PMK EE 3

Question 1

25. How many hours of extra duty per day is allowed by the Geneva Convention as punishment for escape attempts? (Page 22-19)

Answer 1

2

Question 2

26. What term identifies members of the military force and civilian personnel engaged in hostilities? (Page 22-20)

Answer 2

Lawful combatants

Question 3

1. Who issues the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations? (Section 1101.1)

Answer 3

CNO

Question 4

2. Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor’s environment: Which included what three factors? (Section 1101.2)

Answer 4

Physical, geographical, and technical

Question 5

3. Historically, what were women’s uniforms designed to duplicate? (Section 1101.2)

Answer 5

Civilian fashion trends

Question 6

4. Which type of headgear may be left on indoors? (Section 1 101.4.c)

Answer 6

Tiaras

Question 7

5. What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating fire room? (Section 1 101.5.a)

Answer 7

100% Polyester

Question 8

6. Which executive order delegated the authority to prescribe the quantity and kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel, to the Secretary of Defense? (Section 1101.6.a)

Answer 8

10113

Question 9

7. Which directive outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations? (Section 1101.6.b)

Answer 9

DOD Directive 1338.5

Question 10

8. Which manual is the authority for clothing allowance payments? (Section 1101.6.b)

Answer 10

Department of Defense Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual

Question 11

9. What type of cash allowance is provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful life of the articles? (Section 1101.6.c)

Answer 11

CRA
Clothing Replacement Allowance

Question 12

1. Who is responsible for ensuring uniform policy compliance as issued by the prescribing authority regarding liberty parties and members of the command operating ashore? (Section 1201.3)

Answer 12

SOPA
Senior Officer Present Afloat

Question 13

1. Which uniform may be worm during any season when traveling on leave, TAD or transfer? (Section 1301.1)

Answer 13

Service Dress Blues

Question 14

2. Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or situations when warranted by local conditions? (Section 1301.2)

Answer 14

Area coordinators

Question 15

3. What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform or civilian clothing requirements for their destination? (Section 1301.3)

Answer 15

DoD Foreign Clearance Guide

Question 16

4. Which publication should Navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required? (Section 1301.4)

Answer 16

USAF Foreign Clearance Guide

Question 17

5. Which uniform may not be worn when commuting to and from work? (Section 1301.5.a)

Answer 17

Navy Blue Coveralls

Question 18

6. What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard DOD owned/controlled aircraft referred to as? (Section 1301.5.a)

Answer 18

Commuting

Question 19

7. What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUS off base? (Section 1301.5.b. 1)

Answer 19

Alcohol

Question 20

8. Within the National Capital Region (NCR) the NWU is authorized for wear at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall area bounded by capitol hill and surrounding senate and house offices, the white house and executive office building, state department and all what? (Section 1301.5.b.1)

Answer 20

Monuments and memorials

Question 21

9. Which uniform is not authorized for wear during commercial travel (e.g. airlines, railways, or bus, etc.) but is authorized on commuter transportation (e.g. Metrorail, metro bus, commuter bus, VRE, ferries)? (Section 1301.5.b.2)

Answer 21

NWU

Question 22

10. Who must authorize tan flight suits to be worn in CONUS in hot weather environments? (Section 1301.5.c)

Answer 22

TYCOM

Question 23

1. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person in the naval service without permission from proper authority? (Section 1401.2.b)

Answer 23

Article 1161

Question 24

2. Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or Marine Corps uniforms? (Section 1401.3.a2)

Answer 24

771

Question 25

3. Which medal, if awarded, allows personnel to wear their uniform at any time except under specific circumstances? (Section 1401.3.3)

Answer 25

Medal of Honor

Question 26

4. The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and (Section 1401.4) members of duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing?

Answer 26

3.5

Question 27

5. What should the U.S. Flag never be used for? (Section 1401.5.c)

Answer 27

Advertising

Question 28

1. What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the prescribing authority directs otherwise? (Section 1501.1.a)

Answer 28

Basic uniform components

Question 29

2. Which type of uniform items may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform? (Section 1501.1.b)

Answer 29

Prescribable

Question 30

3. Which type of uniform items are purchased at the wearer’s expense which may be worn with the basic uniform but are not prescribable? (Section 1501.1.c)

Answer 30

Optional

Question 31

4. What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with exaggerated zeal? (Section 1501.1.f)

Answer 31

Faddish

Question 32

5. Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval uniforms? (Section 1501.3)

Answer 32

Chief of Naval Operations

Question 33

6. Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained for approval of the Chief of Naval Operations? (Section 1501.4.a)

Answer 33

Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command

Question 34

7. What is charged by the CNO to continually review all Navy uniform matters? (Section 1501.5)

Answer 34

Navy Uniform Board

Question 35

1. How many communication devices may be worn at the same time on uniforms which can only be worn on the belt of the working and service uniforms aft of the elbow? (Section 2101.3.1.b)

Answer 35

One

Question 36

2. Which type of uniform does not permit the wear of communication devices? (Section 2101.3.1.c)

Answer 36

Service dress

Question 37

3. Black, matching NWU Type I pattern, along with what else are the authorized backpack colors that may be wom with uniforms? (Section 2101.3.2.a)

Answer 37

Navy blue

Question 38

4. What situation prohibits personnel from wearing conservative sunglasses? (Section 2101.3.2.d.2)

Answer 38

Military formations

Question 39

5. What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia? (Section 2101.5.b)

Answer 39

Diluted ammonia

Question 40

1. Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what length to blend with hair-style for men? (Section 2101.l.a)

Answer 40

3/4 inch

Question 41

2. How many inches is the maximum length for Men’s hair? (Section 2101.1.a)

Answer 41

Four

Question 42

3. Approximately how many inches will the bulk of men’s hair not exceed? (Section 2101.1.a)

Answer 42

Two

Question 43

4. What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the scalp? (Section 2101.1.a)

Answer 43

Bulk

Question 44

5. What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past? (Section 2101.1.a)

Answer 44

Middle

Question 45

6. When a woman’s hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance? (Section 2101.1.b)

Answer 45

1/4 inch

Question 46

7. What is the maximum length that women’s hair may extend past the top of the jumper collar? (Section 2101.1.b)

Answer 46

1.5”

Question 47

8. What is the maximum length that the bulk of women’s hair as measured from the scalp can be? (Section 2101.1.b)

Answer 47

2“

Question 48

9. What is the maximum number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are similar to the members hair color that may be used in women’s hair? (Section 2101.1.b)

Answer 48

Two

Question 49

10. The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the Commanding Officer per what instruction? (Section 2101.2)

Answer 49

BUPERSINST 1000.22

Question 50

11. Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mouth? (Section 2101.2)

Answer 50

1/4 inch

Question 51

12. What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully extended can be? (Section 2101.2)

Answer 51

½ inch

Question 52

13. If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved, manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length? (Section 2102.2)

Answer 52

1/4 inch

Question 53

14. What form shall Female Service Members submit to their Commanding Officer to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup? (Section 2102.4.b.1)

Answer 53

NAVPERS 1336/3

Question 54

15. Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males? (Section 2102.5.a)

Answer 54

Fingertips

Question 55

16. What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that females can have? (Section 2102.5.a)

Answer 55

1/4 inch

Question 56

17. While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what fingers? (Section 2102.6.a)

Answer 56

Thumbs

Question 57

18. For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts? (Section 2102.6.2)

Answer 57

4mm - 6mm

Question 58

19. Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criteria that will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel? (Section 2102.7)

Answer 58

Cosmetic

Question 59

20. What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section 2102.8)

Answer 59

Mutilation

Question 60

21. Tattoos/body art/ brands/ mutilation/ dental ornamentation may be waived if they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline, and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service? (Section 2102.10)

Answer 60

January 24h, 2003

Question 61

22. For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in length? (Section 2102.11)

Answer 61

4

Question 62

1. DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must meet? (Section 3101.2)

Answer 62

DoD Instruction 1338.18

Question 63

2. Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform manufacturing? (Section 3101.3)

Answer 63

Chief of Naval Operations

Question 64

3. Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to ensure that they possess the required items? (Section 3101.4)

Answer 64

E1-E3

Question 65

4. Approximately how high should stencil letters be? (Section 3101.5)

Answer 65

3/8 inch

Question 66

5. What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be? (Section 3101.5)

Answer 66

3/4 inch

Question 67

6. Coveralls shall be embroidered in gold for officers and CPOS and what color for E6 and below? (Section 3101.5)

Answer 67

Silver

Question 68

7. Navy coveralls and NWU’s are required to have U.S. NAVY tape of what size, worn centered side to side over the wearer’s left breast pocket? (Section 3101.6)

Answer 68

1/4 inch

Question 69

8. Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person’s uniform? (Section 3101.7)

Answer 69

Commanding Officer

Question 70

1. On the Dinner Dress Blue Jacket, how many 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons are there down each side of the front, with a front closure held in by buttons placed inside each front facing secured with an elastic closure (older style)? (Section 3501.14)

Answer 70

Three

Question 71

2. The Newer style Dinner Dress Blue jacket is without buttons placed inside each front facing and is secured with bow many 28-line Navy eagle gilt buttons with a link chain closure? (Section 3501.14)

Answer 71

Two

Question 72

3. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will Male Trousers, Blue, Evening? (Section 3501.91)

Answer 72

2

Question 73

4. Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole? (Section 3501.54)

Answer 73

3/4 inch -7/8 inch

Question 74

5. What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in women’s dress heels? (Section 3501.54)

Answer 74

1/4 inch

Question 75

6. The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between 2 inches and how many inches in vertical width? (Section 3501.36)

Answer 75

2.75”

Question 76

7. The AII-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, water repellent coat made of a polycotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly what percent cotton poplin? (Section 3501.1)

Answer 76

65/35

Question 77

8. Inside the All-Weather Coat, Blue lining, ownership markings must be 3 inches below collar seam, and inside on outer shell on manufacturer’s tag, how many inches from bottom left front? (Section 3501.1)

Answer 77

5

Question 78

9. For Male Officers/CPOS, the overcoat, blue extends what amount of the distance from kneecap to ground, shaped at waist, held by a two section half-belt at back with the end of the belt overlapped and fastened with two 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons? (Section 3501.39)

Answer 78

44929

Question 79

10. The female version of the blue overcoat has a single row of how many 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons on each forefront? (Section 3501.39)

Answer 79

Four

Question 80

11. The white combination cap may be worn squarely on the head, with the bottom edge parallel to and how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.9)

Answer 80

1.5 inch

Question 81

12. How many inches should the Male Officer/CPO boat cloak extend below the kneecap? (Section 3501.4)

Answer 81

2

Question 82

13. On the all weather coat, anodized metal shoulder rank insignias shall be worm by E4 through O-10 personnel on each epaulet, centered from side to side with the bottom edge of the device approximately what length from the squared end of the epaulet? (Section 3501.1a)

Answer 82

0.75”

Question 83

14. The cumberbund when worn shall be worn with pleats up, around the waist overlapping the skirt/trouser top by at least what length? (Section 3501.20)

Answer 83

1”

Question 84

15. The male version of the white dinner dress coat jacket is semi- peaked with narrow lapels with the back tapered to a point, and loops for shoulder boards. There are two 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons down each side of the front, with a front closure held together by two 28-line Navy eagle buttons with a link approximately how long? (Section 3501.15)

Answer 84

¾”

Question 85

16. Warrant Officers shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s) rather than being 2 inches apart? (Section 4103.1.d)

Answer 85

½ inch

Question 86

17. Collar points of the CPO/0Officer males white dress shirt worn with the dinner dress uniform measure no more than how many inches with a medium spread? (Section 3501.49)

Answer 86

3.25”

Question 87

18. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe should dress blue trousers hang? (Section 3501.90)

Answer 87

2”

Question 88

19. Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt with clip with the exception of the Navy Working Uniform (NWU) and Coveralls? (Section 3501.2)

Answer 88

Right

Question 89

20. How many detachable 35-line Navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are there on the service dress white officers/CPO coat? (Section 3501.17)

Answer 89

5

Question 90

21. The male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand is made of authorized fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide? (Section 3501.37)

Answer 90

3.25”

Question 91

22. Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand hang? (Section 3501.37)

Answer 91

19

Question 92

23. The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for LCDR and above shall have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half basket hilt, and fit in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic material presenting the leather appearance? (Section 3501.84)

Answer 92

36”

Question 93

24. The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated with the buckle how many inches in diameter?(Section 3501.84)

Answer 93

2”

Question 94

25. What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be? (Section 3501.87)

Answer 94

5/16 inch

Question 95

26. How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps be worn on the four-in-hand tie? (Section 3501.87)

Answer 95

1”

Question 96

27. The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point approximately what distance above the eyebrows? (Section3501.1

Answer 96

1 inch

Question 97

28. The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what amount of the way up? (Section 3501.30)

Answer 97

3/4

Question 98

29. Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater? (Section 3501.83)

Answer 98

E6 and below

Question 99

30. Which uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with? (Section 5201.1.b)

Answer 99

Full Dress

Question 100

31. Polycotton may be worn only as Working Khaki effective as of what year? (Section 3s01.94)

Answer 100

1999

Question 101

32. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall service khaki trousers hang? (Section 3501.94)

Answer 101

2 inches

Question 102

33. Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper? (Section 3501.33)

Answer 102

Polyester

Question 103

34. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall coveralls hang? (Section 3501.18)

Answer 103

2 inches

Question 104

35. When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out, forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point approximately 2 inches above the elbow? (Section 3501.18)

Answer 104

Three

Question 105

36. The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches -4 inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.11)

Answer 105

1/4 inch

Question 106

37. The Navy ballcap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.8)

Answer 106

1.5 inch

Question 107

38. What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve PTU shirt 100% made of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and a crewneck collar? (Section 3601.3)

Answer 107

Polyester

Question 108

39. When authorized, NWU sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital camouflage pattern of the NWU will show). Approximately how many inches above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be? (Section 3603.5)

Answer 108

Two

Question 109

40. How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the NWU trouser legs? (Section 3603.6)

Answer 109

Three

Question 110

41. The appropriate embroidered rank/rate collar insignias will be worn on the NWU by E-4 to 0-10 personnel. Except for flag officers, the center of the insignia will be placed at a point at approximately what distance from the front and lower edges of the collar and the vertical axis of the insignia will lie along an imaginary line bisecting the angle of the collar point? (Section 3603.13)

Answer 110

1 inch

Question 111

42. NWU identification markings will be embroidered in approximately 3/4 inch block letters on approximately 1-1/4 inch wide fabric strips. Names exceedingly long can be embroidered in approximately what size letters? (Section 3603.16)

Answer 111

1/2 inch

Question 112

43. Authorized (current assignment) Force or command/unit patch may be worn on the NWU wearer’s right breast pocket. The size of the patch shall not exceed how many inches in length/width/diameter? (Section 3603.16)

Answer 112

3 to 3-1/2

Question 113

44. At least what percent of the way should the NWU Parka zipper be closed? (Section 3603.11)

Answer 113

0.75

Question 114

45. The tip end of the utility belt will pass through the buckle, feeding back around the locking bar to the wearer’s left, extending how many inches beyond the buckle? (Section 3603.7a)

Answer 114

44961

Question 115

1. White hats shall be worn squarely on the head with the lower front edge approximately what distance above the eyebrows and not crushed, bent, or rolled? (Section 3501.27)

Answer 115

1.5”

Question 116

2. Which type of dark blue fabric is the dress blue jumper made from? (Section 3501.32)

Answer 116

Wool serge

Question 117

3. The dress blue jumper collar is trimmed with three stripes of white tape, each 3/16 inch wide and 3/16 inch apart with the outer stripe at what distance from the collar edge? (Section 3501.32)

Answer 117

1/4 inch

Question 118

4. What size is the plain black silk or synthetic fabric square that the neckerchief is made from? (Section 3501.38)

Answer 118

36»

Question 119

5. What percentage of the distance from the wrist to the knuckles should the pettycoat sleeves reach when the arms are hanging naturally at the sides? (Section 350141)

Answer 119

0.75

Question 120

6. Approximately how many inches above the floor at the back of the shoe should the black trousers for the E-6 and below service uniform hang? (Section 3602.5)

Answer 120

1 to 2 inches

Question 121

7. What color are the ball earrings worn by E6 and below personnel? (Section 3501.23)

Answer 121

Silver

Question 122

8. How many inches below the crease behind the knee can the Female Officer Formal and Dinner Dress Uniform Skirt Length be? (Section 3501.62)

Answer 122

1.5 inches

Question 123

9. How deep must civilian handbags be when worn with the full dress uniform? (Section 3501.25)

Answer 123

2-4”

Question 124

10. Approximately what distance from the forehead hairline tilted slightly to the right shall women wear the beret toward the front of the head? (Section 3501.3)

Answer 124

3/4 inch

Question 125

11. What two leg length sizes do PTU shorts come in? (Section 3601.6)

Answer 125

6”or 8”

Question 126

12. What shall athletic socks not extend past? (Section 3601.7)

Answer 126

Mid-calf

Question 127

1. Sleeve insignia are gold stripes, black on green coats, in widths of either 2 inch, ½ inch, or what other size indicating the individual’s rank? (Section 4101.1)

Answer 127

1/4 inch

Question 128

2. Sleeve insignia stripes encircle the sleeve with the lower edge of the first stripe how many inches from the edge of the sleeve? (Section 4101.2)

Answer 128

Two

Question 129

3. What is the interval between stripes for sleeves that have multiple insignia stripes? (Section 4101.2)

Answer 129

1/4 inch

Question 130

4. Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5”? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 130

Ensign

Question 131

5. What officer rank wears a one ½ inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above it? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 131

Lieutenant Junior Grade (LTJG)

Question 132

6. Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 132

Lieutenant (LT)

Question 133

7. Which officer rank is identified by two % inch stripes with one inch stripe in between on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 133

Lieutenant Commander (LCDR)

Question 134

8. Which officer rank is identified by three % inch stripes on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 134

Commander (CDR)

Question 135

9. Which officer rank is identified by four ½ inch stripes on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 135

Captain (CPT)

Question 136

10. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 136

Rear admiral lower half

Question 137

11. What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with one ½ inch stripe above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 137

Rear admiral

Question 138

12. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two ½ inch stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 138

Vice Admiral

Question 139

13. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three ½ inch stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 139

Admiral

Question 140

14. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four ½ inch stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)

Answer 140

Fleet Admiral

Question 141

15. Which warrant ofticer rank is identified by one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)

Answer 141

W-1

Question 142

16. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)

Answer 142

W-2

Question 143

17. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)

Answer 143

W-3

Question 144

18. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with one break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)

Answer 144

W-4

Question 145

19. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)

Answer 145

W-5

Question 146

20. What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the sleeve with one ray pointing downward? (Section 4102.3)

Answer 146

Line

Question 147

21. Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, surcharged with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down? (Section 4102.3)

Answer 147

Medical corps

Question 148

22. Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down? (Section 4102.3)

Answer 148

Nurse corps

Question 149

23. Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three oak leaves and three acorns, placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)? (Section 4102.3)

Answer 149

Supply corps

Question 150

24. How many inches wide are the rating badges for female CPO’s? (Section 4211.1.a)

Answer 150

2.5

Question 151

25. Approximately what percent of the size of the men’s rating badges are women’s rating insignia, chevrons and rockers? (Section 4211.1.a)

Answer 151

0.75

Question 152

26. Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.a)

Answer 152

Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy

Question 153

27. Who wear two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.c)

Answer 153

Fleet/Force Master Chief Petty Officers

Question 154

28. How many inches long are male CPO0’s service stripes? (Section 4231.1)

Answer 154

7

Question 155

29. How wide are male El-E6 service stripes? (Section 4231.1)

Answer 155

3/8 inch

Question 156

30. How many inches long are female service stripes? (Section 4231.1)

Answer 156

5.25

Question 157

31. How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first service stripe? (Section 4231.2)

Answer 157

Two

Question 158

32. How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe? (Section 423 1.2)

Answer 158

1.5

Question 159

33. How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized? (Section 4231.2)

Answer 159

1/4 inch

Question 160

34. How many years of active duty service or reserve service in an active status in any of the arned services does it take for personnel to earn one service stripe? (Section 4231.4)

Answer 160

Four

Question 161

35. How many cumulative years of good conduct do personnel have to have served before wearing gold service stripes? (Section 4232)

Answer 161

12

Question 162

36. How many months at a maximum after the effective completion date of a rating merger must personnel transition to the new rating badge? (Section 4235)

Answer 162

24

Question 163

1. Security Badges will be metal or embroidered patches, gold in color, black lettering and approximately 2 1/2 inch in height by how many inches in width? (Section S101j.1)

Answer 163

1.75

Question 164

2. Who must authorize Navy personnel assigned to Joint/Unified Commands to wear distinctive command identification badges? (Section 5101.k.1)

Answer 164

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

Question 165

1. Only personnel permanently assigned to what ship may wear Navy- issued 1813 pattern uniforms? (Section 6201.3.a)

Answer 165

USS Constitution

Question 166

2. There are two distinct 1813 officer uniforms: one worn by the Commanding Officer and the other worn by whom? (Section 6201.3.b)

Answer 166

Lieutenants

Question 167

3. Who wears white leather gauntlet gloves, baldric, and tall bear skin hat when in Full Dress Blue or Whites in the Navy Band? (Section 6301.1.c.5)

Answer 167

Drum Major

Question 168

4. Which instruction establishes burial uniform policy? (Section 6404.1)

Answer 168

NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

Question 169

5. What is defined as articles of clothing worn as part of the doctrinal or traditional observance of the religious faith practiced by the member? (Section 6405.1)

Answer 169

Religious apparel

Question 170

6. Up to how many months from the date of delivery based on medical officer diagnosis/recommendation may the Commanding Officer approve the wear of maternity uniforms? (Section 6701.1)

Answer 170

Six

Question 171

7. What is defined as any clothing loaned to an individual by a naval activity, for which there is a requirement above and beyond authorized Navy uniforms? (Section 6801.1)

Answer 171

Organizational clothing

Question 172

8. Which type of clothing provides increased protection from flash fire situations which have been prevalent with the threat of Improvised Explosive Devices and other safety hazards? (Section 6802.6)

Answer 172

Flame-Resistant Organization Clothing/Gear (FROG)

Question 173

9. Flight suits shall be clean and well kept. Sleeves will be worn full length with hook and pile (Velcro) sleeve cuffs closed or with a maximum of how many outward rolls when not engaged in flight operations? (Section 6803.3.a)

Answer 173

Two

Question 174

10. What is defined as Summer Whites without ribbons for both male and female medical personnel? (Section 6902.2)

Answer 174

Indoor Duty White

Question 175

11. Reserve officers, on active duty for periods less than how many months, need not have a sword, sword accessories, or Dinner Dress Jackets? (Section 61001.1.b)

Answer 175

Six

Question 176

1. Four Criteria will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel: content, location, size and what else? (Section 7101.6)

Answer 176

Cosmetic

Question 177

2. What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section 7101.7)

Answer 177

Mutilation

Question 178

3. Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian clothing in the performance of their official duties? (Section 7102.1)

Answer 178

Chief of Naval Operations (N131U)

Question 179

1. Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located? (Page 1-1)

Answer 179

Annapolis, Maryland

Question 180

2. What are Naval Academy students designated as? (Page 1-1)

Answer 180

Midshipmen

Question 181

3. What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the U.S. Marine Corps Reserve? (Page 1-1)

Answer 181

Second Lieutenants

Question 182

4. How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate? (Page 1-1)

Answer 182

5

Question 183

5. What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy? (Page 1-1)

Answer 183

Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)

Question 184

6. Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action? (Page 1-2)

Answer 184

3

Question 185

7. How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day? (Page 1-2)

Answer 185

17

Question 186

8. What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution? Page 1-2)

Answer 186

OCS

Question 187

9. How many weeks long is OCS? (Page 1-2)

Answer 187

12

Question 188

10. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for OCS graduates? (Page 1-2)

Answer 188

4 years

Question 189

11. How old must OCS applicants be? (Page 1-3)

Answer 189

19

Question 190

12. How many consecutive “good-low final PRT scores prior to entry into the OCS program must applicants have? (Page 1-3)

Answer 190

Two

Question 191

13. Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps? (Page 1-3)

Answer 191

MECP

Question 192

14. How many consecutive calendar months do MECP selectees have to complete degree requirements? (Page 1-3)

Answer 192

36

Question 193

15. How many-years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates? (Page 1-4)

Answer 193

8

Question 194

17. What is the maximum amount of months that MSC IPP program selectees have to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)? (Page 1-5)

Answer 194

48

Question 195

18. What will MSC IPP Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as after they complete their degree? (Page 1-5)

Answer 195

Lieutenant

Question 196

19. What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for MSC IPP programs? (Page 1-5)

Answer 196

E-5

Question 197

20. Which commissioning programs provide commissioning opportunities to qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree? (Page 1-6)

Answer 197

LDO and CWO

Question 198

21. Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills? (Page 1-6)

Answer 198

LDOS

Question 199

22. Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field? (Page 1-6)

Answer 199

CWOS

Question 200

23. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for LDO? (Page 1-6)

Answer 200

4 years

Question 201

24. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES personnel who are selected for LDO? (Page 1-7)

Answer 201

3 years

Question 202

25. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for CWO? (Page 1-7)

Answer 202

4 years

Question 203

26. What shall E-9 Active duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO be appointed as that have completed 2 years TIR as of 1 October of the year in which the CWO board convenes? (Page 1-7)

Answer 203

CWO3

Question 204

27. What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active duty CWOS selected for LDO be appointed as? (Page 1-7)

Answer 204

LTJG (02E)

Question 205

28. Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for LDO applicants? (Page 1-8)

Answer 205

3

Question 206

29. Active duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service? (Page 1-8)

Answer 206

16

Question 207

30. What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must meet at the time of application and appointment? (Page 1-8)

Answer 207

Satisfactory medium

Question 208

31. Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service? (Page 1-9)

Answer 208

22

Question 209

32. Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Navy or Naval Reserve to earn a degree and receive a commission? (Page 1-9)

Answer 209

STA-21

Question 210

33. How many components make up STA-21? (Page 1-10)

Answer 210

2

Question 211

34. Which program was designed to to improve STA-21 applicants academic skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)? (Page 1-10)

Answer 211

BOOST

Question 212

35. Which 8-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university assignment? (Page 1-10)

Answer 212

Naval Science Institute (NSI)

Question 213

36. Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance? (Page 1-10)

Answer 213

OPNAVINST 1160.6A

Question 214

37. All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what course? (Page 1-10)

Answer 214

NSI

Question 215

38. Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to supplement tuition cost, books, and fees? (Page 1-11)

Answer 215

510000

Question 216

39. Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy’s Tuition Assistance Montgomery GI Bill (MGIB) educational benefits? (Page 1- 11)

Answer 216

BUPERSINST 1780.1

Question 217

40. How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a baccalaureate degree in? (Page 1-11)

Answer 217

36

Question 218

41. What age must STA-21 candidates be able to complete degree requirements and be commissioned prior to? (Page 1-11)

Answer 218

31

Question 219

42. Within how many years of STA-21 application due date must candidates have certified copies of SAT or ACT test scores? (Page 1-11)

Answer 219

3

Question 220

43. What is the minimum ACT English score required for STA-21 candidates? (Page 1-11)

Answer 220

20

Question 221

1. What must all commissioned officers possess? (Page 2-2)

Answer 221

U.S. citizenship

Question 222

2. What form can officer applicants use to satisfy proof of U.S. Citizenship requirements if they reside in a state where it is illegal to copy the birth certificate? (Page 2-2)

Answer 222

DD Form 372

Question 223

3. What is the minimum Service School duration that were attended but not listed on the SMART that must be entered in block 25 of officer applications? (Page 2-4)

Answer 223

2-weeks

Question 224

4. How many prior consecutive official PRT scores must be entered into block 19 of officer applications? Page 2-3)

Answer 224

3

Question 225

5. What must the security manager obtain verification from that the appropriate entrance agency check is possessed by officer applicants? Page 2 5)

Answer 225

DONCAF

Question 226

6. Which completed form must OCS, MECP, or MSC PP program applicants who do not have either a valid Entry Level National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or National Agency Check (NAC) include with the Officer Programs Application? Page 2-5)

Answer 226

SF 86

Question 227

1. What are Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are not selected for direct entry automatically considered for entrance into? (Page 3-1)

Answer 227

NAPS

Question 228

2. Applicants should not have passed which birthday on July lst of the year that they will be considered for NAPS? (Page 3-1)

Answer 228

22d

Question 229

3. How many enlisted members of the Regular and Reserve Navy and Marine Corps may be appointed to the Naval Academy each year by the Secretary of the Navy? (Page 3-1)

Answer 229

170

Question 230

4. What is a four-year military college that offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young persons to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps after obtaining a Bachelor of Science degree? (Page 3-2)

Answer 230

U.S. Naval Academy

Question 231

5. What is the minimum active duty service obligation upon initial appointment for graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)

Answer 231

5

Question 232

6. Which school provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training at the Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)

Answer 232

Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)

Question 233

7. What is the minimum age that people can be to apply to the Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)

Answer 233

17

Question 234

8. What administers medical examinations for Naval Academy applicants? (Page 3-3)

Answer 234

DODMERB

Question 235

9. Applicants to the Naval Academy in addition to other requirements must be scholastically qualified with an acceptable secondary school transcript with college preparatory subjects and grades indicating college capability and a class standing normally in the top what percent in high school? (Page 3-4)

Answer 235

0.4

Question 236

10. What is the maximum acceptable age of SAT or ACT scores when applying for the Naval Academy? (Page 3-4)

Answer 236

2 years

Question 237

11. What is the minimum ACT English score necessary to be considered for a Secretary of the Navy nomination to the Naval Academy? (Page 3- 4)

Answer 237

22

Question 238

12. What will remain the final authority on whether a member meets Naval Academy academic requirements based on a whole person assessment? (Page 3-6)

Answer 238

Naval Academy’s Admissions Board

Question 239

13. A minimum of how many remaining months of active obligated service, as of July 1st of the entering year must service members offered an appointment to the Naval Academy have? (Page 3-7)

Answer 239

24

Question 240

14. What is the maximum number of years that Midshipmen who are separated or whose resignations are accepted after the start of the junior year in the Naval Academy, but before completing the course of instruction, may be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty? (Page 3-8)

Answer 240

4

Question 241

15. How many years may Midshipmen who complete the course of instruction in the Naval Academy and decline to accept an appointment as a commissioned officer be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty? (Page 3-8)

Answer 241

4

Question 242

16. Approximately how much money must be remitted by each Naval Academy candidate upon admission to the Naval Academy as an entry deposit which is applied to the initial uniform issue? (Page 3-9)

Answer 242

2500

Question 243

1. Enlisted OCS applicants in what paygrades or above are designated as officer candidates in their present paygrades? (Page 4-2)

Answer 243

E-5

Question 244

2. How many years of service obligation is incurred upon Pilot (13 1X)) (Maritime and Rotary Wing Communities) community designation? (Page 4 1)

Answer 244

8

Question 245

3. Which initial commissioning program is for individuals possessing a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution? (Page 4 2)

Answer 245

ODS

Question 246

4. How many weeks is OCS which is an intensive officer training and indoctrination program? (Page 4-2)

Answer 246

12

Question 247

5. E-4 and below enlisted applicants are designated as officer candidates and will be advanced to what paygrade upon reporting to OCS? (Page 4- 2)

Answer 247

E-5

Question 248

6. What is the minimum active duty obligation incurred by OCSgraduates? (Page 4-2)

Answer 248

4 years

Question 249

7. How old must 0CS applicants be? (Page 4-3)

Answer 249

19

Question 250

8. What age must Surface Warfare Officers (1160) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)

Answer 250

29

Question 251

9. What age must Naval Flight Officers (1370) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)

Answer 251

27

Question 252

10. What age must Public Affairs Officers (1650) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)

Answer 252

35

Question 253

11. What age must Information Warfare Officers (1640) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)

Answer 253

35

Question 254

12. What age must Pilots (1390) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)

Answer 254

27

Question 255

13. What age must SWO Information Professionals (IP Option) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)

Answer 255

35

Question 256

14. What is usually the minimum score on the Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination required to be competitive? (Page 4-6)

Answer 256

35

Question 257

15. What is the minimum Officer Aptitude Rating (0AR) examination score required for the Intel community? (Page 4-6)

Answer 257

45

Question 258

16. What form is required for all applicants who do not possess a current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check (NAC)? (Page 4-8)

Answer 258

SF 86

Question 259

17. There is no specific deadline for officer applications as selections are made on a continuous basis throughout the year except for which officers that have annual selections? (Page 4-8)

Answer 259

Public Affairs Officer (PAO)

Question 260

18. How many officer interviews are required for an officer application? (Page 4-9)

Answer 260

Three

Question 261

19. What minimum paygrade should the officer(s) conducting officer application interviews be? (Page 4-9)

Answer 261

0-3

Question 262

20. Which officer program disqualifies personnel who have defective color vision? (Page 4-9)

Answer 262

URL

Question 263

21. Officer selectees will be required to have an HIV test within how long after they apply for the program regardless of date of physical exam? (Page 4-10)

Answer 263

1 year

Question 264

22. How many months must OCS applicants have of obligated service remaining on their current enlistment upon receipt of OCS orders? (Page 4-10)

Answer 264

6 months

Question 265

23. Voluntary extensions for OCS are not authorized if the aggregate of all extensions during the current enlistment exceeds how many months? (Page 4-11)

Answer 265

48

Question 266

1. Which commissioning program was specifically intended to provide an advancement pathway to a commissioned status in the Nurse Corps? (Page 5-1)

Answer 266

Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)

Question 267

2. What is the minimum amount of transferable college credits needed to apply for MECP? (Page 5-1)

Answer 267

30

Question 268

3. How many miles from a naval activity should colleges or universities be, when possible, to which the MECP participant will be ordered, for administrative purposes, on a Permanent Change of Station (PCS) basis? (Page 5-1)

Answer 268

50

Question 269

4. How many consecutive months do MECP selectees have to complete the requirements for a baccalaureate degree? (Page 5-2)

Answer 269

36

Question 270

5. How many years of active duty service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates? (Page S-2)

Answer 270

4

Question 271

6. What is the last birthday that MECP applicants can have reached by the time of initial appointment and commissioning to be eligible? (Page5-2)

Answer 271

42nd

Question 272

7. MECP applicants are required to submit a precommissioning SF 88 or DD Form 2808 and SF 93 or DD Form 2807-1 within the last 12 months (or how many months for those applicants deployed)? (Page 5-3)

Answer 272

18

Question 273

8. What is the minimum recommended SAT score for MECP applicants? (Page 5-4)

Answer 273

1000

Question 274

9. How many of the last consecutive years of EVAL’s shall all MECP packages contain? (Page 5-5)

Answer 274

Five

Question 275

10. How many years within the application due date are SAT or ACT test scores considered acceptable for MECP packages? (Page 5-5)

Answer 275

3

Question 276

11. What convenes an annual selection board to consider eligible MECP applicants? (Page 5-9)

Answer 276

CHNAVPERS

Question 277

12. How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP appointees upon commissioning? Page 5-9)

Answer 277

8

Question 278

13. What school must be completed by MECP appointees? (Page 5-10)

Answer 278

Officer Development School (ODS)

Question 279

14. How many times can Nurse Corps Officers take and fail the licensure examination before they may be re-appointed through the training attrite process to a different officer community/designator to complete any incurred active duty obligation? (Page 5-10)

Answer 279

2

Question 280

15. Within how many days of notification of selection must any MECP selectee who does not desire to participate in the program notify Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM (Code OG3)? (Page 5-10)

Answer 280

15

Question 281

16. Within how many months after NAVMELDEDTRACOM receives a program letter of acceptance from the MECP selectee will PCS orders be issued? (Page 5-11)

Answer 281

5

Question 282

17. How many years of active service obligation by extending or reenlisting will be incurred by the MECP student prior to detaching their current command? (Page 5-12)

Answer 282

6

Question 283

18. MECP selectees are authorized to reenlist more than I year early if they are unable to satisfy the 6-year obligated service requirement with an extension of how many months or less? (Page 5-12)

Answer 283

48

Question 284

19, MECP students are not required to have an annual physical, but must pass the Physical Readiness Test as required by what reference? (Page S- 13)

Answer 284

OPNAVINST 6110.1G

Question 285

20. Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM will report to the Chief of Naval Operations (NI131M5) and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, BUMED (M131), a minimum of how many times per year, the names, last four digits of their social security numbers, administrative commands to which assigned, and expected graduation dates of all MECP candidates? (Page S-13)

Answer 285

Twice

Question 286

1. MSC IPP is available to communities for members of the Regular Navy and Regular Marine Corps, and Naval Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve on active duty, including Full Time Support (FTS), and Active Reserve (AR) serving in any rating or Military Occupational Specialty (MOS), in paygrades E-5 through what pay grade at the time of application (paygrade is not waiverable)? (Page 6-1)

Answer 286

E-9

Question 287

2. All applicants who have completed a bachelor’s degree, including applicants who have completed a master’s, must submit official GRE, GMAT, Or the appropriate test score defined within the specialty requirement completed within how many years of application due date for MSC IPP? (Page 6-2)

Answer 287

5

Question 288

3. What is the recommended ACT score for MSC PP candidates? (Page 6-2)

Answer 288

42

Question 289

4. Up to how many months do personnel selected for any MSC IPP program who require training to complete their degree (dependent upon the program) with benefits that include tuition, mandatory fees, book allowance, full pay and allowances for their enlisted paygrades, and eligibility for advancement while in college? (Page 6-2)

Answer 289

48

Question 290

5. What is the minimum active duty military service obligation incurred by MSC PP selectees upon commissioning? (Page 6-3)

Answer 290

3 years

Question 291

6. What form is used by personnel who reside in States where it is illegal to copy, photocopy, or photograph birth certificates o naturalization certificates? (Page 6-3)

Answer 291

DD Form 372

Question 292

7. MSC IPP applicants must not have reached what birthday by time of initial appointment and commissioning? (Page 6-3)

Answer 292

42nd

Question 293

8. What form is required for all MSC IPP applicants who do not possess a current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check (NAC)? (Page 6-5)

Answer 293

SF 86

Question 294

9. What is the minimum GPA that HCA IPP applicants must have? Page 6-5)

Answer 294

2.5

Question 295

10. For PA IPP applicants, minimum educational requirement is a high school diploma, GED, ASVAB or equivalent with how many semester hours of transferable college credit? (Page 6-7)

Answer 295

60

Question 296

11. What is the minimum GPA that RHO IPP applicants must have for science courses? (Page 6-9)

Answer 296

3

Question 297

12. EHO PP applicants, upon completion of baccalaureate degree in environmental health, will be commissioned and will be enrolled in a Master of Public Health degree program that lasts how long? (Page 6- 10)

Answer 297

1-year

Question 298

13. How many months must IHO IPP applicants be able to complete a degree in? (Page 6-11)

Answer 298

24

Question 299

1. LDO and CWO applicants must be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action under Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice, no courts martial conviction or civilian felony conviction, or conviction by a civil court for misdemeanors (except minor traffic violations ($300 or less) in the past how years as of 1 October of the year application is made? (Page 7-1)

Answer 299

3

Question 300

2. How many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse result in disqualification for LDO and CWO applicants? (Page 7-1)

Answer 300

3

Question 301

3. Which chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department defines the physical qualifications required for appointment to LDO and CW0? (Page 7 1)

Answer 301

15

Question 302

4. What are the minimum PRT Scores that must be met by LDO and CWO applicants at the time of application and appointment? (Page 7-1)

Answer 302

Satisfactory-medium

Question 303

1. Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four elements of the Navy’s suicide prevention program? (Page 2)

Answer 303

Reporting

Question 304

2. At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military installations? (Page 2)

Answer 304

Annually

Question 305

3. MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors? (Page 5)

Answer 305

OPNAVINST 3100.6

Question 306

4. What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit orexplicit) of the intent to die? (Page 5)

Answer 306

Suicide

Question 307

5. Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DODSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by the medical examiner? (Page 5)

Answer 307

60

Question 308

6. How many weeks after a member’s suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the DODSER and respond to unforeseen questions? (Page 5)

Answer 308

45085

Question 309

7. What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence (either implicit or explicit) of intent to die? (Page 5)

Answer 309

Suicide attempt

Question 310

8. Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DODSER be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by competent medical authority? (Page 5)

Answer 310

30

Question 311

9. Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully implemented? (Page 6)

Answer 311

SPC

Question 312

10. Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy? (Page 6)

Answer 312

Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education) (CNO (N1)

Question 313

11. Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibit suicide-related ideations, communications or behaviors? (Page T)

Answer 313

Chief, BUMED

Question 314

12. Who develops the written procedures to ensure that chaplains/religious program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities throughout the Navy? (Page 7)

Answer 314

OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (NO97)

Question 315

13. Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies? (Page 8)

Answer 315

Commander, Navy Installations Command

Question 316

14. The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include rate specific suicide intervention training at “A” schools and “C” schools for hospital corpsman, religious program specialists and which other rate? (Page 8)

Answer 316

Master-at-arms

Question 317

15. What should the minimum rank of the SPC be whenever it is possible? (Page 9)

Answer 317

E-7

Question 318

16. How often should Commanding Officers ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel? (Page 9)

Answer 318

Annually

Question 319

1. What are any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors defined as? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)

Answer 319

Suicide-Related ldeations

Question 320

2. What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)

Answer 320

Suicide Threat

Question 321

3. What is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)

Answer 321

Suicide Plan

Question 322

4. What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)

Answer 322

Self-harm

Question 323

1. What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure? (Page 1)

Answer 323

Human error

Question 324

2. What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits? (Page

Answer 324

ORM

Question 325

3. Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance? (Page 3)

Answer 325

OPNAV (NO9F)

Question 326

4. Who is the ORM model manager? (Page 3)

Answer 326

NAVSAFECEN

Question 327

5. Who serves as the Navy’s ORM program subject matter expert (SME)? (Page 3)

Answer 327

NAVSAFECEN

Question 328

6. How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness? (Page 5)

Answer 328

Biennially

Question 329

7. Which activity shall integrate specific applications of the ORM process into Navy occupational standards for the Navy’s individual training standards? (Page S)

Answer 329

Naval Manpower Analysis Center

Question 330

8. Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training ofall military and civilian command personnel? (Page 7)

Answer 330

Command ORM manager

Question 331

9. How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination? (Page 7)

Answer 331

Annually

Question 332

1. What decision making tool is used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks? (Page

Answer 332

ORM

Question 333

2. How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process? (Page 2)

Answer 333

Four

Question 334

3. In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on? (Page 3)

Answer 334

Time critical

Question 335

4. Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task? (Page 3)

Answer 335

In-depth

Question 336

5. Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission ortask? (Page 4)

Answer 336

Deliberate

Question 337

6. Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level? (Page 4)

Answer 337

ABCD

Question 338

7. The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step? (Page 5)

Answer 338

Supervise

Question 339

8. Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation? (Page

Answer 339

Identify and Assess the hazards

Question 340

9. What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an intuitive fashion with help screens and process information? (Page 7)

Answer 340

TRACS

Question 341

10. What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death, or property damage? (Page 7)

Answer 341

Hazard

Question 342

11. What is the foundation of the entire risk management process? (Page 7)

Answer 342

Hazard identification

Question 343

12. What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation? (Page 8)

Answer 343

Root cause

Question 344

13. What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or task? (Page 8)

Answer 344

Severity

Question 345

14. Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission? (Page 8)

Answer 345

Category I

Question 346

15. Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)

Answer 346

Category II

Question 347

16. Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)

Answer 347

Category III

Question 348

17. Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)

Answer 348

Category IV

Question 349

18. What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called? (Page 9)

Answer 349

Probability

Question 350

19. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time? (Page 9)

Answer 350

A

Question 351

20. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time? (Page 9)

Answer 351

B

Question 352

21. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that may occur in time? (Page 9)

Answer 352

C

Question 353

22. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are unlikely to occur but that are not impossible? (Page 9)

Answer 353

D

Question 354

23. How many basic actions are there which ultimately lead to making informed risk decisions? (Page 10)

Answer 354

Three

Question 355

24. Which type of controls take the form of barriers to guard against a hazard? (Page 13)

Answer 355

Physical

Question 356

1. What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level? (Page 1)

Answer 356

TCRM

Question 357

2. Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn new or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding? (Page 1)

Answer 357

ABCD

Question 358

3. Which ORM steps does the “A” in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model combine? (Page 5)

Answer 358

identify and Assess hazards

Question 359

4. Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions? (Page 5)

Answer 359

Balance resources

Question 360

5. Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM process? (Page 5)

Answer 360

Communicate to others

Question 361

6. Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the D” in the mnemonic of the ABCD model correlated to? (Page 5)

Answer 361

Implement controls and Supervise

Question 362

1. Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training? (Page 2)

Answer 362

Accession point

Question 363

2. Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command ORM manager? (Page 3)

Answer 363

XO

Question 364

3. Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command? (Page 3)

Answer 364

ORM manager

Question 365

4. How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course? (Page 4)

Answer 365

Triennially

Question 366

1. What is used to measure ORM implementation? (Page 1)

Answer 366

ORM evaluation

Question 367

2. How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by any activity or command for self-assessment? (Page 1)

Answer 367

Two

Question 368

3. How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation? (Page 1)

Answer 368

Annually

Question 369

1. What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called? (Page 1)

Answer 369

Acceptable risk

Question 370

2. Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual’s or crew’s attention during the execution of a mission or task? (Page 1)

Answer 370

Additive Condition

Question 371

3. Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas, deferring judgment until the end of the session? (Page 1)

Answer 371

Brainstorming

Question 372

4. Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel, or the mission? (Page 2)

Answer 372

Consequential

Question 373

5. What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as? Page 2)

Answer 373

Controls

Question 374

6. What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard? (Page 2)

Answer 374

Exposure

Question 375

7. How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process? (Page 3)

Answer 375

6

Question 376

8. What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards? (Page 3)

Answer 376

Operational Analysis

Question 377

9. What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an operation, task, or mission? (Page 3)

Answer 377

Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)

Question 378

10. What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified and selected? (Page 3)

Answer 378

Residual risk

Question 379

11. What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people or equipment? (Page 3)

Answer 379

Resource

Question 380

12. What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity? (Page

Answer 380

Risk

Question 381

13. What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help determine hazard abatement priorities? (Page 4)

Answer 381

Risk Assessment Code (RAC)

Question 382

14. What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one’s perception of the current environment mirrors reality? (Page 4)

Answer 382

Situational Awareness (SA)

Question 383

1. Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel? (Page 2)

Answer 383

SECNAVINST 5300.26D

Question 384

2. What promotes positive command morale and Quality of Life (Q0L) by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes? (Page 2)

Answer 384

Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)

Question 385

3. Who monitors the Navy’s progress toward accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates? (Page 4)

Answer 385

CNO

Question 386

4. How often must the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO Climate Assessment describing the “health” and organizational effectiveness of the Navy? (Page 5)

Answer 386

Annually

Question 387

5. Which office is responsible for providing the overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates? (Page 5)

Answer 387

Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO)

Question 388

6. By which date each year must the OJAG provide a summary of the fiscal years UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150 actions relating to unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Navy EO Office? (Page 6)

Answer 388

November 15h

Question 389

7. Who is the investigative authority for all Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment complaints against flag officers or SES officials? (Page 6)

Answer 389

Naval Inspector General

Question 390

8. Which center function as the Navy’s equal opportunity training manager and develops the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels? (Page 7)

Answer 390

Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)

Question 391

9. Within how many days of assuming command will Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate? (Page 7)

Answer 391

90

Question 392

10. How often must Commanding Officers and Officers In Charge provide Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment training and grievance procedure instruction as required per SECNAVINST S350.16A for all assigned command members as part of CPPD generated GMT? (Page 8)

Answer 392

Annually

Question 393

11. What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service for officers to be the CMEO Manager? (Page 9)

Answer 393

4

Question 394

12. How long at a minimum should CMEO Managers serve in their position? (Page 9)

Answer 394

One year

Question 395

13. How many years must C0’s/OIC’s ensure that completed copies of all Navy Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint Forms are maintained in the CMEO Manager record file? (Page 9)

Answer 395

Three

Question 396

14. CO’s/OIC’s shall ensure that detailed Naval messages, are sent upon receipt of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH, per which reference? (Page 9)

Answer 396

DOD Directive 1325.6

Question 397

15. Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC? (Page 10)

Answer 397

60

Question 398

16. Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 10)

Answer 398

EOA

Question 399

17. Who functions as the single point of contact, when practicable, for command equal opportunity issues? (Page 10)

Answer 399

CMEO Manager

Question 400

18. How many years will CMEO Managers maintain CMEO record files? (Page 11)

Answer 400

Three

Question 401

1. Which representatives are assigned by the commander to ensure that complainants, accused, and witnesses in equal opportunity and sexual harassment cases are informed of the complaint process and are advised of the available support and counseling services? (Page 1)

Answer 401

Advocates

Question 402

2. What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity? (Page 2)

Answer 402

Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)

Question 403

3. What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified? (Page 2)

Answer 403

Equal Opportunity (EO)

Question 404

4. Which NEC is held by Equal Opportunity Advisors? (Page 3)

Answer 404

NEC 9515

Question 405

5. Which system resolve Equal Opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level? (Page 4)

Answer 405

Informal Resolution System (IRS)

Question 406

6. Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment? (Page 5)

Answer 406

Reasonable Person Standard

Question 407

7. Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication? (Page 5)

Answer 407

Reprisal

Question 408

8. Which process identifies areas of concern or issues related to command climate by finding areas of commonality in a minimum of three areas of the command assessment? (Page 7)

Answer 408

Triangulation Method

Question 409

1. Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive? (Page 1)

Answer 409

Unwelcome

Question 410

2. Where must unwelcome sexual behavior occur in or impact to be considered Sexual Harassment? (Page 2)

Answer 410

Work environment

Question 411

3. Which type of Sexual Harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 2)

Answer 411

Quid pro quo

Question 412

4. Which color light on the traffic light scale would touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) be identified as? (Page 3)

Answer 412

Green

Question 413

5. Which color light on the traffic light scale would repeated requests for dates, leering, staring, or whistling be that many would find unacceptable? (Page 3)

Answer 413

Yellow

Question 414

6. Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment? (Page 3)

Answer 414

Red

Question 415

1. What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices? (Page 1)

Answer 415

Chain of command

Question 416

2. Which instruction contains the DoN’s policy on military Equal Opportunity complaint processing? (Page 1)

Answer 416

SECNAVINST 5350.16A

Question 417

3. How many days within the offending incident should Equal Opportunity complaints be made? (Page 2)

Answer 417

60

Question 418

4. Which form can individuals use to file Equal Opportunity complaints? (Page 3)

Answer 418

NAVPERS 5354/2

Question 419

5. Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a formal Equal Opportunity complaint submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority? (Page 3)

Answer 419

1

Question 420

6. Within how many hours of receiving a formal Equal Opportunity complaint must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender as well as any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing? (Page 4)

Answer 420

24

Question 421

7. Within how many hours after receiving an Equal Opportunity complaint submission must the investigation commence? (Page 4)

Answer 421

72

Question 422

8. Within how many days after the Equal Opportunity investigation commences must a close-out message be sent describing what actions were taken? (Page 4)

Answer 422

20

Question 423

9. How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity complaint investigation is not completed at the 20-day point until the close-out message describing case disposition is released? (Page 4)

Answer 423

Every 14 days

Question 424

10. How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must commands conduct a follow-up debrief? (Page 5)

Answer 424

30-45

Question 425

11. How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity complaints and investigations for? (Page 5)

Answer 425

36

Question 426

1. Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders and Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers providing assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 1)

Answer 426

EOAS

Question 427

2. How often must EOA’s conduct a review of subordinate commands’ executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander? (Page 1)

Answer 427

Annually

Question 428

1. The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused and witness in an EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are advised of available support and counseling services? (Page 1)

Answer 428

Personal advocate

Question 429

1. Which instruction provides the comprehensive Department of the Navy (DON) policy for all military and civilian personnel on the identification, prevention, and elimination of sexual harassment as well as establishes the regulations to enforce that policy? (Page l)

Answer 429

SECNAVINST 5300.26D

Question 430

2. Which departments definition of sexual harassment establishes a standard that exceeds that of the EEOC? (Page 2)

Answer 430

DOD

Question 431

3. Within how many days of accession will all DON personnel, military and civilian, be educated and trained in the areas of sexual harassment identification, prevention, resolution and elimination? (Page 2)

Answer 431

90

Question 432

4. How many different tiers are in behavioral zone approach training programs to explain the sexual harassment spectrum? (Page 3)

Answer 432

Three

Question 433

5. DON personnel who may be called upon to conduct or review investigations into alleged incidents of sexual harassment should receive training in DON policy on investigative methods and processes along with what else? (Page 3)

Answer 433

Equal opportunity

Question 434

6. What level should all reported incidents of sexual harassment be investigated and resolved at? (Page 3)

Answer 434

Lowest possible level

Question 435

7. What is the cornerstone of the sexual harassment elimination effort? (Page 5)

Answer 435

Sound leadership

Question 436

1. Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for sexual harassment? (Page 1)

Answer 436

Reasonable person standard

Question 437

2. What is it known as when personnel take or threaten to take an unfavorable personnel action or withhold or threaten to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member or civilian employee for participating in the EEO or EO appeal process? (Page 1)

Answer 437

Reprisal

Question 438

1. Which type of behavior is unwelcome, sexual in nature, and connected in some way with a person’s job or work environment? (Page 1)

Answer 438

Sexual harassment

Question 439

2. Occurring in the workplace, sexual in nature, along with what else are the three criteria that must be met for behavior to be considered as sexual harassment? (Page 1)

Answer 439

Unwelcome

Question 440

3. Which type of unasked for behavior is considered by the offended party to be undesirable or offensive in nature? (Page 1)

Answer 440

Unwelcome behavior

Question 441

4. Which type of sexual harassment have personnel been subjected to when recipients are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 2)

Answer 441

Quid pro quo

Question 442

5. What has occurred if sexual harassment behavior produces a work atmosphere which is offensive, intimidating, or abusive to another person, whether or not work performance is affected? (Page 2)

Answer 442

Hostile environment

Question 443

6. Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands, or a friendly pat on the shoulder), counseling on military appearance, social interaction, showing concern or encouragement, a polite compliment, or friendly conversation? (Page 3)

Answer 443

Green

Question 444

7. Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by violating personal space, whistling, questions about personal life, lewd or sexually suggestive comments, suggestive posters or calendars, off- color jokes, leering, staring, repeated requests for dates, foul language, unwanted letters or poems, or sexually suggestive touching or gesturing? (Page

Answer 444

Yellow

Question 445

8. Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by sexual favors in return for employment rewards, threats if sexual favors are not provided, sexually explicit pictures (including calendars or posters) or remarks, using status to request dates, or obscene letters or comments are all behaviors that are always considered sexual harassment? (Page 3)

Answer 445

Red