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ATPL 2nd semester > HPL PRT01 > Flashcards

HPL PRT01 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most frequently identified cause of air accidents?
Select one:

a. Lack of positional awareness
b. Gastro-enteritis
c. Too little oxygen supplied
d. Looking out of the wrong window

A

a. Lack of positional awareness

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2
Q

What has been the single most important piece of equipment that has been introduced to reduce accident rates over recent years ?
Select one:

a. GPWS
b. IVSI
c. HSI
d. ASI

A

a. GPWS

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3
Q

What are the 2 key aims of Human Performance and Limitations?
Select one:

a. The safety and efficiency of the aircraft and the well being of the individual
b. The safety and efficiency of the flight operation and the well being of the individual
c. The safety and efficiency of the flight operation and the well being of the crew
d. The safety and efficiency of the crew and the well being of the individual

A

b. The safety and efficiency of the flight operation and the well being of the individual

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4
Q

What is considered to be the approximate percentage of accidents attributable to crew as the primary causal factor ?
Select one:

a. 35%
b. 25%
c. 65%
d. 75%

A

d. 75%

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5
Q

What is the most likely part of the flight profile where accidents are likely to occur ?
Select one:

a. Take-off
b. Initial Climb
c. Approach and landing
d. Initial decent

A

c. Approach and landing

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6
Q

According to figure 17 in EASA Annual Safety Review: “Occurrence Categories for Fatal and Non-Fatal Accidents in EASA MS CAT Aeroplanes above 2,250 kg MTOM, 2003-2012”

Which factor is the biggest for Fatal Accidents?

Select one:
a. LOC-I

b. EVAC
c. SCF-NP
d. ICE

A

a. LOC-I

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7
Q

What law may be explained by the formula:
PTOT = P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 etc. ?
Select one:

a. Charles’ Law
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Dalton’s Law
d. Fick’s Law

A

c. Dalton’s Law

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8
Q

What is considered to be the lowest partial pressure of oxygen, approximately, before performance deterioration begins
Select one:

a. 45 mmHg
b. 55 mmHg
c. 103 mmHg
d. 105 mmHg

A

b. 55 mmHg

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9
Q

What cabin altitude is utilised in most modern pressurised aircraft ?
Select one:

a. 4000 - 6000 ft
b. 6000 - 8000 ft
c. 8000 - 10000 ft
d. 10000 - 12000 ft

A

b. 6000 - 8000 ft

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10
Q

Which of the following marks the beginning of hyperventilation ?
Select one:

a. Slow heart beat
b. Cyanosis
c. Dizzy feeling
d. Slow rate of breath

A

c. Dizzy feeling

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11
Q

What is the key to returning to normal from a state of hyperventilation ?
Select one:

a. Re-establish oxygen levels
b. Re-establish carbon monoxide levels
c. Re-establish carbon dioxide levels
d. Re-establish nitrogen levels

A

c. Re-establish carbon dioxide levels

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12
Q

What is total lung capacity of a human considered to be ?
Select one:

a. 100 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 1000 ml
d. 6000 ml

A

d. 6000 ml

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13
Q

What part of the body is responsible for gaseous exchange ?
Select one:

a. Alveoli
b. Arteries
c. Oesophagus
d. Heart

A

a. Alveoli

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14
Q

What are the physiological symptoms of ozone poisoning ?
Select one:

a. Itchy eyes
b. Itchy eyes, coughing and nasal irritation
c. Itchy eyes, coughing and lethargy
d. Itchy eyes, coughing, sneezing and lethargy

A

b. Itchy eyes, coughing and nasal irritation

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15
Q

Above what height is there considered to be insufficient oxygen to maintain adequate cerebral function ?
Select one:

a. 6,000 ft
b. 8,000 ft
c. 10,000 ft
d. 12,000 ft

A

c. 10,000 ft

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16
Q

What is the typical human tidal volume ?
Select one:

a. 100 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 1000 ml
d. 6000 ml

A

b. 500 ml

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17
Q

What separates the 2 sides of the heart ?
Select one:

a. Aorta Incorrect
b. Septum
c. Myocardium
d. Angina

A

b. Septum

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18
Q

Which Law states that the rate of gas diffusion through a tissue medium is proportional to the tissue area and partial pressures on the 2 sides; and is inversely proportional to the tissue thickness?
Select one:

a. Charles’ Law
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Dalton’s Law
d. Fick’s Law

A

d. Fick’s Law

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19
Q

What is the agreed comfort level for relative humidity ?
Select one:

a. 5% - 25%
b. 20% - 40%
c. 40% - 60%
d. 50% - 80%

A

c. 40% - 60%

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20
Q

What significance does Henrys Law have in flying?
Select one:

a. Decompression sickness
b. Barotrauma
c. Hypoxia
d. Angle of attack

A

a. Decompression sickness

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21
Q

The Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) decreases with height. What is the TUC for an individual at 40,000ft in the case of rapid decompression ?
Select one:

a. 12 - 15 seconds
b. 60 - 75 seconds
c. 2 - 3 minutes
d. Up to an hour

A

a. 12 - 15 seconds

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22
Q

How much of the body’s available oxygen, under normal conditions, does the brain use…?

Select one:

a. 87 %
b. 78 %
c. 50 %
d. 20 %

A

d. 20 %

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23
Q

What must be done at 40,000 ft in an unpressurised aircraft in order for the pilot to maintain performance levels ?

Select one:

a. Increase oxygen/air mixture
b. Apply 100% oxygen
c. Take 100% oxygen under pressure
d. Descend. Life cannot be supported at this level

A

c. Take 100% oxygen under pressure

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24
Q

What is hypotension?

Select one:

a. High blood pressure likely resulting from hypoxia
b. High blood pressure likely resulting from shock
c. Low blood pressure likely resulting from shock
d. Low blood pressure likely resulting from hypoxia

A

c. Low blood pressure likely resulting from shock

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25
Q

What is sensitivity ?

Select one:

a. The point at which tempers break
b. How emotional we can become
c. The ability to see in the dark
d. The lowest threshold at which sense organs respond

A

d. The lowest threshold at which sense organs respond

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26
Q

What sort of deafness can result from the build up of wax ?

Select one:

a. Temporary
b. Conductive
c. NIHL
d. Sensori-neural

A

b. Conductive

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27
Q

Insulin is produced by the pancreas and controls the level of carbohydrate in the blood within very precise limits. How is the control mechanism for this release monitored ?

Select one:

a. Neuro-hormonal feedback
b. Reflectic feedback
c. Conditioned feedback
d. Electrochemical feedback

A

a. Neuro-hormonal feedback

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28
Q

What is acetylcholine ?

Select one:

a. A neurotransmitter which is neuro-hormonal
b. A neurotransmitter which is electrochemical
c. A chemical which carry the impulse away from a cell
d. The base chemical of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

A

b. A neurotransmitter which is electrochemical

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29
Q

Where are the malleus, incus and stapes situated ?

Select one:

a. The vestibular apparatus in the inner ear
b. The vestibular apparatus in the middle ear
c. The ossicles in the middle ear
d. The ossicles in the inner ear

A

c. The ossicles in the middle ear

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30
Q

Where is balance information processed ?

Select one:

a. The middle ear
b. The cerebrum
c. The inner ear
d. The cerebellum

A

d. The cerebellum

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31
Q

NIHL is Noise Induced Hearing Loss. Long term exposure to noise levels in excess of ……………cause this condition.

Select one:

a. 9 dB
b. 29dB
c. 90dB
d. 120dB

A

c. 90dB

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32
Q

What do the otoliths detect ?

Select one:

a. Angular movements
b. Gravity
c. Linear movements
d. Linear movements and gravity

A

d. Linear movements and gravity

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33
Q

What is the hearing range of the ear ?

Select one:

a. About 1/2 mile
b. Depends on the loudness of the sound
c. 20 - 20,000 Khz
d. 20 - 20,000 Hz

A

d. 20 - 20,000 Hz

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34
Q

What term is used to describe the increasing sensitivity of the eyes in low light conditions?

Select one:

a. Habituation
b. Sensitivity
c. Rejuvenation
d. Adaption (or adaptation)

A

d. Adaption (or adaptation)

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35
Q

Why does alcohol cause problems with balance?

Select one:

a. Alcohol is more dense than the endolymph causing light spots
b. Alcohol is less dense than the endolymph causing light spots
c. Alcohol affects the liver allowing “poisoning of the senses”
d. Alcohol simply lowers the sensitivity threshold

A

b. Alcohol is less dense than the endolymph causing light spots

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36
Q

What do the 3 semi-circular canals detect ?

Select one:

a. Angular movements/Angular accelerations
b. Gravity
c. Linear movements/Linear accelerations
d. Accelerations

A

a. Angular movements/Angular accelerations

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37
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of motion sickness?

i) Nausea
ii) Diarrhoea
iii) Anxiety possibly leading to hyperventilation
iv) Pale face
v) Blue lips
vi) Dry mouth
vii) Sensation of body warmth
viii) Soreness of eyes

Select one:

a. All of the above
b. None of the above
c. i, ii, iii, v, vi, vii
d. i, iii, iv, vii

A

d. i, iii, iv, vii

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38
Q

What is presbyopia chiefly caused by ?

Select one:

a. Low vitamin D intake
b. High vitamin A intake
c. Exposure to niacin
d. Age

A

d. Age

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39
Q

What muscles are responsible for changing the shape of the lens ?

Select one:

a. Ciliary body
b. Ciliated body
c. Intranetular intra-aural eye muscles
d. Myelin muscles

A

a. Ciliary body

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40
Q

When scanning an empty sky with little or no features to focus on, there is a tendency to focus on …………, which are about ………. away. This is termed……..

Select one:

a. Parts of the aircraft 1m Empty field myopia
b. The ground 3 nm Ground hypermetropia
c. The stars 200 light years Madness
d. The clouds 1 nm Optometric infusion

A

a. Parts of the aircraft 1m Empty field myopia

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41
Q

Cataracts are linked to age of an individual.
What else may be a contributing factor to early cataract formation ?

Select one:

a. Low flying
b. High G exercises
c. Long term UV exposure
d. Long term IR exposure

A

c. Long term UV exposure

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42
Q

Certain visual cues help to determine both depth and distance. These are divided into monocular and binocular cues. What term and type of cue is given to perception of objects that appear hazy or bluish in the distance ?
Select one:

a. Term - Linear Perspective Cue - Monocular
b. Term - Aerial Perspective Cue - Monocular
c. Term - Linear Perspective Cue - Binocular
d. Term - Aerial Perspective Cue – Binocular

A

b. Term - Aerial Perspective Cue - Monocular

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43
Q

How long does dark-adaption (adaptation) and light-adaption take?

Select one:

a. Dark - 20 minutes Light - 10 seconds
b. Dark - 25 minutes Light - 60 seconds
c. Dark - 30 minutes Light - 10 seconds
d. Dark - 90 minutes Light - 60 seconds

A

c. Dark - 30 minutes Light - 10 seconds

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44
Q

How may the effects of Empty or Open Field Myopia be alleviated ?

Select one:

a. By focusing on ground objects or wing-tips
b. Breathing 100 % oxygen
c. Relaxing and staring ahead
d. Keep both eyes closed for 1 minute

A

a. By focusing on ground objects or wing-tips

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45
Q

If the possibility of flash blindness exists during flight, what would be the best course of action of the pilot ?

Select one:

a. Look outside, lower cockpit lights (in that order).
b. Turn down cockpit lights, look outside to accustom the eyes to the flash
c. Turn up cockpit lights, look inside the cockpit until the danger passes
d. Do nothing, flash blindness is rare

A

c. Turn up cockpit lights, look inside the cockpit until the danger passes

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46
Q

Long-sightedness, caused by the eyeball being too …….., is treated by a ………….lens, and is termed ……………… .?

Select one:

a. Short Convex Hypermetropia
b. Short Concave Myopia
c. Long Convex Hypermetropia
d. Long Concave Myopia

A

a. Short Convex Hypermetropia

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47
Q

What are cones sensitive to?
Select one:

a. Colour
b. Black - white - grey
c. Colour and black - white - grey
d. White light only

A

a. Colour

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48
Q

What do rods see ?

Select one:

a. Colour in high light conditions
b. Colour in low light conditions
c. Black - white - grey in all light conditions
d. Black - white - grey in dark conditions only

A

c. Black - white - grey in all light conditions

49
Q

State the major constituents of a healthy diet ?

Select one:

a. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates and vitamins.
b. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals.
c. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals and trace elements.
d. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals, trace elements and glucogens

A

c. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals and trace elements.

50
Q

Aircraft interiors may be sprayed to reduce the likelihood of carrying tropical diseases and disease-carrying insects from country to country. When are they sprayed ?

Select one:

a. Before doors closed prior to departing the endemic region
b. Before leaving the endemic region
c. After doors open at the endemic region
d. After doors closed prior to departing the endemic region

A

d. After doors closed prior to departing the endemic region

51
Q

What is the difference between a fit and a faint ?

Select one:

a. A fit is caused by insufficient blood reaching the brain whereas a faint is caused by a sudden activation of the nervous system leading to a muscle spasm
b. A faint is caused by insufficient blood reaching the brain whereas a fit is caused by a sudden activation of the nervous system leading to a muscle spasm
c. A fit is caused by sudden activation of the motor nerves in the peripheral nervous system and a faint is caused by lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
d. A fit is caused by the central nervous system reacting to shock causing muscle spasm or twitching and a faint is caused by too much carbonic acid

A

b. A faint is caused by insufficient blood reaching the brain whereas a fit is caused by a sudden activation of the nervous system leading to a muscle spasm

52
Q

How much caffeine can have a detrimental effect on pilot performance ?

Select one:

a. 1 mg
b. 250 mg
c. 900 mg
d. 1- 2 grams

A

b. 250 mg

53
Q

What symptoms could be noticed if a pilot was suffering from vitamin deficiencies ?

Select one:

a. Feeling of malaise, proneness to infection, poor circulation
b. Slow healing of wounds, lack of energy, poor appetite
c. Feeling of malaise, proneness to infection, slow healing of wounds
d. Lack of energy, poor appetite, slow healing of wounds

A

c. Feeling of malaise, proneness to infection, slow healing of wounds

54
Q

Which processes are involved when energy is produced from food eaten and waste product is removed?

Select one:

a. Ingestion, digestion, affiliation, egestion
b. Integration, digestion, assimulation, egestion
c. Injection, disintegration, assimilation, ejection
d. Ingestion, digestion, assimilation, egestion

A

d. Ingestion, digestion, assimilation, egestion

55
Q

What are the early onset symptoms of alcoholism ?

i. Regular drinking alone
ii. Gulping the first drink down
iii. Meeting with other friends who drink
iv. Long term memory loss
v. Short term memory loss
vi. Increasing intake to feel “good”

Select one:

a. i only Incorrect
b. All of the above
c. i, ii, v, vi
d. i, ii, iii, v, vi

A

c. i, ii, v, vi

56
Q

Food poisoning generally takes effect within how many minutes?

Select one:

a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes

A

c. 90 minutes

57
Q

Which preventative measures can be used to reduce the risk of catching diseases associated with contaminated water (e.g. Cholera) ?

Select one:

a. Have the preventative injection which is valid for 1 year, avoid inter-personal contact, and only drink water whose origin is healthy. Incorrect
b. Have the preventative injection which is valid for 5 years, avoid eating salads, and only drink water whose origin is healthy
c. Have the preventative injection which is valid for 2 years, avoid inter-personal contact, and only drink water whose origin is healthy.
d. Have the preventative injection which is only valid for 6 months, and only drink water whose origin is healthy

A

d. Have the preventative injection which is only valid for 6 months, and only drink water whose origin is healthy

58
Q

What disease may be immunised against every 10 years with very effective results ?

Select one:

a. Malaria
b. Typhoid
c. Influenza
d. Yellow fever

A

d. Yellow fever

59
Q

What is the meaning of the mnemonic I’M SAFE which a pilot should remember to decide whether he/she is both mentally and physically fit to fly?

Select one:

a. No illness, not under any medication, not stressed, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems
b. No illness, no mental problems, no sleep problems, no attitude problems, not fatigued and no emotional problems Incorrect
c. No illness, not under medication, no sleep problems, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems
d. No illness, no mental problems, not stressed, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems

A

d. No illness, no mental problems, not stressed, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems

60
Q

What are the symptoms of circulatory shock ?

Select one:

a. Pale skin, strong and rapid pulse
b. Pale skin, weak but rapid pulse
c. Pink skin, occasionally no pulse
d. Pink skin, strong and rapid pulse

A

b. Pale skin, weak but rapid pulse

61
Q

The most dangerous form of incapacitation in flight is?

Select one:

a. Fast Incorrect
b. Slow
c. Insidious
d. Obvious

A

c. Insidious

62
Q

What foodstuff assists with excretion of waste products from metabolism as well as delaying the absorption of sugar?

Select one:

a. Vitamins
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrate
d. Fibre

A

d. Fibre

63
Q

What has excessive salt intake been connected with…?

Select one:

a. Hypoxia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypertension
d. Hypoglycaemia

A

c. Hypertension

* Hypotension (Low pressure)

64
Q

Explain BMI and list the figures for men and women?
Select one:

a. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >25 is over-weight, >30 is obese. For women >29 is obese
b. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >25 is over-weight, >30 is obese. For women >23 is obese
c. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >20 is over-weight, >25 is obese. For women >23 is obese
d. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in lbs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >30 is over-weight, >35 is obese. For women >25 is obese

A

a. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >25 is over-weight, >30 is obese. For women >29 is obese

65
Q

Smoking cigarettes may cause hypoxia. Why?

Select one:

a. Haemoglobin has greater affinity with carbon monoxide than to oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide may block the increased heart rate needed for breathing faster when flying at higher altitudes
c. Nicotine makes the heart beat slower
d. Carbon dioxide prevents a full exchange of gases in the alveoli

A

a. Haemoglobin has greater affinity with carbon monoxide than to oxygen

66
Q

It is normally considered that the most serious stressor is?

Select one:

a. Personal injury or illness
b. Death of a spouse or partner
c. Martial separation
d. Loss of a job

A

b. Death of a spouse or partner

67
Q

What level of the vibration interferes with breathing ?

Select one:

a. 1 - 4 Hz
b. 4 - 10 Hz
c. 8 - 12 Hz
d. 10 - 20 Hz

A

a. 1 - 4 Hz

68
Q

Which perceptions below would lead to the greatest level of stress ?

Select one:

a. Difficult task Low ability/low arousal
b. Difficult task High ability/high arousal
c. Easy task Low ability/low arousal
d. Easy task High ability/high arousal

A

a. Difficult task Low ability/low arousal

69
Q

What is considered to be the ideal in terms of temperature and humidity ?

Select one:

a. Temperature 20 C Humidity (RH)20 - 40 %
b. Temperature 15 C Humidity (RH)10 - 30 %
c. Temperature 20 C Humidity (RH)40 - 60 %
d. Temperature 15 C Humidity (RH)40 - 60 %

A

c. Temperature 20 C Humidity (RH)40 - 60 %

70
Q

What shape is the Yerkes-Dodson Curve, which compares arousal with performance levels ?

Select one:

a. Inverted U
b. Inverted N
c. Inverted C
d. Inverted L

A

a. Inverted U

71
Q

Why is it important that the difficulty of a task is not too great ?

Select one:

a. Very difficult tasks enhance the performance level greatly due to the lower level of arousal
b. Very difficult tasks reduce the performance level greatly due to the higher level of arousal
c. Very difficult tasks should never be attempted
d. Very difficult tasks always result in danger

A

b. Very difficult tasks reduce the performance level greatly due to the higher level of arousal

72
Q

What are the 3 short term stress-coping strategies ?

Select one:

a. Action coping Corrugated coping System directed coping
b. Smoking Drinking Belief
c. Councelling Relaxation Health and fitness
d. Action coping Cognitive coping symptom directed coping

A

d. Action coping Cognitive coping symptom directed coping

73
Q

From the following list select the option that causes the greatest stress ?

Select one:

a. Sexual problems
b. Change of address
c. Loss of a job Incorrect
d. Divorce

A

d. Divorce

74
Q

What is chronic stress ?

Select one:

a. Stress that builds up very, very quickly
b. Stress that involved the blood
c. Stress that causes speech defects
d. Stress that builds up over time

A

d. Stress that builds up over time

75
Q

Which of the options fits stress underload ?

Select one:

a. Long cruise, poor weather
b. Long cruise, good weather
c. Short cruise, poor weather
d. Short cruise, good weather

A

b. Long cruise, good weather

76
Q

What are the three principle classifications of external stressors ?

Select one:

a. Environmental domestic life
b. Environmental social domestic
c. Environmental domestic work
d. Environmental work frustration

A

c. Environmental domestic work

77
Q

Selye identified 3 phases in acute (sudden and unexpected) stress. What are the 3 phases ?

Select one:

a. Alarm reaction resistance exhaustion
b. Alarm reaction fight flight
c. Fight flight rest
d. Fight rest relax

A

a. Alarm reaction resistance exhaustion

78
Q

Human error/failures is a part of everyday life. There are two main types of error/failures, what are they ?

Select one:

a. Mistaken Action (active) Poor reaction
b. Large Small
c. Chain Isolated
d. Action (active) Environmental (latent)

A

d. Action (active) Environmental (latent)

79
Q

Ergonomics is the study of design. In recent years, efforts have been made to improve the functionality and readability of aircraft instruments. What instrument from the list below has been improved upon due to the dangers associated with misreading ?

Select one:

a. The VSI
b. The HSI
c. The three pointer altimeter
d. The Air Speed Indicator

A

c. The three pointer altimeter

80
Q

An unnoticed way-point error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of?

Select one:

a. Active failure/error
b. Pro-active failure/error
c. Re-active failure/error
d. Latent failure/error

A

d. Latent failure/error

81
Q

What is the final phase of the judgement concept ?

Select one:

a. Making a decision without uncertainty
b. Making a decision regardless of alternatives
c. Making no decision where uncertainty exists
d. Making a decision despite uncertainty

A

d. Making a decision despite uncertainty

82
Q

What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism?

Select one:

a. The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions
b. They always lead to routine errors
c. The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information
d. Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected

A

d. Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected

83
Q

Episodic memory is…?

Select one:

a. Memory of events, held in the short term memory
b. Memory of information, held in the short term memory
c. Memory of events, held in the long term memory, colored by experience
d. Memory of information, held in the long term memory

A

c. Memory of events, held in the long term memory, colored by experience

84
Q

In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is?

Select one:

a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. not applicable with old and experienced pilots
d. the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mind

A

a. increasing

85
Q

According to the basic model of information processing, sensory inputs are received by the sensory memory and are fed by various means to the working memory and a response to the stimulus is made. What happens after the response has occurred?

Select one:

a. Nothing.
b. Depends upon the type of response
c. The response is stored for future use
d. Feedback is checked by the sensory system to confirm that the correct response has been made

A

d. Feedback is checked by the sensory system to confirm that the correct response has been made

86
Q

What are the 3 different types of information stores ?

Select one:

a. Sensory stores Short term memory Long term memory
b. Sensory stores Working memory Short term memory
c. Short term memory Long term memory Semantic memory
d. Short term memory Semantic memory Episodic memory

A

a. Sensory stores Short term memory Long term memory

87
Q

Physical stimuli received by the sensory receptors may be stored for a brief period of time after the input has ceased. The visual and auditory sensory stores are lasting?

Select one:

a. Visual “ echoic memory” lasting about 0.5 to 1 second, “auditory (aural) iconic” memory lasting up to 7 seconds
b. “Auditory (aural) echoic” lasting 2 to 8 seconds, “visual iconic” lasting 0.5 to 1 second
c. “Visual iconic” lasting 2 to 8 seconds, “auditory (aural) echoic” lasting 0.5 to 1 second
d. “Visual iconic” lasting 3 to 4 seconds, “auditory (aural) echoic” lasting 6 to 8 seconds

A

b. “Auditory (aural) echoic” lasting 2 to 8 seconds, “visual iconic” lasting 0.5 to 1 second

88
Q

What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:

1: remain undetected in the system for a certain length of time.
2: may only manifest themselves under certain conditions.
3: are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors.
4: lull the pilots into security.

The combination regrouping the correct statement is:

Select one:

a. 1,2 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2,3 and 4

A

a. 1,2 and 4

89
Q

How can the memory of the working memory be increased ?

Select one:

a. Repetition and chunking
b. Key facts and mnemonics
c. Chunking and mnemonics
d. Repetition and key facts

A

c. Chunking and mnemonics

90
Q

The best method to avoid Confirmation Bias is to?

Select one:

a. Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis
b. Deliberately confirm that the receiver has understood the information that has been passed to him/her Incorrect
c. Double-check that you have not fitted the ground over which you are passing to your map
d. Precise and careful pre-flight briefings

A

a. Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis

91
Q

If one error is allow to effect a whole system, the system is described as?

Select one:

a. Corrupted
b. Error-prone
c. Error tolerant
d. Vulnerable

A

d. Vulnerable

92
Q

Name the most common problem with the long term memory and how to counteract it?

Select one:

a. Unless an item is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult to retrieve from the long term memory store.
b. Any item can be recalled from the long term memory with ease as long as it has been correctly stored
c. Facts can be stored in the episodic memory instead of semantic memory. Careful attention in learning will counteract this error
d. Recent events can become muddled in the long term memory. Careful attention to detail will ensure an accurate memory

A

a. Unless an item is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult to retrieve from the long term memory store.

93
Q

In the decision-making process, confirmation bias results in?

Select one:

a. overestimating the frequency of some events
b. a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision
c. choosing familiar solutions, even if they are not the best ones
d. a tendency to look for approval by other crew-members, or by the ATC

A

b. a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision

94
Q

Once we have constructed a mental model we tend…?

Select one:

a. to give undue weight to information that confirms the model
b. to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
c. to alter that model unnecessarily frequently
d. to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model

A

d. to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model

95
Q

What is the meaning of the term “Error Tolerant” ?

Select one:

a. Errors cannot be made

b. Errors that are made may be
ignored Incorrect

c. Errors can be detected before the flight is over
d. Errors may be detected and diminished to the non-critical state

A

d. Errors may be detected and diminished to the non-critical state

96
Q

Select from the list below the signs of reduced vigilance

i. Concentration on one task at the expense of others
ii. Good communication in the cockpit
iii. Poor communication in the cockpit
iv. Focusing on a single instrument reading and missing other important information
v. Irritability
vi. High level of motivation

Select one:

a. i, iii, iv, v, vi
b. i only
c. ii, iii, vi
d. i, iii, iv, v

A

d. i, iii, iv, v

97
Q

The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On the other hand, it may result in?

Select one:

a. errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
b. mistakes
c. decision-making errors
d. routine errors (slips)

A

d. routine errors (slips)

98
Q

In regard to top-down processing…?

Select one:

a. Previous experience is compared with actual data
b. Actual data is compared with previous experience
c. Old data is replaced by new
d. Vision is always the primary consideration

A

a. Previous experience is compared with actual data

99
Q

Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?
Active error is?

Select one:

a. produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall action
b. produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action Incorrect
c. essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule by airplane designers
d. rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations

A

a. produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall action

100
Q

External factors involved with error generation include?

Select one:

a. Ergonomics Economics Social Environment
b. Bioendorphy Philanthropy Ornithology
c. Time Duration Chronology Incorrect
d. Ergonomics Economics Aesthetics

A

a. Ergonomics Economics Social Environment

101
Q

If, in flight, a call is made to the pilot by ATC and the pilot responds by stopping his conversation with another crewmember in order to speak with ATC, what is this an example of ?

Select one:

a. Primary attention being utilised
b. Sensory attention being utilised
c. Good attention being utilised
d. Selective attention being utilized

A

d. Selective attention being utilized

102
Q

Human errors are frequent and may take several forms?

Select one:

a. an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her actions
b. an error of intention is an error of routine
c. a violation is an error which is always involuntary
d. representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure

A

a. an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her actions

103
Q

Unless rehearsed, information held in the working memory is lost after?

Select one:

a. 30 - 40 seconds Incorrect
b. 10 - 15 seconds
c. 1 - 2 minutes
d. 5 - 10 minutes

A

b. 10 - 15 seconds

104
Q

Thinking on human reliability is changing?

Select one:

a. Human errors are now considered as being inevitable
b. Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one’s knowledge
c. The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
d. It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future

A

a. Human errors are now considered as being inevitable

105
Q

How may personalities be classified ?

Select one:

a. Psychometric testing and factor analysis
b. Performance rating and instrument classification
c. Psychosomatic testing and fiction analysis
d. Performance resting and instrument rating

A

a. Psychometric testing and factor analysis

106
Q

Certain mental attitudes and traites are hazardous as far as flight safety is concerned. Select from those below which are not considered to be a danger.

i. Anti-authoritarianism
ii. Impulsiveness
iii. Vulnerability
iv. Macho complex
v. Resignation
vi. Complacency
vii. Self-diciplined

Select one:

a. ii, v, vi
b. vi, vii
c. iii, vii
d. All are dangerous

A

c. iii, vii

107
Q

What are the key parts to personality ?

Select one:

a. Traits and states
b. Good and bad
c. Parent and child
d. Psychosomatic and factored

A

a. Traits and states

108
Q

A highly motivated person will generally have?

Select one:

a. A lower performance level as their innate ability will provide results that a poorly motivated person would have to work harder to achieve.
b. A lower level of arousal, but a higher performance level than a person who was less motivated
c. A higher level of arousal and performance than a poorly motivated person.
d. d. A lower level of arousal and performance than a poorly motivated person.

A

c. A higher level of arousal and performance than a poorly motivated person.

109
Q

Eysenek developed a model of personality.
What were the main categories that he defined ?
Select one:

a. Psychosomaticism Extroversion Neuroticism
b. Psychosomaticism Extroversion Neutralism
c. Psychoticism Extroversion Neuroticism
d. Psychoticism Extroversion Neutralism

A

c. Psychoticism Extroversion Neuroticism

110
Q

What are the most desirable traits for a commander ?

Select one:

a. Emotional instability, high neuroticism, low extroversion
b. Emotional stability, low extroversion, low psychoticism
c. Emotional instability, high neuroticism, high extroversion
d. Emotional stability, low neuroticism, high extroversion

A

b. Emotional stability, low extroversion, low psychoticism

111
Q

As individuals develop, certain modes of behaviour may be seen. How are these expressed ?

Select one:

a. Baby, Child, Parent, Adult
b. Baby, Parent, Adult
c. Adult, Parent, Child,
d. Adult, Parent, Baby

A

c. Adult, Parent, Child,

112
Q

In Maslows Hierarchy of Needs, what is situated at the third level ?

Select one:

a. Physiological needs
b. Self Fulfilment
c. Belonging (self- asteem)
d. Security

A

c. Belonging (self- asteem)

113
Q

Which of the following statements is true ?

Select one:

a. Traits are resistant to change. States are controllable.
b. Traits are not resistant to change. States are resistant to change.
c. Traits and states are both uncontrollable parts of personality.
d. States are changes in long-term behavioural patterns

A

a. Traits are resistant to change. States are controllable.

114
Q

Tooth ace in flight?

A

Aeron-dontalgia

115
Q

Air trapped in sinusses

A

Barotrauma

116
Q

BMI

A

Height x Meters squared

20-25 men
19-24 women

117
Q

The body loses water via:

Select one:

a. The skin, liver and kidneys.
b. The skin.
c. The skin, lungs and liver.
d. The skin, lungs and kidneys.

A

d. The skin, lungs and kidneys.

118
Q

Which of the following are among the symptoms of Otic Barotrauma in one or both ears?

Select one:

a. Dizziness.
b. Increase of pressure in the ear causing pain.
c. Noise.
d. The Bends.

A

b. Increase of pressure in the ear causing pain.

ATPL 2nd semester (13 decks)

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