. In the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court affirmed that privacy is a natural right inherent in all individuals. However, this right may be restricted only by state action that passes three tests: having a legislative mandate, pursuing a legitimate state purpose, and being proportionate. It's noted that questions related to the Right to Privacy are common in various examinations, so it's advisable to study Fundamental Rights comprehensively."

Answer 18

42,a,"Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Any legislation that confers unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive or administrative authority violates Article 14. This principle is derived from the concept of Rule of Law, which is part of the basic structure of the constitution. Rule of Law entails the absence of arbitrary power, equality before the law, and the primacy of individual rights."

Answer 19

43,b,"The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are inspired by various ideologies, including Gandhian principles. Article 40, which deals with organizing Village Panchayats, is based on Gandhian principles. Additionally, Article 43, which promotes cottage industries in rural areas, is also influenced by Gandhian principles. DPSPs are classified into categories like Socialist, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual principles based on their content."

Answer 20

44,d,"Various provisions in the Constitution of India, such as Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Rural and Urban Local Bodies, and the Seventh Schedule, have implications for education. For example, Article 45 of the DPSP provides for early childhood care and education, and the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right. Rural and Urban Local Bodies also have responsibilities related to education, as specified in the respective schedules added by constitutional amendments."

Answer 21

45,c,"Article 37 of the Indian Constitution states that while Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable by any court, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. DPSP constitutes a socio-economic and political program for a modern democratic State and embodies the concept of a welfare state. Fundamental Rights and Duties, on the other hand, are related to the role, responsibility, and rights of the people."

Answer 22

46,b,"Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to focus on maintaining just and honourable relations with other nations, fostering respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encouraging the settlement of international disputes by arbitration. This provision underscores India's commitment to international peace and security."

Answer 23

47,c,"Both statements are correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) constitute a comprehensive economic, social, and political program for a modern democratic state, aiming to realize the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity outlined in the Preamble. While DPSPs are not enforceable by any court according to Article 37, they are fundamental in the governance of the country."

Answer 24

48,b,"The explanation correctly identifies the features of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentioned in Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution. It emphasizes that DPSPs constitute a socio-economic and political program for a welfare state, differentiating it from a police state. Article 38(1) outlines the State's duty to promote the welfare of the people by ensuring justice, social, economic, and political, in all institutions of national life."

Answer 25

49,b,"The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list in the Indian Constitution. These additions aimed at securing opportunities for the healthy development of children, promoting equal justice and providing free legal aid to the poor, securing the participation of workers in the management of industries, and protecting and improving the environment along with safeguarding forests and wildlife."

Answer 26

50,d,"The explanation contrasts Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) with Fundamental Rights. DPSPs serve as instruments of instruction to the government to achieve certain ends, without imposing limitations on any organ of the State, while Fundamental Rights limit state action by imposing restrictions, whether legislative or executive."

Answer 27

51,a,"The explanation accurately describes the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are enshrined in Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution and borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. DPSP constitutes a comprehensive program for a welfare state, focusing on socio-economic and political well-being. Article 38(1) emphasizes the State's duty to promote welfare by ensuring justice in all aspects of national life."

Answer 28

52,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect because the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) were made non-justiciable based on the recommendations of the Tej Bahadur Committee Report, not because of any constitutional provision. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: DPSPs are non-justiciable and serve as constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive, and administrative matters."

Answer 29

53,b,"The explanation correctly identifies Article 50 of the Indian Constitution as part of the Liberal-Intellectual Principles under DPSP. Article 50 emphasizes the separation of the judiciary from the executive, which is a fundamental principle of liberalism aimed at preventing the concentration of power and safeguarding individual liberties."

Answer 30

54,a,"All statements are correct: Statement 1 provides a list of groups eligible for free legal services under the Legal Services Authorities Act. Statement 2 correctly mentions the income limit for transgender individuals to qualify for free legal aid. Statement 3 highlights that Other Backward Classes (OBC) are not explicitly mentioned for free legal services. Statement 4 clarifies that the provision of free legal services to senior citizens depends on income limits set by state governments."

Answer 31

55,b,"Option (b) is correct: Article 39 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) emphasizes that the economic system should not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. This reflects the socialist principles enshrined in DPSP, aiming to promote economic equality and prevent the concentration of wealth."

Answer 32

56,a,"Option (a) is correct: Article 51A of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. These duties, added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, include various moral and civic obligations for citizens. However, voting in public elections is not listed as a fundamental duty. The Fundamental Duties were introduced to the Constitution later than the Fundamental Rights."

Answer 33

57,c,"The explanation correctly identifies Article 51A of the Indian Constitution as dealing with Fundamental Duties. It outlines the history of the incorporation of Fundamental Duties and provides a list of the duties, emphasizing that protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is more relevant to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) than Fundamental Duties."

Answer 34

58,d,"Option (d) is correct: Article 51A of the Indian Constitution lists the Fundamental Duties. Protecting the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India is one of the Fundamental Duties among the eleven listed in the Constitution. These duties were introduced through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976."

Answer 35

59,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect because Fundamental Duties are non-enforceable and non-justiciable, as they are not subject to any legislative process for enforcement. Statement 2 is incorrect because Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties, and Parliament does not provide legislation for penalties or punishments for their non-observance. Fundamental Duties are confined to Indian citizens only, not to foreigners."

Answer 36

60,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect because prior permission of the President is not required to introduce a bill amending the Constitution in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill, and Article 368 requires a special majority for amending the Constitution."

Answer 37

61,d,"Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 falsely claims that only the Lok Sabha can initiate a bill to amend the Constitution, which is not true. Statement 2 incorrectly suggests that all Constitution Amendment Bills must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states, which is only required for bills amending federal provisions."

Answer 38

62,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment did not propose placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review; it was actually the 39th Amendment that sought to shield the election of the Prime Minister and other high offices from judicial scrutiny. Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Amendment sought to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), but it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015."

Answer 39

63,d,"Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 incorrectly suggests that the 42nd Amendment Act permanently curtailed the power of High Courts (HCs) in judicial review, but this was partially rectified by the 43rd Amendment Act. Statement 2 incorrectly implies that the Supreme Court does not have extensive jurisdiction and powers; however, the Supreme Court is indeed the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution, with broad powers, including the authority to strike down unconstitutional amendments."

Answer 40

64,b,"Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation of President's Rule can indeed be termed a 'State Emergency' or 'Constitutional Emergency.' However, statement 2 is incorrect because the President's Rule involves the dismissal of the state council of ministers, not the state legislative assembly. Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision for the dissolution of local bodies during the proclamation of President's Rule."

Answer 41

65,b,"The explanation provides accurate information about the proclamation of President's Rule, including the grounds for its declaration and its consequences. Statement 1 correctly identifies the proclamation of President's Rule as a form of 'State Emergency' or 'Constitutional Emergency.' Statement 2 accurately states that the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister is dismissed during President's Rule. Statement 3 correctly notes that there is no dissolution of the state legislative assembly during President's Rule."

Answer 42

66,b,"The Consolidated Fund of India indeed receives all receipts and disburses all payments on behalf of the Government of India. Moreover, withdrawals from this fund must be authorized by parliamentary law, ensuring that the Parliament has control over the financial transactions of the government."

Answer 43

67,c,"The explanation provides accurate information about the Consolidated Fund of India, including its role in receiving all receipts and disbursing all payments on behalf of the Government of India, as well as the requirement for parliamentary authorization for withdrawals from the fund. Additionally, it gives a brief overview of the different funds maintained by the Government of India."

Answer 44

68,b,"The explanation correctly identifies constitutional government as one defined by the existence of a constitution, which places restrictions on the authority of the state to prevent autocracy. These restrictions often protect individual liberties, such as Fundamental Rights."

Answer 45

69,d,"India indeed operates under a parliamentary system of government, where the executive is responsible to Parliament. This system applies at both the Union and State levels, with the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers being collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can remove the Council of Ministers by passing a vote of no confidence."

Answer 46

70,a,"The explanation accurately describes the basic idea of democracy, emphasizing the importance of the desire, approval, and participation of the people in creating and operating a democratic government. It highlights the role of voters in decision-making, which is fundamental to democracy."

Answer 47

71,b,"The explanation accurately describes the parliamentary system of government, where the executive is accountable to the legislature and stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. It also highlights the concept of collective responsibility, wherein the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha. Additionally, it provides relevant additional information about the parliamentary system and its functioning."

Answer 48

72,d,"The explanation correctly identifies constitutional government as one defined by the existence of a constitution, which places restrictions on the authority of the state to prevent autocracy and protect individual liberties. It contrasts this with other forms of government that may not necessarily have a constitution, legislature, or popular representation. The explanation provides a clear understanding of the concept."

Answer 49

73,d,"The explanation accurately defines constitutional government as one defined by the existence of a constitution, which places restrictions on state authority and protects individual liberties. It also emphasizes the role of Fundamental Rights in India in limiting government powers. The note highlights the recurrence of similar questions in previous years, emphasizing the importance of understanding the concept."

Answer 50

74,c,"Both statements are correct. The Indian Parliamentary system is based on constitutional supremacy, limiting the power of Parliament to legislate, while the British model is based on Parliamentary sovereignty, where the British Parliament is supreme in legislation. Additionally, the Constitution vests in the judiciary the power to adjudicate the constitutional validity of laws passed by Parliament and state legislatures."

Answer 51

75,c,"The explanation accurately describes the legislative powers of the President in India's parliamentary system of government. It lists the various reports and statements that the President lays before Parliament, highlighting the President's role as the constitutional head of the state and the executive head of India."

Answer 52

76,a,"Statement 1 correctly describes the role of the President in India's parliamentary system of government, where the President serves as the constitutional head of the state and the executive head of India. Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to make rules for the convenient transaction of government business. However, statement 2 is incorrect because Article 77(1) states that executive actions of the Government of India are to be expressed to be taken in the name of the President."

Answer 53

77,d,"Both statements are incorrect. Article 53(1) vests the executive power of the Union in the President, who can exercise it directly or through subordinate officers. However, the Cabinet Secretary, although a top executive official, is not the head of the Civil Services Board. Instead, the Civil Services Board is headed by the Cabinet Secretary of India, who is a member of the board but not necessarily its head."

Answer 54

78,a,"Statement 1 is correct, explaining the indirect election process of the President of India through the Electoral College, which consists of elected members of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States. However, statement 2 is incorrect because the value of votes of Members of Parliament (MPs) is the same across both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, ensuring uniformity in the scale of representation from different states."

Answer 55

79,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect because the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected from among its members, not appointed. Statement 2 is correct, describing the indirect election process of the Vice President through an electoral college consisting of all members of Parliament."

Answer 56

80,a,"The explanation correctly outlines the process of appointing the Prime Minister of India as per Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution, which states that the President appoints the Prime Minister. It also mentions the provision allowing a person not a member of Parliament or State Legislature to be appointed as Prime Minister or Chief Minister for up to six months, within which they must be elected to the respective legislature."

Answer 57

81,a,"Statement 1 correctly describes the process of electing the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, where the date of election of the Deputy Speaker is determined by the Speaker, while the date of election of the Speaker is set by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no mandatory provision dictating that the Deputy Speaker must be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party; it is by convention that the position is usually offered to the opposition party. Statement 3 is correct, explaining the role of the Deputy Speaker in presiding over Lok Sabha sessions in the absence of the Speaker. However, statement 4 is incorrect as there is no parliamentary practice of the Speaker moving a motion for the appointment of the Deputy Speaker, seconded by the Prime Minister."

Answer 58

82,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect because the proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both houses of Parliament within one month, but it does not automatically continue for six months if approved. Instead, it continues for six months unless revoked sooner. Statement 2 is correct, as a no-confidence motion can only be initiated and passed in the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect because impeachment proceedings against the President can only be initiated in the Rajya Sabha, not either house of Parliament."

Answer 59

83,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect because while the term 'Council of Ministers' is used in the Constitution, it does not classify ministers into four categories. Statement 2 is correct, explaining the provisions of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act regarding the maximum number of ministers in the central and state governments."

Answer 60

84,a,"The explanation correctly defines the adjournment motion as a device of Parliamentary Proceedings used to draw attention to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It also provides additional information about the Question Hour and the types of questions asked during parliamentary sessions."

Answer 61

85,d,"All statements are incorrect. Union Territories like Delhi and Puducherry are not represented in the Rajya Sabha, but they will get representation once their Legislative Assemblies are elected. The Supreme Court and High Courts adjudicate on election disputes, not the Chief Election Commissioner. Additionally, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President, not just the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha."

Answer 62

86,b,"Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members, not appointed by the President, and usually remains in office during the term of the Lok Sabha. However, statement 3 is correct, outlining the circumstances under which the Speaker must vacate office."

Answer 63

87,b,"All statements are correct. The Rajya Sabha indeed has four exclusive powers not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha, including the authority to initiate the removal of the Vice President and the ability to pass proclamations for imposing various types of emergencies."

Answer 64

88,a,"The explanation accurately describes the process and conditions for a joint session of Parliament, clarifying the summoning authority, the types of bills applicable, the quorum required, and who presides over the joint sitting."

Answer 65

89,c,"Both statements are correct. Delimitation is the redrawing of electoral boundaries based on changes in population, carried out by a Delimitation Commission whose decisions are final and binding. The orders of the Commission cannot be modified by the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly."

Answer 66

90,d,"Statement 1 correctly explains the requirement for the Finance Minister to present the annual Union Budget, while statement 2 outlines the provisions for resignation of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers in case the budget or money bill is not passed. Statement 3 is incorrect because the dissolution of Lok Sabha is not directly linked to the non-passage of a money bill; instead, it could occur if a confidence motion is not passed."

Answer 67

91,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect; interim budgets can be presented by any government, not just caretaker ones. Statement 2 is correct, explaining the purpose of a vote-on-account as seeking funds to cover expenditures until a new government is formed."

Answer 68

92,a,"All statements except Statement 4 are correct. There is no specific Parliamentary budget office in India, but there is an Estimate Committee that reviews policies and examines estimates throughout the year."

Answer 69

93,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect regarding the composition of the Public Accounts Committee. However, Statements 2 and 3 correctly describe its functions, including the scrutiny of government accounts and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General."

Answer 70

94,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect as the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is to the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not to the entire Parliament. Statements 2 and 3 accurately depict the tenure of Ministers and the duty of the Prime Minister as per the Constitution."

Answer 71

95,a,"All statements accurately describe the characteristics and procedures related to Money Bills under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution."

Answer 72

96,d,"All statements are correct, detailing the legislative powers of Parliament, including its authority over Union, Concurrent, and State List matters, especially during emergencies and for international treaties."

Answer 73

97,c,"Both statements are correct, describing the procedure and significance of a No-Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha. The additional information provides a useful comparison with a Censure Motion."

Answer 74

98,b,"The statement correctly describes the origin, composition, and function of the Estimates Committee, emphasizing its role in examining the budget and suggesting economies of public expenditure."

Answer 75

99,c,"Statements 1 and 2 are correct, elucidating the tenure and role of the Cabinet Secretary and the Prime Minister's direct control over the Cabinet Secretariat. Statement 3 is incorrect as it misrepresents the function of the Secretariat."

Answer 76

100,b,"Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the powers and limitations of the Rajya Sabha regarding Money Bills and demands for grants. Statement 3 is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of the Rajya Sabha in the discussion of the Annual Financial Statement."

Answer 77

101,a,"The statement accurately describes the purpose and procedure of a joint sitting of Parliament, highlighting its role in resolving deadlocks between the two Houses over the passage of a bill."

Answer 78

102,d,"All statements correctly outline the legislative powers of Parliament, including its authority over Union, Concurrent, and State List matters, especially during emergencies and for implementing international treaties."

Answer 79

103,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect as bills do not lapse on prorogation, and Statement 2 is correct, explaining the circumstances under which bills do not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha."

Answer 80

104,c,"The statement provides a concise overview of the qualification criteria for candidates contesting Lok Sabha elections as outlined in the Indian Constitution."

Answer 81

105,d,"Both statements are incorrect. The first-past-the-post (FPTP) system is used in Indian elections, not proportional representation. While there is a convention regarding the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, it is not a constitutional provision."

Answer 82

106,d,"Adjournment Motion: It is introduced to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance which is definite, factual, urgent, matter of recent occurrence. Question Hour: In the First Hour of parliamentary sitting usually members ask questions and ministers give answers but sometimes questions can be asked to private members too. Three types of Question are asked namely– 1. Starred Question: Require oral answer and Supplementary question can be asked. 2. Unstarred Question: Require written answer and Supplementary question cannot be asked. 3. Short Notice Question: Answered orally and asked on short notice of less than 10 days. Thus, Adjournment Motion, Question Hour and Supplementary Question, all constitutes devices of the Parliament of India through which it exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers."

Answer 83

107,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect: A Private Member bill can be introduced by any member of the Parliament other than a minister. Whereas, a bill introduced by a Minister in the Parliament is called a public bill. A Private member bill generally reflects the stand of the opposition party on public matters. There is less likelihood that the Parliament will adopt it. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation. Statement 2 is incorrect: As of now around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence in Indian Parliament."

Answer 84

108,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect: The Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First general Election. CPI won in 16 seats. The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first democratically elected PM of the country. Statement 2 is correct: In 1969, an official leader of the opposition was recognized for the first time. However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977. Statement 3 is incorrect: In order to receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House i.e., 55 seats in the Lok Sabha."

Answer 85

109,b,"Committee on Subordinate Legislation: Composition: 15 members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker. A Minister is not nominated to this Committee. Functions: Scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation. NOTE: Simple yet confusing description based question by UPSC. Trick to mark such description based questions correctly is to keep focus on keywords. For instance, in the above question key words rules, sub-rules, by-laws, delegated by the Parliament hints towards option (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation."

Answer 86

110,c,"Money Bill (Article 110): Matter concerned with financial matters like the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax. Can be introduced Only in Lok Sabha. Introduced only on the recommendation of the President. Cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha should return the bill with or without recommendation Lok Sabha may accept or reject recommendation. Rajya Sabha can keep it for a maximum period of 14 days. Requires the certification of the Speaker. Rajya Sabha has limited power with respect to money bills so no chance of any disagreement. The President can reject or approve but cannot return it to parliament for reconsideration."

Answer 87

111,a,"Statement 1 is correct: There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. In the past the Supreme Court also held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended five times to expand the exempted list. Statement 3 is incorrect: Though the expression ‘office of profit’ is mentioned in the Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, however, it has neither been ‘defined’ in the Indian Constitution nor in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit."

Answer 88

112,a,"Parliamentary Committee: The purpose of the parliamentary committees is to study and address a wide range of issues that the legislature cannot directly address owing to their magnitude. They also keep an eye on how the executive branch is operating. There are two types of parliamentary committees: permanent or standing committees and ad hoc committees. Department Related Standing Committee: They are elected or appointed periodically, and they work on a continuous basis to secure more accountability of the Executive to the Parliament, particularly financial accountability. The latter are created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises and they are dissolved after they complete the task assigned to them. Ad hoc committees: These committees are created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises and they are dissolved after they complete the task assigned to them. Both the Parliamentary committees are responsible to review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc."

Answer 89

113,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution lays down the following four qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of the state legislature, such as - He must be a citizen of India. He must take an oath or affirmation before the person the Election Commission has designated for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears. To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of RPA, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release not permanently disqualified."

Answer 90

114,c,"Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 85(1), the Constitution gives the power to the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet. The gap between two sessions must not exceed 6 months. Statement 2 is incorrect: By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year not by Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision of the minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year."

Answer 91

115,b,"The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha in matters like – The impeachment of the President, Removal of the vice-president, Constitutional amendments, and Removal of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Additional Information: Rajya Sabha enjoys exclusive powers in the matter of creating new All India Services. In the matter of removal of government, Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is responsible only to Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha. Thus, a no-confidence motion cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has less or no powers in the matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha"

Answer 92

116,d,"Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003: The Macro-Economic Framework Statement, presented to Parliament as per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. The Framework Statement includes assessments of the GDP growth rate, Central Government fiscal balance, and the economy’s external sector balance."

Answer 93

117,cancelled,"This Question was cancelled by UPSC. Probable Solution: (b) Statement 1 is incorrect: The amendment of RPA in 1996 restricted the number of seats one candidate could contest in one election to two constituencies. And whenever they have won more than one, the candidates have retained only one, forcing bypolls in the rest. Statement 2 is correct: In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such provision. If a candidate is contesting from more than one constituency, he has to lodge a separate return of election expenses for every election which he has contested. In every case, the Election Commission of India (ECI) bears the cost of elections/bye-elections in all the constituencies in Lok Sabha and assembly elections as well."

Answer 94

118,d,"Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies. Statement 2 is correct: MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population. Statement 3 is incorrect: The released funds under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable i.e., if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year. Statement 4 is correct: The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities."

Answer 95

119,b,"Statement 1 is correct: Pursuant to the recommendations made by the H N Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed to bring transparency and more clarity in the concept of contempt of court. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have been empowered with the power to penalise Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt. However, the expression has been defined by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971. Statement 4 is correct: Article 142 (2) of the Indian Constitution states that “subject to the provisions of any law made on this behalf by Parliament” the Supreme Court shall have all and every power to make any order on the punishment of any contempt of itself."

Answer 96

120,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Advocates Act, 1961 Advocates to be the only recognized class of persons entitled to practice law. Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as advocates and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as advocates. Statement 2 is correct: To recognize universities that offer a law degree as a prerequisite for becoming an advocate and inspect and visit universities, or to direct the State Bar Councils to do so are one of the functions of BCI."

Answer 97

121,c,"Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 131, a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States. Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 329 (b), no election to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State shall be called in question except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as may be provided for by or under any law made by the appropriate Legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 131 doesn’t mention UT anywhere. Further, the original jurisdiction mentioned in 131 is regarding issues between the federal units; UTs being part of the Central Government in one way or the other. Statement 4 is correct: According to Article 131, a dispute between two or more states comes under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court."

Answer 98

122,c,"According to Article 131, a dispute between two or more states comes under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Other disputes which comes under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are: State and other states, Centre and state on one side and other state on other side, Original jurisdiction of the SC extends to any dispute between the GoI and one or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction."

Answer 99

123,a,"Statement 1 is correct: The judges of the SC are appointed by the President (which means the cabinet) in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (i.e. judges of the SC and the HC). Statement 2 is incorrect: SC judge can be removed from his office by an order of President. The President can order for removal of SC Judge only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. Statement 3 is correct: The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the SC are charges on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are non-votable by the Parliament. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the SC without any interference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service."

Answer 100

124,b,"Article 124(1) mandates that there shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges. The power to increase the number of judges in the SC is vested in the Parliament. In the Indian Constitution, Parliament is authorised to regulate judges. In the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2019, the number of judges in the SC was increased by 3 judges. As a result, there are now 34 judges in total, including the Chief Justice, as opposed to 31 before."

Answer 101

125,c,"Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a removal motion signed by 100 members (Lok Sabha) or 50 members (Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman. The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion. Statement is 2 incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define and gives details of the expression ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India which are the ground for the impeachment of the Judges. Statement 3 is correct: The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is governed by the Judges Enquiry Act (1968). Statement 4 is correct: If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires that the motion be passed by a ‘special majority’ i.e. majority of the total membership of the House and majority of not less than two-thirds members present and voting"

Answer 102

126,b,"Article 142 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery, etc. The SC in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. This is often termed as ‘judicial activism’. Also in the Union Carbide Case, 1989, the Supreme Court while overriding the laws made by the Parliament invoked Article 142 to provide relief awarding the compensation to victims affected in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy."

Answer 103

127,a,"Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect: High Court does not has power to review and correct its own judgement. Thus, it is bound by its previous decision."

Answer 104

128,d,"The Supreme Court as the Custodian of the Indian Constitution: Indian Judiciary is an integrated, powerful and independent judiciary. The Legislature and Executive works on making laws and implementation of the laws, but the Judiciary works on safeguarding the public interest by checking into overreach, misuse and error of law. Therefore, the authority to amend the constitution lies with the Parliament, but the SC has the authority to examine the validity of those amendments. SC has the power of Judicial Review. According to Article 32, the SC is the guardian of Fundamental Rights. The SC also an interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution."

Answer 105

129,a,"Judicial Review: In general terms, judicial review refers to the power and ability of High Courts and Supreme Court to review laws or judgments to ensure that they do not violate constitutional or legal provisions. Article 13: states that, Courts can review government orders, legislations, byelaw, rule, regulation, notification or any law in force in Indian Territory. Article 32/Article 226: allows a person to move to SC/HC in case of violation of fundamental rights. Thus, SC & HC can issue writs as constitutional remedies against the wrongdoer. Article 137: empowers SC to review judgments or orders made by the Supreme Court itself. The review will be done by a larger bench of SC. Article 142: allows the Supreme Court to pass such a decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. Primarily, Article 13, 32 and 226 forms the core of judicial review, of which Article 13 and 32 forms part of Fundamental Right. Further judicial review has also been considered as part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution and hence cannot be amended. Thus, the Courts are empowered to declare a statute ultra vires the constitution and to nullify an executive action as unconstitutional if they violate constitutional provisions or alter fundamental rights. These powers of judicial review are given not to make the judiciary superior, but to ensure a system of checks and balances between the legislature and the executive on one hand, and the judiciary on the other."

Answer 106

130,c,"Statement 1 is correct: The objective of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society for securing justice and are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities. Statement 2 is correct: In every State, there is a State Legal Service Authority to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State."

Answer 107

131,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council of the state cannot be more than one third of total strength of assembly. However, the size of the Legislative Council cannot be less than 40 members. The constitution has fixed the maximum and minimum limits but actual strength is fixed by Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst itself."

Answer 108

132,a,"Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly vacates his office in three cases: 1. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly; 2. Speaker Resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and vice versa and 3. Removed by the resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 179 provided that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution."

Answer 109

133,c,"Articles 153 to 167 of Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions relating to the Governor of the States. The Governor of the state is the Chief executive head of the state. He is also the constitutional (nominal) head. He is the agent of the Central Government. The Indian Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President. Additional Information: Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states. The 7th Constitutional Amendment also provided for the: Appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court. Establishment of a common high court for two or more states; Extension the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories. As per Article 217(1) the Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts are to be appointed by the President. Section 45 in The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 states that the CM of the UT(Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir) is appointed by the President of India, while the oath is administered by the Lt. Governor of the respective UT."

Answer 110

134,b,"Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This comes under the discretionary power of the Governor. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 164 (1) states that the Chief Minister and the other Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor. Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 200 the Governor of a state can use his legislative power to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President. Statement 4 is incorrect: Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government does not come under Governor’s discretionary power. In the Nabam Rebia judgement (2016), the Supreme Court held that the exercise of Governor’s discretion under Article 163 is limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful."

Answer 111

135,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Secretary is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister. As the appointment of Chief Secretary is an executive action of the Chief Minister, it is taken in the name of the Governor of the State. Statement 2 is incorrect: Though the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years, there is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief Secretary of a State."

Answer 112

136,c,"Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 361, which deals with the ‘Protection of President and Governors’, states that ‘no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office’. Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 158, which deals with the ‘Conditions of Governor Office’, states that ‘the emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office’. NOTE: Provisions in relation to allowances, privileges, emoluments of Governor are mentioned in Second Schedule of Indian Constitution."

Answer 113

137,a,"Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) states that, through the legislative powers of the Governor, he can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. Statement 2 is incorrect: The State legislature is a constitutional body and derives its power from the Constitution itself and as per Article 208 (1) of the Constitution, a house of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. This implies that the state legislature does not follow Lok Sabha rules, no such provision exists."

Answer 114

138,c,"The provided content is related to various recommendations and committees regarding the appointment and role of Governors. The options in the question seem to be missing, but the explanation provides valuable information about the evolution of recommendations regarding the appointment criteria for Governors."

Answer 115

139,d,"The explanation provides details about the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States according to various articles of the Indian Constitution. It highlights the taxes levied, collected, and appropriated by both the Centre and the States. The options in the question seem to be missing, but the explanation offers comprehensive information about the financial relations between the Centre and the States."

Answer 116

140,d,"Statement 1 is correct: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities (Article 243ZD) not 73rd Amendment. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added a new part IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as “The Panchayats” and contains articles 243 to 243 O. Statement 2 is correct: According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the conduct of Panchayati Raj elections is vested in the state election commission consisting of a state election commissioner appointed by the Governor of the state. Statement 3 is correct: 73rd Amendment Act also mandates for the establishment of State Finance Commissions."

Answer 117

141,a,"Statement 1 is correct: Article 243 ZE of Part IX A provides for establishment of the Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC). The Constitution under Article 243P mandates formation of Metropolitan Planning Committees (MPCs) in all metropolitan areas where population is above 10 Lakh. The elected officials of the municipalities and the heads of the panchayats in the metropolitan area elect 2/3rd of the MPC members from among themselves. 1/3rd is nominated. Elected members are proportionate to the rural: urban population ratio. Statement 2 is correct: MPC prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area. Statement 3 is incorrect: MPC helps in draft planning and not in implementing the Govt sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. NOTE: In statement 3, after reading the extreme/absolute phrase “sole”, we can take the calculable risk of marking it as incorrect. This logic is also supported by reasoning that MPC is a “planning body” and statement 3 is talking about “implementation functions”."

Answer 118

142,b,"Statement 1 is correct: Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land and to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a scheduled tribe. Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Sabha, in the PESA Act, was granted wide ranging powers starting from consultation on land acquisition to that of ownership over minor forest products and leasing of minor minerals. Statement 3 is incorrect: Gram Sabha can grant prospecting licence for mining lease for minor minerals and concessions for such activities and not all/any minerals. NOTE: UPSC has replaced words “minor mineral” by “any mineral” to create confusion."

Answer 119

143,c,"Option (c) is correct: The PESA act is for 5th schedule areas whereas creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas comes under ambit of 6th schedule."

Answer 120

144,d,"The provided content elaborates on the features of the Forest Rights Act, 2006. It highlights the objectives and provisions of the act related to recognizing forest rights of Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD), granting authority to Gram Sabha, and ensuring sustainable use and conservation of forest resources."

Answer 121

145,c,"Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice. Statement 2 is incorrect: Political accountability can be achieved in any system with democratic rule. Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial mobilisation was never the basis for the establishment of PRI. NOTE: In this question, the catch word is “Fundamental object”. We must stress on this phrase and apply this litmus test to each given sentence. Political accountability is never a Fundamental objective of the Panchayati Raj system. Moreover, People’s participation in development and Democratic decentralisation are correlative to each other. Financial mobilisation is meant for financial autonomy of PRI, but not a fundamental objective."

Answer 122

146,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect: Part IX of the Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj System in India. The Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized in India through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. As per the act, no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years. Therefore, the minimum age is 21. Statement 2 is correct: Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remaining period."

Answer 123

147,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect: The establishment, jurisdiction, and process in civil and criminal proceedings are all outlined in the Gram Nyayalayas Act. As per the Gram Nyayalaya Act, the Gram Nyayalayas can hear both the civil and criminal cases. Statement 2 is correct: The Court shall try to settle disputes via conciliation between the parties and the court can make use of the conciliators (social workers) to be appointed for this purpose."

Answer 124

148,b,"Option (b) is correct: The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) or Local Self-Government is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice. NOTE: Phrase to emphasis here is “Best”. Democratic decentralisation is the best description of Local self-government. Balwant Rai Mehta committee (on Community Development Program) in 1957 recommended the establishment of a scheme of Democratic decentralisation with 3-tiered structure of PRI."

Answer 125

149,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House. Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify any time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea under the Tenth Schedule."

Answer 126

150,d,"Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he is a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. While Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India have no such rights or privilege. Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution and also, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president and conventionally, he resigns when CoM resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice."

Answer 127

151,c,The Thirteenth Finance Commission of India, chaired by Vijay L. Kelkar, recommended a 'Grand Bargain' for implementing the GST model, proposing a grant sanction of Rs 500 billion to incentivize both the Centre and the States. Additionally, it emphasized the need for State Governments to strengthen their local fund audit departments as mandated by Article 243I, which establishes a Finance Commission in each State to determine principles for ensuring adequate financial resources for panchayats and municipalities.

Answer 128

152,d,"Option (d) is correct: None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) is correct in this context. This means that the correct answer is not covered by any of the given options in the context of the Finance Commission."

Answer 129

153,c,The statement correctly identifies that during a Financial Emergency, the Executive authority of the Centre extends to directing any state to observe canons of financial propriety. However, it's incorrect in suggesting that during a national emergency, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state Legislative Assembly. The function of the PAC, as stated, is to examine the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), which acts as a guide for the Public Accounts Committee. The information from CAG reports can indeed be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who violate the law while managing public finances. However, while CAG has some quasi-judicial powers, it does not have certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Answer 130

154,c,The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India and must meet certain qualifications, including being a citizen of India and having served as a judge of some high court for 5 years or an advocate of some high court for 10 years, or being recognized as an eminent jurist. The Attorney General has the right to speak and participate in parliamentary proceedings but without the right to vote.

Answer 131

155,d,Statement 1 incorrectly states that the strength of the Election Commission of India (ECI) is specified in the Constitution, which is not the case; the discretion lies with the President. The most important function of the ECI is to decide election schedules for conducting periodic and timely elections. The ECI also grants recognition to political parties and allocates election symbols to them.

Answer 132

156,d,The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is responsible for implementing the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, dealing with forest and livelihood objectives at the national level.

Answer 133

157,b,"Statement 1: Correct. The National Development Council (NDC) and Planning Commission (PC) have been abolished. NDC, an advisory body, advised the Planning Commission on planning and included all CMs, union ministers, etc. Statement 2: Correct. Economic and Social Planning is in the Concurrent List. Statement 3: Correct. Panchayat Raj Institutions have powers and functions related to economic development and social justice planning."

Answer 134

158,b,NDC comprises the Prime Minister, all Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories, and members of the Planning Commission, not including the chairman of the Finance Commission.

Answer 135

159,d,"The National Development Council, the Planning Commission, and the Zonal Councils are non-constitutional bodies. NDC advised the Planning Commission on planning and has been replaced by NITI Aayog. The Planning Commission was established in 1950, and Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956."

Answer 136

160,c,"Statement 1: Incorrect. The Finance Commission, not the Planning Commission, is constituted by the President under Article 280 for recommending tax revenue distribution. Statement 2: Correct. The National Development Council was the highest decision-making authority on development matters and advised the Planning Commission. Statement 3: Incorrect. The Ministry of Rural Development is responsible for rural socio-economic development. Statement 4: Incorrect. The Ministry of Urban Development deals with housing and urban development. Statement 5: Correct. Parliament is the supreme legislative institution responsible for making laws for societal welfare."

Answer 137

161,b,"Statement 1: Incorrect. The report 'Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central Government' (1950) by N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar suggested grouping ministries and improving personnel capabilities but did not propose designating a minister and secretary solely for administrative reform. It was the 1st ARC that made such a recommendation. Statement 2: Correct. The Department of Personnel was established in 1970 based on the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission, initially under the Cabinet Secretariat and later under the overall charge of the Prime Minister."