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PNE- 155 > PNE-155 Exam Review > Flashcards

PNE-155 Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is anatomy?

A

The study of body structure

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2
Q

Define physiology?

A

The study of how the body functions

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3
Q

Define homeostasis?

A

Physical and emotional BALANCE and involves an individuals cummulative chemical reactions, physical condition and emotional status

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4
Q

What is the name for the position of the body ,”below” or in a lower position?

A

Inferior

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5
Q

What is the name of the position of the body that is toward the front or “belly” surface of the body?

A

Anterior (Ventral)

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6
Q

Which body position means in or near the head?

A

Cranial

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7
Q

Which body position means “above” or in a higher position?

A

Superior

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8
Q

Which body position means toward the back of the body?

A

Posterior (Dorsal)

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9
Q

Which body position means near the lower end of the spine “tail”?

A

Caudal

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10
Q

Which body position means farther from the origin of a part?

A

Distal

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11
Q

Which body position means nearer the midline?

A

Medial

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12
Q

Which body position means farther from the midline, toward the side?

A

Lateral

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13
Q

Which body position means nearer the origin of a part?

A

Proximal

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14
Q

Which body position means toward the outer surface of the body?

A

External

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15
Q

What is the name of the horizontal plane that passes through the body at right angles to the frontal and sagittal planes, dividing it into upper and lower parts?

A

Transverse

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16
Q

What is the name of the vertical plane passing through the body lengthwise?

A

Sagittal

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17
Q

What is the name of the vertical plane that passes through the body longitudinally from head to toe, dividing into front and back parts?

A

Frontal

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18
Q

What is irritability within a cell?

A

The cell responds to stimuli

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19
Q

Which property of a cell is known to stretch or contract?

A

Contractility

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20
Q

Which property of nerve cells is specialized to send and receive impulses?

A

Conductivity

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21
Q

What is the name for building up, assimilation, or conversion of ingested substances?

A

Anabolism

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22
Q

What is another name for the breaking down, disintegrating, or tearing of substances into simpler substances?

A

Catabolism

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23
Q

Which type of tissue protects body parts and produces secretions? Ex: Skin

A

Epithelial Tissue

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24
Q

Which type of tissue anchors and supports other body structures? Ex: blood

A

Connective Tissue

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25
Q

Which type of tissue provides movement of the body?

A

Muscle Tissue

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26
Q

Which type of tissue conducts impulses to and from all parts of the body?

A

Nerve Tissue

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27
Q

CRANI-

A

Skull

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28
Q

CRYPT-

A

Hidden

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29
Q

CUT-

A

Skin

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30
Q

CYST-

A

Sac or Bladder

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31
Q

CYTO-

A

Cell

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32
Q

-ALGIA

A

Pain

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33
Q

-ASIS or -OSIS

A

Affected with

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34
Q

-BLAST

A

Germ

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35
Q

-CELE

A

Tumor

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36
Q

-CID

A

Cut

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37
Q

-CLYSIS

A

Injection

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38
Q

-COCCUS

A

Round bacterium

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39
Q

-CYTE

A

Cell

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40
Q

A- or AB-

A

Away, lack of

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41
Q

A- or AN-

A

From, without

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42
Q

ACR-

A

An extremity

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43
Q

AD-

A

To, toward

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44
Q

ADEN-

A

Gland

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45
Q

ALG-

A

Pain

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46
Q

AMBI-

A

Both

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47
Q

ANTE-

A

Before

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48
Q

ANTI-

A

Against

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49
Q

ARTH-

A

Joint

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50
Q

AUTO-

A

Self

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51
Q

BI- or BIN-

A

Two

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52
Q

BIO-

A

Life

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53
Q

BLAST-

A

Bud

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54
Q

BLEPH-

A

Eyelids

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55
Q

BRACHI-

A

Arm

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56
Q

BRACHY-

A

Short

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57
Q

BRADY-

A

Slow

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58
Q

BRONCH-

A

Windpipe

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59
Q

BUCC-

A

Cheek

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60
Q

What is the outermost, protective layer of skin?

A

Epidermis

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61
Q

What is the thickest skin layer, composed entirely of live cells and is called the “true skin”

A

Dermis (Corium)

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62
Q

Which type of tissue lies beneath the dermis and above a layer of muscle?

A

Subcutaneous Tissue

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63
Q

What are some of the effects of aging on the Integumentary system?

A

Nails/toenails become thick and brittle, age spots/liver spots, skin more prone to tearing, prone to heatstroke/ chilling, skin becomes transparent and less elastic

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64
Q

Most injections are given within which layer of the skin?

A

Dermis

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65
Q

Which gland lies close to the hair follicle, into which they usually drain?

A

Sebaceous Gland (Oil glands)

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66
Q

The name for the oily secretion from the sebaceous gland.

A

Sebum

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67
Q

Which gland is located in the dermis and is composed of 2 types (eccrine and apocrine)

A

Sudoriferous Glands (Sweat Glands)

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68
Q

This type of sweat gland is active during puberty, and secretes a thick, oily, milky sweat into hair follicles. Mainly located in the pubic region, axillae, areolae of the breasts, external ear canal and eyelids.

A

Apocrine Glands

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69
Q

This type of sweat gland is located on the upper lip, forehead, back, palms and soles. They empty into ducts that empty into pores.

A

Eccrine Glands

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70
Q

Another term for excessive perspiration?

A

Diaphoresis

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71
Q

The term used for earwax?

A

Cerumen

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72
Q

These glands secrete cerumen and are found only in the skin of the external auditory meatus?

A

Ceruminous Glands

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73
Q

The transfer of heat from one object to another by direct contact?

A

Conduction

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74
Q

Heat is transferred and given off from the skin to the air?

A

Convection

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75
Q

CARCIN-

A

Cancer

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76
Q

CARDI-

A

Heart

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77
Q

CEPHAL- or CEPHALO-

A

Head

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78
Q

CHEIL-

A

Lip

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79
Q

CHOLE-

A

Bile

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80
Q

CHONDR-

A

Cartilage

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81
Q

CIRCUM-

A

Around

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82
Q

CLEID-

A

Clavicle

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83
Q

COLP-

A

Vagina

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84
Q

CONTRA-

A

Against

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85
Q

COST-

A

Rib

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86
Q

COUNTER-

A

Against

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87
Q

What is the returning of water into the air through vapor, which causes cooling?

A

Evaporation

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88
Q

People and animals give off heat rays through?

A

Radiation

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89
Q

A skin condition in which the melanocytes stop making melanin, causing distinct, localized areas of white on the skin?

A

Vitiligo

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90
Q

The major connective tissue found in the dermis?

A

Collagen

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91
Q

All that is left of skin cells after desquamation is a fibrous protein called? it carries a waterproof barrier and is the body’s true protector.

A

Keratin

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92
Q

Stimulated by cold or fear, these involuntary muscles contract, making the hairs stand erect?

A

arrector pilli

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93
Q

What is the automatic reflex that causes goosebumps to appear on the skin?

A

pilomotor reflex

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94
Q

What is the name for the body relaying information to the appropriate organ or system?

A

Feedback

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95
Q

The continual movement of fluids throughout the body allow the body to maintain _______? Ex: balancing fluids, electrolytes, acids and bases.

A

homeostasis

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96
Q

__________ _________ occurs when the body reverses and original stimulus to regain homeostasis?

A

Negative Feedback

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97
Q

__________ ___________ occurs when the body inhances or intensifies an original stimulus. Ex: Labor

A

Positive Feedback

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98
Q

This fluid compartment (Found WITHIN the cell) is 1/2-2/3 total body fluid of an adult

A

Intracellular Fluid (ICF)

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99
Q

What are the 2 major systems involved in feedback?

A

Nervous and Endocrine Systems

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100
Q

What is the name of the fluid found between cells and accounts for about 15% of body weight?

A

Interstitial Fluid

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101
Q

What are the major ions in ICF?

A

Potassium, Magnesium and Phosphate (in addition to proteins)

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102
Q

The fluid that is NOT contained within the cell. ( The body cannot maintain BP without it). Transports materials to and from the cell.

A

Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

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103
Q

_______ is the excess accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces.

A

Edema

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104
Q

__________ _________, refers to the abnormal movement of fluid into the spaces between cells.

A

Third-Spacing

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105
Q

Another name for severe generalized total body edema?

A

Anasarca

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106
Q

Another name for edema in the peritoneal cavity, generally associated with liver damage?

A

Ascites

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107
Q

Another name for a liquid that dissolves substances?

A

Solvent

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108
Q

The substance being dissolved in a solvent is called?

A

Solute

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109
Q

What 3 chemical substances are components of body fluid?

A

Electrolytes, Acids and Bases

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110
Q

What substances release hydrogen into fluid?

A

Acids

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111
Q

What substances bind with hydrogen?

A

Bases

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112
Q

What type of fluid imbalance is most common in older adults?

A

Dehydration

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113
Q

The average fluid intake of an adult should be ___ml/day.

A

2500

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114
Q

What is the normal sodium level?

A

135-145

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115
Q

What is the normal potassium level?

A

3.5-5.0

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116
Q

What is the normal calcium level?

A

4.3-5.3

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117
Q

What is the normal magnesium level?

A

1.5-1.9

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118
Q

A low pH and high CO2 indicate _______ _______

A

respiratory acidosis

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119
Q

What is the normal pH range?

A

7.35-7.45

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120
Q

What is the normal range of PaCO2?

A

35-45

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121
Q

HCO3 (bicarb) normal range?

A

22-26

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122
Q

pH <7.35 is considered?

A

acidotic

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123
Q

pH >7.45 is considered?

A

alkalotic

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124
Q

pH 7.3, PaCO2 68, HCO3 26

A

respiratory acidosis

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125
Q

pH 7.6, PaCO2 31, HCO3 25

A

respiratory alkalosis

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126
Q

pH 7.5, PaCo2 40, HCO3 34

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

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127
Q

pH 7.10, PaCO2 70, HCO3 24

A

respiratory acidosis

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128
Q

pH 7.57, PaCo2 37, HCO3 30

A

metabolic alkalosis

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129
Q

Normal chloride level?

A

95-108

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130
Q

What major ion is responsible for normal function of neurons and muscle cells?

A

(K) Potassium

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131
Q

Major ion of ECF that assists with normal functioning of neurons and muscle cells

A

Na (Sodium)

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132
Q

Diet options high in potassium?

A

Vegetables, Nuts and Dried fruit

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133
Q

Moves from hypotonic to hypertonic solution

A

Osmosis

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134
Q

The transport of water and materials through a membrane from high-low pressure?

A

Filtration

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135
Q

What interventions for an older adult at high risk of Fluid and Electrolyte imbalance?

A

increase food and fluid intake, monitor Na level, encourage exercise, monitor BP

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136
Q

What assists in regulation of the bodys pH

A

kidneys, cellular activities, buffer systems and lungs

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137
Q

-ECTASIS

A

Dilation

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138
Q

-ECTOMY

A

Excision

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139
Q

-EMIA

A

Blood

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140
Q

-ESTHESIA

A

Relating to sensation

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141
Q

-FERENT

A

Bear, Carry

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142
Q

DACRY-

A

Lacrimal Gland

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143
Q

DERM or DERMAT-

A

Skin

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144
Q

DI-

A

Two

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145
Q

DIS-

A

Apart

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146
Q

DYS-

A

Pain or Difficulty

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147
Q

ECTO-

A

Outside

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148
Q

EM- or EN-

A

In

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149
Q

ENCEPHAL-

A

Brain

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150
Q

END-

A

Within

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151
Q

ENTERO-

A

Intestine

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152
Q

EPI-

A

Above or on

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153
Q

ERYTHRO-

A

Red

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154
Q

EU-

A

Well

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155
Q

EX- or E-

A

Out

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156
Q

EXO-

A

Outside

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157
Q

EXTRA-

A

Outside

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158
Q

Bones that offer support and strength for the body, have and elongated shape and length > width.

A

Long bones

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159
Q

the shaft of the long bone

A

diaphysis

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160
Q

the end of the long bone

A

epiphysis

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161
Q

What is the hole through which blood vessels, ligaments and nerves pass is called?

A

foramen

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162
Q

What is the spongelike air space in a bone called?

A

sinus

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163
Q

Another term for fixed joints?

A

synarthroses

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164
Q

Strong fibrous bands that hold bones together

A

ligaments

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165
Q

The term that indicates muscle wasting

A

Atrophy

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166
Q

What is the only moveable facial bone?

A

mandible

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167
Q

Which bones are cube shaped?

A

Short

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168
Q

Which bones are similar to long bones but irregular in shape?

A

Irregular

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169
Q

_______ bone marrow is responsible for manufacturing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets?

A

Red

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170
Q

Thin, hard, fibrous, dense connective tissue that covers the outside of most bones?

A

periosteum

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171
Q

Spine (spina)

A

sharp process

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172
Q

The point at which bones join or attach to each other are called joints or __________

A

articulations

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173
Q

Ex of synarthroses (fixed joint)

A

Cranial Suture

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174
Q

What type of joint are the elbow, knee, finger, and toe?

A

hinge

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175
Q

What type of joint are the hip and shoulder?

A

ball and socket

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176
Q

What type of joint is the wrist?

A

Condyloid

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177
Q

Which bones are part of the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, Vertebral Column and Rib Cage

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178
Q

What are the parts of the appendicular skeleton?

A

the bones of appendages and extremities, and pelvic girdle

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179
Q

A joint that moves only in one plane?

A

ginglymus joint

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180
Q

The lumbar vertebrae are located?

A

the small of the back

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181
Q

The cervical vertebrae are located?

A

in the neck

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182
Q

Where are the sacral vertebrae?

A

Pelvis

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183
Q

Where are the thoracic vertebrae located?

A

Chest

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184
Q

___________, also known as humpback and is more common in women

A

Kyphosis

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185
Q

__________ _________ allow for brain and skull growth, made of membranous material initially and allows the head to fit the shape of the birth canal

A

newborn frontanels

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186
Q

Smooth muscles control?

A

involuntary motion inside body organs and structures

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187
Q

Skeletal muscles control?

A

Locomotion, facial expression and posture

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188
Q

Cardiac muscle is?

A

Involuntary and propels blood to the heart

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189
Q

The ability to shorten and become thicker?

A

Contractility

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190
Q

The ability to stretch is aka?

A

Extensibility

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191
Q

The ability to return to normal length after stretching?

A

Elasticity

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192
Q

(Nerve Impulse) ability to respond to stimulus

A

Irritability

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193
Q

_________ _________ increase muscle tension

A

Isometric Exercises

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194
Q

What type of exercise involves a long period of less than maximum exertion?

A

Aerobic

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195
Q

Digestion, Elimination, Respirations and cardiac maintenance are examples of ?

A

involuntary function of muscles

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196
Q

Maintaining the body in an upright position is what type of function of the muscles?

A

Voluntary

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197
Q

Which vitamin minimizes risk of Osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D

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198
Q

Most of the heat in the body is manufactured by?

A

Oxygen and cell muscle activity of ATP

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199
Q

Ends of muscle fascia that lenghthen into tough cords called?

A

Tendons

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200
Q

What is responsible for connecting skeletal parts and supporting internal organs?

A

Ligaments

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201
Q

Which ligament connects the rectus abdominous to the pubic bone?

A

Henle

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202
Q

What ligament connects the diaphragm with the lowest ribs and first lumbar vertebrae?

A

Arcuate

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203
Q

Which frontanel of a newborn is diamond shaped?

A

Anterior

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204
Q

Which frontanel of a newborn is triangle in shape?

A

Posterior

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205
Q

Normal affect of aging on the skeletal system?

A

shortening of the vertebral column

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206
Q

__________ is the formation of bone as a result of an increase in calcification

A

Ossification

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207
Q

A soft and flexible type of connective tissue, organized into a system of fibers?

A

Cartilage

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208
Q

The spinal column ends in a single bone in adults called?

A

Coccyx

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209
Q

Another term for a mature bone cell?

A

Osteocyte

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210
Q

Another term for bone building cells?

A

Osteoblasts

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211
Q

This type of contraction shorten and thicken the muscle causing movement?

A

Isotonic

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212
Q

These types of contractions do not increase the length of a muscle, but do increase muscle tension?

A

Isometric

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213
Q

-GENIC

A

Producing

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214
Q

-IATRICS

A

Pertaining to physician or the practice of healing

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215
Q

-ITIS

A

Inflammation

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216
Q

-LOGY

A

Science of

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217
Q

-LYSIS

A

Losing, flowing. dissolution

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218
Q

-MALACIA

A

Softening

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219
Q

-OMA

A

Tumor

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220
Q

-OSIS (-ASIS)

A

Being affected with

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221
Q

-(O)STOMY

A

Creation of an opening

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222
Q

-PATHY

A

Disease

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223
Q

-PENIA

A

Decrease of deficiency of

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224
Q

-PEXY

A

To Fix

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225
Q

FEBRI-

A

Fever

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226
Q

GALACTO-

A

Milk

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227
Q

GASTR-

A

Stomach

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228
Q

GLOSS-

A

Tongue

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229
Q

GLYCO-

A

Sugar

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230
Q

GYNEC-

A

Women

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231
Q

HEM- or HEMAT-

A

Blood

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232
Q

HEMI-

A

Half

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233
Q

HEPAT-

A

Liver

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234
Q

HETERO-

A

Other

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235
Q

HIST-

A

Tissue

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236
Q

HOMO-

A

Same

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237
Q

HYDR-

A

Water

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238
Q

HYPER-

A

Above; Excess of

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239
Q

HYPO-

A

Under; deficiency of

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240
Q

HYSTER-

A

Uterus

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241
Q

IDIO-

A

Self or seperate

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242
Q

The term used for the study of the nervous system?

A

Neurology

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243
Q

The medulla, pons and midbrain make up the _________?

A

Brainstem

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244
Q

The __________ contains nerve tracts and carries messages between the cerebrum and the medulla?

A

Pons

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245
Q

Which part of the brain controls vital body functions such as heart rate and vasomotor tone?

A

Medulla

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246
Q

What is the inner layer that lies closely over the brain and spinal cord?

A

Pia Mater

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247
Q

Which layer lies closely over the brain and spinal cord, brings nutrients to nervous tissue, and is very vascular?

A

Pia Mater

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248
Q

Which layer is tough, fibrous covering that adheres to the bones of the skull?

A

Dura Mater

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249
Q

Which cranial nerve controls swallowing?

A

IX

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250
Q

Which cranial nerve is associated with somatic motor function?

A

X

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251
Q

Which cranial nerve involves rotation of the head?

A

XI

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252
Q

Which cranial nerve assesses movement of the tongue?

A

XII

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253
Q

What happens in the “fight or flight” SNS response?

A

Elevated HR, Elevated RR, response to emotion/physical threats

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254
Q

During this response the body returns to a baseline after a stressful situation and maintains normal body functions?

A

Parasympathetic Response

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255
Q

The sympathetic nerve function can be assessed by?

A

Pupil Dialation

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256
Q

Cranial nerve V can be assessed by?

A

Clenching the jaw

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257
Q

What response is produced by the sympathetic division of ANS?

A

Involuntary defecation/urination

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258
Q

The ________ system is responsible for learning, long term memory, sleep and wakefulness

A

Limbic system

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259
Q

Functions of the cerebellum?

A

Coordination, equilibrium, movement and muscle tone

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260
Q

Effects of aging on the nervous system?

A

loss of equilibrium, true dementia and temporary paralysis

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261
Q

What is the second largest part of the brain responsible for movement and coordination?

A

Cerebellum

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262
Q

What conducts messages within the neurologic system?

A

Neuron

263
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in ?

A

Subarachnoid space

264
Q

The brain and spinal cord are in the ________ system

A

Central

265
Q

The _____ system consists of bundles of neurons connecting the brain and spinal cord?

A

PNS

266
Q

A term for an automatic response to stimuli?

A

Reflex

267
Q

Function of cranial nerve III?

A

Eye movement

268
Q

Function of cranial nerve I?

A

Smell

269
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

A

II

270
Q

Function of cranial nerve V?

A

Facial movement

271
Q

The reflex of respiration occurs in ?

A

medulla and pons

272
Q

What is the main function of cranial nerve VIII?

A

hearing

273
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve XI?

A

Rotation of head/ raising of the shoulder

274
Q

T/F the nerve tract that crosses at the medulla causing right side of the brain to control the left side of the body?

A

True

275
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve XII?

A

Movement of the tongue

276
Q

T/F cranial nerve VII is responsible for taste and facial expressions?

A

True

277
Q

What is aphasia?

A

trouble speaking

278
Q

If a clear fluid is leaking from a clients nose after head trauma the nurse should?

A

check the fluid for glucose

279
Q

The nurse should monitor what following an injury to the medulla?

A

Respiratory status

280
Q

damage to the Wernicke are of the brain impairs?

A

ability to understand written/spoken language but client is still able to speak

281
Q

Damage to the Broca’s area of the brain impairs?

A

causes speech impairment but does not affect comprehension

282
Q

Complications of increased ICP?

A

herniation of the brain, brain hypoxia, brain compression.

283
Q

An exstension that carries impulses away from the neuron cell body?

A

Axon

284
Q

Short, highly branched extensions of the cell body?

A

Dendrites

285
Q

A junction or space between the neuron and dendrite?

A

Synapse

286
Q

Chemical released by the axon that enables the nerve impulses to cross the synapse and reach the dendrites?

A

neurotransmitter

287
Q

________ neurons recieve and transmit messages from CNS from all parts of the body, have long dendrites and short axons, messages include blood pH, touch, sound, and pressure and light.

A

Sensory

288
Q

_________ neurons have short dendrites and long axons, receive and transmit messages from CNS to muscles and glands and send signals to glands to secrete after muscle activity

A

Motor

289
Q

The temporal lobe is responsible for?

A

smell, hearing and memory

290
Q

The frontal lobe is responsible for?

A

higher mental processes

291
Q

The parietal lobe is responsible for?

A

Speech and sensory input

292
Q

Which lobe is responsible for vision?

A

Occipital

293
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for muscle control?

A

Cerebellum

294
Q

_________ regulates body functions such as temp, thirst, urination, swallowing, sleep/wake cycle?

A

Hypothalamus

295
Q

__________ functions in learning and long term memory?

A

hipposcampus

296
Q

Which is largely responsible for maintaining a person’s level of awareness?

A

limbic system

297
Q

__________ plays a role in allowing sensory input to enter the cerebral cortex?

A

recticular formation

298
Q

What is the fatty covering surrounding an axon?

A

Myelin sheath

299
Q

Which neurons usually have long dendrites and short axons?

A

afferent and sensory

300
Q

Composes 80% of the brains volume, coordinates sensory data, motor functioning, governs intelligence, reasoning, learning and memory

A

Cerebum

301
Q

This lobe contains the areas for written and motor speech?

A

Frontal

302
Q

This lobe is responsible for higher levels of mental functioning, judgement and reasoning?

A

Frontal

303
Q

This lobe is where sensations are preceived from the skin, ability to recognize shapes/sizes?

A

Parietal

304
Q

This lobe receives and interprets auditory signals, processes language, controls hearing and smell?

A

Temporal

305
Q

This lobe is where memories are stored?

A

Temporal

306
Q

This lobe is where visual transmissions and interpretations occur?

A

Occipital

307
Q

A term for crossing of nerve tracts within the brains medulla?

A

Decussation

308
Q

__________ is located in the posterior area of the forebrain?

A

Thalamus

309
Q

-PHAGIA

A

Eating

310
Q

-PHASIA

A

Speech

311
Q

-PHOBIA

A

Fear

312
Q

-PLASTY

A

Molding

313
Q

-PNEA

A

Air or breathing

314
Q

-POIESIS

A

Making; forming

315
Q

-PTOSIS

A

Falling

316
Q

-RHYTHMIA

A

Rhythm

317
Q

-RRHAGIA

A

Flowing or bursting forth

318
Q

-RRHAPHY

A

Suture of

319
Q

-RRHEA

A

Discharge

320
Q

-STHEN

A

Pertaining to strength

321
Q

-TAXIA OR -TAXIS

A

Order

322
Q

-TROPHEA or -TROPHY

A

Nourishment

323
Q

-URIA

A

To do with urine

324
Q

Which system consists of cranial nerves, spinal nerves and the autonomic nervous system

A

CNS

325
Q

The brain and spinal cord are covered by 3 protective membranes called the _______

A

meninges

326
Q

Which glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream?

A

Endocrine

327
Q

Which glands secrete hormones into ducts?

A

Exocrine

328
Q

What is the hormonal function of the placenta?

A

Pregnancy maintained to term

329
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Secretes many hormones that control the release of hormones by the pituitary gland

330
Q

What secretes hormones that are transported to target tissues through the circulatory system and directly into the bloodstream?

A

Endocrine Glands

331
Q

What regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the blood?

A

Parathyroid

332
Q

Which one secretes hormones that mimic the action of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

adrenal medulla

333
Q

What is the function of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Control of bone and tissue growth

334
Q

What is the action of the middle lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

increases skin and hair pigmentation

335
Q

What is the action of the posterior lobe of the pituitary?

A

Raises BP and promotes water reabsorption in kidney tubules

336
Q

What is the role of the thyroid gland?

A

Controls body’s rate of metabolism and affects calcium storage

337
Q

What is the action of the parathyroid gland?

A

Activates Vitamin D and regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the blood

338
Q

What part inhibits or promotes release of hormones from the anterior lobe of pituitary gland?

A

hypothalamus

339
Q

Which hormone secreted by adrenal medulla mimics the action of the sympathetic nervous system?q

A

catecholamines

340
Q

Which gland releases melanin?

A

Pineal Gland

341
Q

Which gland releases glycoproteins?

A

Pituitary gland

342
Q

Which gland releases calcitonin?

A

Thyroid

343
Q

What is the role of glucocorticoids?

A

decrease inflammatory responses, influence systhesis of glucose, depresses immune response and influences synthesis of amino acids and fats

344
Q

How does the body regulate glucose?

A

insulin lowers blood glucose, glucagon raises blood glucose, and the pancreas is responsible

345
Q

What are the functions of the endocrine organ?

A

influence cellular immunity and stimulate production of T cells

346
Q

What influences cellular immunity by stimulating the production of T cells?

A

Thymus

347
Q

Which hormone stimulates the growth and secretion of ovarian follicles in women and sperm in men?

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

348
Q

Which hormone stimulates ovulation in women?

A

Lutenizing Hormone

349
Q

What do prostaglandins do?

A

Digestion, reproduction, BP and respirations

350
Q

What occurs in negative feedback?

A

ceased hormone production, inhibited glandular response and achieve the desired hormone level

351
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

Intensifies uterine contractions and enables the uterus to expel the fetus

352
Q

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating milk production in women following pregnancy?

A

Prolactin

353
Q

What is the key regulator of carbohydrates, proteins and fat metabolism?

A

Insulin

354
Q

Which hormone influences the sleep/wake cycle?

A

Melatonin

355
Q

Which hormone stimulates peripheral stem cells in bone marrow to produce red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

356
Q

Which hormone is produced after eating that causes the stomach to produce more acid?

A

Gastrin

357
Q

What controls the rate of nutrient absorption into the blood stream?

A

Somatostatin

358
Q

What inhibits the release of insulin?

A

Somatostatin

359
Q

What stimulates the breakdown of fats and proteins?

A

Glucagon

360
Q

Which electrolyte deficiency would you identify with a goiter?

A

Iodine

361
Q

Clients taking glucocorticoids take longer to heal and may have decreased response to infection? T/F

A

True

362
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the production of eggs?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

363
Q

What is the function of vasopressin?

A

Blood vessel contractions

364
Q

Which hormone stimulates growth in all body tissues?

A

Growth Hormone

365
Q

IM- or IN-

A

In; Not

366
Q

INFRA-

A

Below

367
Q

INTER-

A

Between

368
Q

INTRA-

A

Within

369
Q

KERAT-

A

Horn

370
Q

LACT-

A

Milk

371
Q

LEUK-

A

White

372
Q

MACRO-

A

Large

373
Q

MAST-

A

Breast

374
Q

MEG- or MEGAL-

A

Great

375
Q

MENT-

A

MInd

376
Q

MER-

A

Part

377
Q

MESA-

A

Middle

378
Q

META-

A

Beyond, over, change, metastasis

379
Q

MICRO-

A

Small

380
Q

MY-

A

Muscle

381
Q

MYC-

A

Fungi

382
Q

NECRO-

A

Corpse

383
Q

NEO-

A

New

384
Q

NEPH-

A

Kidney

385
Q

NEURO-

A

Nerve

386
Q

ODONT-

A

Tooth

387
Q

OLIG-

A

Little

388
Q

OO-

A

Egg

389
Q

OOPHOR-

A

Ovary

390
Q

OPHTHALM-

A

Eye

391
Q

ORTHO-

A

Straight

392
Q

OSS-

A

Bone

393
Q

OSTE-

A

Bone

394
Q

OT-

A

Ear

395
Q

OVAR-

A

Ovary

396
Q

PARA-

A

Irregular

397
Q

PATH-

A

Disease

398
Q

PED-

A

Children; Feet

399
Q

PER-

A

Through

400
Q

PERI-

A

Around

401
Q

What glands keep the eyes surface lubricated?

A

Lacrimal glands

402
Q

Which cranial nerve carries visual images to the brain?

A

Cranial nerve II

403
Q

Which cranial nerve carries sensations of eye pain?

A

Cranial nerve V

404
Q

Which cranial nerve controls voluntary eye movement?

A

Cranial nerve IV

405
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle?

A

VI

406
Q

What part of the ear contains the Organ of Corti?

A

Cochlea

407
Q

Which part of the ear transmits sound waves?

A

Inner ear

408
Q

Which part of the ear is primarily concerned with balance?

A

Semicircular Canals

409
Q

Where are the lacrimal glands located?

A

Outer corner of the eye

410
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal glands?

A

Moisten and lubricate surface of the eye

411
Q

What is the cornea?

A

influences visual acuity by refracting light rays

412
Q

What is the function of the choroid?

A

brings o2 and nutrients to all layers of the eye

413
Q

What maintains intraocular pressure?

A

Aqueous Humor

414
Q

What part of the eye allows light to enter?

A

Pupil

415
Q

What gives the eye it’s specific color?

A

Iris

416
Q

What controls the lens of the eye?

A

ciliary muscles

417
Q

What is the major role of the lens in the eye?

A

Focusing light rays on the retina

418
Q

T/F loss of vitreous humor causes blindness

A

True

419
Q

What is the function of the retina in the eye?

A

Permits color, dark and light vision

420
Q

What is the auricle in the ear?

A

guides sound waves into its small opening into the auditory canal

421
Q

What are the 3 bones of the ear called that protect the ear from injury?

A

Ossicles

422
Q

Another term for farsightedness?

A

Hyperopia

423
Q

Another term for nearsightedness?

A

Myopia

424
Q

Feeling dizzy, sometimes ill, or a sense of being rotated is known as _______?

A

Vertigo

425
Q

What is olfaction?

A

Smell

426
Q

What is vitreous humor?

A

loss of it can lead to blindness, maintains eyeball shape and contributes to interocular pressure

427
Q

What is aqueous humor?

A

provides nutrients and o2 to avascular lens and cornea

428
Q

What is the function of the Trigeminal nerve?

A

Carries sensations of eye pain

429
Q

What is the thin, transparent mucous membrane of the eye?

A

Conjunctiva

430
Q

Irregularities in the curvature of the cornea and lens of the eye is called ____________?

A

Astigmatism

431
Q

Another name for the sense of taste?

A

Gustation

432
Q

________ located in the taste buds, detect chemicals in solution in the mouth?

A

Chemoreceptors

433
Q

Which cranial nerves carry the sensation of taste?

A

Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) and cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

434
Q

Tactile refers to the sense of _______?

A

Touch

435
Q

What flavors can taste buds detect?

A

Sweet, Salty, Sour, bitter, and (Umami) Savory

436
Q

PHIL-

A

Love

437
Q

PHLEB-

A

Vein

438
Q

PHOB-

A

Fear

439
Q

PNEUM- or PNEUMON-

A

Lung

440
Q

POLIO-

A

Grey

441
Q

POLY-

A

Many

442
Q

POST-

A

After

443
Q

PRE-

A

Before

444
Q

PRO-

A

Before

445
Q

PROCT-

A

Rectum

446
Q

PSEUDO-

A

False

447
Q

PSYCH-

A

Soul or MInd

448
Q

PY-

A

Pus

449
Q

PYEL-

A

Pelvis

450
Q

RACH-

A

Spine

451
Q

REN-

A

Kidney

452
Q

RETRO-

A

Backward

453
Q

RHIN-

A

Nose

454
Q

SALPING-

A

A tube

455
Q

SEMI-

A

Half

456
Q

SEPTIC-

A

Poison

457
Q

SOMAT-

A

Body

458
Q

STA-

A

Make stand

459
Q

Arteries carry oxygenated blood _______ from the heart

A

Away

460
Q

The thin, outer layer of the heart is known as the __________?

A

Epicardium

461
Q

What heart valve lies between the right atrium and right ventricle?

A

Tricuspid

462
Q

What valve lies between the left atrium and left ventricle?

A

Mitral (Bicuspid)

463
Q

Which ventricle sends blood to the entire body?

A

Left ventricle

464
Q

What carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries

465
Q

What is the largest artery?

A

Aorta

466
Q

What returns blood to the heart from the head?

A

Superior Vena Cava

467
Q

What divides the heart into right and left sides?

A

Septum

468
Q

Why would someone need and electrical pacemaker?

A

Pacemaker cells in SA node decrease`

469
Q

The volume of blood ejected with each heartbeat depends on ___________?

A

Preload/ Afterload

470
Q

What stimulates the heart to beat?

A

Conduction system of electrical impulses

471
Q

How much blood do the systemic veins/venules house?

A

Approximately 60%

472
Q

Thick strong muscles that make up the middle layer of the heart are called _________?

A

Myocardium

473
Q

The membrane lining the hearts interior wall is called ______?

A

Endocardium

474
Q

The outermost layer that anchors the heart is called ___________?

A

Pericardium

475
Q

The outermost layer of cardiac vessels composed of connective tissue and nerve cells is called ________?

A

Tunica Adventitia

476
Q

The layer of cardiac vessels that contains the thickest elastic fibers, connective tissue composed of polysaccharides is called ___________?

A

Tunica Media

477
Q

The layer that protects the outside of the vessel?

A

Tunica Adventitia

478
Q

The layer of cardiac vessels that is the thinnest, single layer of simple squamous endothelium is called ________?

A

Tunica Intima

479
Q

There are ______ upper chambers that ________ blood in the heart.

A

2, receive

480
Q

There are ____ lower chambers that _______ blood in the heart.

A

2, pump

481
Q

The _________ ventricle is the thickest and pumps blood to the rest of the body?

A

Left ventricle

482
Q

What is the function of the cardiac valves?

A

Keeps blood flowing in one direction

483
Q

________ are the principal arteries that supply the heart muscle with blood?

A

Left and Right coronary arteries

484
Q

What is the only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary arteries

485
Q

The SA node is also referred to as the _______?

A

Normal pacemaker of the heart

486
Q

The first normal heart sound (S1) is called the LUB, it is produced by the ________?

A

closure of AV valves when the ventricles contract

487
Q

The second normal heart sound (S2) or DUB is produced by ___________?

A

The closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves when ventricles relax

488
Q

Normal Cardiac output?

A

4-6L; blood pumped by the ventricle in one minute

489
Q

What is Blood Pressure?

A

The force exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vessels

490
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

The force of ventricles when they relax

491
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

The force of ventricles when they contract

492
Q

What are the special receptors in blood vessel walls that help maintain BP within normal limits?

A

baroreceptors

493
Q

What is the path of blood flow through the heart?

A

Superior Vena Cava/Inferior Vena Cava–Right Atrium–Tricuspid Valve–Right Ventricle–Pulmonary Valve–Pulmonary Arteries–Pulmonary Veins–Left Atrium–Mitral Valve–Left Ventricle–Aortic valve–Aorta

494
Q

STEN-

A

Narrow

495
Q

SUB-

A

Under

496
Q

SUPER-

A

Above

497
Q

SUPRA-

A

Above, on

498
Q

SYM- or SYN-

A

With, together

499
Q

TACHY-

A

Fast

500
Q

TENS-

A

Stretch

501
Q

THERM-

A

Heat

502
Q

TOX- or TOXIC-

A

Poison

503
Q

TRACHE-

A

Trachea

504
Q

TRANS-

A

Across

505
Q

TRI-

A

Three

506
Q

TRICH-

A

Hair

507
Q

UNI-

A

One

508
Q

VAS-

A

Vessel

509
Q

ZOO-

A

Animal

510
Q

Which system transports dietary fat?

A

Lymphatic

511
Q

What are the functions of the hematologic system?

A

Protection, Transportation and Regulation

512
Q

What term refers to the production, multiplication, maturation, specialization of blood cells in the bone marrow?

A

hematopoeisis

513
Q

What are the functions of albumin?

A

maintains BP and blood thickness, fluid volume

514
Q

Erythropoeitin is secreted by the _______?

A

Kidneys

515
Q

What is the most numerous blood cell?

A

Erythrocytes

516
Q

What carries o2 to all body cells?

A

hemoglobin

517
Q

T/F men have higher RBCs than women?

A

True

518
Q

T/F people living in higher altitudes have more RBCs because each RBC carries less O2

A

True

519
Q

What are the functions of WBCs?

A

Defends against infection

520
Q

Increased bands indicate?

A

Infection shift to the left

521
Q

When are basophils involved?

A

allergic and inflammatory responses

522
Q

What is the term for engulfing of particulate matter?

A

Phagocytosis

523
Q

What are symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Vasodilation, edema, bronchial constriction and itching

524
Q

Where is Vitamin K produced in the body?

A

Colon

525
Q

What blood type is a universal recipient?

A

AB

526
Q

What blood type is a universal donor?

A

O

527
Q

The Lymphatic organs include?

A

Thymus, spleen and tonsils

528
Q

Internal carotids connects with the _________ in the brain?

A

Circle of Willis

529
Q

Which lymph gland produces T cells?

A

Thymus

530
Q

Which circulation measure only allows specific substances into the brain?

A

Blood Brain Barrier

531
Q

Which circulation begins and ends with capillaries?

A

Hepatic Portal

532
Q

Normal Hgb for a female?

A

12-16

533
Q

Normal Hgb for males?

A

14-18

534
Q

The average adult body contains how much blood?

A

4-6L

535
Q

Plasma contains__________, __________, _________?

A

Albumin, globulins and electrolytes

536
Q

Whats another term for platelets?

A

thrombocytes

537
Q

What does RBC count mean?

A

of RBC per volume of blood

538
Q

White blood cells function?

A

Defend the body against disease organisms, toxins, irritants, foreign materials

539
Q

What part of blood provides thickness to circulating blood, maintains osmotic pressure and BP?

A

Albumin

540
Q

What term describes the body’s ability to recognize and destroy specific pathogens and prevents infection?

A

Immunity

541
Q

What WBCs are granular?

A

Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

542
Q

What WBCs are agranular?

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

543
Q

What are the “cornerstones” or the immune system that has the ability to recognize foreign in the body?

A

Lymphocytes

544
Q

Which lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

545
Q

What type of immunity engulfs and destroys antigens after antibodies identify them for destruction?

A

Humoral

546
Q

What type of immunity protects the body against antigens and disease by bacteria?

A

Humoral

547
Q

What is the substance or molecule entering the body that stimulates an immune response?

A

Antigen

548
Q

When are antibodies produced?

A

in response to an antigen

549
Q

Which immunoglobulin is produced on initial exposure to antigen and stimulates complement activity?

A

IgM

550
Q

Which immunoglobulin is transferred across the placenta and protects the fetus?

A

IgG

551
Q

Which immunoglobulin is important against invasion of microbes via the nose, eyes, lungs and intestines?

A

IgA

552
Q

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for immediate type allergic reactions such as latex allergies?

A

IgE

553
Q

Which immunoglobulin functions as an antigen receptor?

A

IgD

554
Q

What are the functions of immunoglobulins?

A

imprisons invader cells, facilitates phagocytosis, disables bacteria and complement action

555
Q

T/F a child with spina bifida is at an increased risk of latex allergies?

A

True

556
Q

Which immunity is the antigen rendered harmless?

A

Cell mediated

557
Q

Immature stem cells in the bone marrow migrate to the ______ to become T cells?

A

Thymus

558
Q

Which is considered a central or primary lymphoid organ?

A

Thymus

559
Q

Nonspecific defense mechanisms of the immune system?

A

Skin, tear, hydrochloric acid, and vomiting/defication/urination

560
Q

Immunity can be ___________ or ________

A

Acquired or Inborn

561
Q

What type of immunity results from measles or chicken pox?

A

Naturally Acquired Active

562
Q

What type of immunity occurs between mothers and infants?

A

Naturally Acquired Passive

563
Q

What type of immunity occurs as a result of a live vaccine?

A

Artificially Acquired Active

564
Q

What type of immunity occurs as a result of injection of ready made antibodies into a person’s system? (ex: rabies)

A

Artificially Acquired Passive

565
Q

What are the functions of the respiratory system?

A

O2 and Co2 exchange, protection, speech production and acid base balance

566
Q

What are cilia?

A

tiny hairlike projections on membranes to filter foreign particles

567
Q

___________ drain directly into the nasal cavity, give resonance to voice and lighten the skull.

A

Sinuses

568
Q

What is the passageway for air and food?

A

Pharynx

569
Q

What is another name for the throat?

A

oropharynx

570
Q

What is the purpose of the epiglottis?

A

guards the entrance to the larynx

571
Q

T/F adenoids atrophy as you age

A

True

572
Q

What is another name for the windpipe?

A

Trachea

573
Q

In the event of a blocked airway a _________ may be needed. It is an opening from the outside into the trachea?

A

tracheotomoy

574
Q

What are the basic structural units where gas exchange occurs?

A

alveoli

575
Q

Which lung has 3 lobes?

A

Right

576
Q

Which lung has 2 lobes?

A

Left

577
Q

What is the area between the lungs called?

A

mediastinum

578
Q

What is eupnea?

A

normal breathing

579
Q

Where is the respiratory center located?

A

medulla

580
Q

What muscles assist with respiration?

A

diaphragm, trapezium, pectorals, intercoastal, mastoid and abdominus rectus

581
Q

What is a major regulator of respiration?

A

Carbon dioxide

582
Q

The exchange of o2 for co2 within the alveoli of the lungs is called?

A

External Respiration

583
Q

What happens to the diaphragm on exhalation?

A

Rises and relaxes

584
Q

When co2 builds up it causes a condition known as ______?

A

Respiratory Acidosis

585
Q

How does blood go to the lungs to get oxygen?

A

Pulmonary Artery

586
Q

Which pluera lines the chest wall?

A

Visceral

587
Q

Which bronchus are you more likely to aspirate in?

A

Right

588
Q

What is apnea?

A

cessation of breathing

589
Q

Which tonsils are most commonly removed?

A

Palatine

590
Q

_______ acts to break up surface tension in the pulmonary fluids.

A

Surfactant

591
Q

What is the passage way of air through the respiratory system?

A

Nose/Mouth–Pharynx–larynx–trachea–bronchi–bronchioles–alveoli

592
Q

T/F The GI tract is NOT sterile

A

True

593
Q

What is the purpose of saliva?

A

helps prevent oral infections, wets food to facilitate swallowing

594
Q

What is the purpose of molars in digestion?

A

help crush and grind food

595
Q

Where are the submandibular salivary glands located?

A

under the lower jaw

596
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A

Processing, manufacture, elimination, absorption and reabsorption

597
Q

What decreases taste and smell?

A

Smoking

598
Q

What does rugae in the stomach do?

A

Allows the stomach to distend when food is eaten

599
Q

Which sphincter is between the stomach and small intestine?

A

Pyloric

600
Q

Which sphincter is between the esophagus and the stomach?

A

Cardiac

601
Q

How long does the stomach mix food?

A

3-5 hours

602
Q

Most of the nutrient absorption occurs in the colon T/F

A

False

603
Q

What hormone activates the gallbladder?

A

cholecystokinin

604
Q

Secretion of bile, absorption of billirubin, stores fat soluable vitamins, detox blood, formation of vitamin A, and synthesis of clotting factors are all functions of which organ?

A

Liver

605
Q

The breakdown of molecules into smaller ones releasing energy is called _________?

A

Catabolism

606
Q

The synthesis of simpler substances into new organized substances is called ___________?

A

Anabolism

607
Q

Which is the body’s largest glandular organ?

A

Liver

608
Q

The appendix plays a large role in our body’s immunity? T/F

A

False

609
Q

What is the medical term for trouble swallowing?

A

dysphagia

610
Q

What is deglutition?

A

Swallowing

611
Q

What is emesis?

A

Vomitting

612
Q

Food that mixes with mucus and gastric acid to form a milky, semiliquid is called ________?

A

Chyme

613
Q

The involuntary contraction and relaxation of muscles in the digestive tract that moves food and waste is called _________?

A

peristalsis

614
Q

The maintenance of homeostasis, manufacturing of renin and erythropoietin, elimination and processing of wastes are functions of what system?

A

Urinary

615
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A

forms urine, extracts wastes from the body, balances body fluids

616
Q

What does retroperitoneal mean?

A

behind the peritoneum

617
Q

Where do blood vessels enter the kidneys?

A

Hilium

618
Q

What are the functional units of kidneys called?

A

nephrons

619
Q

The RAA mechanism is responsible for?

A

Regulation of BP

620
Q

What part of the kidney is responsible for maintaining BP?

A

JGA

621
Q

What part of the kidney is responsible for concentrating salts by reabsorbing water?

A

Loop of Henle

622
Q

Aldosterone responds to _______ and ________ in the urinary system?

A

High potassium and low sodium

623
Q

Which hormone is secreted by the heart that increases kidney filtration and blood flow when blood volume increases?

A

ANP

624
Q

What part of the urinary system stores urine?

A

Bladder

625
Q

The womens urethra is _______ than that of males increasing the risk of UTIs

A

shorter

626
Q

Glomerular filtrate contains?

A

water, glucose, creatinine, urea and electrolytes

627
Q

What is tubular reabsorption?

A

urine to blood

628
Q

Tubular secretion moves substances from ______ to ______?

A

blood to urine

629
Q

What is the normal urine specific gravity?

A

1.01-1.025

630
Q

Low specific gravity indicates?

A

Overhydration and diluted urine

631
Q

High specific gravity indicates?

A

Dehydration and urine retention

632
Q

Abnormal products in urine?

A

blood, glucose, casts, ketones, pus, large amounts of bacteria, albumin and bile

633
Q

Involuntary micturition means?

A

incontinence

634
Q

What are the functional units of the testes?

A

Semineferous tubules

635
Q

Where do the sperm mature?

A

Epididymis

636
Q

The process of male sterilization includes?

A

does not effect male erection, 2 vas deferens are cut and prevents the sperm from passing

637
Q

T/F prostate tissure adds alkaline secretion to semen which decreases sperm motility?

A

False

638
Q

What is the major male androgen?

A

Testosterone

639
Q

What are the internal organs of the male reproductive system?

A

bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, testes, prostate and ducts

640
Q

What are the external structures of the male reproductive system?

A

Penis and scrotum

641
Q

Ejaculatory fluid contains?

A

semen, alkaline secretions and sperm

642
Q

T/F the ovaries continuously make ova throughout the women’s lifetime?

A

False

643
Q

What is an etopic pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy outside the uterus

644
Q

The mucus of the vagina is _______?

A

Acidic

645
Q

What is the main hormone that influences female reproductive system?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone and the lutenizing hormone

646
Q

During which phase is the ovum released into the fallopian tube?

A

Ovulation

647
Q

During which phase does the ovum begin to mature?

A

Follicular

648
Q

During which phase does the lining of the uterus thicken to allow the fetus to be embeded?

A

Luteal

649
Q

What are some effects of menopause?

A

weight gain, dry itchy skin and thinning hair

650
Q

What is the first period called?

A

Menarche

651
Q

Female hormones are called?

A

Estrogens

652
Q

Monthly flow of blood from the uterus is called?

A

menstruation

653
Q

Fertilization of the ovum usually occurs in the?

A

Oviduct

PNE- 155 (9 decks)

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