ENVI ONLYIAS - Sheet8

Question 1

1,”Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022)”,”1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach”,”2022”

Answer 1

1,a,Nitrogen fixation,Alfalfa, Chickpea and Clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. Nitrogen fixation is the process by which nitrogen is taken from its molecular form (N2) in the atmosphere and converted into nitrogen compounds useful for other biochemical processes. Fixation can occur through atmospheric (lightning), industrial, or biological processes. Nitrogen fixing plants are: Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-fixing plants used by farmers worldwide and in the Southern Great Plains of US in particular. Peas or beans can be used as a summer nitrogen-fixing cover crop or harvested for food. Both ways, they enrich the soil with plant-suitable N. Southern peas prefer warm seasons and are sown when the soil temperature reaches 60F. Beans: fava (aka faba, broad), alfalfa, green (aka French), runner, field, sweet, peanuts (aka groundnuts), soybeans, cream, black-eyed, or purple-hulled beans, lupins, lentils, cowpeas.

Question 2

2,”In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase marine productivity by bringing the: (2011)”,”1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface. 2. Nutrients to the surface. 3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.”,”2011”

Answer 2

2,b,Ecosystem productivity/Energy Flow,Marine upwelling brings nutrients to the surface. Upwelling is a process in which deep, cold water of the ocean rises toward the surface. Winds blowing across the ocean surface pushes the water away. Water then rises up from beneath the surface to replace the water that was pushed away. This process is known as “upwelling.” Upwelling is usually observed at the equator where surface waters diverge, in the vicinity of Antarctica where the east and west winds drift, and along coastlines where the wind blows in a way that the Ekman Transport pushes water away from the coast. The water that upwelling causes to rise to the surface is usually cooler and nutrient-rich. Surface waters are “fertilised” by these nutrients, which means that they frequently have high biological production. As a result, good fishing spots are usually found where upwelling is frequent. Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect: At the upwelling zone no such movement of organisms can be observed, they would remain at their position. Statement 2 is correct: Deep ocean water during upwelling is usually extremely cold and nutrient-rich. We frequently find very productive waters in upwelling locations as a result.

Question 3

3,”If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because (2011)”,”(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients (b) Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability (c) The rain forest species are slow-growing (d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest”,”2011”

Answer 3

3,a,Types of ecosystem/Forest/Biomes,The high volume of rainfall in tropical rainforests leaches out most of the nutrients from the soil and makes these soils virtually useless and nutrient deficient for agricultural purposes. Option (b) is incorrect: Propagule is a vegetative structure that can become detached from a plant and give rise to a new plant, e.g. a bud, sucker, or spore. Seed bearing plants are more significant than Propagules in rainforests. Option (c) is incorrect: In the rainforest, the plant species generally compete with each other for sunlight and while doing so they grow so fast that they rapidly consume the nutrients from the decomposed leaf litter. As a result, most of the nutrients are contained in the trees and other plants rather than in the soil. Option (d) is incorrect: Though the exotic invasive species are a threat to rainforests (E.g. Most plantation crops like rubber, palm etc.) but it is also true that the rainforest soil is heavily leached, nutrient deficient, and thus less fertile.

Question 4

4,”The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is a supporting service? (2012)”,”(a) Production of food and water (b) Control of climate and disease (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination (d) Maintenance of diversity”,”2012”

Answer 4

4,c,,Nutrient cycling and crop pollination are supporting services under Millennium Ecosystem Assessment. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) was initiated in 2001 by the United Nations. The objective of the MA was to evaluate how changing ecosystems might affect human well-being as well as the scientific foundation for any necessary action to improve the systems’ conservation and sustainable usage, as well as their contribution to human well-being. Ecosystem services to the society in the form of – Provisioning services: food, raw materials, genetic resources, water, etc; Regulating services: carbon sequestration and climate regulation; Cultural services: tourism and religion; Supporting services: that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services such as nutrient recycling and soil formation, etc.

Question 5

5,”What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? (2012)”,”1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. 2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected. 3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.”,”2012”

Answer 5

5,a,Food Chain,Phytoplankton prefer iron and iron pulls carbon out of the atmosphere during photosynthesis, thus the complete destruction of phytoplankton would certainly affect the carbon sinking mechanism of the ocean. In a balanced ecosystem, phytoplankton provide food for a wide range of sea creatures, thus Phytoplankton are considered the primary producers in the marine food chain, they are called the ‘grass of the sea’. Thus, the destruction of phytoplankton will certainly have an adverse effect on the marine food chain. Statement 3 is incorrect: First of all the use of extreme words like ‘drastically’ in the statement is itself a red flag. Now coming to the main part of the statement, if the phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason, then it may affect the marine food chain because when the phytoplankton disappeared, that affects the zooplankton, which then affects the small fish that ate the zooplankton, and the large fish that ate the small fish. So it’s like dominoes falling. Phytoplankton and macroalgae → zooplankton → small fish → large fish. Therefore, it may hardly affect the density of water. Significance of Phytoplanktons: Primary Producer in the marine food chain: Phytoplankton are the primary producers in the marine food chain and hence they are called the ‘grass of the sea’. Contribute Oxygen: They contribute more than half of the oxygen in the environment. Helps in reduction of Global Warming: They reduce global warming by absorbing human-induced carbon dioxide. Bioindicators: They are important bioindicators regulating life in oceans. The ocean ecosystem’s general health is based on their abundance.

Question 6

6,”With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms? (2013)”,”1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria”,”2013”

Answer 6

6,b,Biotic Components,Fungi and Bacteria, are known as decomposers. Decomposer: An organism that primarily feeds on dead organisms or the waste from living organisms. Detritivores: Some organisms perform a similar function as decomposers, and are sometimes called detritivores. The difference lies in the way decomposers and detritivores break down organic material. Detritivores must digest organic material within their bodies in order to break it down and gain nutrients from it. Decomposers do not need to digest organic material internally in order to break it down. Scavengers: Scavengers are the first to arrive at a dead organism’s remains. It includes lions, jackals, wolves, raccoons, and opossums. Example: Bacteria, fungi.

Question 7

7,”In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of: (2013)”,”(a) Insects and fungi (b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients (c) Water limits and fire (d) None of the above”,”2013”

Answer 7

7,c,Ecological Succession,Water limits and Fire restrict trees to replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession. Grassland Ecosystem: Grassland ecosystems are an early stage of succession in regions where the mature ecosystems are forests. Grass ecosystems, on the other hand, are climax ecosystems in grassland regions when there is insufficient precipitation to support a forest. Grass that dries out during the dry season ignites fires that decimate other plant species and their seeds. In areas with little rainfall, where plants cannot thrive, grasslands develop. A grassland environment transforms into a desert ecosystem as a result of constraining forces including water scarcity and forest fire. Therefore, the ecological succession of grassland is desert. It is, however, notable that the soil of the grassland ecosystem is rich in nutrients and organic matter and provides the largest biomass.

Question 8

8,”Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity? (2013)”,”(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands”,”2013”

Answer 8

8,c,Energy Flow,The average ocean productivity is about 50 grams carbon per square metre per year; The average land productivity is 160grams carbon per square metre per year; Salt marshes and mangroves have one of the highest productivity of 3300-6000 grams of carbon per square metre per year. Productivity: Productivity is the rate of biomass production. Productivity is measured in mass per unit volume per unit time. The quantity of biomass or organic matter created by plants during photosynthesis per unit area during a certain time is referred to as primary production. Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP). GPP – R = NPP. Secondary productivity is the rate at which consumers create new organic matter.

Question 9

9,”With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements: (2013)”,”1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other. 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species. 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.”,”2013”

Answer 9

9,a,Food Chain,A food chain is the successive transfer of nutrients and energy from one creature to another. A food chain shows a straightforward and isolated relationship and only one component of the food or energy flow. E.g. Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk/Eagle. A trophic level is the name given to each step in the food chain. The place an organism holds in a food chain determines its trophic level. Top carnivores are at the end of a food chain, which begins with producers. Types of Food Chains: 1) Grazing food chain and 2) Detritus food chain Grazing food chain: The consumers which start the food chain, utilising the plant or plant part as their food, constitute the grazing food chain. Detritus food chain: This type of food chain starts from organic matter of dead and decaying animals and plant bodies from the grazing food chain. Dead organic matter or detritus feeding organisms are called detritivores or decomposers.

Question 10

10,”Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms? (2013)”,”(a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche (c) Habitat (d) Home range”,”2013”

Answer 10

10,b,Ecological community,Ecological niche describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community as well. Ecological Niche: The term niche was first time used by Grinnel (1917) to explain microhabitats. The physical space occupied by the organism, its functional role in the community i.e., trophic position, its position in the environmental gradients of temperature, moisture, pH, soil etc. and the conditions of existence. Therefore, Niche is the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat for its survival and reproduction. No two species have exactly the same niche. Different types of niches are: Habitat niche, Food niche, Reproductive niche, Physical and Chemical niche.

Question 11

11,”On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion: (2013)”,”(a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers (c) exists as groundwater (d) exists as soil moisture”,”2013”

Answer 11

11,c,Water Conservation,Ground has the largest portion of freshwater after freshwater that exists as ice caps and glaciers. Water Resources: About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water. Out of the total water present on the planet earth, the majority is in the form of seas and oceans (more than 97%) and is termed as saline water. While the remaining water is termed as freshwater. The decreasing order of proportion of freshwater in different forms: snow caps, icebergs and glaciers → groundwater → soil moistures → freshwater lakes → atmosphere → rivers.
Reservoir Volume Percentage
(Million of the Total
Cubic km )
Oceans 1,370 97.25
Ice Caps 29 2.05
and Glaciers
Groundwater 9.5 0.68
Lakes 0.125 0.01
Soil Moisture 0.065 0.005
Atmosphere 0.013 0.001
Streams 0.0017 0.0001
and Rivers
Biosphere 0.0006 0.00004

Question 12

12,”Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’? (2015)”,”(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another (b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area”,”2015”

Answer 12

12,c,Ecosystem,Ecosystem can be defined as a community of organisms together with the environment in which they live. Ecosystem: An ecosystem can be defined as a functional unit of nature, where living organisms (producers, consumers, and decomposers) interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment. An ecosystem can be of any size but usually encompasses specific and limited species. E.g. Aquatic Ecosystem. In the ecosystem, biotic and abiotic components are linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows. Everything that lives in an ecosystem is dependent on the other species and elements that are also part of that ecological community. A damaged or extinct component of an ecosystem has an effect on the entire system.

Question 13

13,”Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? (2018)”,”1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves”,”2018”

Answer 13

13,d,World Biome/Adaptation,Hard and waxy leaves, Tiny leaves and Thorns instead of leaves are the modifications that occur in the desert areas to inhibit water loss. Desert Biome: Both warm and mid-latitude deserts have a predominance of xerophytic or drought-resistant plants. This comprises cacti, thorny bushes, wiry grasses with extensive roots, and scatted dwarf acacias. In order to gather moisture and search for ground water, the majority of desert shrubs have lengthy roots that are widely distributed. Plants with few or no leaves typically have needle-shaped, waxy, leathery, or hairy foliage to reduce water loss through transpiration. Many kinds of grasses and herbs have tough, thick skins on their seeds that serve as protection when the plants are dormant.

Question 14

14,”The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017)”,”(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System (d) Security of National Highways”,”2017”

Answer 14

14,b,Technology in wildlife protection,M-STrIPES stands for Monitoring system for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. M-STrIPES: Launched in 2010 by NTCA and WII across Indian tiger reserves. It is a software-based monitoring system, designed to assist wildlife protection. The system consists of two components: Field based methods for ecological monitoring, law enforcement, recording wildlife offences, and patrolling. A specialised GIS application for reporting, analysis, and data storage. Forest guards are required to use a GPS to track their movements as part of M-STrIPES, in addition to entering their observations on site-specific data sheets.

Question 15

15. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to
    be found surviving on a surface without soil? (2021)
16. Fern 2. Lichen
17. Moss 4. Mushroom
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer 15

15,c,Biodiversity/Ecosystem,Lichen and Moss can survive on a surface without soil. Bryophytes: The plant body is differentiated into a small stem and simple leaves, but true roots are absent. They usually grow in moist places. E.g. Liverworts, mosses Mosses constitute the major component of Indian bryoflora followed by liverworts and hornworts Mosses are non-vascular plants. They do not need soil to survive, instead they have a rhizoid multi-cell anchoring structure that is used to climb and grip over rocky surfaces. Moss thrives in moist and shady areas. Statement 1 is incorrect: There are four particular types of habitats that ferns are found in: moist, shady forests; crevices in rock faces, especially when sheltered from the full sun; acid wetlands including bogs and swamps; and tropical trees, where many species are epiphytes. Statement 2 is correct: Lichens are generally found on rock, tree bark, soil, houses, tombstones, cars, old farm equipment, etc. Thus, lichen can be found surviving on surfaces without soil. Statement 3 is correct: Mosses are nonvascular plants. They do not need soil to survive, instead they have a rhizoid multi-cell anchoring structure that is used to climb and grip over rocky surfaces. Moss thrives in moist and shady areas. Statement 4 is incorrect: A mushroom is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically grows above ground, on soil, etc.

Question 16

16. Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021)
17. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria
18. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera
    Which of the above are primary producers in the
    food chains of oceans?
    (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

Answer 16

16,b,Food Chain,Cyanobacteria and Diatoms are primary producers in the food chains of oceans. Copepods: Any member of the widely dispersed crustacean subclass Copepoda is referred to as one of them. Free-living copepods form a crucial link in the food chain and are often assigned the role of “primary consumers”. Copepods play a significant ecological role by feeding numerous fish species. Cyanobacteria: Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in all types of water. These single-celled organisms live in fresh, brackish (combined salt and fresh water), and marine water. These organisms use sunlight to make their own food. Diatoms: Diatoms are photosynthesizing algae, they have a siliceous skeleton (frustule) and are found in almost every aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters, soils, in fact almost anywhere moist. They are not mobile or can only move a small distance along a substrate by secreting mucilaginous material along a raphe, which is a groove or canal that resembles a slit. Since they are autotrophic, they can only exist in the photic zone (water depths down to about 200m depending on clarity).

Question 17

17. Which of the following are detritivores? (2021)
18. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish
19. Millipedes 4. Seahorses
20. Woodlice
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
    (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer 17

17,c,Food Chain,Earthworms, Millipedes and Woodlice are Detritivores. Detritivores also known as detritivores, detritophages, detritus feeders, or detritus eaters are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus (decomposing plant and animal parts as well as faeces). By doing so, all these detritivores contribute to decomposition and the nutrient cycles. Detritivores are an important aspect of many ecosystems. They can live on any type of soil with an organic component, including marine ecosystems, where they are termed interchangeably with bottom feeders. Typical detritivorous animals include earthworm, millipedes, springtails, woodlice, dung flies, slugs, many terrestrial worms, sea stars, sea cucumbers, fiddler crabs, and some sedentary polychaetes such as worms of the family Terebellidae.

Question 18

18,”In which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle? (2021)”,”(a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle (c) Phosphorus cycle (d) Sulphur cycle”,”2021”

Answer 18

18,c,Biogeochemical Cycles,Phosphate ions and other minerals gradually leak out of rocks as a result of weathering and rain. Phosphorus Cycle: The phosphorus cycle (unlike the carbon and nitrogen cycles) lacks an atmospheric component. Phosphorus is one of the most important nutrients in biological systems since it is a fundamental ingredient of nucleic acids, phospholipids, and several phosphorylated compounds. Phosphate ions and other minerals gradually leak out of rocks as a result of weathering and rain. This inorganic phosphate is subsequently distributed in soils and water. Plants take up inorganic phosphate from the soil and then these plants are consumed by animals. Phosphate is incorporated into organic molecules such as DNA in plants and animals. When the plants and animals die, it decays, and the organic phosphate is returned to the soil.

Question 19

19,”Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms? (2021)”,”1. Cnidarians 2. Fungi 3. Protozoa”,”2021”

Answer 19

19. (d) Sub-Theme: Species Interaction
    Option (d) is the correct answer: All species
    can establish a symbiotic relationship with
    other organisms.
    Symbiotic Relationship:
    z A relationship between two (or more) species
    that may or may not be advantageous to
    one or both is referred to as symbiotic. The
    organisms could belong to the same species
    or to separate ones.
    z For eg., Coral has a symbiotic relationship
    (each gives something to the other and
    gets something back in return) with
    ‘zooxanthellae’ microscopic algae which live
    on coral.
    Option 1 is correct: The relationship between
    cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae is termed
    “symbiotic” because both the animal host and the
    algae are benefiting from the association. It is a
    mutualistic interaction.
    Option 2 is correct: Two common mutualistic
    relationships involving fungi are mycorrhiza
    (fungi and plant roots) and lichen (fungi and
    either cyanobacteria or green algae).
    Option 3 is correct: Protozoa mostly represent
    a close mutualistic association between a
    protozoan and unicellular symbiont such as
    bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae
    or protozoans and a multicellular organisms
    such as ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating
    cockroaches, plants.

Question 20

20,”With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements: (2021)”,”1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater. 2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.”,”2021”

Answer 20

20,b,Water Conservation,Water Resources: 71 % of earth surface constitutes water & only 29 % constitutes a land area of earth 97 % of water area constitutes Oceans & Seas & 2.5 % as freshwater 75 % of freshwater in glaciers & ice caps 7 % of freshwater is groundwater Fresh Water → Glaciers > Groundwater > Ice & Snow > Lakes > soil moisture > atmosphere > Rivers. NOTE: This question is repeated from 2013. Also, it is a direct question from Class 7 NCERT (Geography).

Question 21

21. The “Red Data Books” published by the International
    Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural
    Resource (IUCN) contain lists of (2011)
22. Endemic plant and animal species present in the
    biodiversity hotspots.
23. Threatened plant and animal species.
24. Protected sites for conservation of nature and
    natural resources in various countries.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer 21

21. (b) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity Conservation
    Option (b) is the correct answer: Red Data
    Books contain lists of Threatened plant and
    animal species.
    Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: The IUCN
    Red List of “threatened species” is the world’s
    most comprehensive inventory of the global
    conservation status of plant and animal species,
    which is a grouping of three categories: Critically
    Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable.
    Statement 2 is correct: The IUCN Red List
    Categories define the extinction risk of species
    assessed. Nine categories extend from NE
    (Not Evaluated) to EX (Extinct). Among these
    nine categories, Critically Endangered (CR),
    Endangered (EN) and Vulnerable (VU) species
    are considered to be threatened with extinction.

Question 22

22,”Which one of the following is not a site for the in-situ method of conservation of flora? (2011)”,”(a) Biosphere Reserve (b) Botanical Garden (c) National Park (d) Wildlife Sanctuary”,”2011”

Answer 22

22,b,Modes of Conservation,Botanical Garden is an important location for ex situ conservation. Ex situ conservation is the preservation of biodiversity away from their natural habitats. Important locations for ex situ conservation include seed banks, botanical, horticultural, and recreational gardens.

Question 23

23,”Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: (2011)”,”1. Species richness 2. Vegetation density 3. Endemism 4. Ethno-botanical importance 5. Threat perception 6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions”,”2011”

Answer 23

23. (c) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity Hotspot
    Biodiversity Hotspot:
    z Biodiversity hotspots are regions with
    high species richness and a high degree of
    endemism.
    z In 1988, the British biologist Norman Myers
    coined the term “biodiversity hotspot” as
    a biogeographic region characterized both
    by exceptional levels of plant endemism and
    by serious levels of habitat loss.
    z In 1989, Conservation International (CI)
    adopted Myers’ hotspots as its institutional
    model and provided the following
    qualifications for a hotspot:
24. Species endemism: It includes at least
    1,500 vascular plant species that are
    unique to the planet (endemic species).
25. Degree of Threat: Primary native
    vegetation has lost at least 70% of its
    original coverage.
    Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Species richness
    and endemism is one of the major criteria which
    must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular
    plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics.
    Statement 5 is correct: ‘Degree of Threat’ is also
    a major criteria for the recognition of biological
    hotspots. It has to have lost at least 70% of its
    original habitat. (It must have 30% or less of its
    original natural vegetation). In other words, it
    must be threatened.
    Statement 2, 4 and 6 are incorrect: Are not
    the criteria for the recognition of Biodiversity
    Hotspots.

Question 24

24,”Consider the following statements: (2011)”,”1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. 2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.”,”2011”

Answer 24

24,c,Biomes,Diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the pole. Elevational diversity gradient (EDG) is an ecological pattern where biodiversity changes with elevation. The EDG states that species richness tends to increase as elevation increases, up to a certain point, creating a “diversity bulge” at middle elevations, after which it decreases with altitude. Therefore, it is true that along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Question 25

25. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways: (2011) 1. Soil formation 2. Prevention of soil erosion 3. Recycling of waste 4. Pollination of crops Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 25

25,d,Services provided by Biodiversity,Biodiversity provides a number of natural services for human beings including ecosystem services like protection of water resources, soils formation and protection, nutrient storage and recycling, and biological services like food, medicinal resources, wood products, and social services like research, education, and recreation.

Question 26

26,"The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon? (2011)","(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth (b) It is a confluence of different biogeographical zones (c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region (d) It has less human interference","2011"

Answer 26

26,b,Biomes,Being a confluence of different biogeographical zones, the Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. India is categorized into ten biogeographic zones, including the Trans-Himalayan zone and the Himalayan zone.

Question 27

27. How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian Agriculture? (2012) 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 27

27,c,Conservation Effort,The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act of 2002. It performs regulatory and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues related to conservation and sustainable use of biological resources. It supports the creation of State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) and is involved in notifying Biodiversity Heritage Sites.

Question 28

28,"‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to (2016)","(a) constitutional reforms (b) Ganga Action Plan (c) linking of rivers (d) protection of Western Ghats","2016"

Answer 28

28,d,Disaster Management,The Gadgil Committee Report (2011) and Kasturirangan Committee Report (2013) are related to the protection of the Western Ghats. The Gadgil Committee primarily demarcated ecologically sensitive areas in the Western Ghats, while the Kasturirangan Committee examined the recommendations of the Gadgil Committee.

Question 29

29. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? (2017) 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 29

29,c,Biotic Interaction,Biotic agents like bees and butterflies play a vital role in pollination, which is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a pistil. Predators such as wasps, ants, birds, and snakes may feed on butterflies, and a decline in butterfly population could adversely affect the food chain.

Question 30

30,"Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent? (2021)","(a) Congress grass (b) Elephant grass (c) Lemongrass (d) Nut grass","2021"

Answer 30

30,c,Biodiversity/Everyday Science,Lemongrass is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent due to its effectiveness in warding off mosquitoes. It contains citronella, a chemical that helps disguise the smells that mosquitoes use to target victims.

Question 31

31,"The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions? (2021)","1. Burrowing animals and termites 2. Fire 3. Grazing herbivores 4. Seasonal rainfall 5. Soil properties","2021"

Answer 31

31,c,Biomes,The Savannah biome, characterized by vast expanses of open grassland with few trees, is found on all continents except Antarctica. The largest savannahs are located close to the equator in Africa, such as the Serengeti National Park in Tanzania.

Question 32

32,"Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide? (2022)","(a) Cotton (b) Rice (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat","2022"

Answer 32

32,b,Agriculture and Greenhouse gases,Rice cultivation is a significant source of both methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions, which are potent greenhouse gases contributing to global warming. The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is an agricultural methodology aimed at increasing rice productivity while reducing water and chemical fertilizer usage.

Question 33

33. “System of rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 33

33,d,System of Rice Intensification,The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) involves various practices such as wider spacing of seedlings, intermittent irrigation, and frequent weeding to increase rice productivity. Benefits of SRI include higher yields, reduced seed requirement, lower water consumption, and improved soil health.

Question 34

34. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2011) 1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced. 2. It is the only means of irrigation in dryland farming. 3. In some areas of farming, the receding of groundwater tables can be checked. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 34

34,c,Agriculture and Environment,Micro-irrigation systems, such as drip irrigation and micro-sprinkler systems, help in water-saving, increased irrigation efficiency, higher yields, and reduced water loss. They are an energy-efficient and cost-saving method of irrigation compared to traditional flood irrigation.

Question 35

35. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? (2015) 1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing microorganisms in soil can occur. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 35

35,c,Soil Pollution,The excessive or inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers can lead to increased soil acidity, leaching of nitrate into groundwater, and nutrient imbalances in the soil. This can have detrimental effects on soil health and groundwater quality.

Question 36

36. Which of the following statements can help in water conservation in agriculture? (2017) 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 36

36,c,Agriculture and Environment,Conservation Tillage, including no-till farming or zero tillage, helps conserve soil moisture by reducing soil disturbance. Crop residues left on the soil surface act as mulch, reducing evaporation losses and protecting the soil from direct impact of raindrops.

Question 37

37,"Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”? (2018)","(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere","2018"

Answer 37

37,a,Agriculture and Environment,Carbon fertilization, also known as carbon dioxide fertilization, involves enriching the atmosphere of greenhouses with carbon dioxide to enhance plant growth and productivity. Elevated levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide can increase photosynthesis rates, water use efficiency, and overall plant growth, leading to higher agricultural yields.

Question 38

38. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: (2018) 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 38

38,b,Agriculture and Environment,Salinization is a major concern associated with irrigation, as excessive salt deposits can accumulate in the soil, harming crop growth. Sulphur is a nutrient essential for plant growth, but it is not associated with salinization. Soil water holding capacity is influenced by factors such as soil texture and organic matter content, not sulphur or salinization.

Question 39

39. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture? (2018) 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/ crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer 39

39,c,Agriculture and Environment,Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that promotes minimum soil disturbance, maintenance of permanent soil cover, and diversification of plant species. FAO's principles of Conservation Agriculture include minimum mechanical soil disturbance, permanent soil organic cover, and species diversification to enhance soil health and crop productivity.

Question 40

40,"In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as (2019)","(a) pesticides in agriculture (b) preservatives in processed foods (c) fruit-ripening agents (d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics","2019"

Answer 40

40,a,Pesticides in Agriculture,Carbofuran, Methyl Parathion, Phorate, and Triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture. Pesticides are chemicals used to control pests such as insects, fungi, bacteria, and weeds. In India, pesticides must be registered with the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

Question 41

41. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture? (2020) 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. 2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible. 3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 41

41,c,Agriculture and Environment,Fertigation involves the incorporation of fertilizers into irrigation water, which is then applied to crops using drip irrigation systems. It helps control weed growth and reduces soil alkalinity by avoiding water spillage on the field.

Question 42

42. What is/are the advantage/ advantages of zero tillage in agriculture? (2020) 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop. 2. Without the need for a nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 42

42,d,Sustainable Agriculture,Zero tillage or no-till farming offers several benefits, including reduced soil erosion, increased water infiltration and storage capacity, higher crop yields, and increased soil organic matter and carbon sequestration.

Question 43

43. In the context of India, which of the following is/ are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? (2020) 1. Crop diversification 2. Legume intensification 3. Tensiometer use 4. Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 43

43,a Sustainable Agriculture,Various methods of sustainable agriculture include mixed cropping, legume intensification, crop rotation, tensiometers for irrigation management, and vertical farming. These methods aim to enhance soil fertility, conserve water, and increase agricultural productivity.

Question 44

44. What is the use of biochar in farming? (2020) 1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming. 2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. 3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 44

44,d,Environment and Agriculture,Biochar is a high-carbon residue produced through pyrolysis of biomass. It has several benefits, including increased agricultural output, soil improvement, water retention, and promotion of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. Using biochar in vertical farming can significantly enhance crop yield.

Question 45

45. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? (2021) 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant. 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause an increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such a phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming. 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions. 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 4 only (d) 2 and 3

Answer 45

45,b,Sustainable Agriculture,Permaculture farming promotes multi-cropping and integrated farming systems, relying on organic fertilizers and minimizing environmental impact. It is suitable for semi-arid regions and promotes practices like mulching for maximum efficiency.

Question 46

46,"In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021)","1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme. 2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. 3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2021"

Answer 46

46,d,Agriculture and Environment,Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) aims to assist agricultural systems in adapting to climate change while sustainably increasing productivity, adapting to climate change, and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The Climate-Smart Village project in India is part of the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), which is carried out under CGIAR, including research centers like ICRISAT.

Question 47

47,"In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022)","1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the period of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only","2022"

Answer 47

47,b,Air quality,Ground-level ozone is formed by the reaction of pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) with sunlight. It occurs more during sunny weather, not inclement weather. PM2.5 is a common proxy indicator for air pollution and can penetrate deep into the lungs, affecting health. Excessive ozone can trigger asthma and other respiratory problems.

Question 48

48,"Consider the following: (2022)","1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/ are cause(s) of acid rain? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4","2022"

Answer 48

48,b,Air Pollution,Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and sulfur dioxide (SO2) react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form nitric and sulfuric acids, leading to acid rain. Acid rain harms microorganisms in soil, affects plant growth, kills aquatic animals, and corrodes metals and stone buildings. Common air pollutants include particulate matter (PM), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and ozone (O3).

Question 49

49,"There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon? (2011)","1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries. 2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon. 3. Upwelling in the seas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2011"

Answer 49

49,d,Water Pollution,Nutrient enrichment, temperature, light, stable conditions, turbidity, and aquaculture operations are responsible factors for algal blooms. Nutrients from sources like fertilized agricultural areas, soil erosion, and sewage effluent promote algal growth. Cold water upwelling can also bring nutrient-rich water to the surface, leading to algal blooms.

Question 50

50,"Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? (2013)","1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5","2013"

Answer 50

50,c,Water Pollution,Arsenic, fluoride, and uranium are pollutants commonly found in drinking water sources. Water pollution arises from various sources such as agricultural runoff, sewage water, industrial effluents, thermal pollution, and oil spills. Groundwater pollutants in India also include iron and nitrate.

Question 51

51,"Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? (2013)","1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7","2013"

Answer 51

51,b,Waste Management,Various harmful constituents are released into the environment due to improper disposal of e-waste, including lead, cadmium, mercury, chromium, brominated flame retardants, barium, phosphorus, heavy metals, copper, nickel, lithium, and beryllium.

Question 52

52,"Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by (2013)","(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen (b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide (c) Ozone and carbon dioxide (d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide","2013"

Answer 52

52,d,Air Pollution,Nitrous oxide (NOx) and sulfur dioxide (SO2) react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form nitric and sulfuric acids, leading to acid rain. Acid rain harms microorganisms in soil, affects plant growth, and corrodes metals and stone buildings.

Question 53

53,"Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (2013)","(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature (d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening","2013"

Answer 53

53,a,Air Pollution,NO2, O3, and peroxyacetyl nitrate react in the presence of sunlight to form photochemical smog (summer smog).

Question 54

54,"Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by the normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by: (2013)","(a) bacteria (b) protozoa (c) moulds (d) viruses","2013"

Answer 54

54,c,General Science,Aflatoxins, poisonous substances, are produced by certain kinds of fungi (moulds) such as Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus. These toxins can contaminate food crops and pose health risks to humans and livestock.

Question 55

55,"Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? (2014)","1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxide of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2014"

Answer 55

55,d,Industrial Pollution,The steel industry in India releases major pollutants such as CO, SOx, NOx, and PM2 into the air, as well as wastewater contaminants, hazardous wastes, and solid wastes.

Question 56

56,"There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? (2014)","1. They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter the food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2014"

Answer 56

56,d,Industrial Pollution,Nanoparticles can accumulate in the environment, contaminate land and water, enter food chains, trigger the production of free radicals, and potentially cross cell membranes to cause damage to cells in various organs.

Question 57

57,"Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? (2014)","1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2014"

Answer 57

57,c,General Environment,Brominated flame retardants (BFRs) are highly resistant to degradation in the environment and have been identified as persistent, bioaccumulative, and toxic substances, posing risks to human health and the environment, including potential neurobehavioral effects and endocrine disruption.

Question 58

58,"Which of the following best describe/ describes the aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India? (2016)","1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’ 2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future 3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 58

58,c,Conservation/Environmental pollution,The Green India Mission (GIM) aims to protect, restore, and enhance India's forest cover, respond to climate change through adaptation and mitigation strategies, increase forest-based livelihood incomes, and enhance annual carbon sequestration by 50 to 60 million tonnes by 2020.

Question 59

59,"In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of the Air Quality Index? (2016)","1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide 3. Nitrogen dioxide 4. Sulfur dioxide 5. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5","2016"

Answer 59

59,b,Air Pollution,The Air Quality Index (AQI) typically considers pollutants such as ground-level ozone (O3), particulate matter (PM), carbon monoxide (CO), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) to inform the public about air quality.

Question 60

60,"Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for: (2017)","(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions","2017"

Answer 60

60,c,Water Pollution,The pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems is often based on the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) criterion, which measures the amount of organic waste present in water by assessing the oxygen needed by bacteria to decompose it. BOD is not a reliable method for assessing water pollution as it only includes biodegradable elements.

Question 61

61,"In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? (2017)","1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2017"

Answer 61

61,c,Eco-Engineering,Bioremediation offers several benefits, including minimizing damage to ecosystems, causing less disruption to communities, and producing relatively few harmful byproducts. However, not all contaminants can be readily treated by bioremediation, and the use of genetic engineering for bioremediation purposes may pose both opportunities and risks.

Question 62

62,"It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? (2017)","1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuels production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is complete. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2017"

Answer 62

62,b,Eco-Engineering,Biofuels can be solid, liquid, or gaseous, and they are derived from organic matter such as wood, plant material, or manure. While algae can be used to produce biofuels, significant capital investments are required, and there are ecological and economic concerns associated with using land allotted to food crops for algal biofuel production.

Question 63

63,"Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in river beds? (2018)","1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2018"

Answer 63

63,b,Sand Mining (Environmental Issues),Heavy sand mining in riverbeds can lead to pollution of groundwater, lowering of the water table, and increased suspended particles in water. Saline-water intrusion from nearby seas is not a direct consequence of sand mining.

Question 64

64,"In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned? (2019)","(a) Extraction of rare earth elements (b) Natural gas extraction technologies (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles (d) Waste-to-energy technologies","2019"

Answer 64

64,d,Waste Management,Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are waste-to-energy technologies that involve the chemical decomposition of organic matter through heat, producing gases like syngas that can be used for power generation. These technologies are used to convert municipal solid waste into energy.

Question 65

65,"Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment? (2019)","(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems. (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children. (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields. (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.","2019"

Answer 65

65,a,Water Pollution,Microbeads, commonly found in personal care products, pose an environmental hazard to aquatic animals and contribute to plastic particle water pollution. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has classified microbeads as "unsafe" for use in cosmetic products.

Question 66

66,"Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? (2019)","1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidised to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2019"

Answer 66

66,d,Methane Emission,Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid composed of methane molecules trapped in a cage of interlocking water molecules. Melting ice due to global warming may release methane gas from these deposits, contributing to climate change. Sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost have conditions suitable for methane hydrate formation. Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere, mainly reacting with other gases within a decade.

Question 67

67,"Consider the following: (2019)","1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2019"

Answer 67

67,d,Air Pollution,Burning stubble releases various harmful pollutants into the air, including smoke, greenhouse gases, air pollutants, and volatile organic compounds. These pollutants can adversely affect human health, soil fertility, and aquatic ecosystems.

Question 68

68,"Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020)","1. Automobile exhaust 2. Tobacco smoke 3. Wood burning 4. Using varnished wooden furniture 5. Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5","2020"

Answer 68

68,a,Air pollution,Benzene pollution can result from automobile exhaust, tobacco smoke, and wood burning. Benzene is a highly flammable liquid with various sources, including natural sources like volcanoes and forest fires, as well as industrial processes.

Question 69

69,"According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020)","1. Cassava 2. Damaged wheat grains 3. Groundnut seeds 4. Horse gram 5. Rotten potatoes 6. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6","2020"

Answer 69

69,a,Eco-Engineering,India's National Policy on Biofuels 2018 categorizes biofuels into basic and advanced types, allowing the use of various raw materials for ethanol production, including sugarcane juice, sugar-containing materials, starch-containing materials, and damaged food grains.

Question 70

70,"Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? (2020)","It is a measure, in monetary value, of the: (a) Long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year. (b) Requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels. (c) Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place. (d) Contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.","2020"

Answer 70

70,a,Air Pollution/Carbon Pricing/Carbon Emission,The social cost of carbon (SCC) measures the monetary value of the long-term damage caused by emitting one ton of CO2 into the atmosphere. It helps policymakers understand the economic impacts of decisions related to emissions and climate change mitigation efforts.

Question 71

71,"Consider the following statements: (2020)","1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2020"

Answer 71

71,d,Air Pollution/Coal Ash,Coal ash contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium, and arsenic, which can pollute waterways, groundwater, drinking water, and air if not properly managed. Burning fossil fuels such as coal and oil produces sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, leading to acid rain. Indian coal typically has higher ash content due to the drift theory of coal deposit formation.

Question 72

72,"Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? (2021)","1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment. 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment. 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2021"

Answer 72

72,b,Industrial Pollution,Copper smelting releases various air pollutants and heavy metals such as hydrogen fluoride, sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, arsenic, chromium, cadmium, lead, nickel, and zinc. Some smelting processes produce solid waste (slag) containing contaminants that can leach into groundwater.

Question 73

73,"With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements: (2021)","1. It is a product of oil refineries. 2. Some industries use it to generate power. 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2021"

Answer 73

73,d,Air Pollution/Emissions,Furnace oil is a residual product of crude-oil distillation used as fuel in combustion equipment. It is associated with emissions of oxides of sulfur due to its sulfur content. Furnace oil is used in marine engines, slow-speed engines for power generation, drying tea leaves, and thermic fluid heaters.

Question 74

74,"Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? (2021)","1. Brakes of motor vehicles 2. Engines of motor vehicles 3. Microwave stoves within homes 4. Power plants 5. Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5","2021"

Answer 74

74,b,Industrial Pollution,Magnetite particles, a highly magnetic form of iron, are present in air pollution and are associated with health problems. Vehicle brake systems, petrol and diesel engine exhaust, and power plants are sources of airborne magnetite. There is insufficient evidence to support the generation of magnetite particles from sources like microwave stoves and telephone lines.

Question 75

75,"The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021)","(a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world (b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading (c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries (d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time","2021"

Answer 75

75,a,Air Pollution/Carbon Emission,The carbon footprint of building operations is assessed through the Common Carbon Metric, a protocol developed by UNEP-SBCI for measuring energy use and reporting GHG emissions from building operations to support emissions reductions.

Question 76

76,"What is blue carbon? (2021)","(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems (b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils (c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas. (d) Carbon present in atmosphere","2021"

Answer 76

76,a,Carbon Sink,Blue carbon refers to carbon captured by ocean and coastal ecosystems, primarily mangroves, seagrasses, and tidal marshes, which store carbon at a faster rate than other ecosystems.

Question 77

77,"Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of (2011)","1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere. 2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans. 3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only","2011"

Answer 77

77,b,Carbon Mitigation Strategies,Carbon sequestration involves capturing and storing CO2 from the air, industries, or power stations underground. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in oceans is a form of natural carbon sequestration, but the trapping of CO2 by polar ice is not established.

Question 78

78,"Consider the following: (2011)","1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2011"

Answer 78

78,d,Green House Gases/Emissions,Emissions of carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, and oxides of sulfur occur from coal combustion at thermal power plants.

Question 79

79,"The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole? (2011)","(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons. (c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons. (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming","2011"

Answer 79

79,b,Ozone Depletion,The formation of the ozone hole in the Antarctic is due to special meteorological and chemical conditions like the presence of a polar front, polar stratospheric clouds, and increasing inflow of human-made chemicals like CFCs.

Question 80

80,"Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2011)","(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol (b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota (c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission (d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time of the United Nation Environment Programme","2011"

Answer 80

80,d,Carbon Mitigation Strategies,Carbon credits permit companies to emit a certain amount of CO2 or its equivalent. They are traded on exchanges, and their prices are not fixed.

Question 81

81,"Consider the following agricultural practices: (2012)","1. Contour bunding 2. Relay cropping 3. Zero tillage In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them","2012"

Answer 81

81,b,Agriculture practices,Zero tillage helps in carbon sequestration in the soil by reducing soil erosion, crop duration, irrigation requirement, and weed effects.

Question 82

82,"Consider the following statements: (2012)","Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used: 1. In the production of plastic foams. 2. In the production of tubeless tyres. 3. In cleaning certain electronic components. 4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2012"

Answer 82

82,c,Ozone Depleting Substances,Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are ozone-depleting substances used in various industrial and commercial applications like refrigeration, solvents, and aerosol cans.

Question 83

83,"The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (2012)","(a) The water vapour of the air retains its heat. (b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation. (c) All the solar radiations. (d) The infrared part of the solar radiation.","2012"

Answer 83

83,d,Global Warming,Increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contribute to global warming by absorbing infrared radiation, thereby raising the temperature of the atmosphere.

Question 84

84,"Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area? (2012)","1. Global warming 2. Fragmentation of habitat 3. Invasion of alien species 4. Promotion of vegetarianism Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2012"

Answer 84

84,a,Biodiversity Loss,Global warming, habitat loss/fragmentation, and invasive alien species are threats to biodiversity, leading to population decline and co-extinctions.

Question 85

85,"With reference to the usefulness of the by products of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2013)","1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy. 2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. 3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2013"

Answer 85

85,c,Byproduct of Sugar Industry,Bagasse can be used for heat energy generation and electricity production, while molasses can be used for various purposes including ethanol production and as a cattle feed.

Question 86

86,"The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2°C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? (2014)","1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2014"

Answer 86

86,b,Effects of Global Warming,Global warming beyond 3°C above pre-industrial levels can turn terrestrial biosphere into a net carbon source, leading to changes in forest ecosystems and coral bleaching events.

Question 87

87,"The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2016)","(a) Pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East (b) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change (c) Capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (d) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals","2016"

Answer 87

87,b,Climate Change/Global Warming,Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC) are national plans outlining reductions in greenhouse gas emissions as part of efforts to combat climate change.

Question 88

88,"What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (2016)","(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions. (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022 (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank","2016"

Answer 88

88,a,Global Warming,The Greenhouse Gas Protocol is an international accounting tool developed to help governments and businesses measure and manage greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 89

89,"In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration? (2017)","1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2017"

Answer 89

89,d,Global warming mitigation/Carbon sequestration,All options are potential sites for carbon sequestration, including uneconomic coal seams, declining oil fields, gas reservoirs, saline formations, and shale formations with high organic content.

Question 90

90,"In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere? (2019)","(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth (d) Reducing the global warming","2019"

Answer 90

90,d,Geoengineering,Geoengineering methods such as stratospheric sulphate aerosol increase and cirrus cloud thinning are aimed at reducing global warming by altering Earth's climatic system.

Question 91

91,"Consider the following statements: (2019) 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2019"

Answer 91

91,d,Climate Change and Agriculture,All statements about climate change and agriculture are correct, including the share of agriculture in total emissions, emission sources, air pollution impacts, and the IPCC's warning about warming.

Question 92

92,"In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: (2019) 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2019"

Answer 92

92,b,Mitigating Vehicular Emissions,"Advantages of using hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel include reduced CO emissions by up to 70%, fuel savings of up to 5%, and it represents a step towards a future hydrogen economy."

Question 93

93,"Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) (a) Central Water Commission (b) Central Ground Water Board (c) Central Ground Water Authority (d) National Water Development Agency","(a) Central Water Commission (b) Central Ground Water Board (c) Central Ground Water Authority (d) National Water Development Agency","2022"

Answer 93

93,c,Environment (Protection) Act, 1986/ Central Ground Water Authority,"The Central Ground Water Authority, established under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, regulates and controls the development and management of groundwater resources in India."

Question 94

94,"With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (2022) 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only","(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only","2022"

Answer 94

94,b,Wildlife Protection,"As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, wild animals are considered the property of the State Government, irrespective of where they are found. The law provides equal protection for wild animals, regardless of whether they are found in protected areas or outside."

Question 95

95,"With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts: (2011) 1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 2. Mining and Mineral development (Regulation) Act, 1957 3. Customs Act, 1962 4. Indian Forest Act, 1927 Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above Acts.","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above Acts.","2011"

Answer 95

95,c,National efforts to protect biodiversity/Laws and Legislations,"The Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957, restricts mining activities in reserved areas due to the severe and irreversible environmental consequences they can cause."

Question 96

96,"The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? (2012) 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21. 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1). 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(a). Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2012"

Answer 96

96,a,National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010,"The National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010, was enacted to ensure a healthy environment, which is considered a part of the Right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India."

Question 97

97,"What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’? (2014) 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","2014"

Answer 97

97,b,Sustainable Agriculture,"The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) aims to cultivate sugarcane with reduced inputs, including seeds, water, fertilizers, and land, to lower input costs."

Question 98

98,"Consider the following international agreements: (2014) 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture. 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification. 3. The World Heritage Convention Which of the above has/have a bearing on biodiversity? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2014"

Answer 98

98,d,International efforts to protect biodiversity/Laws and Legislations,"All three agreements mentioned (International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification, and World Heritage Convention) have implications for biodiversity conservation."

Question 99

99,"Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ (2014) 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO 2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. 3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2014"

Answer 99

99,c,UNEP/Major Programmes of the UNEP,"Earth Hour, initiated by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) in 2007, is a global event held annually on the last Saturday of March. It aims to raise awareness about environmental issues such as global warming, loss of biodiversity, and climate change."

Question 100

100,"If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? (2014) (a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference. (b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland. (c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed. (d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’","(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference. (b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland. (c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed. (d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’","2014"

Answer 100

100,a,Wetland Conservation,"The 'Montreux Record' is a register of wetlands on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where ecological character changes have occurred, are occurring, or are anticipated to occur due to technological advancements, pollution, or other human influence. It is maintained under the Ramsar Convention, an international treaty aimed at the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands."

Question 101

101,"With reference to a conservation organisation called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) 1. It is an intergovernmental organisation formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2014"

Answer 101

101,b,Wetland Conservation,"Wetlands International is a global organization focused on sustaining and restoring wetlands and their resources. It works through partnerships and field projects to advocate for better wetland policies."

Question 102

102,"Consider the following pairs: (2014) Wetlands: Confluence of Rivers 1. Harike Wetlands: Confluence of Beas and Satluj/ Sutlej 2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park: Confluence of Banas and Chambal 3. Kolleru Lake: Confluence of Musi and Krishna Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2014"

Answer 102

102. (a) Sub-Theme: Wetland Conservation/Map Based Harike Wetland z Harike Wetland also is the largest wetland in northern India on the border of Tarn Taran Sahib district and Ferozepur district of Punjab. z The wetland and the lake were formed by constructing the headworks across the Sutlej River in 1953, located downstream of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers just south of Harike village. Keoladeo National Park z The Keoladeo National Park or Keoladeo Ghana National Park is formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary is in the Bharatpur District of Rajasthan. z It is situated at the confluence of the Gambhira and the Banganga rivers. Kolleru Lake z It is the largest freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh, India z It is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas. z It spans two districts of Andhra PradeshKrishna and West Godavari. Pair 1 is correct: The Harike Wetland is located downstream of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers just south of Harike village. Pair 2 is incorrect: The Keoladeo National Park is situated at the confluence of the Gambhira and the Banganga rivers. Pair 3 is incorrect: Kolleru Lake is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas.

Question 103

103,"With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) (a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’. (b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level. (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aims to protect their environment. (d) Both (a) and (b)","(a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’. (b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level. (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aims to protect their environment. (d) Both (a) and (b)","2014"

Answer 103

103,a,Climate Change Organization/Global Environmental Facility,"The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as the financial mechanism for several environmental conventions, including the Stockholm Convention, UNFCCC, UNCBD, UNCCD, Montreal Protocol, and Minamata Convention."

Question 104

104,"Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances? (2015) (a) Bretton Woods Conference (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Kyoto Protocol (d) Nagoya Protocol","(a) Bretton Woods Conference (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Kyoto Protocol (d) Nagoya Protocol","2015"

Answer 104

104. (b) Sub-Theme: Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer Montreal Protocol z It is a protocol to the Vienna Convention and it deals with the substances that deplete the Ozone Layer (ozone-depleting substanceODS). z It was the first treaty to achieve universal ratification. z The protocol recognizes that all nations should not be treated equally. Option (a) is incorrect: Bretton Woods Conference established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Option (b) is correct: Montreal Protocol is a protocol to the Vienna Convention and it deals with the substances that deplete the Ozone Layer (ozone-depleting substance-ODS). Option (c) is incorrect: Kyoto Protocol deals with the reduction of Greenhouse gas. Option (d) is incorrect: Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the 1992 Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) on “Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization”.

Question 105

105,"What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news? (2015) (a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization (c) It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. (d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity","(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization (c) It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. (d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity","2015"

Answer 105

105. (a) Sub-Theme: Major Environment Conventions, Conference, etc. z Rio+20 is the short name for the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development which took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012, twenty years after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit in Rio. z At the Rio+20 Conference, world leaders, along with thousands of participants from the private sector, NGOs and other groups, came together to shape how we can reduce poverty, advance social equity and ensure environmental protection on an ever more crowded planet. z The official discussions focussed on two main themes: 1. How to build a green economy to achieve sustainable development and lift people out of poverty; and 2. How to improve international coordination for sustainable development.

Question 106

106. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the (2015) (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer 106

106,c,Genetically Modified Crops,The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It is responsible for appraising activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from an environmental perspective, as well as proposals related to the release of genetically engineered organisms into the environment, including experimental field trials. GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

Question 107

107,"With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017. 2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2 degrees C or even 1.5 degrees C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 107

107. (b) Sub-Theme: Summits and Conventions Statement 1 is incorrect: It was only “agreed” by 195 nations in Paris at the conference. The agreement will enter into force only after 55 countries that account for at least 55% of global emissions have deposited their instruments of ratification. Statement 2 is correct: Paris Summit COP21 aims to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels. It requires all parties to put forward their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) which are voluntary in nature. Statement 3 is incorrect: Developed countries will work to define a clear roadmap on ratcheting up climate finance to USD 100 billion (not USD 1000 billion) by 2020. Paris Summit COP21: z Legally binding International Treaty on Climate Change. z It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 & entered into force on 4 November 2016. z Aim: to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels. z It requires all parties to put forward their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) which are voluntary in nature. NOTE: Following basic information about COP21 from any newspaper/monthly magazine was enough to solve this rather difficult question. Observe statement 3 carefully, the examiner has just made his efforts to mention “USD100Bn as USD1000Bn” to make the statement incorrect and confuse aspirants. If we eliminate option 3, we get the correct answer i.e. only 2. z Itn 2017, UPSC asked question about the spread of the Himalayas, Western Ghats and Pulicat lake with the similar trick of changing/interchanging numbers. z In 2016, UPSC asked question on “Astrosat” with the similar trick of changing/interchanging numbers. z The key takeaway from the above question is to read numbers very carefully and cautiously.

Question 108

108,"Consider the following statements: (2016) 1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’. 2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2016"

Answer 108

108. (b) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Development Goals The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 global goals designed to be a “blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all” The SDGs are a part of UN Resolution 70/1, the 2030 Agenda, which was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015. They are known as “Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development” in official documents. Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1972, the Club of Rome’s first major Report, ‘The Limits to Growth’ was published. Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, the United Nations General Assembly approved 17 goals with 169 associated targets. They became effective from 1/1/2016 and were to be achieved by 2030.

Question 109

109,"What is/are the importance/ importances of the ‘United Convention to Combat Desertification’? (2016) 1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships 2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portions of financial resources to these regions. 3. It is committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 109

109. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Conventions UNITED NATIONS CONVENTION TO COMBAT DESERTIFICATION (UNCCD): z Established in 1994. z It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. z Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals. The end goal is to protect land from over-use and drought, so it can continue to provide food, water and energy. 278 UPSC Prelims PYQs Statement 1 is correct: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals. The end goal is to protect the land from overuse and drought, so it can continue to provide food, water and energy. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. Statement 3 is correct: The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating

Question 110

110,"Consider the following pairs: (2016) Terms sometimes seen in the news: Their origin 1. Annex-I Countries: Cartagena Protocol 2. Certified Emissions Reductions: Nagoya Protocol 3. Clean Development Mechanisms: Kyoto Protocol Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 110

110. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Conventions Classification of Parties and their commitments under Kyoto Protocol: Annex I Developed countries [US, UK, Russia etc.] + Economies in transition (EIT) [Ukraine, Turkey, some eastern European countries etc.] Annex II Developed countries (Annex II is a subset of Annex I). Required to provide financial and technical support to the EITs and developing countries to assist them in reducing their greenhouse gas emissions. Annex B Annex I Parties with first or secondround Kyoto greenhouse gas emissions targets. The first-round targets apply over the years 2008–2012 and the secondround Kyoto targets, apply from 2013 to 2020. Compulsory binding targets to reduce GHG emissions. Non-Annex I Parties to the UNFCCC are not listed in Annex I of the Convention (mostly low-income developing countries). No binding targets to reduce GHG emissions. LDCs Least-developed countries No binding targets to reduce GHG emissions. Options 1 and 2 are incorrect: Terms in these options are associated with the Kyoto Protocol. Option 3 is correct: Clean Development Mechanism is associated with the Kyoto Protocol

Question 111

111,"With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum. 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity. 3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 111

111,c,Major Environmental Conventions/Environmental Policies and Initiatives,The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is an international initiative launched by Germany and the European Commission in 2007. Led by Pavan Sukhdev, TEEB aims to raise awareness of the economic benefits of biodiversity. Its objective is to highlight the increasing costs associated with biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation and to bring together experts in science, economics, and policy to facilitate actionable solutions.

Question 112

112,"Which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to: 1. protection of biodiversity 2. resilience of forest ecosystems 3. poverty reduction Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 112

112,d,Environmental Conventions/Environmental Policies and Initiatives,The UN-REDD Programme focuses on supporting national REDD+ governance structures in three main areas: country-led multi-stakeholder governance assessments, social standards including poverty and gender, and land and/or carbon tenure within national land use strategies. REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) is a mechanism developed by UNFCCC parties to provide incentives for developing countries to cut emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths by assigning financial value to forest carbon. It includes activities beyond deforestation and forest degradation to encompass conservation, sustainable forest management, and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.

Question 113

113,"With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: (2016) 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development. 2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2016"

Answer 113

113. (a) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Development Goals Rio Declaration on Environment and Development: z The Rio Declaration consisted of 27 principles intended to guide countries in future sustainable development. It was signed by over 175 countries. Agenda 21: z It is a non-binding action plan sourced from Rio Earth Summit, 1992. z The number “21” refers to an agenda for the 21st century. z Objective: to achieve Global sustainable development. z Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the Agenda 2030.

Question 114

114,"In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? (2017) (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and not it is impossible to prevent its extinction. (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.","(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and not it is impossible to prevent its extinction. (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.","2017"

Answer 114

114,a,Environmental Laws,Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides rigorous protection for endangered species, granting them protection from poaching, killing, trading, etc. This level of protection is equivalent to that afforded to the Bengal tiger. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, was enacted to safeguard various plant and animal species and covers the entirety of India except for the State of Jammu & Kashmir. Before the enactment of this legislation, India only had five designated national parks, but currently, there are 101 National Parks in the country.

Question 115

115,"According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? (2017) 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2017"

Answer 115

115,d,Environmental Laws,Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, covers endangered species that require rigorous protection. These species are granted protection from activities such as poaching, killing, and trading. Violations of the law under this schedule result in the harshest penalties. The species listed under Schedule I are prohibited from hunting throughout India, except in cases of threat to human life or when suffering from an incurable disease. Examples of species listed under Schedule I include the Black Buck, Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Himalayan Bear, Asiatic Cheetah, and many others.

Question 116

116,"How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (2018) 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2018"

Answer 116

116. (b) Sub-Theme: Environmental Laws NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL (NGT) ACT, 2010 z Objective: For effective & expeditious disposal (within 6 months of appeal) of the environmental cases and to help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. z Establishes NGT, which has jurisdiction over all civil disputes addressing important environmental issues. z Provides for Enforcement of legal environmental rights, relief & compensation for damages caused. z The tribunal’s decision is enforceable as a civil court judgement and is governed by natural justice principles. CENTRAL POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD (CPCB): z The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974 authorised the establishment of the CPCB as a statutory body. z It is also entrusted with the powers & functions under the Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981. z It works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Statement 1 is incorrect: Both the NGT and CPCB were established by an Act – NGT Act, 2010 and Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Respectively. Statement 2 is correct: The objective of NGT is to provide effective & expeditious disposal (within 6 months of appeal) of the environmental cases and to help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.

Question 117

117,"With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2018"

Answer 117

117,b,Sustainable Agriculture,The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) is an inclusive, voluntary, and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform focused on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to enhance food security, nutrition, and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyze transformational partnerships to promote actions aligned with an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA. Although the concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was developed by FAO and officially presented at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security, and Climate Change in 2010, the Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) was established in 2014. Membership in GACSA does not impose binding obligations, and each member decides the nature of its participation. India, being a signatory, did not play a significant role in the creation of GACSA.

Question 118

118,"In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? (2019) (a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 (b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999 (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 (d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011","(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 (b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999 (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 (d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011","2019"

Answer 118

118,c,E-Waste Management,Laws to manage electronic waste (e-waste) have been implemented in India since 2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which were later amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. These rules recognize producers' liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach where producers bear significant responsibility, either financially or physically, for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been authorized under the new e-waste rules to enforce Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR). Schedules V and VI of the Wildlife (Protection) Act regulate animals considered vermin and specified plants, respectively, in India.

Question 119

119,"Consider the following statements: (2019) The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2019"

Answer 119

119,a,Environmental Policies and Initiatives,The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA Act), 2016, aims to establish an appropriate institutional mechanism for utilizing afforestation funds. It sets up both Central and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities (CAMPA). Under this act, a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund and a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund are created, receiving 90% and 10% of collected funds, respectively. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is established at both central and state levels to facilitate the transparent utilization of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purposes. There is no provision for public participation mentioned in the CAMPA Act.

Question 120

120,"Consider the following statements: (2019) The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to: 1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought 2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2019"

Answer 120

120,b,Environmental Laws,The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, aims to protect, improve, and reduce pollution in the environment. Enacted in response to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy in 1984, this act empowers the Government of India to coordinate actions by states, plan and execute nationwide environmental programs, control and reduce pollution from all sources, lay down environmental quality standards, regulate the location of industries, issue direct orders including orders to close or regulate industries, and conduct examinations and testing of equipment. The Act does not contain provisions related to public participation, and the Central Government lays down emission and discharge standards for environmental pollutants.

Question 121

121,"As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? (2019) (a) Waste generators have to segregate waste into five categories. (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only. (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities. (d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.","(a) Waste generators have to segregate waste into five categories. (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only. (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities. (d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.","2019"

Answer 121

121,c,Solid Waste Management,The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, aim to promote composting, waste-to-energy conversion, and better landfill management. These rules replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000, extending their applicability beyond municipal areas to include urban agglomerations, census towns, and notified industrial townships. The emphasis is on waste segregation at the source, manufacturers' responsibility for packaging and sanitary waste disposal, and the imposition of user fees for waste collection, processing, and disposal. It is recommended that biodegradable waste be processed within the premises through composting or bio-methanation, with residual waste given to waste collectors or agencies as directed by the local authority.

Question 122

122,"If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? (2020) (a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant. (b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances. (c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant. (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.","(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant. (b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances. (c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant. (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.","2020"

Answer 122

122,a,Environmental Laws,Under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, specific plants such as Beddomes Cycad, Blue Vanda, Kuth, Ladies slipper orchids, Pitcher plant, and Red Vanda are listed, and their cultivation requires a license granted by the Chief WildLife Warden.

Question 123

123,"Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) 1. Construction of base road 2. Improvement of agricultural soil 3. Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2020"

Answer 123

123,d,Government Policies,Steel slag, a by-product of steel making, can be utilized in various applications. It is used as a base course material in road construction and can also be processed to produce Portland slag cement. Additionally, steel slag is beneficial in agriculture for correcting soil acidity. The Ministry of Steel's issuance of a new Steel Scrap Recycling Policy in November 2019 underscores the importance of utilizing steel slag and other by-products effectively.

Question 124

124,"In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint? (2020) 1. Copper slag 2. Cold mix asphalt technology 3. Geotextiles 4. Hot mix asphalt technology 5. Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 4 and 5 only (d) 1 and 5 only","(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 4 and 5 only (d) 1 and 5 only","2020"

Answer 124

124,a,Green Technologies,The use of copper slag in cement and concrete production provides both environmental and economic benefits. Cold mix asphalt, produced without heating the mineral aggregate, is suitable for light to medium trafficked roads. Coir-based geotextiles have been permitted for construction of rural roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) in 2020. Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is considered environmentally detrimental due to greenhouse gas emissions, and Portland cement is a major contributor to CO2 emissions.

Question 125

125,"Consider the following statements: (2014) 1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2014"

Answer 125

125,b,Environmental Organizations and Institutions in India,The Animal Welfare Board of India, established in 1962 under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, promotes animal welfare and advises on animal welfare laws in India. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), established in 2005, is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change, tasked with conservation efforts related to tigers. The National Ganga Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, oversees the restoration and pollution prevention efforts in the Ganga River Basin.

Question 126

126,"With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: (2014) 1. It is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organises and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2014"

Answer 126

126,c,Major Conservation Organizations,The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is a prominent non-governmental organization dedicated to biodiversity conservation and research in India. It was founded in 1883 and operates from its headquarters at Hornbill House in Mumbai. BNHS supports various research projects, publishes the Journal of the Bombay Natural History Society, and organizes nature trails and camps for the public. Recognized as a "Scientific and Industrial Research Organization" by the Department of Science and Technology, BNHS plays a significant role in conservation efforts in India.

Question 127

127,"With reference to an organisation known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations. 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organisation. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2015"

Answer 127

127,c,Major Conservation Organizations,BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations focused on protecting birds, their habitats, and biodiversity worldwide. With over 120 partner groups, BirdLife International is the largest alliance of conservation organizations globally. It serves as the Red List Authority for birds designated by the IUCN and identifies "Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas" to prioritize conservation efforts.

Question 128

128. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Conventional does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 128

128. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Conventions Statement 1 is incorrect: IUCN is an NGO, founded in October 1948 as the International Union for the Protection of Nature (or IUPN) following an international conference in Fontainebleau, France. Later the name was changed to International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). CITES on the other hand is an intergovernmental treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme. Statement 2 is correct: IUCN supports scientific research, manages field projects globally and brings governments, non-government organisations, United Nations agencies, companies and local communities together to develop and implement policy. Statement 3 is correct: CITES is legally binding but does not take the place of national laws. NOTE: Only knowing the names of UN specialised agencies is enough for solving this question. With this knowledge, we can eliminate option 1 and get the correct answer. Most of the time the examiner connects two different statements in which one is correct and the other is incorrect. It is advisable to ascertain the correctness of both connected statements and don’t rush after only reading a partial statement.

Question 129

129,"Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct? (2015) 1. It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2015"

Answer 129

129,a,Global Climate Finance Architecture,The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a financial mechanism established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to support mitigation and adaptation efforts in developing countries. It aims to contribute significantly to global climate action through initiatives aligned with the priorities and interests of developing nations. The GCF emphasizes country ownership and aims to mobilize funds to address climate change challenges effectively.

Question 130

130,"The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative? (2016) 1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity. 2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities. 3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identifies GIAHS. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2016"

Answer 130

130,b,Major Environmental Organizations,The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) program, initiated by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), aims to protect and promote agricultural heritage systems worldwide. These systems combine resilient ecosystems, agricultural biodiversity, and cultural legacies. GIAHS recognizes sites of aesthetic beauty with significant agricultural value, safeguarding their social, cultural, economic, and environmental benefits. In India, three sites have been recognized under the GIAHS program: Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala, Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha, and Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.

Question 131

131,"With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","2017"

Answer 131

131,a,Global Climate Finance Architecture,The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an initiative of the European Union aimed at strengthening dialogue and cooperation on climate change between the EU and developing countries, particularly those most vulnerable to climate change impacts. Launched in 2007, GCCA focuses on supporting adaptation and mitigation efforts in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS). Its activities are aligned with the priorities of the Paris Agreement and the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. GCCA operates through existing national and international channels for political cooperation and dialogue established by the European Commission.

Question 132

132,"Consider the following statements: (2017) 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G2O group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2017"

Answer 132

132,b,Global Climate Finance Architecture,The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is a voluntary alliance established in 2012 by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and several governments, including Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States. It aims to address short-lived climate pollutants such as black carbon, methane, tropospheric ozone, and hydrofluorocarbons, which have significant impacts on both air quality and climate change. CCAC brings together governments, intergovernmental organizations, corporations, academic institutions, and civil society organizations to take action to reduce these pollutants and improve environmental outcomes.

Question 133

133,"Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): (2017) 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","2017"

Answer 133

\133. (b) Sub-Theme: Conservation Agencies/Schemes /Initiatives Statement 1 is incorrect: The TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a nongovernmental organisation which works to monitor the wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. Headquarters: Cambridge, United Kingdom. The World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature collaborate on this programme (IUCN). Statement 2 is correct: It is working globally on the Wildlife trade monitoring network. It specialises in investigating and analysing wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to provide the leading knowledge base on trade in wild animals and plants. TRAFFIC and India: z Since 1991, TRAFFIC has functioned as a Programme Division of WWF-India, with headquarters in New Delhi. z Since then, it has collaborated closely with the federal, state, and local governments as well as a number of organisations to research, track, and influence action to stop the illicit wildlife trafficking. NOTE: Conservation agencies/schemes/ initiatives esp. WWF is the favourite topic of UPSC, one example being Earth hour asked in PYQ. Hence, try to cover WWF, TRAFFIC and related websites comprehensively to answer such questions. Reading Shankar will help you to solve this question without much trouble.

Question 134

134,"The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at (2018) (a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro (c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change 2015, Paris (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi","(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro (c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change 2015, Paris (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi","2018"

Answer 134

134. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Organizations and their mechanism Option (b) is correct: Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) is a direct response to the Rio+20 Declaration, The Future We Want i.e. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. PAGE serves as a framework to coordinate UN efforts in the green economy and to help nations meet and track the upcoming Sustainable Development Goals, particularly SDG 8: Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment, and decent work for everyone. PAGE brings together the experts from five UN agencies: z United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP or UN Environment), z United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), z International Labour Organization (ILO), z United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), and z United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR). NOTE: UPSC has repeatedly asked such questions directly from the website of various Environmental Organization’s ‘About Us’ pages. This highlights the importance of basic knowledge of various environmental organisations, at least the major ones

Question 135

135,"“Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by (2018) (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (b) The UNEP Secretariat (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat (d) The World Meteorological Organization","(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (b) The UNEP Secretariat (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat (d) The World Meteorological Organization","2018"

Answer 135

135,c,Major Environmental Organizations,The Climate Neutral Now programme, established by the UNFCCC secretariat in 2015, aims to promote and support global efforts towards achieving climate neutrality by mid-century, as outlined in the Paris Agreement. The initiative encourages businesses, organizations, governments, and individuals to measure, reduce, and offset their greenhouse gas emissions through a three-step process: measuring emissions, reducing them as much as possible, and compensating for unavoidable emissions by purchasing UN-certified emission reductions (CERs).

Question 136

136,"Consider the following statements: (2020) 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act. 3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only","(b) 2 and 3 only","2020"

Answer 136

136. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Organization/ Groundwater Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA): z It was established in accordance with Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 to oversee the management and development of the nation’s groundwater resources. 286 UPSC Prelims PYQs Statement 1 is incorrect: 256 of our approximately 700 districts have groundwater levels which are “critical” or “over-exploited” as per the latest data from the Central Ground Water Board (2017). Statement 2 is correct: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) constituted under Section 3(3) of ‘The Environment (Protection) Act, (1986)’ regulates the extraction of groundwater through guidelines which are updated regularly. Statement 3 is correct: FAO research paper shows the countries with the largest extent of areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater, in absolute terms, are India (39 million ha), China (19 million ha) and the USA (17 million ha)

Question 137

137,"The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: (2022) (a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas (b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas (d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces","(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas","2022"

Answer 137

137,c,Miyawaki Method of Urban Afforestation,The Miyawaki method is an urban afforestation technique that involves creating mini-forests in backyards by densely planting native tree species. This method accelerates forest growth, with forests developing in 20 to 30 years compared to conventional methods that may take 200 to 300 years. By planting trees close together, mutual support and sunlight blockage prevent weed growth, making the forests self-sustaining after the initial three years. The process involves identifying native tree species, analyzing soil quality, planting seeds at high density, and covering the ground with mulch.

Question 138

138,"Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake - Location 1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs","(b) Only two pairs","2022"

Answer 138

138. (b) Sub-Theme: Wetlands Option (b) is correct: Wetlands Location and Significance Hokera Wetland z Jammu and Kashmir. z A perennial natural wetland that is part of the Jhelum basin. Renuka Wetland z Himachal Pradesh z A naturally occurring wetland that receives freshwater springs and underground karst formations from the lower Himalayas and the Giri river. Lake Rudijala/ Rudrasagar Lake z Melaghar, Tripura z A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeastern highlands that receives water from three enduring streams that empty into the River Gomti. Sasthamkotta z Kollam district, Kerala z Being Kerala’s largest freshwater lake, it has long been a popular destination for travellers.

Question 139

139,"“If rainforests and tropical forests are lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements? (2022) (a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. (b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. (c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilisation. (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.","(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilisation.","2022"

Answer 139

139,d,Wetland Conservation,Option (d) is correct. Wetlands act as nature's kidneys by filtering pollutants from water, much like how human kidneys remove waste from the body. Aquatic plants in wetlands absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients, helping to maintain water quality. This natural filtration process contributes to the overall health of aquatic ecosystems and supports biodiversity.

Question 140

140,"Consider the following protected areas: (2012) 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4","(b) 1, 3 and 4 only","2012"

Answer 140

140,b,National Parks/Tiger Reserves/Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland,Option (b) is correct. Tiger reserves play a vital role in tiger conservation efforts in India. The listed tiger reserves are distributed across various states and provide protected habitats for tigers and other wildlife species. These reserves contribute to biodiversity conservation and support ecosystem health.

Question 141

141,"In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass? (2012) (a) Biosphere Reserves (b) National Parks (c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention (d) Wildlife Sanctuaries","(b) National Parks","2012"

Answer 141

141,b,National Parks/Tiger Reserve/Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland,No human activity is permitted inside a National Park except for activities permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state. This strict regulation ensures the conservation of biodiversity and the protection of natural habitats within National Parks.

Question 142

142,"With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(d) Neither 1 nor 2","2014"

Answer 142

142,d,Eco-Sensitive Zones,ESZs (Eco-Sensitive Zones) are designated areas around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries aimed at minimizing the negative impacts of human activities on fragile ecosystems. These zones are notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the Environment Protection Act of 1986. Activities within ESZs are categorized into prohibited, regulated, and permitted activities to ensure the ecological integrity of protected areas.

Question 143

143,"The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of: (2014) (a) Biosphere reserves (b) Botanical gardens (c) National parks (d) Wildlife sanctuaries","(a) Biosphere reserves","2014"

Answer 143

143,a,National Parks/Tiger Reserve/Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland,Biosphere reserves are designated areas aimed at conserving biodiversity while allowing for sustainable human activities. They are recognized under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) program and are nominated and established by countries. Biosphere reserves are zoned into core areas, buffer zones, and transition areas to balance conservation with human needs.

Question 144

144,"Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? (2015) (a) Bhitarkanika National Park (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park (c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park (d) Sultanpur National Park","(a) Bhitarkanika National Park","2015"

Answer 144

144,b,National Parks/Tiger Reserve/Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland,Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur is the only floating park in existence and is located within Loktak Lake. It was established to protect the Eld's deer habitat and was declared a national park in 1977. The park is characterized by floating decaying plant matter known as "Phumdi" and supports diverse flora and fauna, including the emblematic brow-antlered deer.

Question 145

145,"Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic? (2015) (a) Khangchendzonga National Park (b) Nanda Devi National Park (c) Neora Valley National Park (d) Namdapha National Park","(a) Khangchendzonga National Park","2015"

Answer 145

145,d,National Parks/Tiger Reserve/Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland,Namdapha National Park is located in Changlang District, Arunachal Pradesh, near the international border between India and Myanmar. It was established as the 15th Tiger Reserve of India in 1983 and encompasses diverse ecosystems ranging from tropical to arctic climates due to variations in altitude.```

Question 146

146,"In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (2018) (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland","(a) Arunachal Pradesh","2018"

Answer 146

146,a,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Pakke Tiger Reserve, also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve, is located in the northeastern Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh's Pakke Kessang district. It is part of the Eastern Himalayas Biodiversity Hotspot and is bordered by the Bhareli or Kameng River and the Pakke River. The reserve is famous for its encounters with four hornbill species and received the India Biodiversity Award in 2016 for its Hornbill Nest Adoption Program.

Question 147

147,"From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (2017) (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (b) Nallamala Forest (c) Nagarhole National Park (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve","(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve","2017"

Answer 147

147,a,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) is situated where the Western and Eastern Ghats converge, in Tamil Nadu. It hosts a significant tiger population and is adjacent to other landscapes dedicated to protecting tigers, including BRT, Bandipur, Mudumalai, and Nagarahole. The Nilgiri-Eastern Ghats Elephant Reserve includes this area as well. Due to its position, it contains a wide variety of vegetation and animals.

Question 148

148,"Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine: (2019) (a) Manas National Park (b) Namdapha National Park (c) Neora Valley National Park (d) Valley of Flowers National Park","(d) Valley of Flowers National Park","2019"

Answer 148

148,d,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Valley of Flowers National Park, located in Chamoli, Uttarakhand, between 3352 and 3658 metres above sea level, is renowned for its meadows of indigenous alpine flowers and the variety of vegetation. The park is entirely within the temperate alpine region and supports rare and endangered species such as the Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, and blue sheep. It is situated close to Joshimath in the Garhwal region, nestled in the upper reaches of the Bhyundar Ganga river's Pushpawati river valley.

Question 149

149,"Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (2019) (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve","(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve","2019"

Answer 149

149,a,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, established in 2001, is located near the southernmost tip of the Western Ghats, straddling the boundary between the districts of Pathanamthitta, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala and Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, South India. It includes several wildlife sanctuaries and is characterized by tropical wet evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, montane rain forests, and Shola. The reserve is home to the Kanikaran tribe, one of the oldest extant ancient tribes in the world, and was added to the World Network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO in March 2016.

Question 150

150,"With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) 1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3","(d) 1, 2 and 3","2020"

Answer 150

150,c,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Desert National Park, located in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan, covers an area of 3162 km2, making it one of the largest national parks in India. It showcases the environment of the Thar Desert, with landforms including permanent dunes, jagged boulders, and compact salt lake bottoms. The park supports a diverse range of flora and fauna, including mammals like the desert fox, Bengal fox, and chinkara, reptiles like the spiny-tailed lizard and saw-scaled viper, and avifauna such as sandgrouse, Indian bustard, and raptors. Despite being a national park, some villages are located within its boundaries, lacking access to even basic amenities.

Question 151

151,Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?,"(a) Corbett, (b) Ranthambore, (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam, (d) Sunderbans",2020

Answer 151

151,c,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, also known as the Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary, is the largest tiger reserve in India, spanning five districts in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. It covers a Core/Critical Tiger Habitat of 3721 sq. km and is situated in the Nallamala Hills region, bisected by the Krishna River. The reserve is home to various wildlife species, including the Bengal Tiger, leopard, rusty-spotted cat, pangolin, mugger crocodile, Indian rock python, and numerous bird species. Its flora consists of a variety of woodlands and shrubs.

Question 152

152,Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?,"(a) Kanha National Park, (b) Manas National Park, (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary",2020

Answer 152

152,a,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Kanha National Park, located in Madhya Pradesh's Mandla and Balaghat districts, is the largest national park in Central India. Established in 1955, it covers an area of 940 sq. km and is known for its Sal forests. The park is famous for its population of the Hard Ground Barasingha or Swamp Deer, along with other species like tiger, leopard, dhole, bear, gaur, and Indian python.

Question 153

153,Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? Select the correct answer using the code given below:,"1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary, 2. Gangotri National Park, 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary, 4. Manas National Park",(a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 1 and 4 only,2020

Answer 153

153,a,National Parks/Biosphere Reserve,Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary, established in 1986 in Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district, aims to safeguard the critically endangered Musk Deer. It is situated in the village of Askot and is known as the "Green Paradise on Earth." Gangotri National Park, founded in 1989 in Uttarkashi, Uttrakhand, encompasses the upper watershed of the Bhagirathi River. It connects Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary and Govind National Park and is known for its temperate coniferous forests and rare wildlife species.

Question 154

154,With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,"1. It is a fungus., 2. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas., 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of northeastern India.",(a) 1 only, (b) 3 only, (c) 1 and 2, (d) 2 and 3,2022

Answer 154

154,c,Species and their habitat,Guchhi Mushroom, a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota, is cultivated in the foothills of the Himalayas, mainly in the temperate forests of Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir. These mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and are found growing in conifer forests across temperate regions.

Question 155

155,Which of the following is not a bird?,"(a) Golden Mahseer, (b) Indian Nightjar, (c) Spoonbill, (d) White Ibis",2022

Answer 155

155,a,Freshwater Species,Golden Mahseer, also known as the tiger of Indian rivers, is a freshwater fish native to the Himalayan Rivers (Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra). It is known for its longevity and is found in the Pong Dam reservoir among other locations. The species is listed as Endangered by the IUCN.

Question 156

156,Consider the following kinds of organisms: Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?,"1. Bat, 2. Bee, 3. Bird",(a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3,2012

Answer 156

156,d,Species/Pollination,When pollen moves from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part) of a flower, pollination occurs, initiating the process of seed and fruit production. Pollinators are vectors that facilitate this movement, categorized into invertebrates (such as bees, moths, flies, wasps, beetles, and butterflies) and vertebrates (including monkeys, rodents, lemurs, tree squirrels, bats, and birds). These pollinators visit flowers to obtain nectar or feed on pollen, inadvertently transferring pollen grains between flowers.

Question 157

157,The Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?,"1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification., 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel., 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes., 4. Its timber is of great commercial value.",(a) 1 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2012

Answer 157

157,c,Species,Seabuckthorn, a shrub with orange-yellow edible berries, grows in the Himalayan region above the treeline, particularly in arid places like Ladakh and Spiti. It serves as a soil-binding plant, preventing soil erosion, and has commercial value for products like juices, jams, and nutritional capsules.

Question 158

158,Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?,"(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass, (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard, (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane), (d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal",2012

Answer 158

158,a,Threatened Species,The Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda, and Asiatic Wild Ass are all endangered species. The Great Indian Bustard is critically endangered and serves as a flagship species for grassland ecosystems. Musk Deer is endangered and found in the Himalayan region. Red Panda, endemic to the Himalayas, faces threats from habitat loss and is also endangered. Asiatic Wild Ass, though currently listed as Near Threatened, was earlier categorized as Endangered due to habitat loss and hunting.

Question 159

159,What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?,"(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains., (b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk., (c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in northeast India only., (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.",2012

Answer 159

159,a,Species,Chiru, also known as Tibetan antelope, is endemic to the Tibetan Plateau and inhabits open alpine and cold steppe environments. It is categorized as Near Threatened by the IUCN. Oryx species, known for surviving in near-desert conditions, are classified as Vulnerable by the IUCN.

Question 160

160,Consider the following: Which of the above are naturally found in India?,"1. Black-necked crane, 2. Cheetah, 3. Flying squirrel, 4. Snow leopard",(a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 1, 3 and 4 only, (c) 2 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2012

Answer 160

160,b,Species,The Black-necked Crane, a state bird of Ladakh, is naturally found in India at high altitudes. Cheetahs, once found in India, are believed to have become extinct in the country in 1947. Various species of Flying squirrel are naturally found in India. Snow Leopards inhabit regions across the Western and Eastern Himalayas in India, particularly in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 161

161,Consider the following fauna and India: Which of the above is/are endangered?,"1. Gharial, 2. Leatherback turtle, 3. Swamp deer",(a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 3 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) None,2013

Answer 161

161,c,Species,Gharials, Mugger crocodiles, and Saltwater crocodiles are the three species of crocodilians found in India. Gharials are critically endangered, Mugger crocodiles are vulnerable, and Saltwater crocodiles are least concern according to the IUCN Red List. All three species are listed in Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, except for the Saltwater crocodile populations of Australia, Indonesia, and Papua New Guinea, which are included in Appendix II of CITES.

Question 162

162,Consider the following: Which of the above are naturally found in India?,"1. Star tortoise, 2. Monitor lizard, 3. Pygmy hog, 4. Spider monkey",(a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2013

Answer 162

162,a,Species,The Star tortoise, Monitor lizard, and Pygmy hog are naturally found in India. Spider Monkey, however, is found in the tropical forests of Central and South America and is critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.

Question 163

163,Consider the following animals: Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?,"1. Sea cow, 2. Sea horse, 3. Sea lion",(a) 1 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3,2013

Answer 163

163,b,Species Diversity,Sea Cow or Dugong and Sea Lion are mammals, while Sea Horse is a bony fish. Dugong, also known as 'Sea Cow,' is vulnerable and exclusively lives in the sea, found in regions including the Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India. Sea Lion, belonging to the family Otariidae, is carnivorous and aquatic. Sea Horse, a bony fish, inhabits shallow tropical and temperate saltwater environments worldwide.

Question 164

164,Consider the following organisms: Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?,"1. Agaricus, 2. Nostoc, 3. Spirogyra",(a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 only, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 3 only,2013

Answer 164

164,b,Species helps in agriculture,While Spirogyra is not generally used as a biofertilizer, Nostoc fixes atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, potentially serving as a sustainable biofertilizer. Agaricus, a genus of mushrooms, is not a biofertilizer.

Question 165

165,In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?,"1. Tamil Nadu, 2. Kerala, 3. Karnataka, 4. Andhra Pradesh",(a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 1, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2013

Answer 165

165,a,Species,Lion-tailed Macaque is endemic to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. It primarily inhabits the upper canopy of primary tropical evergreen rainforests and is diurnal.

Question 166

166,"With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements: 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents. 3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?","a. 1 only, b. 2 only, c. 3 only, d. 1, 2, and 3",2014

Answer 166

166,c,"Neem Tree; Scientific Name: Azadirachta indica; Commonly known as neem, nimtree or Indian lilac.; It is a tree in the mahogany family Meliaceae.; It is native to the Indian subcontinent and most of the countries in Africa.; Neem is typically grown in tropical and subtropical regions. Neem trees also grow Environment and Ecology 293 on islands in southern Iran. Its fruits and seeds are the sources of neem oil.; Importance of Neem Tree:; Neem trees are cultivated and utilized as multipurpose trees. Nearly all parts of the neem tree are useful.; In many areas, neem is considered a weed and based on its antimicrobial resistance and other antifungal properties, they are also used in pharmaceutical and cosmetic industries.; Statement 1 is correct: Neem oil and neem barks are used as an insect repellent.; Statement 2 is incorrect: No such relevant and strong reference has been found.; Statement 3 is correct: Neem oil has multiple applications in the pharmaceutical industry.",Tree Species

Question 167

167,"Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins? 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers 2. An increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers. 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally 4. Use of synthetic fertilisers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a. 1 and 2 only, b. 2 and 3 only, c. 1, 3, and 4 only, d. 1, 2, 3, and 4",2014

Answer 167

167,c,"Statement 1 is correct: Gangetic dolphins live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater. They are essentially blind. They are also called ‘susu’. Construction of dams and other irrigation-related projects make them susceptible to inbreeding and more vulnerable to other threats because they cannot move to new areas. ; Statement 2 is incorrect: An increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers is not a threat to Gangetic dolphins.; Statement 3 is correct: Dolphins die as a result of accidentally being caught in fishing nets, also known as bycatch.; Statement 4 is correct: Industrial, agricultural, and human pollution is another serious cause of habitat degradation.",Marine Species

Question 168

168,"If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. (2014) Which one of the following is/are such bird/birds? 1. Painted Stork 2. Common Myna 3. Black-necked Crane Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a. 1 and 2, b. 2 only, c. 2 and 3, d. 3 only",2014

Answer 168

168,b,"Common Myna; It is an opportunistic insect feeder that is disturbed by grazing cattle.; It is an omnivorous open woodland bird with a strong sense of territorial instinct.; It has adapted extremely well to the urban environment.; Statement 1 is incorrect: Painted storks forage in flocks in shallow waters along rivers or lakes. IUCN Red List: Near Threatened; Statement 2 is correct: Common Myna is an opportunistic feeder on insects, disturbed by grazing cattle.; Statement 3 is incorrect: The habitat of Blacknecked Crane is in the high altitude wetlands of the Tibetan plateau, Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India). Therefore, it is highly unlikely it can be seen in the countryside. IUCN Red List: Near Threatened.",Species(Avifauna)

Question 169

169,"With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India. 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.","a. 1 and 2, b. 2 only, c. 1 and 3, d. 3 only",2015

Answer 169

169,c,"Statement 1 is correct: Sea Cow or Dugong is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and it is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea including in India.; Statement 2 is incorrect: They are found in over 30 countries and in India are seen in the Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.; Statement 3 is correct: It gives legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. ",Marine Species

Question 170

170,"Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (2015)","a. Saltwater crocodile, b. Olive ridley turtle, c. Gangetic dolphin, d. Gharial",2015

Answer 170

170,c,"Option (c) is the correct answer: Gangetic River Dolphin, also called ‘susu’ is the National Aquatic Animal of India.; Gangetic Dolphin; Scientific Name: Platanista gangetica; The Ganges River Dolphin was officially discovered in 1801.; They are also called ‘susu’ is the National Aquatic Animal of India.; Habitat:; Live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.; The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater; Features:; Essentially blind.; They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind",Marine Species

Question 171

171,"What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in India? (2016) 1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater. 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves. 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated. Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a. 1 and 2 only, b. 3 only, c. 1 and 3 only, d. 1, 2 and 3",2016

Answer 171

171,a,"Statement 1 is correct: Kharai camels have a special ability to swim in seawater and feed on saline plants and mangroves, which is how they get their name, Kharai. Recognized as a separate breed a few years ago by the National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR), the Kharai camel is probably the only domesticated breed of camel that lives in dual ecosystems. There are two camel breeds in Kutch, a coastal region of Gujarat that is also a sizable desert territory. IUCN Red List: Endangered; Statement 2 is correct: Kharai camels are known to feed on mangroves on the island offshore. And to eat this salty marine food, they sometimes swim for hours.; Statement 3 is incorrect: Given the breed’s ability to survive both on land and sea, this particular statement is highly unlikely. NOTE: Observe the extreme keyword ‘cannot’ in statement 3, it makes the statement a bit absurd from the other two statements. Hence, by eliminating this single statement you can easily reach the correct answer.",Species (Fauna)

Question 172

172,"With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India. 2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?","a. 1 only, b. 2 only, c. Both 1 and 2, d. Neither 1 nor 2",2016

Answer 172

172,a,"Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is an Indian endemic tree species, with a restricted geographical range in the Eastern Ghats. It is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Andhra Pradesh. Red Sanders usually grow in the rocky, degraded and fallow lands with Red Soil and hot and dry climate. IUCN Red List: Endangered.; Statement 2 is incorrect: It occurs in the forest formation which is classified as “Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests”. Threats: Illicit felling for smuggling, forest fires, cattle grazing and other anthropogenic threats. The tree is known for their rich hue and therapeutic properties, are high in demand across Asia, particularly in China and Japan, for use in cosmetics and medicinal products as well as for making furniture, woodcraft and musical instruments.",Species (Flora)

Question 173

173,"In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? (2016)","a. Sand deserts of northwest India, b. Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir, c. Salt marshes of western Gujarat, d. Western Ghats",2016

Answer 173

173,d,"Great Indian Hornbill (Western Ghats, Nilgiris) Option (d) is the correct answer: The great hornbill (Buceros bicornis) also known as the great Indian hornbill or great pied hornbill, is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. A large majority of their population is found in India with a significant proportion in the Western Ghats and the Nilgiris. They also occur in Myanmar, islands in the Mergui archipelago, southern China, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand, peninsular Malaysia and in Sumatra, Indonesia.",Species – Fauna

Question 174

174,"If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? (2017)","a. Bhitarkanika Mangroves, b. Chambal River, c. Pulicat Lake, d. Deepor Beel",2017

Answer 174

174,b,"Option (a) is incorrect: Gharials inhabit deep freshwater habitats, not both freshwater and saltwater habitats as inhabited by crocodile species. It is the home of saltwater crocodiles. Option (b) is correct: The most important surviving populations of Gharials are within four tributaries of the Ganges River - Girwa, Son, and Chambal Rivers in India and the Rapti-Narayani River in Nepal. The most significant breeding population is within the Chambal River, which spans the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh. Option (c) is incorrect: Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India after Chilika Lake. It is located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu with over 96% of it in Andhra Pradesh and 4% in Tamil Nadu situated on the Coromandel Coast in South India. The lake encompasses Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The Buckingham Canal, a navigation channel, is part of the lagoon on its western side. Option (d) is incorrect: Deepor Beel is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Assam and the State’s only Ramsar site besides being an Important Bird Area by Birdlife International. Till date no such credible information has been found in terms of Gharial population in Deepor beel.",Species (Fauna)

Question 175

175,"Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news? (2018)","a. Its extract is widely used in cosmetics., b. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows., c. Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides., d. None of these",2018

Answer 175

175,b,"Option (b) is the correct answer: Prosopis Juliflora is a shrub or small tree in the family Fabaceae. It is native to Mexico, South America and the Caribbean. It was initially introduced in India during colonial times, since then it has become an invasive species. It’s an aggressive coloniser, a common weed of wastelands, scrublands and degraded forests.",Invasive Species

Question 176

176,"Consider the following statements: 1. Asiatic lions are naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camels are naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?","a. 1 only, b. 2 only, c. 1 and 3 only, d. 1, 2 and 3",2019

Answer 176

176,a,"Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic lions were once distributed to the state of West Bengal in the east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. IUCN Red List: Endangered; Statement 2 is incorrect: Double-humped Camel or Bacterian Camel is native to the steppes of Central Asia, restricted to the Gobi and Gashun Gobi deserts of northwest China and Mongolia, and Ladakh in India.; Statement 3 is incorrect: Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India, while the other four species spread across Africa, Java and Sumatra. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. Indian Rhino Vision 2020 (IRV 2020) was launched in 2005 by the Forest Department, Government of Assam, in partnership with WWF India, the International Rhino Foundation, and several other organisations. It aimed to raise the rhino population in Assam to 3,000. Four Protected Areas in Assam have rhinos: Pabitora Wildlife Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.",Species

Question 177

177,"Consider the following statements: 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct?","a. 1 and 3 only, b. 2, 3 and 4 only, c. 2 and 4 only, d. 1, 2, 3 and 4",2019

Answer 177

177,d,"Statement 1 is correct: Unlike other members of its family, such as the hawksbill sea turtle, the green sea turtle is mostly herbivorous.; Statement 2 is correct: Surgeonfish and Parrotfish are algae eaters, other herbivores include the Japanese angelfish, yellow blotch-rabbitfish, and tilapia.; Statement 3 is correct: Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals.; Statement 4 is correct: Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development.",Species Diversity

Question 178

178,"Consider the following pairs: 1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River 3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?","a. 1 and 2

Answer 178

178,c,"Pair 1 is correctly matched: Blue Finned Mahseer is found in the Mula-Mutha River close to the Indian city of Pune, a part of the Krishna River basin. It is also found in other rivers of the Deccan Plateau and we know the deccan plateau has three principal rivers: the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Cauvery. It is a freshwater fish. It is also known as Deccan Mahseer or Tor Khudree. IUCN Status: Least Concern (LC).; Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Irrawaddy Dolphin’s habitat extends from the Bay of Bengal to New Guinea and the Philippines. Also found in three rivers namely The Irrawaddy (Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the Mekong. The highest single lagoon population of dolphins is considered to be found in Chilika Lake. IUCN: Endangered.; Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rusty Spotted Cat was observed in eastern Gujarat’s Gir National Park, in Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve and along India’s Eastern Ghats.",Species Habitat

Question 179

179,"With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. 4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?","a. 1 and 2 only, b. 2 and 4 only, c. 3 only, d. 1, 3 and 4 only",2020

Answer 179

179,a,"Asian Elephants: Asian elephants come in three subspecies: Indian, Sumatran, and Sri Lankan. The majority of the continent’s remaining elephants belong to the Indian subspecies, which has the largest range. Statement 1 is correct: The leader of a group is the oldest female. She guides the herd in their search for food and water sources. These matriarchal units can occasionally divide into smaller, temporary groups. Statement 2 is correct: The gestation period lasts for 22 months, yielding a single baby. Statement 3 is incorrect: Although sexually mature in their early teens, elephants generally only start to mate at about 20 years and stop bearing calves at about 50. Statement 4 is incorrect: Recent census showed Kerala as having 5,706 elephants, while Karnataka with 6049 elephants.",Species

Question 180

180,"With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are (2020)","a. Birds, b. Primates, c. Reptiles, d. Amphibians",2020

Answer 180

180,a,"Option (a) is the correct answer: Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are Birds. z Sri Lankan/Ceylon Frogmouth bird lives in a particular location in Sri Lanka, and it is also thought to inhabit the Thattekad bird sanctuary (Kerala). Additionally, it is present in Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka. It is usually found on the western side of the Western Ghats. IUCN Status: Least Concern. z Coppersmith barbet is renowned for its metronomic call, which resembles the hammering of metal by a coppersmith. It is a permanent inhabitant of Southeast Asia and the Indian subcontinent. IUCN Red List: Least Concern z Gray-chinned minivet is a species of bird in the family Campephagidae. It is found from the Himalayas to China, Taiwan and Southeast Asia. Its natural habitat is forests about 1,000–2,000 m (3,300–6,600 ft) in elevation. IUCN Red List: Least-concern. White-throated redstart is a species of bird in the family Muscicapidae. It can be found in northeastern India, Nepal, Bhutan, central China, and the far northern reaches of Myanmar. From Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary, East Sikkim, India in alpine snowy meadows. IUCN Red List: Least Concern",Species Diversity

Question 181

181,"Consider the following animals: 1. Hedgehog 2. Marmot 3. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?","a. 1 and 2, b. 2 only, c. 3 only, d. 1 and 3",2021

Answer 181

181,d,"Statement 1 is correct: Hedgehogs are small mammals with short limbs and a body low to the ground. Their most distinctive characteristic is the thousands of stiff, sharp spines - harder and sharper than those of a porcupine - that cover the animal’s back and sides, like a pincushion filled with needles. If attacked they will curl into a prickly and unappetizing ball that deters most predators. IUCN Red List Status: Least concern; Statement 2 is incorrect: Marmot are any of 14 species of giant ground squirrels found primarily in North America and Eurasia. Marmots are well suited for life in cold environments and have small fur-covered ears, short, stocky legs, and strong claws for digging. Due to the absence of scales or spines, they do not roll up and protect their vulnerable parts. IUCN Red Listed as: Least Concern; Statement 3 is correct: Pangolin, also called scaly anteaters because of their preferred diet, pangolins are the most trafficked mammal in the world. If touched or grabbed it will roll up completely into a ball, while the sharp scales on the tail can be used to lash out.",Food Chain/Species

Question 182

182,"Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021)","a. Catfish, b. Octopus, c. Oyster, d. Pelican",2021

Answer 182

182,c,"Option (c) is the correct answer: Oyster is a Filter Feeder. Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension feeding animals that feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water, typically bypassing the water over a specialised filtering structure. Clams, krill, sponges, oysters, baleen whales, and numerous fish are among the creatures that rely on this way of feeding (including some sharks). Filter feeders include some birds like flamingos and several varieties of duck. Filter feeders are regarded as ecosystem engineers since they might be crucial in the clarification of water. They serve as indicator organisms and are crucial in bioaccumulation.",Species

Question 183

183,"With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements: 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. 2. Palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. 3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. Which of the statements given above are correct?","a. 1 and 2 only, b. 2 and 3 only, c. 1 and 3 only, d. 1, 2 and 3",2021

Answer 183

183,b,"Palm Oil (Native to Africa) Statement 1 is incorrect: Oil palm trees are native to Africa but were brought to South-East Asia over 100 years ago as an ornamental tree crop. Statement 2 is correct: Non-food applications of Palm oil are Cosmetics, toiletries, soaps and detergents. Oleochemical industry, as a base material for laundry detergents, household cleaners and cosmetics. Statement 3 is correct: Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel, which can be used in compression ignition engines, i.e., diesel engines without any modifications. Applications of Palm Oil Food-based applications Cooking oil, substitute for butter, vanaspati/ vegetable ghee, margarine, confectionery and bakery fats, ice cream, coffee creamers, emulsifiers, vitamin E supplements among others. Non-food applications Cosmetics, toiletries, soaps and detergents. Oleochemical industry, as a base material for laundry detergents, household cleaners and cosmetics. Also, Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. NOTE: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has announced this new national initiative on palm oil and in August, 2021, Environmental activists and politicians have expressed concerns over the centre’s proposal to promote palm oil cultivation in the Northeastern states and in the Andaman and Nicobar islands. Hence, the question!!",Species

Question 184

184,"Consider the following statements: 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. 2. The Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. 3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. 4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct?","a. 1, 2, 4 and 5, b. 3, 4 and 5, c. 1, 3 and 4, d. 1, 2, 3 and 5",2021

Answer 184

184,b,"Statement 1 is incorrect: Moringa is a fast-growing, drought-resistant tree native to the Indian subcontinent. Found in the wild in the sub-Himalayan regions of Northern India and now grown worldwide in the tropics and sub-tropics. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tamarind is a leguminous tree bearing edible fruit that is indigenous to tropical Africa. Statements 3 and 4 are correct: In India most of the Tamarind is collected as Minor Forest Produce with Minimum Support Price. Tamarind is also actively exported from India. Statement 5 is correct: Biodiesel is derived from the tamarind seed through the transesterification process as potential alternative feedstock for the diesel engine. NOTE: Recently, the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has been supporting private entities in creating the necessary infrastructure to promote Moringa products exports from India. Hence, the question",Species