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ATPL 2nd semester > POF PRT01 > Flashcards

POF PRT01 Flashcards

1
Q

About which point does an aircraft rotate?

Select one:

a. The wings
b. The main undercarriage
c. The rudder
d. The centre of gravity

A

d. The centre of gravity

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2
Q

If a force of 500 newton´s moves a mass 1000 metres in 2 minutes, the power used is?

Select one:

a. 4 watt
b. 1 egawatt
c. 250 kilowatts
d. 4167 watts

A

d. 4167 watts

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3
Q

Considering Newton´s first law of motion:

1 - A body is said to have energy if it has the ability to work

2 - The amount of energy a body possesses is measured by the amount of work it can do

3 - A body will tend to remain at rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force

4 - To move a stationary object or to make a moving object change its direction, a force must be applied

The combination with the correct statements is?
Select one:
a. 3 only
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2,3 and 4
A

b. 3 and 4

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4
Q

Considering Newton´s second law of motion?

1 - Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

2 - If the same force is applied, the larger the mass the slower the acceleration

3 - if two forces are applied to the same mass, the bigger the force the greater the acceleration

4 - The acceleration of a body from a state of rest, or uniform motion in a straight line, is proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to the mass.

The combination of true statements is?

Select one:

a. 3 and 4
b. 1,2,3 and 4
c. 2,3, and 4
d. 1 only

A

c. 2,3, and 4

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5
Q

Newton´s third law of motion states?

Select one:

a. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
b. The energy possessed by a mass is inversely proportional to its velocity
c. For every force there is an action
d. Every force has an equal and opposite inertia

A

a. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

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6
Q

The unit of force is?

Select one:

a. Newton-Metre
b. Newton
c. Mass-Kilogram
d. Joule

A

b. Newton

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7
Q

The unit of power is called?

Select one:

a. Watt
b. Newton-Metre
c. Joule
d. Meter per second

A

a. Watt

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8
Q

The unit of weight is?

Select one:

a. Newton
b. Kilogram
c. Kilowatt
d. Watt

A

a. Newton

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9
Q

The unit of work is called?

Select one:

a. Pascal
b. Watt
c. Kilogram
d. Joule

A

d. Joule

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10
Q

If a force of 20 Newton´s moves a mass 5 metres?

1 - the work done is 100Nm (Newton meters)

2 - the work done is 100 joules

3 - the work done is 4 joules

4 - the work done is 0.25 joules

The correct statements are?

Select one:

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1 only

A

a. 1 and 2

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11
Q

moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be subject to which of the following?

Select one:

a. Dynamic pressure
b. Static Pressure
c. Static and dynamic Pressure
d. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure

A

c. Static and dynamic Pressure

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12
Q

Air Density is?

Select one:

a. Mass per unit volume

b. Proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to
pressure

c. Indipendent of both temperature and pressure
d. Dependent only on decreasing pressure with increasing altitude

A

a. Mass per unit volume

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13
Q

When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere and comparing it with the actual atmosphere, which of the following is correct?

1 - Temperature, pressure and density are constantly changing in any given layer of the actual atmosphere

2 - A requirement exists for a hypothetical “standard” atmosphere

3 - The values given in the International Standard Atmosphere exist at a same altitudes in the actual atmosphere

4 - The international Standard Atmosphere was designed for the calibration of pressure instruments and the comparison of aircraft performance calculations.

Select one:

a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,2,3 and 4
d. 1,2 and 4

A

d. 1,2 and 4

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14
Q

When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct?

1 - The temperature lapse rate is assumed to be uniform at 2°C pr 1000 ft (1,98°C up to a height of 11.000ft)

2 - Sea level temperature is assumed to be 15°C

3 - Sea level static pressure is assumed to be 1.225 kg/m3

4 - Sea level density is assumed to be 1013.25hPa

Select one:

a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. No statements are correct
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2 only

A

d. 2 only

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15
Q

An aircraft´s critical Mach number is?

Select one:

a. The speed of the airflow when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
b. The speed of the aircraft when the airflow somewhere reaches the speed of sound
c. The indicated airspeed when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
d. The aircraft´s Mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound

A

d. The aircraft´s Mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound

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16
Q

Dynamic Pressure is?

Select one:

a. The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

b. The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought
completely to rest

c. The pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
d. The pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

A

b. The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought
completely to rest

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17
Q

Dynamic pressure is equal to?

Select one:

a. density times speed squared
b. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared
c. Half the true airspeed times the density squared
d. Half the density times the true airspeed squared

A

d. Half the density times the true airspeed squared

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18
Q

The inputs to an Airspeed indicator are from?

Select one:

a. A static source
b. Pitot pressure
c. A pitot and a static source
d. Pitot, static and density

A

c. A pitot and a static source

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19
Q

When considering air:

1 - Air has mass

2 - Air is not compressible

3 - Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures

4 - The viscosity of air is very high

5 - Moving air has kinetic energy

The correct combination of all true statements is?

Select one:

a. 1,2,3 and 5
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1,3 and 5

A

d. 1,3 and 5

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20
Q

With increasing altitude, up to about 40.000 ft, the charateristics of air change?

1 - Temperature decreases continuously with altitude

2 - Pressure falls steadily to an altitude of about 36.000 ft, where it then remains constant

3 - Density decreases steadily with increasing altitude

4 - Pressure falls steadily with increasing altitude

The combination of true statements is?

Select one:

a. 3 and 4
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4

A

a. 3 and 4

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21
Q

A rectangular wing, when compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at
the?
Select one:

a. wing root providing adequate stall warning
b. wingtip providing inadequate stall warning
c. wingtip providing adequate stall warning
d. leading edge, where the wing root joins the fuselage

A

a. wing root providing adequate stall warning

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22
Q

A stall warning device must be set to operate?
Select one:

a. at the stalling speed.
b. at a speed just below the stalling speed
c. at a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed
d. at a speed about 20% above the stalling speed.

A

c. at a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed

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23
Q

A stick pusher is?
Select one:

a. a device to prevent an aircraft from stalling
b. a type of trim system
c. a device to assist the pilot to move the controls at high speed
d. a device which automatically compensates for pitch changes at high speed

A

a. a device to prevent an aircraft from stalling

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24
Q

A stick shaker is?
Select one:

a. an overspeed warning device that operates at high Mach numbers
b. an artificial stability device
c. a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning
d. a device to prevent a stall by giving a pitch down

A

c. a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning

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25
Q

A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is?
Select one:

a. 4°
b. 16°
c. 30°
d. 45°

A

b. 16°

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26
Q

A wing of constant thickness which is not swept back?
Select one:

a. will stall at the tip first due to the increase in spanwise flow
b. could drop a wing at the stall due to the lack of any particular stall inducing characteristics
c. will pitch nose down approaching the stall due to the forward movement of the centre of pressure
d. will stall evenly across the span

A

b. could drop a wing at the stall due to the lack of any particular stall inducing characteristics

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27
Q

An aeroplane will stall at the same?
Select one:

a. angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon
b. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
c. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
d. indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor

A

c. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon

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28
Q

An aircraft whose weight is 237402 N stalls at 132 kt. At a weight of 356,103 N it would stall
at?
Select one:

a. 88 kt
b. 162 kt
c. 108 kt
d. 172 kt

A

b. 162 kt

29
Q

Dividing lift by weight gives?
Select one:

a. wing loading
b. lift/drag ratio
c. aspect ratio
d. load factor

A

d. load factor

30
Q

For an aircraft with a 1g stalling speed of 60 kt IAS, the stalling speed in a steady 60° turn would
be?
Select one:

a. 43 kt
b. 60 kt
c. 84 kt
d. 120 kt

A

c. 84 kt

31
Q

Formation of ice on the wing leading edge will?
Select one:

a. not affect the stalling speed.
b. cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a higher angle of attack
c. cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a lower angle of attack.
d. cause the aircraft to stall at a lower speed

A

c. cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a lower angle of attack.

32
Q

High speed buffet (shock stall) is caused by?
Select one:

a. the boundary layer separating in front of a shockwave at high angles of attack
b. the boundary layer separating immediately behind the shock wave
c. the shock wave striking the tail of the aircraft
d. the shock wave striking the fuselage

A

b. the boundary layer separating immediately behind the shock wave

33
Q

If the aircraft weight is increased without change of C of G position, the stalling angle of attack
will?
Select one:

a. remain the same.
b. decrease.
c. increase.
d. the position of the CG does not affect the stall speed

A

a. remain the same.

34
Q

If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle?
Select one:

a. lift and drag will both decrease
b. lift will decrease and drag will increase.
c. lift will increase and drag will decrease
d. lift and drag will both increase

A

b. lift will decrease and drag will increase.

35
Q

If the tailplane is supplying a download and stalls due to contamination by ice?
Select one:

a. the wing will stall and the aircraft will pitch-up due to the weight of the ice behind thea aircraft CG
b. the increased weight on the tailplane due to the ice formation will pitch the aircraft nose up, which will stall the wing
c. because it was supplying a download the aircraft will pitch nose up
d. the aircraft will pitch nose down

A

d. the aircraft will pitch nose down

36
Q

In a developed spin?
Select one:

a. the angle of attack of both wings will be positive
b. the angle of attack of both wings will be negative
c. the angle of attack of one wing will be positive and the other will be negative
d. the down going wing will be stalled and the up going wing will not be stalled

A

a. the angle of attack of both wings will be positive

37
Q

On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence?
Select one:

a. simultaneously across the whole span
b. at the centre of the span
c. at the root.
d. at the tip.

A

d. at the tip.

38
Q

On an untapered wing without twist the downwash?
Select one:

a. increases from root to tip
b. increases from tip to root
c. is constant across the span.
d. is greatest at centre span, less at root and tip

A

a. increases from root to tip

39
Q

Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by?
Select one:

a. Increasing leading edge camber
b. delaying separation
c. Reducing the effective angle of attack
d. Reducing span-wise flow.

A

b. delaying separation

40
Q

Stalling may be delayed to a higher angle of attack by?
Select one:

a. increasing the adverse pressure gradient
b. increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
c. distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
d. increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer

A

d. increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer

41
Q

Sweepback on a wing will?
Select one:

a. reduce induced drag at low speed
b. increase the tendency to tip stall
c. reduce the tendency to tip stall
d. cause the stall to occur at a lower angle of attack.

A

b. increase the tendency to tip stall

42
Q

The input data to a stall warning device (e.g. stick shaker) system is?
Select one:

a. angle of attack only.
b. angle of attack, and in some systems rate of change of angle of attack
c. airspeed only
d. airspeed and sometimes rate of change of airspeed

A

b. angle of attack, and in some systems rate of change of angle of attack

43
Q

The purpose of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing is?
Select one:

a. to re‑energise the boundary layer and prevent separation Incorrect
b. to control spanwise flow and delay tip stall
c. to generate a vortex over the upper surface of the wing
d. to maintain a laminar boundary layer

A

b. to control spanwise flow and delay tip stall

44
Q

To recover from a spin, the elevators should be?
Select one:

a. moved up to increase the angle of attack
b. moved down to reduce the angle of attack
c. set to neutral
d. allowed to float

A

b. moved down to reduce the angle of attack

45
Q

Vortex generators are used?
Select one:

a. to reduce induced drag
b. to reduce boundary layer separation
c. to induce a root stall
d. to counteract the effect of the wing‑tip vortices

A

b. to reduce boundary layer separation

46
Q

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50 kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25 kts?
Select one:

a. 30 : 1
b. 15 : 1
c. 25 : 1
d. 7.5 : 1

A

b. 15 : 1

47
Q

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of
an aeroplane?
Select one:

a. decreases because of lower parasite drag.
b. increases because of increased parasite drag
c. increases because of increased induced drag
d. decreases because of lower induced drag.

A

c. increases because of increased induced drag

48
Q

Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the?
Select one:

a. square of the chord to the wingspan.
b. wingspan to the wing root.
c. area squared to the chord.
d. wingspan to the mean chord

A

d. wingspan to the mean chord

49
Q

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will
become?
Select one:

a. twice as great.
b. half as great
c. four times greater.
d. one quarter as much.

A

c. four times greater.

50
Q

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the?
Select one:

a. flightpath.
b. longitudinal axis.
c. chord line.
d. longitudinal datum

A

a. flightpath.

51
Q

That portion of the aircraft’s total drag created by the production of lift is called?
Select one:

a. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed
b. induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed
c. parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed
d. parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed

A

a. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed

52
Q

The best L/D ratio of an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is?
Select one:

a. a minimum.
b. less than induced drag.
c. greater than induced drag
d. equal to induced drag

A

d. equal to induced drag

53
Q

The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a
wing is a type of?
Select one:

a. induced drag.
b. form drag.
c. parasite drag
d. interference drag

A

c. parasite drag

54
Q

The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as?
Select one:

a. manoeuvrability
b. controllability.
c. stability.
d. instability.

A

c. stability.

55
Q

What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
Select one:

a. Drag increases because of increased induced drag
b. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag
c. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag
d. Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag

A

a. Drag increases because of increased induced drag

56
Q

What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is
increased?
Select one:

a. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag.
b. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag
c. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased
d. Both parasite and induced drag are equally decreased.

A

b. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag

57
Q

Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and airspeed?
Select one:

a. Parasite drag varies inversely as the square of the airspeed
b. Induced drag increases as the square of the airspeed.
c. Parasite drag increases as the square of the lift coefficient divided by the aspect ratio
d. Induced drag varies inversely as the square of the airspeed.

A

d. Induced drag varies inversely as the square of the airspeed.

58
Q

Which statement is true regarding aeroplane flight at L/Dmax?
Select one:

a. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases parasite drag
b. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases the lift/drag ratio
c. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases total drag for a given aeroplane’s lift
d. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases the lift and reduces the drag.

A

c. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases total drag for a given aeroplane’s lift

59
Q

An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the?

Select one:

a. Negative air pressure below and a vacum above the surface
b. Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface
c. Higher air presure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface
d. Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge

A

c. Higher air presure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface

60
Q

When the angle of attack of a positively cambered aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will?

Select one:

a. Have very little movement
b. Move forward along the chord line
c. Remain unaffected
d. Move along the chord

A

b. Move forward along the chord line

61
Q

Ice contamination of the leading portion of the aerofoil has which of the following consequences?

  1. The profile of the leading portion of the surface can be changed, preventing normal acceleration of the airflow and substantially reducing the magnitude of the lift force
  2. Form (pressure) drag will be increased because of the increased frontal area of the aerofoil section
  3. Loss of lift will have a greater effect than an increase in form (pressure) drag.
  4. At “normal” angles of attack lift can be lost entirely if enough ice accumulates

Select one:

a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 3 and 4

A

a. 1,2,3 and 4

62
Q

The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil section and the relative wind is known as the angle of?

Select one:

a. Incidence
b. Lift
c. Attack
d. Sweepback

A

c. Attack

63
Q

The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil section and the longitudinal axis is known as the angle of:

Select one:

a. The angle of attack
b. The angle of incidence
c. Dihedral
d. Sweep back

A

b. The angle of incidence

64
Q

The definition of Lift is?

Select one:

a. The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil
b. The aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differential about an aerofoil
c. The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil
d. The aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow

A

d. The aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow

65
Q

When considering an aerofoil section at a constant angle of attack, which of the following statements is true?

Select one:

a. If the static pressure on one side is reduced more than on the other side, a pressure differential will exist
b. If dynamic pressure is increased, the pressure differential will decrease
c. The pressure differential will increase if the dynamic pressure is decreased
d. Dynamic pressure and pressure differential are not related

A

a. If the static pressure on one side is reduced more than on the other side, a pressure differential will exist

66
Q

When considering the effect of changing angle of attack on the pitching moment of an aerofoil, which of the following

statements is correct?

  1. At “normal” angles of attack the pitching moment is nose up
  2. The pitching moment about the aerodynamic centre (AC) is constant at normal angles of attack
  3. The aerodynamic centre (AC) is located approx at the 25% chord point
  4. The moment about the aerodynamic centre (AC) is a product of the distance between the aerodynamic centre (AC) and the centre of pressure (CP) and the magnitude of the lift force.

Select one:

a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 4 only
c. 3 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4

A

d. 2,3 and 4

67
Q

When the angle of attack of a symmetrical aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will?

Select one:

a. Have a very limited movement
b. Move aft along the aerofoil surface
c. Remain unaffected
d. Move toward the leading edge

A

c. Remain unaffected

68
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Maximum camber is the maximum distance between the top and bottom surface of a aerofoil section
  2. The thickness/chord ratio is expressed as a percentage of the chord
  3. It is easier for air to flow over a well rounded leading edge radius than a sharp leading edge.
  4. Two dimensional airflow assumes a wing with the same aerofoil section along its entire span, with no spanwise pressure differential
  5. Air flowing towards the lower pressure of the upper surface is called upwash

Select one:

a. 1,2,3,4, and 5
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 2,3,4 and 5
d. 1 and 5

A

c. 2,3,4 and 5

ATPL 2nd semester (13 decks)

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