POF PRT02 actual Flashcards

1
Q
Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"?
Select one:
a. Yaw damper. Correct
b. Spoiler mixer.
c. Rudder limiter.
d. Roll spoilers.
A

a

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2
Q

An aeroplane is sensitive to Dutch roll when?
Select one:
a. static lateral stability is much less pronounced than static directional stability
b. static lateral stability is much less pronounced than static longitudinal stability
c. an aeroplane has anhedral.
d. static lateral stability is much more pronounced than static directional stability.

A

d

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3
Q

What is the recommended action following failure of the yaw damper(s) of a jet aeroplane, flying at normal cruise altitude and speed prior to encountering Dutch roll problems?
Select one:
a. Manually recover any subsequent Dutch roll motion using rudder.
b. Increase Mach number to improve aerodynamic damping of any subsequent Dutch roll motion.
c. No action is required.
d. Reduce altitude and Mach number.

A

d

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4
Q

For an aeroplane to possess dynamic stability, it needs?
Select one:
a. a large CG range.
b. static stability only
c. static stability and sufficient damping. Correct
d. sufficient damping only.

A

c

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5
Q

Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when?
Select one:
a. the static lateral and directional stability are both negative. Incorrect
b. the Dutch roll tendency is not suppressed at all by the yaw damper.
c. the Dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.
d. the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive

A

c

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6
Q

In order to maintain constant speed during a level, co-ordinated turn, compared with straight and level flight, the pilot must?
Select one:
a. increase angle of attack and keep thrust/power unchanged.
b. increase angle of attack and increase thrust/power Correct
c. increase thrust/power and keep angle of attack unchanged
d. increase thrust/power and keep angle of attack unchanged

A

b

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7
Q

What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide?
Select one:
a. The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack. Correct
b. The wind and the aeroplane’s mass.
c. The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the weight.
d. The TAS and the maximum L/D with power available.

A

a

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8
Q
Ignoring downwash effects on the tailplane, extension of Fowler flaps, will produce?
Select one:
a. a nose-up pitching moment.
b. a nose-down pitching moment. Correct
c. no pitching moment.
d. a force which reduces drag.
A

b

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9
Q

Wing flutter can be prevented by?
Select one:
a. mounting the engines on the fuselage.
b. ensuring that the wing CG is ahead of its torsional axis. Correct
c. increasing wing elasticity
d. increasing the aspect ratio of the wing.

A

b

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10
Q

Outboard ailerons (if present) are normally used?
Select one:
a. when the landing gear is up.
b. in low speed flight only. Correct
c. in high speed flight only.
d. at transonic and supersonic speeds only.

A

b

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11
Q

The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the?
Select one:
a. longitudinal axis and the chord line.
b. speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis
c. longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane Correct
d. chord line and the horizontal plane.

A

c

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12
Q

Slat or flap asymmetry occurring after either extension or retraction, may have an effect on controllability since?
Select one:
a. slat and flap asymmetry both cause a large rolling moment
b. slat and flap asymmetry both cause a large yawing moment.
c. slat asymmetry causes a large rolling moment, whereas flap asymmetry causes a large yawing moment
d. slat asymmetry causes a yawing moment, whereas flap asymmetry causes a large rolling moment.

A

d

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13
Q
An aeroplane is in a level turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is: (given: g= 10 m/s²)?
Select one:
a. 4743 metres.
b. 3354 metres.
c. 2381 metres. Correct
d. 9000 metres.
A

c

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14
Q
Turning motion in a steady, level co-ordinated turn is created by?
Select one:
a. the drag.
b. the centrifugal force.
c. the thrust.
d. the centripetal force.
A

d

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15
Q

Positive static longitudinal stability means that a…?
Select one:
a. nose-up moment occurs after encountering an up-gust.
b. nose-down moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack
c. nose-down moment occurs after encountering an up-gust. Correct
d. nose-up moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack.

A

c

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16
Q
Flaperons are controls which combine the function of?
Select one:
a. ailerons and elevator.
b. ailerons and flaps. Correct
c. flaps and elevator.
d. flaps and speed brakes.
A

b

17
Q

Vortex generators?
Select one:
a. change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
b. transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer
c. take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation Incorrect
d. reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.

A

b

18
Q

In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value?
Select one:
a. Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.
b. Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust Correct
c. Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust
d. Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

A

b

19
Q

The main purpose of a boundary-layer fence on a swept wing is to?
Select one:
a. increase the critical Mach number.
b. improve the high speed handling characteristics
c. improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flaps.
d. improve the low speed handling characteristics

A

d

20
Q

The purpose of correctly setting the leading and trailing edge devices on the wing of an aeroplane during take-off, approach and landing is to?
Select one:
a. reduce stall speed, increase CLMAX with minimum increase in drag for take-off, but with a relatively high drag for approach and landing. Correct
b. reduce the take-off roll and increase the landing roll.
c. increase stall speed and CLMAX during take-off, but reduce stall speed with a relatively high drag during approach and landing.
d. reduce stall speed and drag during take-off and landing

A

a

21
Q

The stall speed decreases: (all other relevant factors are constant)?
Select one:
a. when flaps are retracted. Incorrect
b. in a horizontal turn.
c. when the CG is moved forward.
d. when, during a manoeuvre, the aeroplane nose is suddenly pushed firmly downwards (e.g. as in a push over).

A

d

22
Q

The contribution of the wing to the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?
Select one:
a. depends on CG location relative to the wing aerodynamic centre.
b. depends on the wing location relative to the fuselage.
c. is always negative. Incorrect
d. is positive if the wing has a positively cambered aerofoil section and the aerodynamic centre is ahead of the CG.

A

a

23
Q
An aeroplane that tends to return to its pre-disturbed equilibrium position after the disturbance has been removed is said to have?
Select one:
a. positive dynamic stability
b. positive static stability. Correct
c. neutral static stability.
d. neutral dynamic stability.
A

b

24
Q

How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn?
Select one:
a. Differential aileron deflection Correct
b. Anti-balanced rudder control.
c. Servo tabs
d. Horn-balanced controls

A

a

25
Q

A stick pusher?
Select one:
a. pushes the elevator control to avoid a stall at a negative load factor.
b. pushes the elevator control forward prior to stick shaker activation
c. vibrates the elevator control
d. pushes the elevator control forward when a specified value of angle of attack is exceeded.

A

d