PMK EE 3 Flashcards
1
Q
25. How many hours of extra duty per day is allowed by the Geneva Convention as punishment for escape attempts? (Page 22-19)
A
2
2
Q
- What term identifies members of the military force and civilian personnel engaged in hostilities? (Page 22-20)
A
Lawful combatants
3
Q
- Who issues the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations? (Section 1101.1)
A
CNO
4
Q
- Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor’s environment: Which included what three factors? (Section 1101.2)
A
Physical, geographical, and technical
5
Q
- Historically, what were women’s uniforms designed to duplicate? (Section 1101.2)
A
Civilian fashion trends
6
Q
- Which type of headgear may be left on indoors? (Section 1 101.4.c)
A
Tiaras
7
Q
- What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating fire room? (Section 1 101.5.a)
A
100% Polyester
8
Q
- Which executive order delegated the authority to prescribe the quantity and kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel, to the Secretary of Defense? (Section 1101.6.a)
A
10113
9
Q
- Which directive outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations? (Section 1101.6.b)
A
DOD Directive 1338.5
10
Q
- Which manual is the authority for clothing allowance payments? (Section 1101.6.b)
A
Department of Defense Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual
11
Q
- What type of cash allowance is provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful life of the articles? (Section 1101.6.c)
A
CRA
Clothing Replacement Allowance
12
Q
- Who is responsible for ensuring uniform policy compliance as issued by the prescribing authority regarding liberty parties and members of the command operating ashore? (Section 1201.3)
A
SOPA
Senior Officer Present Afloat
13
Q
- Which uniform may be worm during any season when traveling on leave, TAD or transfer? (Section 1301.1)
A
Service Dress Blues
14
Q
- Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or situations when warranted by local conditions? (Section 1301.2)
A
Area coordinators
15
Q
- What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform or civilian clothing requirements for their destination? (Section 1301.3)
A
DoD Foreign Clearance Guide
16
Q
- Which publication should Navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required? (Section 1301.4)
A
USAF Foreign Clearance Guide
17
Q
- Which uniform may not be worn when commuting to and from work? (Section 1301.5.a)
A
Navy Blue Coveralls
18
Q
- What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard DOD owned/controlled aircraft referred to as? (Section 1301.5.a)
A
Commuting
19
Q
- What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUS off base? (Section 1301.5.b. 1)
A
Alcohol
20
Q
- Within the National Capital Region (NCR) the NWU is authorized for wear at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall area bounded by capitol hill and surrounding senate and house offices, the white house and executive office building, state department and all what? (Section 1301.5.b.1)
A
Monuments and memorials
21
Q
- Which uniform is not authorized for wear during commercial travel (e.g. airlines, railways, or bus, etc.) but is authorized on commuter transportation (e.g. Metrorail, metro bus, commuter bus, VRE, ferries)? (Section 1301.5.b.2)
A
NWU
22
Q
- Who must authorize tan flight suits to be worn in CONUS in hot weather environments? (Section 1301.5.c)
A
TYCOM
23
Q
- Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person in the naval service without permission from proper authority? (Section 1401.2.b)
A
Article 1161
24
Q
- Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or Marine Corps uniforms? (Section 1401.3.a2)
A
771
25
Q
- Which medal, if awarded, allows personnel to wear their uniform at any time except under specific circumstances? (Section 1401.3.3)
A
Medal of Honor
26
Q
- The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and (Section 1401.4) members of duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing?
A
3.5
27
Q
- What should the U.S. Flag never be used for? (Section 1401.5.c)
A
Advertising
28
Q
- What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the prescribing authority directs otherwise? (Section 1501.1.a)
A
Basic uniform components
29
Q
- Which type of uniform items may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform? (Section 1501.1.b)
A
Prescribable
30
Q
- Which type of uniform items are purchased at the wearer’s expense which may be worn with the basic uniform but are not prescribable? (Section 1501.1.c)
A
Optional
31
Q
- What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with exaggerated zeal? (Section 1501.1.f)
A
Faddish
32
Q
- Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval uniforms? (Section 1501.3)
A
Chief of Naval Operations
33
Q
- Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained for approval of the Chief of Naval Operations? (Section 1501.4.a)
A
Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command
34
Q
- What is charged by the CNO to continually review all Navy uniform matters? (Section 1501.5)
A
Navy Uniform Board
35
Q
- How many communication devices may be worn at the same time on uniforms which can only be worn on the belt of the working and service uniforms aft of the elbow? (Section 2101.3.1.b)
A
One
36
Q
- Which type of uniform does not permit the wear of communication devices? (Section 2101.3.1.c)
A
Service dress
37
Q
- Black, matching NWU Type I pattern, along with what else are the authorized backpack colors that may be wom with uniforms? (Section 2101.3.2.a)
A
Navy blue
38
Q
- What situation prohibits personnel from wearing conservative sunglasses? (Section 2101.3.2.d.2)
A
Military formations
39
Q
- What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia? (Section 2101.5.b)
A
Diluted ammonia
40
Q
- Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what length to blend with hair-style for men? (Section 2101.l.a)
A
3/4 inch
41
Q
- How many inches is the maximum length for Men’s hair? (Section 2101.1.a)
A
Four
42
Q
- Approximately how many inches will the bulk of men’s hair not exceed? (Section 2101.1.a)
A
Two
43
Q
- What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the scalp? (Section 2101.1.a)
A
Bulk
44
Q
- What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past? (Section 2101.1.a)
A
Middle
45
Q
- When a woman’s hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance? (Section 2101.1.b)
A
1/4 inch
46
Q
- What is the maximum length that women’s hair may extend past the top of the jumper collar? (Section 2101.1.b)
A
1.5”
47
Q
- What is the maximum length that the bulk of women’s hair as measured from the scalp can be? (Section 2101.1.b)
A
2“
48
Q
- What is the maximum number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are similar to the members hair color that may be used in women’s hair? (Section 2101.1.b)
A
Two
49
Q
- The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the Commanding Officer per what instruction? (Section 2101.2)
A
BUPERSINST 1000.22
50
Q
- Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mouth? (Section 2101.2)
A
1/4 inch
51
Q
- What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully extended can be? (Section 2101.2)
A
½ inch
52
Q
- If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved, manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length? (Section 2102.2)
A
1/4 inch
53
Q
- What form shall Female Service Members submit to their Commanding Officer to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup? (Section 2102.4.b.1)
A
NAVPERS 1336/3
54
Q
- Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males? (Section 2102.5.a)
A
Fingertips
55
Q
- What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that females can have? (Section 2102.5.a)
A
1/4 inch
56
Q
- While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what fingers? (Section 2102.6.a)
A
Thumbs
57
Q
- For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts? (Section 2102.6.2)
A
4mm - 6mm
58
Q
- Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criteria that will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel? (Section 2102.7)
A
Cosmetic
59
Q
- What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section 2102.8)
A
Mutilation
60
Q
- Tattoos/body art/ brands/ mutilation/ dental ornamentation may be waived if they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline, and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service? (Section 2102.10)
A
January 24h, 2003
61
Q
- For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in length? (Section 2102.11)
A
4
62
Q
- DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must meet? (Section 3101.2)
A
DoD Instruction 1338.18
63
Q
- Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform manufacturing? (Section 3101.3)
A
Chief of Naval Operations
64
Q
- Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to ensure that they possess the required items? (Section 3101.4)
A
E1-E3
65
Q
- Approximately how high should stencil letters be? (Section 3101.5)
A
3/8 inch
66
Q
- What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be? (Section 3101.5)
A
3/4 inch
67
Q
- Coveralls shall be embroidered in gold for officers and CPOS and what color for E6 and below? (Section 3101.5)
A
Silver
68
Q
- Navy coveralls and NWU’s are required to have U.S. NAVY tape of what size, worn centered side to side over the wearer’s left breast pocket? (Section 3101.6)
A
1/4 inch
69
Q
- Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person’s uniform? (Section 3101.7)
A
Commanding Officer
70
Q
- On the Dinner Dress Blue Jacket, how many 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons are there down each side of the front, with a front closure held in by buttons placed inside each front facing secured with an elastic closure (older style)? (Section 3501.14)
A
Three
71
Q
- The Newer style Dinner Dress Blue jacket is without buttons placed inside each front facing and is secured with bow many 28-line Navy eagle gilt buttons with a link chain closure? (Section 3501.14)
A
Two
72
Q
- Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will Male Trousers, Blue, Evening? (Section 3501.91)
A
2
73
Q
- Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole? (Section 3501.54)
A
3/4 inch -7/8 inch
74
Q
- What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in women’s dress heels? (Section 3501.54)
A
1/4 inch
75
Q
- The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between 2 inches and how many inches in vertical width? (Section 3501.36)
A
2.75”
76
Q
- The AII-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, water repellent coat made of a polycotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly what percent cotton poplin? (Section 3501.1)
A
65/35
77
Q
- Inside the All-Weather Coat, Blue lining, ownership markings must be 3 inches below collar seam, and inside on outer shell on manufacturer’s tag, how many inches from bottom left front? (Section 3501.1)
A
5
78
Q
- For Male Officers/CPOS, the overcoat, blue extends what amount of the distance from kneecap to ground, shaped at waist, held by a two section half-belt at back with the end of the belt overlapped and fastened with two 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons? (Section 3501.39)
A
44929
79
Q
- The female version of the blue overcoat has a single row of how many 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons on each forefront? (Section 3501.39)
A
Four
80
Q
- The white combination cap may be worn squarely on the head, with the bottom edge parallel to and how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.9)
A
1.5 inch
81
Q
- How many inches should the Male Officer/CPO boat cloak extend below the kneecap? (Section 3501.4)
A
2
82
Q
- On the all weather coat, anodized metal shoulder rank insignias shall be worm by E4 through O-10 personnel on each epaulet, centered from side to side with the bottom edge of the device approximately what length from the squared end of the epaulet? (Section 3501.1a)
A
0.75”
83
Q
- The cumberbund when worn shall be worn with pleats up, around the waist overlapping the skirt/trouser top by at least what length? (Section 3501.20)
A
1”
84
Q
- The male version of the white dinner dress coat jacket is semi- peaked with narrow lapels with the back tapered to a point, and loops for shoulder boards. There are two 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons down each side of the front, with a front closure held together by two 28-line Navy eagle buttons with a link approximately how long? (Section 3501.15)
A
¾”
85
Q
- Warrant Officers shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s) rather than being 2 inches apart? (Section 4103.1.d)
A
½ inch
86
Q
- Collar points of the CPO/0Officer males white dress shirt worn with the dinner dress uniform measure no more than how many inches with a medium spread? (Section 3501.49)
A
3.25”
87
Q
- Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe should dress blue trousers hang? (Section 3501.90)
A
2”
88
Q
- Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt with clip with the exception of the Navy Working Uniform (NWU) and Coveralls? (Section 3501.2)
A
Right
89
Q
- How many detachable 35-line Navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are there on the service dress white officers/CPO coat? (Section 3501.17)
A
5
90
Q
- The male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand is made of authorized fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide? (Section 3501.37)
A
3.25”
91
Q
- Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand hang? (Section 3501.37)
A
19
92
Q
- The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for LCDR and above shall have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half basket hilt, and fit in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic material presenting the leather appearance? (Section 3501.84)
A
36”
93
Q
- The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated with the buckle how many inches in diameter?(Section 3501.84)
A
2”
94
Q
- What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be? (Section 3501.87)
A
5/16 inch
95
Q
- How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps be worn on the four-in-hand tie? (Section 3501.87)
A
1”
96
Q
- The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point approximately what distance above the eyebrows? (Section3501.1
A
1 inch
97
Q
- The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what amount of the way up? (Section 3501.30)
A
3/4
98
Q
- Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater? (Section 3501.83)
A
E6 and below
99
Q
- Which uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with? (Section 5201.1.b)
A
Full Dress
100
Q
- Polycotton may be worn only as Working Khaki effective as of what year? (Section 3s01.94)
A
1999
101
Q
- Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall service khaki trousers hang? (Section 3501.94)
A
2 inches
102
Q
- Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper? (Section 3501.33)
A
Polyester
103
Q
- Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall coveralls hang? (Section 3501.18)
A
2 inches
104
Q
- When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out, forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point approximately 2 inches above the elbow? (Section 3501.18)
A
Three
105
Q
- The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches -4 inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.11)
A
1/4 inch
106
Q
- The Navy ballcap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.8)
A
1.5 inch
107
Q
- What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve PTU shirt 100% made of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and a crewneck collar? (Section 3601.3)
A
Polyester
108
Q
- When authorized, NWU sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital camouflage pattern of the NWU will show). Approximately how many inches above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be? (Section 3603.5)
A
Two
109
Q
- How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the NWU trouser legs? (Section 3603.6)
A
Three
110
Q
- The appropriate embroidered rank/rate collar insignias will be worn on the NWU by E-4 to 0-10 personnel. Except for flag officers, the center of the insignia will be placed at a point at approximately what distance from the front and lower edges of the collar and the vertical axis of the insignia will lie along an imaginary line bisecting the angle of the collar point? (Section 3603.13)
A
1 inch
111
Q
- NWU identification markings will be embroidered in approximately 3/4 inch block letters on approximately 1-1/4 inch wide fabric strips. Names exceedingly long can be embroidered in approximately what size letters? (Section 3603.16)
A
1/2 inch
112
Q
- Authorized (current assignment) Force or command/unit patch may be worn on the NWU wearer’s right breast pocket. The size of the patch shall not exceed how many inches in length/width/diameter? (Section 3603.16)
A
3 to 3-1/2
113
Q
- At least what percent of the way should the NWU Parka zipper be closed? (Section 3603.11)
A
0.75
114
Q
- The tip end of the utility belt will pass through the buckle, feeding back around the locking bar to the wearer’s left, extending how many inches beyond the buckle? (Section 3603.7a)
A
44961
115
Q
- White hats shall be worn squarely on the head with the lower front edge approximately what distance above the eyebrows and not crushed, bent, or rolled? (Section 3501.27)
A
1.5”
116
Q
- Which type of dark blue fabric is the dress blue jumper made from? (Section 3501.32)
A
Wool serge
117
Q
- The dress blue jumper collar is trimmed with three stripes of white tape, each 3/16 inch wide and 3/16 inch apart with the outer stripe at what distance from the collar edge? (Section 3501.32)
A
1/4 inch
118
Q
- What size is the plain black silk or synthetic fabric square that the neckerchief is made from? (Section 3501.38)
A
36»
119
Q
- What percentage of the distance from the wrist to the knuckles should the pettycoat sleeves reach when the arms are hanging naturally at the sides? (Section 350141)
A
0.75
120
Q
- Approximately how many inches above the floor at the back of the shoe should the black trousers for the E-6 and below service uniform hang? (Section 3602.5)
A
1 to 2 inches
121
Q
- What color are the ball earrings worn by E6 and below personnel? (Section 3501.23)
A
Silver
122
Q
- How many inches below the crease behind the knee can the Female Officer Formal and Dinner Dress Uniform Skirt Length be? (Section 3501.62)
A
1.5 inches
123
Q
- How deep must civilian handbags be when worn with the full dress uniform? (Section 3501.25)
A
2-4”
124
Q
- Approximately what distance from the forehead hairline tilted slightly to the right shall women wear the beret toward the front of the head? (Section 3501.3)
A
3/4 inch
125
Q
- What two leg length sizes do PTU shorts come in? (Section 3601.6)
A
6”or 8”
126
Q
- What shall athletic socks not extend past? (Section 3601.7)
A
Mid-calf
127
Q
- Sleeve insignia are gold stripes, black on green coats, in widths of either 2 inch, ½ inch, or what other size indicating the individual’s rank? (Section 4101.1)
A
1/4 inch
128
Q
- Sleeve insignia stripes encircle the sleeve with the lower edge of the first stripe how many inches from the edge of the sleeve? (Section 4101.2)
A
Two
129
Q
- What is the interval between stripes for sleeves that have multiple insignia stripes? (Section 4101.2)
A
1/4 inch
130
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5”? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Ensign
131
Q
- What officer rank wears a one ½ inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above it? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Lieutenant Junior Grade (LTJG)
132
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Lieutenant (LT)
133
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by two % inch stripes with one inch stripe in between on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Lieutenant Commander (LCDR)
134
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by three % inch stripes on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Commander (CDR)
135
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by four ½ inch stripes on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Captain (CPT)
136
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Rear admiral lower half
137
Q
- What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with one ½ inch stripe above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Rear admiral
138
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two ½ inch stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Vice Admiral
139
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three ½ inch stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Admiral
140
Q
- Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four ½ inch stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
A
Fleet Admiral
141
Q
- Which warrant ofticer rank is identified by one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
A
W-1
142
Q
- Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
A
W-2
143
Q
- Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
A
W-3
144
Q
- Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with one break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
A
W-4
145
Q
- Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
A
W-5
146
Q
- What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the sleeve with one ray pointing downward? (Section 4102.3)
A
Line
147
Q
- Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, surcharged with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down? (Section 4102.3)
A
Medical corps
148
Q
- Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down? (Section 4102.3)
A
Nurse corps
149
Q
- Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three oak leaves and three acorns, placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)? (Section 4102.3)
A
Supply corps
150
Q
- How many inches wide are the rating badges for female CPO’s? (Section 4211.1.a)
A
2.5
151
Q
- Approximately what percent of the size of the men’s rating badges are women’s rating insignia, chevrons and rockers? (Section 4211.1.a)
A
0.75
152
Q
- Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.a)
A
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
153
Q
- Who wear two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.c)
A
Fleet/Force Master Chief Petty Officers
154
Q
- How many inches long are male CPO0’s service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
A
7
155
Q
- How wide are male El-E6 service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
A
3/8 inch
156
Q
- How many inches long are female service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
A
5.25
157
Q
- How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first service stripe? (Section 4231.2)
A
Two
158
Q
- How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe? (Section 423 1.2)
A
1.5
159
Q
- How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized? (Section 4231.2)
A
1/4 inch
160
Q
- How many years of active duty service or reserve service in an active status in any of the arned services does it take for personnel to earn one service stripe? (Section 4231.4)
A
Four
161
Q
- How many cumulative years of good conduct do personnel have to have served before wearing gold service stripes? (Section 4232)
A
12
162
Q
- How many months at a maximum after the effective completion date of a rating merger must personnel transition to the new rating badge? (Section 4235)
A
24
163
Q
- Security Badges will be metal or embroidered patches, gold in color, black lettering and approximately 2 1/2 inch in height by how many inches in width? (Section S101j.1)
A
1.75
164
Q
- Who must authorize Navy personnel assigned to Joint/Unified Commands to wear distinctive command identification badges? (Section 5101.k.1)
A
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
165
Q
- Only personnel permanently assigned to what ship may wear Navy- issued 1813 pattern uniforms? (Section 6201.3.a)
A
USS Constitution
166
Q
- There are two distinct 1813 officer uniforms: one worn by the Commanding Officer and the other worn by whom? (Section 6201.3.b)
A
Lieutenants
167
Q
- Who wears white leather gauntlet gloves, baldric, and tall bear skin hat when in Full Dress Blue or Whites in the Navy Band? (Section 6301.1.c.5)
A
Drum Major
168
Q
- Which instruction establishes burial uniform policy? (Section 6404.1)
A
NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
169
Q
- What is defined as articles of clothing worn as part of the doctrinal or traditional observance of the religious faith practiced by the member? (Section 6405.1)
A
Religious apparel
170
Q
- Up to how many months from the date of delivery based on medical officer diagnosis/recommendation may the Commanding Officer approve the wear of maternity uniforms? (Section 6701.1)
A
Six
171
Q
- What is defined as any clothing loaned to an individual by a naval activity, for which there is a requirement above and beyond authorized Navy uniforms? (Section 6801.1)
A
Organizational clothing
172
Q
- Which type of clothing provides increased protection from flash fire situations which have been prevalent with the threat of Improvised Explosive Devices and other safety hazards? (Section 6802.6)
A
Flame-Resistant Organization Clothing/Gear (FROG)
173
Q
- Flight suits shall be clean and well kept. Sleeves will be worn full length with hook and pile (Velcro) sleeve cuffs closed or with a maximum of how many outward rolls when not engaged in flight operations? (Section 6803.3.a)
A
Two
174
Q
- What is defined as Summer Whites without ribbons for both male and female medical personnel? (Section 6902.2)
A
Indoor Duty White
175
Q
- Reserve officers, on active duty for periods less than how many months, need not have a sword, sword accessories, or Dinner Dress Jackets? (Section 61001.1.b)
A
Six
176
Q
- Four Criteria will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel: content, location, size and what else? (Section 7101.6)
A
Cosmetic
177
Q
- What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section 7101.7)
A
Mutilation
178
Q
- Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian clothing in the performance of their official duties? (Section 7102.1)
A
Chief of Naval Operations (N131U)
179
Q
- Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located? (Page 1-1)
A
Annapolis, Maryland
180
Q
- What are Naval Academy students designated as? (Page 1-1)
A
Midshipmen
181
Q
- What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the U.S. Marine Corps Reserve? (Page 1-1)
A
Second Lieutenants
182
Q
- How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate? (Page 1-1)
A
5
183
Q
- What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy? (Page 1-1)
A
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)
184
Q
- Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action? (Page 1-2)
A
3
185
Q
- How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day? (Page 1-2)
A
17
186
Q
- What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution? Page 1-2)
A
OCS
187
Q
- How many weeks long is OCS? (Page 1-2)
A
12
188
Q
- What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for OCS graduates? (Page 1-2)
A
4 years
189
Q
- How old must OCS applicants be? (Page 1-3)
A
19
190
Q
- How many consecutive “good-low final PRT scores prior to entry into the OCS program must applicants have? (Page 1-3)
A
Two
191
Q
- Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps? (Page 1-3)
A
MECP
192
Q
- How many consecutive calendar months do MECP selectees have to complete degree requirements? (Page 1-3)
A
36
193
Q
- How many-years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates? (Page 1-4)
A
8
194
Q
- What is the maximum amount of months that MSC IPP program selectees have to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)? (Page 1-5)
A
48
195
Q
- What will MSC IPP Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as after they complete their degree? (Page 1-5)
A
Lieutenant
196
Q
- What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for MSC IPP programs? (Page 1-5)
A
E-5
197
Q
- Which commissioning programs provide commissioning opportunities to qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree? (Page 1-6)
A
LDO and CWO
198
Q
- Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills? (Page 1-6)
A
LDOS
199
Q
- Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field? (Page 1-6)
A
CWOS
200
Q
- What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for LDO? (Page 1-6)
A
4 years
201
Q
- What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES personnel who are selected for LDO? (Page 1-7)
A
3 years
202
Q
- What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for CWO? (Page 1-7)
A
4 years
203
Q
- What shall E-9 Active duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO be appointed as that have completed 2 years TIR as of 1 October of the year in which the CWO board convenes? (Page 1-7)
A
CWO3
204
Q
- What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active duty CWOS selected for LDO be appointed as? (Page 1-7)
A
LTJG (02E)
205
Q
- Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for LDO applicants? (Page 1-8)
A
3
206
Q
- Active duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service? (Page 1-8)
A
16
207
Q
- What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must meet at the time of application and appointment? (Page 1-8)
A
Satisfactory medium
208
Q
- Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service? (Page 1-9)
A
22
209
Q
- Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Navy or Naval Reserve to earn a degree and receive a commission? (Page 1-9)
A
STA-21
210
Q
- How many components make up STA-21? (Page 1-10)
A
2
211
Q
- Which program was designed to to improve STA-21 applicants academic skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)? (Page 1-10)
A
BOOST
212
Q
- Which 8-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university assignment? (Page 1-10)
A
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
213
Q
- Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance? (Page 1-10)
A
OPNAVINST 1160.6A
214
Q
- All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what course? (Page 1-10)
A
NSI
215
Q
- Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to supplement tuition cost, books, and fees? (Page 1-11)
A
510000
216
Q
- Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy’s Tuition Assistance Montgomery GI Bill (MGIB) educational benefits? (Page 1- 11)
A
BUPERSINST 1780.1
217
Q
- How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a baccalaureate degree in? (Page 1-11)
A
36
218
Q
- What age must STA-21 candidates be able to complete degree requirements and be commissioned prior to? (Page 1-11)
A
31
219
Q
- Within how many years of STA-21 application due date must candidates have certified copies of SAT or ACT test scores? (Page 1-11)
A
3
220
Q
- What is the minimum ACT English score required for STA-21 candidates? (Page 1-11)
A
20
221
Q
- What must all commissioned officers possess? (Page 2-2)
A
U.S. citizenship
222
Q
- What form can officer applicants use to satisfy proof of U.S. Citizenship requirements if they reside in a state where it is illegal to copy the birth certificate? (Page 2-2)
A
DD Form 372
223
Q
- What is the minimum Service School duration that were attended but not listed on the SMART that must be entered in block 25 of officer applications? (Page 2-4)
A
2-weeks
224
Q
- How many prior consecutive official PRT scores must be entered into block 19 of officer applications? Page 2-3)
A
3
225
Q
- What must the security manager obtain verification from that the appropriate entrance agency check is possessed by officer applicants? Page 2 5)
A
DONCAF
226
Q
- Which completed form must OCS, MECP, or MSC PP program applicants who do not have either a valid Entry Level National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or National Agency Check (NAC) include with the Officer Programs Application? Page 2-5)
A
SF 86
227
Q
- What are Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are not selected for direct entry automatically considered for entrance into? (Page 3-1)
A
NAPS
228
Q
- Applicants should not have passed which birthday on July lst of the year that they will be considered for NAPS? (Page 3-1)
A
22d
229
Q
- How many enlisted members of the Regular and Reserve Navy and Marine Corps may be appointed to the Naval Academy each year by the Secretary of the Navy? (Page 3-1)
A
170
230
Q
- What is a four-year military college that offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young persons to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps after obtaining a Bachelor of Science degree? (Page 3-2)
A
U.S. Naval Academy
231
Q
- What is the minimum active duty service obligation upon initial appointment for graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
A
5
232
Q
- Which school provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training at the Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
A
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)
233
Q
- What is the minimum age that people can be to apply to the Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
A
17
234
Q
- What administers medical examinations for Naval Academy applicants? (Page 3-3)
A
DODMERB
235
Q
- Applicants to the Naval Academy in addition to other requirements must be scholastically qualified with an acceptable secondary school transcript with college preparatory subjects and grades indicating college capability and a class standing normally in the top what percent in high school? (Page 3-4)
A
0.4
236
Q
- What is the maximum acceptable age of SAT or ACT scores when applying for the Naval Academy? (Page 3-4)
A
2 years
237
Q
- What is the minimum ACT English score necessary to be considered for a Secretary of the Navy nomination to the Naval Academy? (Page 3- 4)
A
22
238
Q
- What will remain the final authority on whether a member meets Naval Academy academic requirements based on a whole person assessment? (Page 3-6)
A
Naval Academy’s Admissions Board
239
Q
- A minimum of how many remaining months of active obligated service, as of July 1st of the entering year must service members offered an appointment to the Naval Academy have? (Page 3-7)
A
24
240
Q
- What is the maximum number of years that Midshipmen who are separated or whose resignations are accepted after the start of the junior year in the Naval Academy, but before completing the course of instruction, may be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty? (Page 3-8)
A
4
241
Q
- How many years may Midshipmen who complete the course of instruction in the Naval Academy and decline to accept an appointment as a commissioned officer be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty? (Page 3-8)
A
4
242
Q
- Approximately how much money must be remitted by each Naval Academy candidate upon admission to the Naval Academy as an entry deposit which is applied to the initial uniform issue? (Page 3-9)
A
2500
243
Q
- Enlisted OCS applicants in what paygrades or above are designated as officer candidates in their present paygrades? (Page 4-2)
A
E-5
244
Q
- How many years of service obligation is incurred upon Pilot (13 1X)) (Maritime and Rotary Wing Communities) community designation? (Page 4 1)
A
8
245
Q
- Which initial commissioning program is for individuals possessing a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution? (Page 4 2)
A
ODS
246
Q
- How many weeks is OCS which is an intensive officer training and indoctrination program? (Page 4-2)
A
12
247
Q
- E-4 and below enlisted applicants are designated as officer candidates and will be advanced to what paygrade upon reporting to OCS? (Page 4- 2)
A
E-5
248
Q
- What is the minimum active duty obligation incurred by OCSgraduates? (Page 4-2)
A
4 years
249
Q
- How old must 0CS applicants be? (Page 4-3)
A
19
250
Q
- What age must Surface Warfare Officers (1160) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
A
29
251
Q
- What age must Naval Flight Officers (1370) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
A
27
252
Q
- What age must Public Affairs Officers (1650) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
A
35
253
Q
- What age must Information Warfare Officers (1640) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
A
35
254
Q
- What age must Pilots (1390) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
A
27
255
Q
- What age must SWO Information Professionals (IP Option) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
A
35
256
Q
- What is usually the minimum score on the Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination required to be competitive? (Page 4-6)
A
35
257
Q
- What is the minimum Officer Aptitude Rating (0AR) examination score required for the Intel community? (Page 4-6)
A
45
258
Q
- What form is required for all applicants who do not possess a current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check (NAC)? (Page 4-8)
A
SF 86
259
Q
- There is no specific deadline for officer applications as selections are made on a continuous basis throughout the year except for which officers that have annual selections? (Page 4-8)
A
Public Affairs Officer (PAO)
260
Q
- How many officer interviews are required for an officer application? (Page 4-9)
A
Three
261
Q
- What minimum paygrade should the officer(s) conducting officer application interviews be? (Page 4-9)
A
0-3
262
Q
- Which officer program disqualifies personnel who have defective color vision? (Page 4-9)
A
URL
263
Q
- Officer selectees will be required to have an HIV test within how long after they apply for the program regardless of date of physical exam? (Page 4-10)
A
1 year
264
Q
- How many months must OCS applicants have of obligated service remaining on their current enlistment upon receipt of OCS orders? (Page 4-10)
A
6 months
265
Q
- Voluntary extensions for OCS are not authorized if the aggregate of all extensions during the current enlistment exceeds how many months? (Page 4-11)
A
48
266
Q
- Which commissioning program was specifically intended to provide an advancement pathway to a commissioned status in the Nurse Corps? (Page 5-1)
A
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)
267
Q
- What is the minimum amount of transferable college credits needed to apply for MECP? (Page 5-1)
A
30
268
Q
- How many miles from a naval activity should colleges or universities be, when possible, to which the MECP participant will be ordered, for administrative purposes, on a Permanent Change of Station (PCS) basis? (Page 5-1)
A
50
269
Q
- How many consecutive months do MECP selectees have to complete the requirements for a baccalaureate degree? (Page 5-2)
A
36
270
Q
- How many years of active duty service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates? (Page S-2)
A
4
271
Q
- What is the last birthday that MECP applicants can have reached by the time of initial appointment and commissioning to be eligible? (Page5-2)
A
42nd
272
Q
- MECP applicants are required to submit a precommissioning SF 88 or DD Form 2808 and SF 93 or DD Form 2807-1 within the last 12 months (or how many months for those applicants deployed)? (Page 5-3)
A
18
273
Q
- What is the minimum recommended SAT score for MECP applicants? (Page 5-4)
A
1000
274
Q
- How many of the last consecutive years of EVAL’s shall all MECP packages contain? (Page 5-5)
A
Five
275
Q
- How many years within the application due date are SAT or ACT test scores considered acceptable for MECP packages? (Page 5-5)
A
3
276
Q
- What convenes an annual selection board to consider eligible MECP applicants? (Page 5-9)
A
CHNAVPERS
277
Q
- How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP appointees upon commissioning? Page 5-9)
A
8
278
Q
- What school must be completed by MECP appointees? (Page 5-10)
A
Officer Development School (ODS)
279
Q
- How many times can Nurse Corps Officers take and fail the licensure examination before they may be re-appointed through the training attrite process to a different officer community/designator to complete any incurred active duty obligation? (Page 5-10)
A
2
280
Q
- Within how many days of notification of selection must any MECP selectee who does not desire to participate in the program notify Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM (Code OG3)? (Page 5-10)
A
15
281
Q
- Within how many months after NAVMELDEDTRACOM receives a program letter of acceptance from the MECP selectee will PCS orders be issued? (Page 5-11)
A
5
282
Q
- How many years of active service obligation by extending or reenlisting will be incurred by the MECP student prior to detaching their current command? (Page 5-12)
A
6
283
Q
- MECP selectees are authorized to reenlist more than I year early if they are unable to satisfy the 6-year obligated service requirement with an extension of how many months or less? (Page 5-12)
A
48
284
Q
19, MECP students are not required to have an annual physical, but must pass the Physical Readiness Test as required by what reference? (Page S- 13)
A
OPNAVINST 6110.1G
285
Q
- Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM will report to the Chief of Naval Operations (NI131M5) and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, BUMED (M131), a minimum of how many times per year, the names, last four digits of their social security numbers, administrative commands to which assigned, and expected graduation dates of all MECP candidates? (Page S-13)
A
Twice
286
Q
- MSC IPP is available to communities for members of the Regular Navy and Regular Marine Corps, and Naval Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve on active duty, including Full Time Support (FTS), and Active Reserve (AR) serving in any rating or Military Occupational Specialty (MOS), in paygrades E-5 through what pay grade at the time of application (paygrade is not waiverable)? (Page 6-1)
A
E-9
287
Q
- All applicants who have completed a bachelor’s degree, including applicants who have completed a master’s, must submit official GRE, GMAT, Or the appropriate test score defined within the specialty requirement completed within how many years of application due date for MSC IPP? (Page 6-2)
A
5
288
Q
- What is the recommended ACT score for MSC PP candidates? (Page 6-2)
A
42
289
Q
- Up to how many months do personnel selected for any MSC IPP program who require training to complete their degree (dependent upon the program) with benefits that include tuition, mandatory fees, book allowance, full pay and allowances for their enlisted paygrades, and eligibility for advancement while in college? (Page 6-2)
A
48
290
Q
- What is the minimum active duty military service obligation incurred by MSC PP selectees upon commissioning? (Page 6-3)
A
3 years
291
Q
- What form is used by personnel who reside in States where it is illegal to copy, photocopy, or photograph birth certificates o naturalization certificates? (Page 6-3)
A
DD Form 372
292
Q
- MSC IPP applicants must not have reached what birthday by time of initial appointment and commissioning? (Page 6-3)
A
42nd
293
Q
- What form is required for all MSC IPP applicants who do not possess a current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check (NAC)? (Page 6-5)
A
SF 86
294
Q
- What is the minimum GPA that HCA IPP applicants must have? Page 6-5)
A
2.5
295
Q
- For PA IPP applicants, minimum educational requirement is a high school diploma, GED, ASVAB or equivalent with how many semester hours of transferable college credit? (Page 6-7)
A
60
296
Q
- What is the minimum GPA that RHO IPP applicants must have for science courses? (Page 6-9)
A
3
297
Q
- EHO PP applicants, upon completion of baccalaureate degree in environmental health, will be commissioned and will be enrolled in a Master of Public Health degree program that lasts how long? (Page 6- 10)
A
1-year
298
Q
- How many months must IHO IPP applicants be able to complete a degree in? (Page 6-11)
A
24
299
Q
- LDO and CWO applicants must be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action under Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice, no courts martial conviction or civilian felony conviction, or conviction by a civil court for misdemeanors (except minor traffic violations ($300 or less) in the past how years as of 1 October of the year application is made? (Page 7-1)
A
3
300
Q
- How many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse result in disqualification for LDO and CWO applicants? (Page 7-1)
A
3
301
Q
- Which chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department defines the physical qualifications required for appointment to LDO and CW0? (Page 7 1)
A
15
302
Q
- What are the minimum PRT Scores that must be met by LDO and CWO applicants at the time of application and appointment? (Page 7-1)
A
Satisfactory-medium
303
Q
- Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four elements of the Navy’s suicide prevention program? (Page 2)
A
Reporting
304
Q
- At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military installations? (Page 2)
A
Annually
305
Q
- MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors? (Page 5)
A
OPNAVINST 3100.6
306
Q
- What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit orexplicit) of the intent to die? (Page 5)
A
Suicide
307
Q
- Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DODSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by the medical examiner? (Page 5)
A
60
308
Q
- How many weeks after a member’s suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the DODSER and respond to unforeseen questions? (Page 5)
A
45085
309
Q
- What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence (either implicit or explicit) of intent to die? (Page 5)
A
Suicide attempt
310
Q
- Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DODSER be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by competent medical authority? (Page 5)
A
30
311
Q
- Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully implemented? (Page 6)
A
SPC
312
Q
- Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy? (Page 6)
A
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education) (CNO (N1)
313
Q
- Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibit suicide-related ideations, communications or behaviors? (Page T)
A
Chief, BUMED
314
Q
- Who develops the written procedures to ensure that chaplains/religious program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities throughout the Navy? (Page 7)
A
OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (NO97)
315
Q
- Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies? (Page 8)
A
Commander, Navy Installations Command
316
Q
- The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include rate specific suicide intervention training at “A” schools and “C” schools for hospital corpsman, religious program specialists and which other rate? (Page 8)
A
Master-at-arms
317
Q
- What should the minimum rank of the SPC be whenever it is possible? (Page 9)
A
E-7
318
Q
- How often should Commanding Officers ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel? (Page 9)
A
Annually
319
Q
- What are any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors defined as? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
A
Suicide-Related ldeations
320
Q
- What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
A
Suicide Threat
321
Q
- What is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
A
Suicide Plan
322
Q
- What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
A
Self-harm
323
Q
- What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure? (Page 1)
A
Human error
324
Q
- What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits? (Page
A
ORM
325
Q
- Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance? (Page 3)
A
OPNAV (NO9F)
326
Q
- Who is the ORM model manager? (Page 3)
A
NAVSAFECEN
327
Q
- Who serves as the Navy’s ORM program subject matter expert (SME)? (Page 3)
A
NAVSAFECEN
328
Q
- How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness? (Page 5)
A
Biennially
329
Q
- Which activity shall integrate specific applications of the ORM process into Navy occupational standards for the Navy’s individual training standards? (Page S)
A
Naval Manpower Analysis Center
330
Q
- Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training ofall military and civilian command personnel? (Page 7)
A
Command ORM manager
331
Q
- How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination? (Page 7)
A
Annually
332
Q
- What decision making tool is used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks? (Page
A
ORM
333
Q
- How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process? (Page 2)
A
Four
334
Q
- In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on? (Page 3)
A
Time critical
335
Q
- Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task? (Page 3)
A
In-depth
336
Q
- Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission ortask? (Page 4)
A
Deliberate
337
Q
- Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level? (Page 4)
A
ABCD
338
Q
- The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step? (Page 5)
A
Supervise
339
Q
- Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation? (Page
A
Identify and Assess the hazards
340
Q
- What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an intuitive fashion with help screens and process information? (Page 7)
A
TRACS
341
Q
- What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death, or property damage? (Page 7)
A
Hazard
342
Q
- What is the foundation of the entire risk management process? (Page 7)
A
Hazard identification
343
Q
- What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation? (Page 8)
A
Root cause
344
Q
- What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or task? (Page 8)
A
Severity
345
Q
- Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission? (Page 8)
A
Category I
346
Q
- Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)
A
Category II
347
Q
- Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)
A
Category III
348
Q
- Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)
A
Category IV
349
Q
- What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called? (Page 9)
A
Probability
350
Q
- Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time? (Page 9)
A
A
351
Q
- Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time? (Page 9)
A
B
352
Q
- Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that may occur in time? (Page 9)
A
C
353
Q
- Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are unlikely to occur but that are not impossible? (Page 9)
A
D
354
Q
- How many basic actions are there which ultimately lead to making informed risk decisions? (Page 10)
A
Three
355
Q
- Which type of controls take the form of barriers to guard against a hazard? (Page 13)
A
Physical
356
Q
- What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level? (Page 1)
A
TCRM
357
Q
- Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn new or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding? (Page 1)
A
ABCD
358
Q
- Which ORM steps does the “A” in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model combine? (Page 5)
A
identify and Assess hazards
359
Q
- Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions? (Page 5)
A
Balance resources
360
Q
- Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM process? (Page 5)
A
Communicate to others
361
Q
- Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the D” in the mnemonic of the ABCD model correlated to? (Page 5)
A
Implement controls and Supervise
362
Q
- Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training? (Page 2)
A
Accession point
363
Q
- Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command ORM manager? (Page 3)
A
XO
364
Q
- Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command? (Page 3)
A
ORM manager
365
Q
- How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course? (Page 4)
A
Triennially
366
Q
- What is used to measure ORM implementation? (Page 1)
A
ORM evaluation
367
Q
- How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by any activity or command for self-assessment? (Page 1)
A
Two
368
Q
- How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation? (Page 1)
A
Annually
369
Q
- What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called? (Page 1)
A
Acceptable risk
370
Q
- Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual’s or crew’s attention during the execution of a mission or task? (Page 1)
A
Additive Condition
371
Q
- Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas, deferring judgment until the end of the session? (Page 1)
A
Brainstorming
372
Q
- Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel, or the mission? (Page 2)
A
Consequential
373
Q
- What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as? Page 2)
A
Controls
374
Q
- What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard? (Page 2)
A
Exposure
375
Q
- How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process? (Page 3)
A
6
376
Q
- What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards? (Page 3)
A
Operational Analysis
377
Q
- What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an operation, task, or mission? (Page 3)
A
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
378
Q
- What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified and selected? (Page 3)
A
Residual risk
379
Q
- What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people or equipment? (Page 3)
A
Resource
380
Q
- What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity? (Page
A
Risk
381
Q
- What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help determine hazard abatement priorities? (Page 4)
A
Risk Assessment Code (RAC)
382
Q
- What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one’s perception of the current environment mirrors reality? (Page 4)
A
Situational Awareness (SA)
383
Q
- Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel? (Page 2)
A
SECNAVINST 5300.26D
384
Q
- What promotes positive command morale and Quality of Life (Q0L) by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes? (Page 2)
A
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
385
Q
- Who monitors the Navy’s progress toward accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates? (Page 4)
A
CNO
386
Q
- How often must the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO Climate Assessment describing the “health” and organizational effectiveness of the Navy? (Page 5)
A
Annually
387
Q
- Which office is responsible for providing the overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates? (Page 5)
A
Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO)
388
Q
- By which date each year must the OJAG provide a summary of the fiscal years UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150 actions relating to unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Navy EO Office? (Page 6)
A
November 15h
389
Q
- Who is the investigative authority for all Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment complaints against flag officers or SES officials? (Page 6)
A
Naval Inspector General
390
Q
- Which center function as the Navy’s equal opportunity training manager and develops the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels? (Page 7)
A
Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
391
Q
- Within how many days of assuming command will Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate? (Page 7)
A
90
392
Q
- How often must Commanding Officers and Officers In Charge provide Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment training and grievance procedure instruction as required per SECNAVINST S350.16A for all assigned command members as part of CPPD generated GMT? (Page 8)
A
Annually
393
Q
- What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service for officers to be the CMEO Manager? (Page 9)
A
4
394
Q
- How long at a minimum should CMEO Managers serve in their position? (Page 9)
A
One year
395
Q
- How many years must C0’s/OIC’s ensure that completed copies of all Navy Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint Forms are maintained in the CMEO Manager record file? (Page 9)
A
Three
396
Q
- CO’s/OIC’s shall ensure that detailed Naval messages, are sent upon receipt of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH, per which reference? (Page 9)
A
DOD Directive 1325.6
397
Q
- Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC? (Page 10)
A
60
398
Q
- Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 10)
A
EOA
399
Q
- Who functions as the single point of contact, when practicable, for command equal opportunity issues? (Page 10)
A
CMEO Manager
400
Q
- How many years will CMEO Managers maintain CMEO record files? (Page 11)
A
Three
401
Q
- Which representatives are assigned by the commander to ensure that complainants, accused, and witnesses in equal opportunity and sexual harassment cases are informed of the complaint process and are advised of the available support and counseling services? (Page 1)
A
Advocates
402
Q
- What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity? (Page 2)
A
Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
403
Q
- What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified? (Page 2)
A
Equal Opportunity (EO)
404
Q
- Which NEC is held by Equal Opportunity Advisors? (Page 3)
A
NEC 9515
405
Q
- Which system resolve Equal Opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level? (Page 4)
A
Informal Resolution System (IRS)
406
Q
- Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment? (Page 5)
A
Reasonable Person Standard
407
Q
- Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication? (Page 5)
A
Reprisal
408
Q
- Which process identifies areas of concern or issues related to command climate by finding areas of commonality in a minimum of three areas of the command assessment? (Page 7)
A
Triangulation Method
409
Q
- Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive? (Page 1)
A
Unwelcome
410
Q
- Where must unwelcome sexual behavior occur in or impact to be considered Sexual Harassment? (Page 2)
A
Work environment
411
Q
- Which type of Sexual Harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 2)
A
Quid pro quo
412
Q
- Which color light on the traffic light scale would touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) be identified as? (Page 3)
A
Green
413
Q
- Which color light on the traffic light scale would repeated requests for dates, leering, staring, or whistling be that many would find unacceptable? (Page 3)
A
Yellow
414
Q
- Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment? (Page 3)
A
Red
415
Q
- What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices? (Page 1)
A
Chain of command
416
Q
- Which instruction contains the DoN’s policy on military Equal Opportunity complaint processing? (Page 1)
A
SECNAVINST 5350.16A
417
Q
- How many days within the offending incident should Equal Opportunity complaints be made? (Page 2)
A
60
418
Q
- Which form can individuals use to file Equal Opportunity complaints? (Page 3)
A
NAVPERS 5354/2
419
Q
- Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a formal Equal Opportunity complaint submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority? (Page 3)
A
1
420
Q
- Within how many hours of receiving a formal Equal Opportunity complaint must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender as well as any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing? (Page 4)
A
24
421
Q
- Within how many hours after receiving an Equal Opportunity complaint submission must the investigation commence? (Page 4)
A
72
422
Q
- Within how many days after the Equal Opportunity investigation commences must a close-out message be sent describing what actions were taken? (Page 4)
A
20
423
Q
- How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity complaint investigation is not completed at the 20-day point until the close-out message describing case disposition is released? (Page 4)
A
Every 14 days
424
Q
- How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must commands conduct a follow-up debrief? (Page 5)
A
30-45
425
Q
- How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity complaints and investigations for? (Page 5)
A
36
426
Q
- Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders and Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers providing assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 1)
A
EOAS
427
Q
- How often must EOA’s conduct a review of subordinate commands’ executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander? (Page 1)
A
Annually
428
Q
- The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused and witness in an EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are advised of available support and counseling services? (Page 1)
A
Personal advocate
429
Q
- Which instruction provides the comprehensive Department of the Navy (DON) policy for all military and civilian personnel on the identification, prevention, and elimination of sexual harassment as well as establishes the regulations to enforce that policy? (Page l)
A
SECNAVINST 5300.26D
430
Q
- Which departments definition of sexual harassment establishes a standard that exceeds that of the EEOC? (Page 2)
A
DOD
431
Q
- Within how many days of accession will all DON personnel, military and civilian, be educated and trained in the areas of sexual harassment identification, prevention, resolution and elimination? (Page 2)
A
90
432
Q
- How many different tiers are in behavioral zone approach training programs to explain the sexual harassment spectrum? (Page 3)
A
Three
433
Q
- DON personnel who may be called upon to conduct or review investigations into alleged incidents of sexual harassment should receive training in DON policy on investigative methods and processes along with what else? (Page 3)
A
Equal opportunity
434
Q
- What level should all reported incidents of sexual harassment be investigated and resolved at? (Page 3)
A
Lowest possible level
435
Q
- What is the cornerstone of the sexual harassment elimination effort? (Page 5)
A
Sound leadership
436
Q
- Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for sexual harassment? (Page 1)
A
Reasonable person standard
437
Q
- What is it known as when personnel take or threaten to take an unfavorable personnel action or withhold or threaten to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member or civilian employee for participating in the EEO or EO appeal process? (Page 1)
A
Reprisal
438
Q
- Which type of behavior is unwelcome, sexual in nature, and connected in some way with a person’s job or work environment? (Page 1)
A
Sexual harassment
439
Q
- Occurring in the workplace, sexual in nature, along with what else are the three criteria that must be met for behavior to be considered as sexual harassment? (Page 1)
A
Unwelcome
440
Q
- Which type of unasked for behavior is considered by the offended party to be undesirable or offensive in nature? (Page 1)
A
Unwelcome behavior
441
Q
- Which type of sexual harassment have personnel been subjected to when recipients are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 2)
A
Quid pro quo
442
Q
- What has occurred if sexual harassment behavior produces a work atmosphere which is offensive, intimidating, or abusive to another person, whether or not work performance is affected? (Page 2)
A
Hostile environment
443
Q
- Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands, or a friendly pat on the shoulder), counseling on military appearance, social interaction, showing concern or encouragement, a polite compliment, or friendly conversation? (Page 3)
A
Green
444
Q
- Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by violating personal space, whistling, questions about personal life, lewd or sexually suggestive comments, suggestive posters or calendars, off- color jokes, leering, staring, repeated requests for dates, foul language, unwanted letters or poems, or sexually suggestive touching or gesturing? (Page
A
Yellow
445
Q
- Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by sexual favors in return for employment rewards, threats if sexual favors are not provided, sexually explicit pictures (including calendars or posters) or remarks, using status to request dates, or obscene letters or comments are all behaviors that are always considered sexual harassment? (Page 3)
A
Red
