PNE-155 Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is anatomy?

A

The study of body structure

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2
Q

Define physiology?

A

The study of how the body functions

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3
Q

Define homeostasis?

A

Physical and emotional BALANCE and involves an individuals cummulative chemical reactions, physical condition and emotional status

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4
Q

What is the name for the position of the body ,”below” or in a lower position?

A

Inferior

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5
Q

What is the name of the position of the body that is toward the front or “belly” surface of the body?

A

Anterior (Ventral)

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6
Q

Which body position means in or near the head?

A

Cranial

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7
Q

Which body position means “above” or in a higher position?

A

Superior

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8
Q

Which body position means toward the back of the body?

A

Posterior (Dorsal)

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9
Q

Which body position means near the lower end of the spine “tail”?

A

Caudal

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10
Q

Which body position means farther from the origin of a part?

A

Distal

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11
Q

Which body position means nearer the midline?

A

Medial

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12
Q

Which body position means farther from the midline, toward the side?

A

Lateral

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13
Q

Which body position means nearer the origin of a part?

A

Proximal

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14
Q

Which body position means toward the outer surface of the body?

A

External

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15
Q

What is the name of the horizontal plane that passes through the body at right angles to the frontal and sagittal planes, dividing it into upper and lower parts?

A

Transverse

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16
Q

What is the name of the vertical plane passing through the body lengthwise?

A

Sagittal

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17
Q

What is the name of the vertical plane that passes through the body longitudinally from head to toe, dividing into front and back parts?

A

Frontal

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18
Q

What is irritability within a cell?

A

The cell responds to stimuli

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19
Q

Which property of a cell is known to stretch or contract?

A

Contractility

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20
Q

Which property of nerve cells is specialized to send and receive impulses?

A

Conductivity

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21
Q

What is the name for building up, assimilation, or conversion of ingested substances?

A

Anabolism

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22
Q

What is another name for the breaking down, disintegrating, or tearing of substances into simpler substances?

A

Catabolism

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23
Q

Which type of tissue protects body parts and produces secretions? Ex: Skin

A

Epithelial Tissue

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24
Q

Which type of tissue anchors and supports other body structures? Ex: blood

A

Connective Tissue

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25
Q

Which type of tissue provides movement of the body?

A

Muscle Tissue

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26
Q

Which type of tissue conducts impulses to and from all parts of the body?

A

Nerve Tissue

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27
Q

CRANI-

A

Skull

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28
Q

CRYPT-

A

Hidden

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29
Q

CUT-

A

Skin

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30
Q

CYST-

A

Sac or Bladder

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31
Q

CYTO-

A

Cell

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32
Q

-ALGIA

A

Pain

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33
Q

-ASIS or -OSIS

A

Affected with

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34
Q

-BLAST

A

Germ

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35
Q

-CELE

A

Tumor

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36
Q

-CID

A

Cut

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37
Q

-CLYSIS

A

Injection

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38
Q

-COCCUS

A

Round bacterium

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39
Q

-CYTE

A

Cell

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40
Q

A- or AB-

A

Away, lack of

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41
Q

A- or AN-

A

From, without

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42
Q

ACR-

A

An extremity

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43
Q

AD-

A

To, toward

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44
Q

ADEN-

A

Gland

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45
Q

ALG-

A

Pain

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46
Q

AMBI-

A

Both

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47
Q

ANTE-

A

Before

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48
Q

ANTI-

A

Against

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49
Q

ARTH-

A

Joint

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50
Q

AUTO-

A

Self

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51
Q

BI- or BIN-

A

Two

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52
Q

BIO-

A

Life

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53
Q

BLAST-

A

Bud

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54
Q

BLEPH-

A

Eyelids

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55
Q

BRACHI-

A

Arm

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56
Q

BRACHY-

A

Short

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57
Q

BRADY-

A

Slow

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58
Q

BRONCH-

A

Windpipe

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59
Q

BUCC-

A

Cheek

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60
Q

What is the outermost, protective layer of skin?

A

Epidermis

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61
Q

What is the thickest skin layer, composed entirely of live cells and is called the “true skin”

A

Dermis (Corium)

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62
Q

Which type of tissue lies beneath the dermis and above a layer of muscle?

A

Subcutaneous Tissue

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63
Q

What are some of the effects of aging on the Integumentary system?

A

Nails/toenails become thick and brittle, age spots/liver spots, skin more prone to tearing, prone to heatstroke/ chilling, skin becomes transparent and less elastic

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64
Q

Most injections are given within which layer of the skin?

A

Dermis

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65
Q

Which gland lies close to the hair follicle, into which they usually drain?

A

Sebaceous Gland (Oil glands)

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66
Q

The name for the oily secretion from the sebaceous gland.

A

Sebum

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67
Q

Which gland is located in the dermis and is composed of 2 types (eccrine and apocrine)

A

Sudoriferous Glands (Sweat Glands)

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68
Q

This type of sweat gland is active during puberty, and secretes a thick, oily, milky sweat into hair follicles. Mainly located in the pubic region, axillae, areolae of the breasts, external ear canal and eyelids.

A

Apocrine Glands

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69
Q

This type of sweat gland is located on the upper lip, forehead, back, palms and soles. They empty into ducts that empty into pores.

A

Eccrine Glands

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70
Q

Another term for excessive perspiration?

A

Diaphoresis

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71
Q

The term used for earwax?

A

Cerumen

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72
Q

These glands secrete cerumen and are found only in the skin of the external auditory meatus?

A

Ceruminous Glands

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73
Q

The transfer of heat from one object to another by direct contact?

A

Conduction

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74
Q

Heat is transferred and given off from the skin to the air?

A

Convection

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75
Q

CARCIN-

A

Cancer

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76
Q

CARDI-

A

Heart

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77
Q

CEPHAL- or CEPHALO-

A

Head

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78
Q

CHEIL-

A

Lip

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79
Q

CHOLE-

A

Bile

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80
Q

CHONDR-

A

Cartilage

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81
Q

CIRCUM-

A

Around

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82
Q

CLEID-

A

Clavicle

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83
Q

COLP-

A

Vagina

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84
Q

CONTRA-

A

Against

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85
Q

COST-

A

Rib

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86
Q

COUNTER-

A

Against

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87
Q

What is the returning of water into the air through vapor, which causes cooling?

A

Evaporation

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88
Q

People and animals give off heat rays through?

A

Radiation

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89
Q

A skin condition in which the melanocytes stop making melanin, causing distinct, localized areas of white on the skin?

A

Vitiligo

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90
Q

The major connective tissue found in the dermis?

A

Collagen

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91
Q

All that is left of skin cells after desquamation is a fibrous protein called? it carries a waterproof barrier and is the body’s true protector.

A

Keratin

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92
Q

Stimulated by cold or fear, these involuntary muscles contract, making the hairs stand erect?

A

arrector pilli

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93
Q

What is the automatic reflex that causes goosebumps to appear on the skin?

A

pilomotor reflex

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94
Q

What is the name for the body relaying information to the appropriate organ or system?

A

Feedback

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95
Q

The continual movement of fluids throughout the body allow the body to maintain _______? Ex: balancing fluids, electrolytes, acids and bases.

A

homeostasis

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96
Q

__________ _________ occurs when the body reverses and original stimulus to regain homeostasis?

A

Negative Feedback

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97
Q

__________ ___________ occurs when the body inhances or intensifies an original stimulus. Ex: Labor

A

Positive Feedback

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98
Q

This fluid compartment (Found WITHIN the cell) is 1/2-2/3 total body fluid of an adult

A

Intracellular Fluid (ICF)

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99
Q

What are the 2 major systems involved in feedback?

A

Nervous and Endocrine Systems

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100
Q

What is the name of the fluid found between cells and accounts for about 15% of body weight?

A

Interstitial Fluid

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101
Q

What are the major ions in ICF?

A

Potassium, Magnesium and Phosphate (in addition to proteins)

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102
Q

The fluid that is NOT contained within the cell. ( The body cannot maintain BP without it). Transports materials to and from the cell.

A

Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

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103
Q

_______ is the excess accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces.

A

Edema

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104
Q

__________ _________, refers to the abnormal movement of fluid into the spaces between cells.

A

Third-Spacing

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105
Q

Another name for severe generalized total body edema?

A

Anasarca

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106
Q

Another name for edema in the peritoneal cavity, generally associated with liver damage?

A

Ascites

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107
Q

Another name for a liquid that dissolves substances?

A

Solvent

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108
Q

The substance being dissolved in a solvent is called?

A

Solute

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109
Q

What 3 chemical substances are components of body fluid?

A

Electrolytes, Acids and Bases

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110
Q

What substances release hydrogen into fluid?

A

Acids

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111
Q

What substances bind with hydrogen?

A

Bases

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112
Q

What type of fluid imbalance is most common in older adults?

A

Dehydration

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113
Q

The average fluid intake of an adult should be ___ml/day.

A

2500

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114
Q

What is the normal sodium level?

A

135-145

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115
Q

What is the normal potassium level?

A

3.5-5.0

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116
Q

What is the normal calcium level?

A

4.3-5.3

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117
Q

What is the normal magnesium level?

A

1.5-1.9

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118
Q

A low pH and high CO2 indicate _______ _______

A

respiratory acidosis

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119
Q

What is the normal pH range?

A

7.35-7.45

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120
Q

What is the normal range of PaCO2?

A

35-45

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121
Q

HCO3 (bicarb) normal range?

A

22-26

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122
Q

pH <7.35 is considered?

A

acidotic

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123
Q

pH >7.45 is considered?

A

alkalotic

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124
Q

pH 7.3, PaCO2 68, HCO3 26

A

respiratory acidosis

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125
Q

pH 7.6, PaCO2 31, HCO3 25

A

respiratory alkalosis

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126
Q

pH 7.5, PaCo2 40, HCO3 34

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

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127
Q

pH 7.10, PaCO2 70, HCO3 24

A

respiratory acidosis

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128
Q

pH 7.57, PaCo2 37, HCO3 30

A

metabolic alkalosis

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129
Q

Normal chloride level?

A

95-108

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130
Q

What major ion is responsible for normal function of neurons and muscle cells?

A

(K) Potassium

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131
Q

Major ion of ECF that assists with normal functioning of neurons and muscle cells

A

Na (Sodium)

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132
Q

Diet options high in potassium?

A

Vegetables, Nuts and Dried fruit

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133
Q

Moves from hypotonic to hypertonic solution

A

Osmosis

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134
Q

The transport of water and materials through a membrane from high-low pressure?

A

Filtration

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135
Q

What interventions for an older adult at high risk of Fluid and Electrolyte imbalance?

A

increase food and fluid intake, monitor Na level, encourage exercise, monitor BP

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136
Q

What assists in regulation of the bodys pH

A

kidneys, cellular activities, buffer systems and lungs

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137
Q

-ECTASIS

A

Dilation

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138
Q

-ECTOMY

A

Excision

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139
Q

-EMIA

A

Blood

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140
Q

-ESTHESIA

A

Relating to sensation

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141
Q

-FERENT

A

Bear, Carry

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142
Q

DACRY-

A

Lacrimal Gland

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143
Q

DERM or DERMAT-

A

Skin

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144
Q

DI-

A

Two

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145
Q

DIS-

A

Apart

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146
Q

DYS-

A

Pain or Difficulty

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147
Q

ECTO-

A

Outside

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148
Q

EM- or EN-

A

In

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149
Q

ENCEPHAL-

A

Brain

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150
Q

END-

A

Within

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151
Q

ENTERO-

A

Intestine

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152
Q

EPI-

A

Above or on

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153
Q

ERYTHRO-

A

Red

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154
Q

EU-

A

Well

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155
Q

EX- or E-

A

Out

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156
Q

EXO-

A

Outside

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157
Q

EXTRA-

A

Outside

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158
Q

Bones that offer support and strength for the body, have and elongated shape and length > width.

A

Long bones

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159
Q

the shaft of the long bone

A

diaphysis

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160
Q

the end of the long bone

A

epiphysis

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161
Q

What is the hole through which blood vessels, ligaments and nerves pass is called?

A

foramen

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162
Q

What is the spongelike air space in a bone called?

A

sinus

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163
Q

Another term for fixed joints?

A

synarthroses

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164
Q

Strong fibrous bands that hold bones together

A

ligaments

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165
Q

The term that indicates muscle wasting

A

Atrophy

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166
Q

What is the only moveable facial bone?

A

mandible

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167
Q

Which bones are cube shaped?

A

Short

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168
Q

Which bones are similar to long bones but irregular in shape?

A

Irregular

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169
Q

_______ bone marrow is responsible for manufacturing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets?

A

Red

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170
Q

Thin, hard, fibrous, dense connective tissue that covers the outside of most bones?

A

periosteum

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171
Q

Spine (spina)

A

sharp process

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172
Q

The point at which bones join or attach to each other are called joints or __________

A

articulations

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173
Q

Ex of synarthroses (fixed joint)

A

Cranial Suture

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174
Q

What type of joint are the elbow, knee, finger, and toe?

A

hinge

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175
Q

What type of joint are the hip and shoulder?

A

ball and socket

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176
Q

What type of joint is the wrist?

A

Condyloid

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177
Q

Which bones are part of the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, Vertebral Column and Rib Cage

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178
Q

What are the parts of the appendicular skeleton?

A

the bones of appendages and extremities, and pelvic girdle

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179
Q

A joint that moves only in one plane?

A

ginglymus joint

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180
Q

The lumbar vertebrae are located?

A

the small of the back

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181
Q

The cervical vertebrae are located?

A

in the neck

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182
Q

Where are the sacral vertebrae?

A

Pelvis

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183
Q

Where are the thoracic vertebrae located?

A

Chest

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184
Q

___________, also known as humpback and is more common in women

A

Kyphosis

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185
Q

__________ _________ allow for brain and skull growth, made of membranous material initially and allows the head to fit the shape of the birth canal

A

newborn frontanels

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186
Q

Smooth muscles control?

A

involuntary motion inside body organs and structures

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187
Q

Skeletal muscles control?

A

Locomotion, facial expression and posture

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188
Q

Cardiac muscle is?

A

Involuntary and propels blood to the heart

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189
Q

The ability to shorten and become thicker?

A

Contractility

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190
Q

The ability to stretch is aka?

A

Extensibility

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191
Q

The ability to return to normal length after stretching?

A

Elasticity

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192
Q

(Nerve Impulse) ability to respond to stimulus

A

Irritability

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193
Q

_________ _________ increase muscle tension

A

Isometric Exercises

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194
Q

What type of exercise involves a long period of less than maximum exertion?

A

Aerobic

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195
Q

Digestion, Elimination, Respirations and cardiac maintenance are examples of ?

A

involuntary function of muscles

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196
Q

Maintaining the body in an upright position is what type of function of the muscles?

A

Voluntary

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197
Q

Which vitamin minimizes risk of Osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D

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198
Q

Most of the heat in the body is manufactured by?

A

Oxygen and cell muscle activity of ATP

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199
Q

Ends of muscle fascia that lenghthen into tough cords called?

A

Tendons

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200
Q

What is responsible for connecting skeletal parts and supporting internal organs?

A

Ligaments

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201
Q

Which ligament connects the rectus abdominous to the pubic bone?

A

Henle

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202
Q

What ligament connects the diaphragm with the lowest ribs and first lumbar vertebrae?

A

Arcuate

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203
Q

Which frontanel of a newborn is diamond shaped?

A

Anterior

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204
Q

Which frontanel of a newborn is triangle in shape?

A

Posterior

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205
Q

Normal affect of aging on the skeletal system?

A

shortening of the vertebral column

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206
Q

__________ is the formation of bone as a result of an increase in calcification

A

Ossification

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207
Q

A soft and flexible type of connective tissue, organized into a system of fibers?

A

Cartilage

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208
Q

The spinal column ends in a single bone in adults called?

A

Coccyx

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209
Q

Another term for a mature bone cell?

A

Osteocyte

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210
Q

Another term for bone building cells?

A

Osteoblasts

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211
Q

This type of contraction shorten and thicken the muscle causing movement?

A

Isotonic

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212
Q

These types of contractions do not increase the length of a muscle, but do increase muscle tension?

A

Isometric

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213
Q

-GENIC

A

Producing

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214
Q

-IATRICS

A

Pertaining to physician or the practice of healing

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215
Q

-ITIS

A

Inflammation

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216
Q

-LOGY

A

Science of

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217
Q

-LYSIS

A

Losing, flowing. dissolution

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218
Q

-MALACIA

A

Softening

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219
Q

-OMA

A

Tumor

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220
Q

-OSIS (-ASIS)

A

Being affected with

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221
Q

-(O)STOMY

A

Creation of an opening

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222
Q

-PATHY

A

Disease

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223
Q

-PENIA

A

Decrease of deficiency of

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224
Q

-PEXY

A

To Fix

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225
Q

FEBRI-

A

Fever

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226
Q

GALACTO-

A

Milk

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227
Q

GASTR-

A

Stomach

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228
Q

GLOSS-

A

Tongue

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229
Q

GLYCO-

A

Sugar

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230
Q

GYNEC-

A

Women

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231
Q

HEM- or HEMAT-

A

Blood

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232
Q

HEMI-

A

Half

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233
Q

HEPAT-

A

Liver

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234
Q

HETERO-

A

Other

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235
Q

HIST-

A

Tissue

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236
Q

HOMO-

A

Same

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237
Q

HYDR-

A

Water

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238
Q

HYPER-

A

Above; Excess of

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239
Q

HYPO-

A

Under; deficiency of

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240
Q

HYSTER-

A

Uterus

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241
Q

IDIO-

A

Self or seperate

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242
Q

The term used for the study of the nervous system?

A

Neurology

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243
Q

The medulla, pons and midbrain make up the _________?

A

Brainstem

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244
Q

The __________ contains nerve tracts and carries messages between the cerebrum and the medulla?

A

Pons

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245
Q

Which part of the brain controls vital body functions such as heart rate and vasomotor tone?

A

Medulla

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246
Q

What is the inner layer that lies closely over the brain and spinal cord?

A

Pia Mater

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247
Q

Which layer lies closely over the brain and spinal cord, brings nutrients to nervous tissue, and is very vascular?

A

Pia Mater

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248
Q

Which layer is tough, fibrous covering that adheres to the bones of the skull?

A

Dura Mater

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249
Q

Which cranial nerve controls swallowing?

A

IX

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250
Q

Which cranial nerve is associated with somatic motor function?

A

X

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251
Q

Which cranial nerve involves rotation of the head?

A

XI

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252
Q

Which cranial nerve assesses movement of the tongue?

A

XII

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253
Q

What happens in the “fight or flight” SNS response?

A

Elevated HR, Elevated RR, response to emotion/physical threats

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254
Q

During this response the body returns to a baseline after a stressful situation and maintains normal body functions?

A

Parasympathetic Response

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255
Q

The sympathetic nerve function can be assessed by?

A

Pupil Dialation

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256
Q

Cranial nerve V can be assessed by?

A

Clenching the jaw

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257
Q

What response is produced by the sympathetic division of ANS?

A

Involuntary defecation/urination

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258
Q

The ________ system is responsible for learning, long term memory, sleep and wakefulness

A

Limbic system

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259
Q

Functions of the cerebellum?

A

Coordination, equilibrium, movement and muscle tone

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260
Q

Effects of aging on the nervous system?

A

loss of equilibrium, true dementia and temporary paralysis

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261
Q

What is the second largest part of the brain responsible for movement and coordination?

A

Cerebellum

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262
Q

What conducts messages within the neurologic system?

263
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in ?

A

Subarachnoid space

264
Q

The brain and spinal cord are in the ________ system

265
Q

The _____ system consists of bundles of neurons connecting the brain and spinal cord?

266
Q

A term for an automatic response to stimuli?

267
Q

Function of cranial nerve III?

A

Eye movement

268
Q

Function of cranial nerve I?

269
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

270
Q

Function of cranial nerve V?

A

Facial movement

271
Q

The reflex of respiration occurs in ?

A

medulla and pons

272
Q

What is the main function of cranial nerve VIII?

273
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve XI?

A

Rotation of head/ raising of the shoulder

274
Q

T/F the nerve tract that crosses at the medulla causing right side of the brain to control the left side of the body?

275
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve XII?

A

Movement of the tongue

276
Q

T/F cranial nerve VII is responsible for taste and facial expressions?

277
Q

What is aphasia?

A

trouble speaking

278
Q

If a clear fluid is leaking from a clients nose after head trauma the nurse should?

A

check the fluid for glucose

279
Q

The nurse should monitor what following an injury to the medulla?

A

Respiratory status

280
Q

damage to the Wernicke are of the brain impairs?

A

ability to understand written/spoken language but client is still able to speak

281
Q

Damage to the Broca’s area of the brain impairs?

A

causes speech impairment but does not affect comprehension

282
Q

Complications of increased ICP?

A

herniation of the brain, brain hypoxia, brain compression.

283
Q

An exstension that carries impulses away from the neuron cell body?

284
Q

Short, highly branched extensions of the cell body?

285
Q

A junction or space between the neuron and dendrite?

286
Q

Chemical released by the axon that enables the nerve impulses to cross the synapse and reach the dendrites?

A

neurotransmitter

287
Q

________ neurons recieve and transmit messages from CNS from all parts of the body, have long dendrites and short axons, messages include blood pH, touch, sound, and pressure and light.

288
Q

_________ neurons have short dendrites and long axons, receive and transmit messages from CNS to muscles and glands and send signals to glands to secrete after muscle activity

289
Q

The temporal lobe is responsible for?

A

smell, hearing and memory

290
Q

The frontal lobe is responsible for?

A

higher mental processes

291
Q

The parietal lobe is responsible for?

A

Speech and sensory input

292
Q

Which lobe is responsible for vision?

293
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for muscle control?

A

Cerebellum

294
Q

_________ regulates body functions such as temp, thirst, urination, swallowing, sleep/wake cycle?

A

Hypothalamus

295
Q

__________ functions in learning and long term memory?

A

hipposcampus

296
Q

Which is largely responsible for maintaining a person’s level of awareness?

A

limbic system

297
Q

__________ plays a role in allowing sensory input to enter the cerebral cortex?

A

recticular formation

298
Q

What is the fatty covering surrounding an axon?

A

Myelin sheath

299
Q

Which neurons usually have long dendrites and short axons?

A

afferent and sensory

300
Q

Composes 80% of the brains volume, coordinates sensory data, motor functioning, governs intelligence, reasoning, learning and memory

301
Q

This lobe contains the areas for written and motor speech?

302
Q

This lobe is responsible for higher levels of mental functioning, judgement and reasoning?

303
Q

This lobe is where sensations are preceived from the skin, ability to recognize shapes/sizes?

304
Q

This lobe receives and interprets auditory signals, processes language, controls hearing and smell?

305
Q

This lobe is where memories are stored?

306
Q

This lobe is where visual transmissions and interpretations occur?

307
Q

A term for crossing of nerve tracts within the brains medulla?

A

Decussation

308
Q

__________ is located in the posterior area of the forebrain?

309
Q

-PHAGIA

310
Q

-PHASIA

311
Q

-PHOBIA

312
Q

-PLASTY

313
Q

-PNEA

A

Air or breathing

314
Q

-POIESIS

A

Making; forming

315
Q

-PTOSIS

316
Q

-RHYTHMIA

317
Q

-RRHAGIA

A

Flowing or bursting forth

318
Q

-RRHAPHY

319
Q

-RRHEA

320
Q

-STHEN

A

Pertaining to strength

321
Q

-TAXIA OR -TAXIS

322
Q

-TROPHEA or -TROPHY

A

Nourishment

323
Q

-URIA

A

To do with urine

324
Q

Which system consists of cranial nerves, spinal nerves and the autonomic nervous system

325
Q

The brain and spinal cord are covered by 3 protective membranes called the _______

326
Q

Which glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream?

327
Q

Which glands secrete hormones into ducts?

328
Q

What is the hormonal function of the placenta?

A

Pregnancy maintained to term

329
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Secretes many hormones that control the release of hormones by the pituitary gland

330
Q

What secretes hormones that are transported to target tissues through the circulatory system and directly into the bloodstream?

A

Endocrine Glands

331
Q

What regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the blood?

A

Parathyroid

332
Q

Which one secretes hormones that mimic the action of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

adrenal medulla

333
Q

What is the function of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Control of bone and tissue growth

334
Q

What is the action of the middle lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

increases skin and hair pigmentation

335
Q

What is the action of the posterior lobe of the pituitary?

A

Raises BP and promotes water reabsorption in kidney tubules

336
Q

What is the role of the thyroid gland?

A

Controls body’s rate of metabolism and affects calcium storage

337
Q

What is the action of the parathyroid gland?

A

Activates Vitamin D and regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the blood

338
Q

What part inhibits or promotes release of hormones from the anterior lobe of pituitary gland?

A

hypothalamus

339
Q

Which hormone secreted by adrenal medulla mimics the action of the sympathetic nervous system?q

A

catecholamines

340
Q

Which gland releases melanin?

A

Pineal Gland

341
Q

Which gland releases glycoproteins?

A

Pituitary gland

342
Q

Which gland releases calcitonin?

343
Q

What is the role of glucocorticoids?

A

decrease inflammatory responses, influence systhesis of glucose, depresses immune response and influences synthesis of amino acids and fats

344
Q

How does the body regulate glucose?

A

insulin lowers blood glucose, glucagon raises blood glucose, and the pancreas is responsible

345
Q

What are the functions of the endocrine organ?

A

influence cellular immunity and stimulate production of T cells

346
Q

What influences cellular immunity by stimulating the production of T cells?

347
Q

Which hormone stimulates the growth and secretion of ovarian follicles in women and sperm in men?

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

348
Q

Which hormone stimulates ovulation in women?

A

Lutenizing Hormone

349
Q

What do prostaglandins do?

A

Digestion, reproduction, BP and respirations

350
Q

What occurs in negative feedback?

A

ceased hormone production, inhibited glandular response and achieve the desired hormone level

351
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

Intensifies uterine contractions and enables the uterus to expel the fetus

352
Q

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating milk production in women following pregnancy?

353
Q

What is the key regulator of carbohydrates, proteins and fat metabolism?

354
Q

Which hormone influences the sleep/wake cycle?

355
Q

Which hormone stimulates peripheral stem cells in bone marrow to produce red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

356
Q

Which hormone is produced after eating that causes the stomach to produce more acid?

357
Q

What controls the rate of nutrient absorption into the blood stream?

A

Somatostatin

358
Q

What inhibits the release of insulin?

A

Somatostatin

359
Q

What stimulates the breakdown of fats and proteins?

360
Q

Which electrolyte deficiency would you identify with a goiter?

361
Q

Clients taking glucocorticoids take longer to heal and may have decreased response to infection? T/F

362
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the production of eggs?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

363
Q

What is the function of vasopressin?

A

Blood vessel contractions

364
Q

Which hormone stimulates growth in all body tissues?

A

Growth Hormone

365
Q

IM- or IN-

366
Q

INFRA-

367
Q

INTER-

368
Q

INTRA-

369
Q

KERAT-

370
Q

LACT-

371
Q

LEUK-

372
Q

MACRO-

373
Q

MAST-

374
Q

MEG- or MEGAL-

375
Q

MENT-

376
Q

MER-

377
Q

MESA-

378
Q

META-

A

Beyond, over, change, metastasis

379
Q

MICRO-

380
Q

MY-

381
Q

MYC-

382
Q

NECRO-

383
Q

NEO-

384
Q

NEPH-

385
Q

NEURO-

386
Q

ODONT-

387
Q

OLIG-

388
Q

OO-

389
Q

OOPHOR-

390
Q

OPHTHALM-

391
Q

ORTHO-

392
Q

OSS-

393
Q

OSTE-

394
Q

OT-

395
Q

OVAR-

396
Q

PARA-

397
Q

PATH-

398
Q

PED-

A

Children; Feet

399
Q

PER-

400
Q

PERI-

401
Q

What glands keep the eyes surface lubricated?

A

Lacrimal glands

402
Q

Which cranial nerve carries visual images to the brain?

A

Cranial nerve II

403
Q

Which cranial nerve carries sensations of eye pain?

A

Cranial nerve V

404
Q

Which cranial nerve controls voluntary eye movement?

A

Cranial nerve IV

405
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle?

406
Q

What part of the ear contains the Organ of Corti?

407
Q

Which part of the ear transmits sound waves?

408
Q

Which part of the ear is primarily concerned with balance?

A

Semicircular Canals

409
Q

Where are the lacrimal glands located?

A

Outer corner of the eye

410
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal glands?

A

Moisten and lubricate surface of the eye

411
Q

What is the cornea?

A

influences visual acuity by refracting light rays

412
Q

What is the function of the choroid?

A

brings o2 and nutrients to all layers of the eye

413
Q

What maintains intraocular pressure?

A

Aqueous Humor

414
Q

What part of the eye allows light to enter?

415
Q

What gives the eye it’s specific color?

416
Q

What controls the lens of the eye?

A

ciliary muscles

417
Q

What is the major role of the lens in the eye?

A

Focusing light rays on the retina

418
Q

T/F loss of vitreous humor causes blindness

419
Q

What is the function of the retina in the eye?

A

Permits color, dark and light vision

420
Q

What is the auricle in the ear?

A

guides sound waves into its small opening into the auditory canal

421
Q

What are the 3 bones of the ear called that protect the ear from injury?

422
Q

Another term for farsightedness?

423
Q

Another term for nearsightedness?

424
Q

Feeling dizzy, sometimes ill, or a sense of being rotated is known as _______?

425
Q

What is olfaction?

426
Q

What is vitreous humor?

A

loss of it can lead to blindness, maintains eyeball shape and contributes to interocular pressure

427
Q

What is aqueous humor?

A

provides nutrients and o2 to avascular lens and cornea

428
Q

What is the function of the Trigeminal nerve?

A

Carries sensations of eye pain

429
Q

What is the thin, transparent mucous membrane of the eye?

A

Conjunctiva

430
Q

Irregularities in the curvature of the cornea and lens of the eye is called ____________?

A

Astigmatism

431
Q

Another name for the sense of taste?

432
Q

________ located in the taste buds, detect chemicals in solution in the mouth?

A

Chemoreceptors

433
Q

Which cranial nerves carry the sensation of taste?

A

Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) and cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

434
Q

Tactile refers to the sense of _______?

435
Q

What flavors can taste buds detect?

A

Sweet, Salty, Sour, bitter, and (Umami) Savory

436
Q

PHIL-

437
Q

PHLEB-

438
Q

PHOB-

439
Q

PNEUM- or PNEUMON-

440
Q

POLIO-

441
Q

POLY-

442
Q

POST-

443
Q

PRE-

444
Q

PRO-

445
Q

PROCT-

446
Q

PSEUDO-

447
Q

PSYCH-

A

Soul or MInd

448
Q

PY-

449
Q

PYEL-

450
Q

RACH-

451
Q

REN-

452
Q

RETRO-

453
Q

RHIN-

454
Q

SALPING-

455
Q

SEMI-

456
Q

SEPTIC-

457
Q

SOMAT-

458
Q

STA-

A

Make stand

459
Q

Arteries carry oxygenated blood _______ from the heart

460
Q

The thin, outer layer of the heart is known as the __________?

A

Epicardium

461
Q

What heart valve lies between the right atrium and right ventricle?

462
Q

What valve lies between the left atrium and left ventricle?

A

Mitral (Bicuspid)

463
Q

Which ventricle sends blood to the entire body?

A

Left ventricle

464
Q

What carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?

465
Q

What is the largest artery?

466
Q

What returns blood to the heart from the head?

A

Superior Vena Cava

467
Q

What divides the heart into right and left sides?

468
Q

Why would someone need and electrical pacemaker?

A

Pacemaker cells in SA node decrease`

469
Q

The volume of blood ejected with each heartbeat depends on ___________?

A

Preload/ Afterload

470
Q

What stimulates the heart to beat?

A

Conduction system of electrical impulses

471
Q

How much blood do the systemic veins/venules house?

A

Approximately 60%

472
Q

Thick strong muscles that make up the middle layer of the heart are called _________?

A

Myocardium

473
Q

The membrane lining the hearts interior wall is called ______?

A

Endocardium

474
Q

The outermost layer that anchors the heart is called ___________?

A

Pericardium

475
Q

The outermost layer of cardiac vessels composed of connective tissue and nerve cells is called ________?

A

Tunica Adventitia

476
Q

The layer of cardiac vessels that contains the thickest elastic fibers, connective tissue composed of polysaccharides is called ___________?

A

Tunica Media

477
Q

The layer that protects the outside of the vessel?

A

Tunica Adventitia

478
Q

The layer of cardiac vessels that is the thinnest, single layer of simple squamous endothelium is called ________?

A

Tunica Intima

479
Q

There are ______ upper chambers that ________ blood in the heart.

A

2, receive

480
Q

There are ____ lower chambers that _______ blood in the heart.

481
Q

The _________ ventricle is the thickest and pumps blood to the rest of the body?

A

Left ventricle

482
Q

What is the function of the cardiac valves?

A

Keeps blood flowing in one direction

483
Q

________ are the principal arteries that supply the heart muscle with blood?

A

Left and Right coronary arteries

484
Q

What is the only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary arteries

485
Q

The SA node is also referred to as the _______?

A

Normal pacemaker of the heart

486
Q

The first normal heart sound (S1) is called the LUB, it is produced by the ________?

A

closure of AV valves when the ventricles contract

487
Q

The second normal heart sound (S2) or DUB is produced by ___________?

A

The closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves when ventricles relax

488
Q

Normal Cardiac output?

A

4-6L; blood pumped by the ventricle in one minute

489
Q

What is Blood Pressure?

A

The force exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vessels

490
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

The force of ventricles when they relax

491
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

The force of ventricles when they contract

492
Q

What are the special receptors in blood vessel walls that help maintain BP within normal limits?

A

baroreceptors

493
Q

What is the path of blood flow through the heart?

A

Superior Vena Cava/Inferior Vena Cava–Right Atrium–Tricuspid Valve–Right Ventricle–Pulmonary Valve–Pulmonary Arteries–Pulmonary Veins–Left Atrium–Mitral Valve–Left Ventricle–Aortic valve–Aorta

494
Q

STEN-

495
Q

SUB-

496
Q

SUPER-

497
Q

SUPRA-

498
Q

SYM- or SYN-

A

With, together

499
Q

TACHY-

500
Q

TENS-

501
Q

THERM-

502
Q

TOX- or TOXIC-

503
Q

TRACHE-

504
Q

TRANS-

505
Q

TRI-

506
Q

TRICH-

507
Q

UNI-

508
Q

VAS-

509
Q

ZOO-

510
Q

Which system transports dietary fat?

511
Q

What are the functions of the hematologic system?

A

Protection, Transportation and Regulation

512
Q

What term refers to the production, multiplication, maturation, specialization of blood cells in the bone marrow?

A

hematopoeisis

513
Q

What are the functions of albumin?

A

maintains BP and blood thickness, fluid volume

514
Q

Erythropoeitin is secreted by the _______?

515
Q

What is the most numerous blood cell?

A

Erythrocytes

516
Q

What carries o2 to all body cells?

A

hemoglobin

517
Q

T/F men have higher RBCs than women?

518
Q

T/F people living in higher altitudes have more RBCs because each RBC carries less O2

519
Q

What are the functions of WBCs?

A

Defends against infection

520
Q

Increased bands indicate?

A

Infection shift to the left

521
Q

When are basophils involved?

A

allergic and inflammatory responses

522
Q

What is the term for engulfing of particulate matter?

A

Phagocytosis

523
Q

What are symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Vasodilation, edema, bronchial constriction and itching

524
Q

Where is Vitamin K produced in the body?

525
Q

What blood type is a universal recipient?

526
Q

What blood type is a universal donor?

527
Q

The Lymphatic organs include?

A

Thymus, spleen and tonsils

528
Q

Internal carotids connects with the _________ in the brain?

A

Circle of Willis

529
Q

Which lymph gland produces T cells?

530
Q

Which circulation measure only allows specific substances into the brain?

A

Blood Brain Barrier

531
Q

Which circulation begins and ends with capillaries?

A

Hepatic Portal

532
Q

Normal Hgb for a female?

533
Q

Normal Hgb for males?

534
Q

The average adult body contains how much blood?

535
Q

Plasma contains__________, __________, _________?

A

Albumin, globulins and electrolytes

536
Q

Whats another term for platelets?

A

thrombocytes

537
Q

What does RBC count mean?

A

of RBC per volume of blood

538
Q

White blood cells function?

A

Defend the body against disease organisms, toxins, irritants, foreign materials

539
Q

What part of blood provides thickness to circulating blood, maintains osmotic pressure and BP?

540
Q

What term describes the body’s ability to recognize and destroy specific pathogens and prevents infection?

541
Q

What WBCs are granular?

A

Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

542
Q

What WBCs are agranular?

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

543
Q

What are the “cornerstones” or the immune system that has the ability to recognize foreign in the body?

A

Lymphocytes

544
Q

Which lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

545
Q

What type of immunity engulfs and destroys antigens after antibodies identify them for destruction?

546
Q

What type of immunity protects the body against antigens and disease by bacteria?

547
Q

What is the substance or molecule entering the body that stimulates an immune response?

548
Q

When are antibodies produced?

A

in response to an antigen

549
Q

Which immunoglobulin is produced on initial exposure to antigen and stimulates complement activity?

550
Q

Which immunoglobulin is transferred across the placenta and protects the fetus?

551
Q

Which immunoglobulin is important against invasion of microbes via the nose, eyes, lungs and intestines?

552
Q

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for immediate type allergic reactions such as latex allergies?

553
Q

Which immunoglobulin functions as an antigen receptor?

554
Q

What are the functions of immunoglobulins?

A

imprisons invader cells, facilitates phagocytosis, disables bacteria and complement action

555
Q

T/F a child with spina bifida is at an increased risk of latex allergies?

556
Q

Which immunity is the antigen rendered harmless?

A

Cell mediated

557
Q

Immature stem cells in the bone marrow migrate to the ______ to become T cells?

558
Q

Which is considered a central or primary lymphoid organ?

559
Q

Nonspecific defense mechanisms of the immune system?

A

Skin, tear, hydrochloric acid, and vomiting/defication/urination

560
Q

Immunity can be ___________ or ________

A

Acquired or Inborn

561
Q

What type of immunity results from measles or chicken pox?

A

Naturally Acquired Active

562
Q

What type of immunity occurs between mothers and infants?

A

Naturally Acquired Passive

563
Q

What type of immunity occurs as a result of a live vaccine?

A

Artificially Acquired Active

564
Q

What type of immunity occurs as a result of injection of ready made antibodies into a person’s system? (ex: rabies)

A

Artificially Acquired Passive

565
Q

What are the functions of the respiratory system?

A

O2 and Co2 exchange, protection, speech production and acid base balance

566
Q

What are cilia?

A

tiny hairlike projections on membranes to filter foreign particles

567
Q

___________ drain directly into the nasal cavity, give resonance to voice and lighten the skull.

568
Q

What is the passageway for air and food?

569
Q

What is another name for the throat?

A

oropharynx

570
Q

What is the purpose of the epiglottis?

A

guards the entrance to the larynx

571
Q

T/F adenoids atrophy as you age

572
Q

What is another name for the windpipe?

573
Q

In the event of a blocked airway a _________ may be needed. It is an opening from the outside into the trachea?

A

tracheotomoy

574
Q

What are the basic structural units where gas exchange occurs?

575
Q

Which lung has 3 lobes?

576
Q

Which lung has 2 lobes?

577
Q

What is the area between the lungs called?

A

mediastinum

578
Q

What is eupnea?

A

normal breathing

579
Q

Where is the respiratory center located?

580
Q

What muscles assist with respiration?

A

diaphragm, trapezium, pectorals, intercoastal, mastoid and abdominus rectus

581
Q

What is a major regulator of respiration?

A

Carbon dioxide

582
Q

The exchange of o2 for co2 within the alveoli of the lungs is called?

A

External Respiration

583
Q

What happens to the diaphragm on exhalation?

A

Rises and relaxes

584
Q

When co2 builds up it causes a condition known as ______?

A

Respiratory Acidosis

585
Q

How does blood go to the lungs to get oxygen?

A

Pulmonary Artery

586
Q

Which pluera lines the chest wall?

587
Q

Which bronchus are you more likely to aspirate in?

588
Q

What is apnea?

A

cessation of breathing

589
Q

Which tonsils are most commonly removed?

590
Q

_______ acts to break up surface tension in the pulmonary fluids.

A

Surfactant

591
Q

What is the passage way of air through the respiratory system?

A

Nose/Mouth–Pharynx–larynx–trachea–bronchi–bronchioles–alveoli

592
Q

T/F The GI tract is NOT sterile

593
Q

What is the purpose of saliva?

A

helps prevent oral infections, wets food to facilitate swallowing

594
Q

What is the purpose of molars in digestion?

A

help crush and grind food

595
Q

Where are the submandibular salivary glands located?

A

under the lower jaw

596
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A

Processing, manufacture, elimination, absorption and reabsorption

597
Q

What decreases taste and smell?

598
Q

What does rugae in the stomach do?

A

Allows the stomach to distend when food is eaten

599
Q

Which sphincter is between the stomach and small intestine?

600
Q

Which sphincter is between the esophagus and the stomach?

601
Q

How long does the stomach mix food?

602
Q

Most of the nutrient absorption occurs in the colon T/F

603
Q

What hormone activates the gallbladder?

A

cholecystokinin

604
Q

Secretion of bile, absorption of billirubin, stores fat soluable vitamins, detox blood, formation of vitamin A, and synthesis of clotting factors are all functions of which organ?

605
Q

The breakdown of molecules into smaller ones releasing energy is called _________?

A

Catabolism

606
Q

The synthesis of simpler substances into new organized substances is called ___________?

607
Q

Which is the body’s largest glandular organ?

608
Q

The appendix plays a large role in our body’s immunity? T/F

609
Q

What is the medical term for trouble swallowing?

610
Q

What is deglutition?

A

Swallowing

611
Q

What is emesis?

612
Q

Food that mixes with mucus and gastric acid to form a milky, semiliquid is called ________?

613
Q

The involuntary contraction and relaxation of muscles in the digestive tract that moves food and waste is called _________?

A

peristalsis

614
Q

The maintenance of homeostasis, manufacturing of renin and erythropoietin, elimination and processing of wastes are functions of what system?

615
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A

forms urine, extracts wastes from the body, balances body fluids

616
Q

What does retroperitoneal mean?

A

behind the peritoneum

617
Q

Where do blood vessels enter the kidneys?

618
Q

What are the functional units of kidneys called?

619
Q

The RAA mechanism is responsible for?

A

Regulation of BP

620
Q

What part of the kidney is responsible for maintaining BP?

621
Q

What part of the kidney is responsible for concentrating salts by reabsorbing water?

A

Loop of Henle

622
Q

Aldosterone responds to _______ and ________ in the urinary system?

A

High potassium and low sodium

623
Q

Which hormone is secreted by the heart that increases kidney filtration and blood flow when blood volume increases?

624
Q

What part of the urinary system stores urine?

625
Q

The womens urethra is _______ than that of males increasing the risk of UTIs

626
Q

Glomerular filtrate contains?

A

water, glucose, creatinine, urea and electrolytes

627
Q

What is tubular reabsorption?

A

urine to blood

628
Q

Tubular secretion moves substances from ______ to ______?

A

blood to urine

629
Q

What is the normal urine specific gravity?

A

1.01-1.025

630
Q

Low specific gravity indicates?

A

Overhydration and diluted urine

631
Q

High specific gravity indicates?

A

Dehydration and urine retention

632
Q

Abnormal products in urine?

A

blood, glucose, casts, ketones, pus, large amounts of bacteria, albumin and bile

633
Q

Involuntary micturition means?

A

incontinence

634
Q

What are the functional units of the testes?

A

Semineferous tubules

635
Q

Where do the sperm mature?

A

Epididymis

636
Q

The process of male sterilization includes?

A

does not effect male erection, 2 vas deferens are cut and prevents the sperm from passing

637
Q

T/F prostate tissure adds alkaline secretion to semen which decreases sperm motility?

638
Q

What is the major male androgen?

A

Testosterone

639
Q

What are the internal organs of the male reproductive system?

A

bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, testes, prostate and ducts

640
Q

What are the external structures of the male reproductive system?

A

Penis and scrotum

641
Q

Ejaculatory fluid contains?

A

semen, alkaline secretions and sperm

642
Q

T/F the ovaries continuously make ova throughout the women’s lifetime?

643
Q

What is an etopic pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy outside the uterus

644
Q

The mucus of the vagina is _______?

645
Q

What is the main hormone that influences female reproductive system?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone and the lutenizing hormone

646
Q

During which phase is the ovum released into the fallopian tube?

647
Q

During which phase does the ovum begin to mature?

A

Follicular

648
Q

During which phase does the lining of the uterus thicken to allow the fetus to be embeded?

649
Q

What are some effects of menopause?

A

weight gain, dry itchy skin and thinning hair

650
Q

What is the first period called?

651
Q

Female hormones are called?

652
Q

Monthly flow of blood from the uterus is called?

A

menstruation

653
Q

Fertilization of the ovum usually occurs in the?