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77,Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India,”1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions. 2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the state. 3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the state. 4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”
77,c,1, 2 and 3,”Constitution reads as follow “Nothing in this Article of sub-clause(g) of clause (1) of Article 19 shall prevent the state from making any special provision, by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in so far as such special provision related to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by state, other than minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30.” Hence, all statements except statement 4 are correct.”
78,Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes,”1. Rights of transgenders 2. Rights of craniopagus twins 3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3”
78,d,1, 2 and 3,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law. This right has been held to be the heart of the Constitution, the most organic and progressive provision in our living Constitution, the foundation of our laws. Article 21 secures two rights: ● Right to life ● Right to personal liberty Thus, Article 21 covers the rights of transgenders, craniopagus twins, and rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
79,Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?,”(a) NG Ayyangar (b) KM Munshi (c) BN Rau (d) Muhammad Saadullah”,(c) BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. On 29th August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. BR Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. They were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, KM Munshi, AK Iyer, NG Ayengar, BL Mitter, Md. Saadullah and DP Khaitari.
79,c,BN Rau,”BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. On 29th August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. BR Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. They were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, KM Munshi, AK Iyer, NG Ayengar, BL Mitter, Md. Saadullah and DP Khaitari.”
80,Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by,”(a) Article 310 (b) Article 311 (c) Article 312 (d) Article 317”,(b) The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus protects and safe guards the rights of civil servants in Government Services against arbitrary dismissal, removal and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently and effectively.
80,b,Article 311,”The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus protects and safeguards the rights of civil servants in Government Services against arbitrary dismissal, removal and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently and effectively.”
81,A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is,”(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition”,(b) The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution Under Article 32. There are five types of writs-Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Habeas Corpus writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
81,b,Habeas Corpus,”The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution Under Article 32. There are five types of writs-Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Habeas Corpus writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.”
82,Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?,”(a) Constitutional Amendment (b) CAG Report (c) Annual Financial Statement (d) Bill to alter the boundaries of any state”,(
A Bill to alter the boundaries of any State (option 4) can also be introduced in the Rajya Sabha because it is a legislative proposal to modify the boundaries of a state. However, the Annual Financial Statement (option 3) cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha.
83,The National Commission for Women was created by,”(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India (b) a decision of the Union Cabinet (c) an Act passed by the Parliament (d) an order of the President of India”,(c) The National Commission for women was set up as statutory body in January, 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, Passed by the Parliament in 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Government of India) to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
83,c,an Act passed by the Parliament,”The National Commission for women was set up as statutory body in January, 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, Passed by the Parliament in 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Government of India) to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.”
84,Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?,”(a) M Hidayatullah (b) A S Anand (c) A M Ahmadi (d) P N Bhagwati”,(d) PIL is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court and High courts and Judicial member. India had to wait till 1986 when the then Chief Justice PN Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to the Indian Judicial system. He is therefore held, alongwith Justice VR Krishna Iyer, to have pioneered judicial activism in the country.
84,d,P N Bhagwati,”PIL is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court and High courts and Judicial member. India had to wait till 1986 when the then Chief Justice PN Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to the Indian Judicial system. He is therefore held, along with Justice VR Krishna Iyer, to have pioneered judicial activism in the country.”
85,Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) It is Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen (b) The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India (c) It is not enforceable by any Court (d) It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country”,(
A
86,Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the states concerning the exercise of their powers. (b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments. (c) Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India. (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.”,(d) The executive powers of state are vested with Governor. Unlike President of India, Governor has no such power to declare emergency in the state except under Article 356 that empowers a Governor to report the President about the failure of government in his state, thus to take over the administration of that particular state. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part is threatened, President may declare a state of emergency. During the period of such proclamation, the executive authority of the union extends to the giving of directions to nay state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.
86,d,If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.,”The executive powers of state are vested with Governor. Unlike President of India, Governor has no such power to declare emergency in the state except under Article 356 that empowers a Governor to report the President about the failure of government in his state, thus to take over the administration of that particular state. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part is threatened, President may declare a state of emergency. During the period of such proclamation, the executive authority of the union extends to the giving of directions to nay state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.”
- Which of the following statement(s) about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct? 1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials. 2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials. 3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India. 4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.,(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
87,c,1 and 3,”The Ilbert Bill was introduced in 1883 by Viceroy Ripon, aiming to abolish racial prejudice from the Indian Penal Code. It proposed to allow Indian judges and magistrates the jurisdiction to try British offenders in criminal cases at the District level. This proposal led to intense opposition from Britain’s European subjects in India, as well as from British residents in India. Although initially withdrawn due to opposition, it was later reintroduced and enacted in 1884 with several amendments. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
- Consider the following statements about the Second Five-Year Plan : 1. It was drafted under the leadership of KN Raj. 2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector. 3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult. 4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy.,(a) Only 1 (b 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
88,c,2 and 3,”The Second Five-Year Plan was drafted under the leadership of PC Mahalanobis, not KN Raj. It focused on heavy industries and followed a socialist pattern of society. While it proposed the development of industries like electricity, railways, steel, machinery, and communication in the public sector, it faced difficulties in balancing industry and agriculture, which made it challenging. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thus, options (c) is correct.”
- To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should 1. have a functional toilet at home 2. have payment slips of power bills 3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter 4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
89,a,1, 2 and 3,”The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, barred several categories of people from contesting Panchayat elections. These included those charged in criminal cases with certain punishments, defaulters on agriculture loans and electricity bills, and those without the minimum educational qualification or a functional toilet at home. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting : 1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. The Eleventh Finance Commission 3. Punchhi Commission 4. Sarkaria Commission, (a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
90,a,4, 2, 1, 3,”The chronological order of the mentioned Commissions is as follows: 1. Sarkaria Commission (June 1983) 2. Eleventh Finance Commission (3rd July 1998) 3. Second Administrative Reforms Commission (5th August 2005) 4. Punchhi Commission (April 2007) Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct? 1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. 2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. 3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy. 4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
91,c,1, 2 and 4,”In India, all seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from territorial constituencies within the Panchayat area. The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. However, Panchayats do not work on the principle of constitutional autonomy. The State Legislature may endow them with powers and authority necessary for their functioning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (c) is correct.”
- Which of the following statement(s) regarding Indian federal system is/are correct? 1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. 2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries. 3. There is no dual citizenship in India.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
92,b,2 and 3,”In the Indian federal system, all States do not have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Representation is based on population, with each state having varying numbers of representatives. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries, and there is no provision for dual citizenship in India; there is only Indian citizenship. Hence, options (b) is correct.”
- Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India? 1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more states. 2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts. 3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it. 4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law.,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
93,a,1, 2, 3 and 4,”The Supreme Court of India has various powers, including original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, hearing appeals from High Courts, and passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it. It does not, however, render advice to the President of India in matters of law. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focused on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness? 1. Poverty 2. Group inequality 3. Regional imbalance 4. Unemployment,(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
94,a,1, 3 and 4,”The Twelfth Five-Year Plan in India focused on inclusive growth, aiming for sustainable development and equitable distribution of wealth. Challenges for inclusiveness included poverty, regional imbalance, and unemployment. Group inequality was not specifically mentioned as a challenge for inclusiveness. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan. 2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general. 3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years. 4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
95,c,1, 2 and 4,”The Saakshar Bharat scheme, launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan, aimed to raise literacy rates and bridge gender gaps in education. It specifically targeted women and disadvantaged groups and was anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government. However, the scheme applied to persons above the age of 15, not 10. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (c) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct? 1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. 2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him. 3. The Supreme Command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
96,a,1, 2 and 3,”The President of India holds various powers under the Constitution. The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to them. Additionally, the President has supreme command over the defense forces of the Union. Hence, all statements are correct. Thus, option (a) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements regarding Article-21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period. 2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right. 3. Under Article-21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
97,b,1 and 2,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. It is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained indefinitely, and it asserts that not even the State has the authority to violate this right. However, the right to make reproductive choices is considered a dimension of personal liberty under Article 21. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (b) is correct.”
- Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India? 1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years. 2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure. 3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
98,a,1, 2 and 3,”The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years. It mandates qualified teachers and basic infrastructure in schools and advocates for quality education without discrimination. Hence, all statements are correct. Thus, option (a) is correct.”
- Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct? (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities (b) Every religion or any section there of shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property (c) Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes (d) Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, (a) (b) (c) (d)
99,a,(a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities,”Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion. However, this right is not limited to some minor communities; it applies to all religious denominations. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article-22 is not correct? (a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest. (b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice. (c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest. (d) The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order., (a) (b) (c) (d)
100,c,(c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.,”Article 22 of the Indian Constitution states that every person arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, not one week. Hence, option (c) is not correct.”