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PMK EE 2 Flashcards

1
Q

32. What was the name of the first operational submarine in the Navy? (Page 5-12)

A

USS Holland

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2
Q
  1. The USS Skipjack (SS 24) along with what else were the first vessels to have diesel engines installed? (Page 5-12)
A

USS Sturgeon (SS 25)

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3
Q
  1. What year did construction begin on the first United States Navy Destroyer? (Page S-12)
A

1899

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4
Q
  1. How many destroyers were ordered during World War I? (Page 5- 12)
A

273

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5
Q
  1. The USS Texas along with which other vessel were the first two commissioned battleships? (Page 5-13)
A

USS Maine

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6
Q
  1. Who was the U.S. Navy’s first officer in charge of aviation? (Page 5- 13)
A

Captain Washington Irving Chambers

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7
Q
  1. Who successfully took off from and landed a biplane on a platform rigged aboard USS Pennsylvania (ACR 4) demonstrating the practical use of naval aircraft? (Page 5-13)
A

Eugene Ely

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8
Q

39, Who was the first Naval Aviator? (Page S-13)

A

Lieutenant T. G. Ellyson

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9
Q
  1. What was the first battleship to use oil? (Page 5-13)
A

USS Nevada (BB 36)

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10
Q
  1. What year did the Great White Fleet depart Hampton Roads, Virginia for a round-the-world cruise to display the flag? (Page 5-14)
A

1907

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11
Q
  1. What was the main German U-boats defense? (Page 5-14)
A

Destroyers

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12
Q
  1. The USS Nicholson along with what other destroyer were the first U.S. ships to sink an enemy submarine on November 17, 1917? (Page 5- 14)
A

USS Fanning

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13
Q
  1. What year was the recommendation given by a Navy surgeon to employ women in hospitals in order to care for the Navy’s sick and wounded? (Page 5-14)
A

1811

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14
Q
  1. What year were the Nurse Corps officially established? (Page 5-14)
A

1908

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15
Q
  1. Who piloted the NC-4 which became the first airplane to fly across the Atlantic? (Page 5-15)
A

LCDR Albert C. Read

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16
Q
  1. What year did the USS Ranger join the fleet? (Page 5-15)
A

1934

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17
Q
  1. What year did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor? (Page 5-16)
A

1941

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18
Q
  1. Which battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers? (Page 5-16)
A

Coral Sea

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19
Q
  1. Which battle was the turning point of the war in the Pacific? (Page 5- 17)
A

Midway

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20
Q
  1. What year was the invasion of Normandy? (Page 5-17)
A

1944

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21
Q
  1. Which war did radar and sonar came into full use? (Page 5-18)
A

World War II

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22
Q
  1. What year did Congress authorize the Women’s Reserve establishment with an estimated goal of 10,000 enlisted women and 1,000 officers? (Page 5-18)
A

1942

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23
Q
  1. What was the first Reserve classification for female officers? (Page 5-18)
A

W-V(S)

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24
Q
  1. What year did a squadron of FH-1 Phantoms qualify for carrier operations aboard the USS Saipan (CVL-48)? (Page S-19)
A

1948

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25
Q
  1. What year did the Korean Conflict end? (Page 5-21)
A

1953

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26
Q
  1. What was the first nuclear submarine put to sea on January 17, 1955? (Page 5-21)
A

USS Nautilus

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27
Q
  1. Who made America’s first suborbital flight on May 5, 1961? (Page 5-22)
A

Commander Alan B. Shepard, Jr.

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28
Q
  1. What year did America enter the Vietnam conflict? (Page 5-23)
A

1965

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29
Q
  1. What was the first nuclear-powered carrier in the world? (Page 5- 24)
A

USS Enterprise (CVN 65)

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30
Q
  1. Former Navy pilot Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the moon on what date? (Page 5-24)
A

July 20, 1969

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31
Q
  1. What was the Navy’s first deep diving vehicle? (Page 5-24)
A

USS Alvin

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32
Q
  1. What was the first Trident submarine which was a nuclear powered fleet ballistic missile submarine? (Page 5-24)
A

USS Ohio (SSBN-726)

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33
Q
  1. What year was the Department of Defense (DoD) created by the United States? (Page 6-1)
A

1947

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34
Q
  1. Who heads the DoD? (Page6-1)
A

Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)

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35
Q
  1. What year was the Department of the Navy established? (Page 6-3)
A

1798

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36
Q
  1. Which series is used for guiding unit organization? (Page 6-6)
A

OPNAVINST 3120.32

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37
Q
  1. Battle along with what other organization comprise the two ship organization elements? (Page 6-7)
A

Administrative

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38
Q
  1. Which department collects and evaluates combat and operational information as well as conducts electronic warfare? (Page 6-8)
A

Operations

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39
Q
  1. Which department operates, cares for, and maintains all propulsion and auxiliary machinery? (Page 6-8)
A

Engineering

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40
Q
  1. Who directly represents the Commanding Officer in maintaining shipboard general efficiency? (Page 6-9)
A

XO

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41
Q
  1. Who is the voice of all enlisted personnel having direct access to the Commanding Officer? (Page 6-10)
A

CMC

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42
Q
  1. What is the basic unit of shipboard organization? (Page 6-10)
A

Division

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43
Q
  1. Which department is responsible for official correspondence, personnel records, and directives? (Page 6-12)
A

Administrative

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44
Q
  1. What is the relationship of juniors and seniors within an organization called? (Page 6-14)
A

Chain of Command

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45
Q
  1. What requires individuals to be accountable for the performance of their assigned tasks within an organization? (Page 6-14)
A

Responsibility

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46
Q
  1. What is the ability of personnel to report, explain, or justify every action taken? (Page 6-14)
A

Accountability

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47
Q
  1. The chain of command extends from nonrated personnel all the way to whom? (Page 6-15)
A

President of the United States

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48
Q
  1. What is the general work that goes on about the ship’s deck and the equipment used called? (Page 7-1)
A

Deck seamanship

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49
Q
  1. What concerns the use and care of line consisting of forming knots, making splices, and fashioning useful and decorative articles from small stuff and twine? (Page 7-1)
A

Marlinespike seamanship

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50
Q
  1. Which equipment is used for anchoring and mooring with anchors? (Page 7-1)
A

Ground tackle

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51
Q
  1. How many feet make up a standard shot of anchor chain? (Page 7-2)
A

90

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52
Q
  1. What is the opening in a bulwark or life rail that gives access to a brow or an accommodation ladder? (Page 7-3)
A

Gangway

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53
Q
  1. What types of ramps are used between ships or between the ship and a pier? (Page 7-3)
A

Brows

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54
Q
  1. What are often placed between the pier and the ship to provide protection to the side of the ship while it is alongside a pier? (Page 7-3)
A

Camels

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55
Q
  1. What are swung over the side of the ship to give bumper support against damage whenever a ship lies alongside another ship or a pier? Page 7-3)
A

Fenders

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56
Q
  1. What are the main thing used aboard ships and boats to secure mooring lines? (Page 7-4)
A

Deck fittings

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57
Q
  1. Which method of securing boats are used by ships that are at anchor or moored to a buoy to rig out their boat booms for the purpose of mooring their boats well clear of the side? (Page 7-4)
A

Hauling out to the boom

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58
Q
  1. What is a noncommissioned waterborne vessel that is not designated as a service craft called? (Page 7-5)
A

Boat

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59
Q
  1. What are boats carried aboard ship that can be hoisted from and lowered into the water known as? (Page 7-5)
A

Ship’s boats

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60
Q
  1. What are waterborne craft designed for special use called? (Page 7-5)
A

Service craft

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61
Q
  1. What is the halfway point between the bow and stern and the sides of the boat called? (Page 7-7)
A

Amidships

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62
Q
  1. What is usually used to describe the arca inside the boat or an object nearer the centerline of the boat? (Page 7-7)
A

Inboard

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63
Q
  1. What describes the furthermost area from the boat’s centerline or beyond the side of a boat? (Page 7-7)
A

Outboard

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64
Q
  1. What is the art of handling and working all kinds of fiber and wire rope? (Page 7-8)
A

Marlinespike seamanship

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65
Q
  1. What is fiber rope in the Navy generally referred to as? (Page 7-8)
A

Line

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66
Q
  1. How many times stronger is nylon compared to manila? (Page 7-8)
A

2.5

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67
Q
  1. What is used for mooring lines, particularly at the bow and stern? (Page 7-8)
A

Spring lay

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68
Q
  1. How many strands make up most of the line used in the Navy? (Page 7-9)
A

Three

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69
Q
  1. Line up to what circumference size is referred to as small stuff? (Page 7-9)
A

1 3/4 inches

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70
Q
  1. Line from 1 3/4 inches to about 4 inches is manufactured in what size graduations? (Page 7-9)
A

1/4-inch

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71
Q
  1. Up to what percent can nylon be stretched before it breaks? (Page 7- 10)
A

50

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72
Q
  1. What are the bindings on the ends of rope that keep the rope from unlaying called? (Page 7-10)
A

Whippings

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73
Q
  1. What form eyes, secure cords, or lines around objects? (Page 7-11)
A

Knots

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74
Q
  1. What bend lines to or around objects? (Page 7-1 1)
A

Hitches

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75
Q
  1. What are used to secure two lines together? (Page 7-11)
A

Bends

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76
Q
  1. What permanently join two lines or form eyes or loops in the end of a line? (Page 7-13)
A

Splices

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77
Q
  1. What can be used to permanently join two lines as long as a slight enlargement of the diameter is not important? (Page 7-14)
A

Short splice

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78
Q
  1. What is the crosswise direction of a ship called? (Page &-1)
A

Athwartship

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79
Q
  1. What is the supporting body of a ship called? Page 8-2)
A

Hull

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80
Q
  1. What is the backbone of the ship referred to as? (Page 8-2)
A

Keel

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81
Q
  1. What are frames running parallel with the keel called? (Page 8-3)
A

Longitudinals

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82
Q
  1. What are the vertical walls called that divide the ship interior into compartments? (Page 8-3)
A

Bulkheads

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83
Q
  1. What are the plates that form the ship’s hull called? (Page 8-3)
A

Strakes

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84
Q
  1. What is the vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline known as? (Page 8-3)
A

Ship’s draft

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85
Q
  1. What is the distance from the waterline to the main deck referred to as? (Page 8-3)
A

Freeboard

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86
Q
  1. What are ship floors referred to as? (Page 8-3)
A

Decks

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87
Q
  1. What are rooms on ships called? (Page 8-3)
A

Compartments

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88
Q
  1. What are installed to provide working or walking surfaces above bilges? (Page 8-4)
A

Flats

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89
Q
  1. What are ships called that don’t have raised forecastles? (Page 8-4)
A

Flush-deckers

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90
Q
  1. What is the first half deck or partial deck below the flight deck called? (Page &-4)
A

Gallery deck

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91
Q
  1. What are partial decks between complete decks called? (Page 8-4)
A

Half deck

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92
Q
  1. What general term designates deck heights above the main deck? (Page 8-4)
A

Level

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93
Q
  1. What are partial decks below the lowest complete deck called? (Page 8-4)
A

Platforms

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94
Q
  1. What is a partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft? (Page 8-4)
A

Poop deck

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95
Q
  1. What is an arca designated by the Commanding Officer to conduct official functions? (Page &-4)
A

Quarterdeck

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96
Q
  1. What are horizontal openings for access through decks called? (Page 8-6)
A

Hatches

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97
Q
  1. What is the solid part of a ship above the main deck called? (Page &- 6)
A

Superstructure

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98
Q
  1. Pole, tripod, along with what else are the three general mast designs? (Page 8-6)
A

Cage

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99
Q
  1. What are the large pipes that carry off smoke and gases from the boilers called? (Page 8-6)
A

Stacks

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100
Q
  1. What is a light spar suspended at an angle abaft the upper part of the mainmast called? (Page 8-7)
A

Gaff

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101
Q
  1. Which station controls the engineering functions of a ship? (Page 8- 8)
A

Main control

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102
Q
  1. What term describes the offensive weapons a ship carries? (Page 8- 14)
A

Armament

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103
Q
  1. How many statute miles per hour is one knot equal to? (Page &-14)
A

1 1/8

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104
Q
  1. How many feet are there in one nautical mile? (Page 8-14)
A

6080

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105
Q
  1. How many categories are US. Navy ships divided into? (Page &-14)
A

Four

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106
Q
  1. What speeds are cruisers capable of in knots? (Page 8-16)
A

30+

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107
Q
  1. What type of ships are fast and have a variety of armaments but have little to no armor? (Page 8-18)
A

Destroyers

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108
Q
  1. How many tons of water are displaced by Spruance class destroyers when fully loaded? (Page &-18)
A

7800

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109
Q
  1. What class of DDG’s are the most powerful and survivable class ever put to sea? (Page 8-18)
A

Arleigh Burke

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110
Q
  1. What resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single screw, and carry less armament? (Page 8-20)
A

Frigates

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111
Q
  1. What are used to locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines? (Page 8-20)
A

SSNS

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112
Q
  1. What is the largest undersea craft developed by the Navy? (Page &- 20)
A

Ohio class

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113
Q
  1. Which class of submarine possesses stealth characteristics that make it the world’s quietest submarine? Page 8-20)
A

Seawolf’s

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114
Q
  1. What were early submarines named after? (Page &-20)
A

Marine life

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115
Q
  1. What is the fastest means of landing large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy-held territory? (Page &-22)
A

Amphibious assault

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116
Q
  1. What class of ships are the largest amphibious ships in the world? (Page 8-22)
A

Wasp-class

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117
Q
  1. What ships provide amphibious command and control for major amphibious operations? (Page 8-25)
A

LCCs

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118
Q
  1. What ships were designed to clear mines from ital waterways? (Page 8-25)
A

MCM’s

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119
Q
  1. What ships are capable of supplying fuel, ammunition, dry stores and refrigerated stores? (Page &-26)
A

AOE

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120
Q
  1. What term is applied to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way? (Page 8-27)
A

Replenishment at sea

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121
Q
  1. What type of ships operate with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and missiles to the fleet at sea? (Page &-28)
A

AE’s

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122
Q
  1. What is the largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy? (Page 8-29)
A

AOE

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123
Q
  1. How many feet of separation are AOE fuel hoses designed to permit on average? (Page 8-31)
A

200

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124
Q
  1. Which letter, with a few exceptions, is used to designate support crafts? (Page 8-32)
A

Y

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125
Q
  1. What year does naval aviation history go back to when the Navy acquired its first aircraft which was a pusher-type biplane with no cockpit? (Page 8-32)
A

1911

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126
Q
  1. Fuselage, wings, along with what else are the three basic parts that fixed-wing aircrafts can be divided into? (Page 8-33)
A

Empennage

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127
Q
  1. What is the main body of the aircraft that contains the cockpit and, if there is one, the cabin? (Page 8-33)
A

Fuselage

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128
Q
  1. What type of aircraft is an all-weather tactical electronic warfare aircraft that was based on the A-6 airframe? (Page 8-35)
A

Prowler

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129
Q
  1. What is the western world’s only operational fixed-wing vertical short takeoff or landing (V/STOL) strike aircraft? (Page 8-35)
A

Harrier

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130
Q
  1. Which type of aircraft are land-based, long-range, multiengine that are used primarily for antisubmarine warfare (ASWD patrol? (Page 8-37)
A

Patrol craft

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131
Q
  1. What is the Navy’s primary ASW patrol aircraft? (Page &-37)
A

P-3 Orion

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132
Q
  1. How many personnel make up the Hawkeye crew? (Page 8-38)
A

Five

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133
Q
  1. Which aircraft provides logistical support to aircraft carriers? (Page 8-38)
A

C-2A Greyhound

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134
Q
  1. Which aircraft has twin-engines that carries passengers and cargo between military installations? (Page 8-39)
A

C-12 Huron

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135
Q
  1. Which aircraft is used for intermediate and advanced portions of the Navy/Marine Corps pilot training program for jet carrier aviation and tactical strike missions? (Page 8-39)
A

T-45A Goshawk

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136
Q
  1. Which aircraft is used to provide primary flight training for student pilots attached to the Chief of Naval Air Training? (Page 8-39)
A

T-34C

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137
Q
  1. How many pounds of cargo is the CH-46 Sea Knight capable of carrying? (Page 8-40)
A

4000

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138
Q
  1. Which aircraft tows and operates various mine countermeasure devices that are designed to detect and neutralize submerged naval mines? (Page &-41)
A

Sea Stallion

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139
Q
  1. Which type of aircraft is a joint-service, multimission aircraft that has vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities? (Page 8-42)
A

V-22 Osprey

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140
Q
  1. What are practices called that have been established for so long that they now have the force of law? (Page 9-1)
A

Customs

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141
Q
  1. What are acts or verbal expressions of consideration or respect for others referred to as? (Page 9-1)
A

Courtesies

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142
Q
  1. What are the salutes that are rendered to individuals of merit called? (Page 9-9)
A

Honors

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143
Q
  1. Within how many yards from the ship must boats pass to be considered “close aboard”? (Page 9-9)
A

400

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144
Q
  1. Which day of the week are Side boys not paraded? (Page 9-10)
A

Sunday

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145
Q
  1. How many gun salutes are warranted for the President of the United States? (Page 9-10)
A

21

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146
Q
  1. Military officers below what rank are not entitled to gun salutes? Page 9-10)
A

Commodore

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147
Q
  1. What are the formal acts that are performed on public occasions called? (Page 9-11)
A

Ceremonies

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148
Q
  1. What is the largest national ensign in the ship or station’s allowance referred to as that is flown on Sundays, authorized holidays, or other days the President proclaims? (Page 9-12)
A

Holiday colors

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149
Q
  1. Which part of the ship contains officers staterooms and wardrooms? (Page 9-16)
A

Officers’ country

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150
Q
  1. Which publication provides basic Naval uniform policy? (Page 10-1)
A

NAVPERS 15665

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151
Q
  1. What is the size of the neckerchief square? (Page 10-1)
A

36”

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152
Q
  1. What are the fields of work or occupations called in the enlisted branch of the Navy? (Page 10-13)
A

Rating

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153
Q
  1. What are the various levels within ratings called? (Page 10-13)
A

Rates

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154
Q
  1. What are rating specialty marks worn by E-1, E-2, or E-3 personnel who have qualified to wear them called? (Page 10-13)
A

Striker mark

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155
Q
  1. How many years of service are indicated by one service stripe? (Page 10-13)
A

4

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156
Q
  1. How many years of good conduct are required for personnel to wear gold rating badges and service stripes? (Page 10-13)
A

12

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157
Q
  1. Who is the most senior enlisted person in the U.S. Navy? (Page 10- 13)
A

MCPON

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158
Q
  1. Which type of officers are specifically designated for engineering, communications, naval intelligence, photography, or other types of technical fields? (Page 10-20)
A

Restricted line

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159
Q
  1. What type of officers are specialists in certain areas such as supply or medicine? (Page l0-20)
A

Staff corps

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160
Q
  1. What type of officers fill the gaps between enlisted and commissioned personnel? (Page 10-20)
A

Chief warrant

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161
Q
  1. What paygrade are all warrant officers commissioned as? (Page 10- 21)
A

W-2

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162
Q
  1. What is given to individuals for specific personal acts of gallantry or meritorious service? (Page 10-27)
A

Military decoration

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163
Q
  1. What year was the Purple Heart founded by George Washington? (Page 10-27)
A

1782

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164
Q
  1. How many people were awarded the original Purple Heart? (Page 10-27)
A

Three

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165
Q
  1. Up to how many medals can be worn side by side? (Page 10-27)
A

Three

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166
Q
  1. What is the maximum length permitted for men’s hair? (Page 10-30)
A

4”

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167
Q
  1. What is the approximate diameter size that braids should be when females have hairstyles consisting of multiple braids? (Page 10-30)
A

0.25”

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168
Q
  1. How many inches below the top of the white jumper uniform collar may females hair extend? (Page 10-31)
A

1.5”

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169
Q
  1. No more than how many inches should be exceeded by any portion of the bulk of the hair on females as measured from the scalp? (Page 10- 31)
A

2

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170
Q
  1. What length measured from the tip of the finger must fingernails not exceed? (Page 10-31)
A

1/4 inch

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171
Q
  1. What color earrings must E-6 and below wear? Page 10-31)
A

Silver

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172
Q
  1. What is the basic military position? (Page 10-33)
A

Attention

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173
Q
  1. What is any .60-caliber, 15-mm, or smaller bore firearm referred to as? (Page l1-1)
A

Small arm

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174
Q
  1. What is the M-14’s maximum range? (Page 11-3)
A

4,075 yards

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175
Q
  1. What is the maximum effective range of the M-16AI/A2? (Page 11-3)
A

460 meters

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176
Q
  1. What is the maximum effective range of the .45-caliber service pistol? (Page 1l-13)
A

50 yards

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177
Q
  1. What is the magazine capacity of the 9mm pistol? (Page l1-13)
A

15

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178
Q
  1. What are the weapons of choice for short-range work? (Page 11-15)
A

Shotguns

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179
Q
  1. What makes the opening (peep) of the rear sight appear larger or smaller, depending on the firing position? (Page l 1-16)
A

Eye relief

180
Q
  1. What is the point on the target where weapon sights are brought to bear? (Page 11-16)
A

Aiming point

181
Q
  1. What is the single most important factor in marksmanship? (Page l1- 19)
A

Trigger control

182
Q
  1. Who does the Administrative organization need help from in order to establish and maintain material readiness conditions? (Page 12-1)
A

All hands

183
Q
  1. Who is responsible for maintaining compartment checkoff lists? (Page 12-2)
A

DCPO

184
Q
  1. Who is responsible for maintaining properly trained DCPOS, repair parties, and repair locker personnel? (Page 12-2)
A

Engineer officer

185
Q
  1. Who is responsible for keeping the command informed on the ship’s survivability readiness? (Page 12-3)
A

Executive Officer (X0)

186
Q
  1. Which team is responsible for conducting all shipboard drills and exercises in the area of damage control? (Page 12-3)
A

DCTT

187
Q
  1. Who is designated as the ship’s damage control officer? (Page 12-3)
A

Engineer officer

188
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the overall administration and training of the ship’s DC organization? (Page 12-3)
A

DCA

189
Q
  1. How many months do DCPOS normally serve for? (Page 12-4)
A

6

190
Q
  1. What, generally, is the minimum paygrade that Gas Free Engineers will hold? (Page 12-5)
A

E-7

191
Q
  1. What is the DCA’s battle station? (Page 12-6)
A

DCC

192
Q
  1. What is the nerve center and directing force of the entire damage control organization? (Page 12-6)
A

DCC

193
Q
  1. What is the ships highest state of readiness? (Page 12-8)
A

General Quarters

194
Q
  1. What is the emergency damage control communication system employed in the event of primary, auxiliary, and supplementary communications circuit failure? (Page 12-9)
A

X40J

195
Q
  1. Which signal is sounded by the OOD to notify the crew of a battle condition (GQ)? Page 12-10)
A

General alarm

196
Q
  1. If all methods of communications have failed, what are used to relay orders and information? (Page 12-10)
A

Messengers

197
Q
  1. XRAY, YOKE, along with what else are the three material conditions of readiness? (Page 12-11)
A

ZEBRA

198
Q
  1. Which material condition is set during working hours when the ship is in port, when there is no danger of attack, and when there is no threat from bad weather? (Page 12-11)
A

X-RAY

199
Q
  1. What are used by repair party personnel to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment? (Page 12-11)
A

CCOLs

200
Q
  1. Which fittings are vital sea suctions, ventilation fittings valves serving vital equipment, and valves that must be open to maintain mobility and fire protection? (Page 12-13)
A

WILLIAM

201
Q
  1. How many minutes of breathable air does the EEBD provide the wearer with? (Page 12-14)
A

15

202
Q
  1. Approximately how many minutes will the SCBA last after it is activated? (Page 12-18)
A

30

203
Q
  1. Fuel, Heat, along with what else comprise the fire triangle? (Page 12-19)
A

Oxygen

204
Q
  1. What is the lowest temperature called that flammable materials give off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied? (Page 12-20)
A

Flash point

205
Q
  1. What is the temperature called that fuel will continue to burn after it has been ignited? (Page 12-20)
A

Fire point

206
Q
  1. What is the lowest temperature called that material must be heated to give off vapors that will burn without the aid of a spark or flame? (Page 12-20)
A

Self-ignition point

207
Q
  1. Conduction, Convection, or what other method can transfer heat from fires? (Page 12-20)
A

Radiation

208
Q
  1. Which heat transfer method transfers heat through a body or from one body to another by direct physical contact? (Page 12-20)
A

Conduction

209
Q
  1. Which heat transfer method transfers heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids? (Page 12-21)
A

Convection

210
Q
  1. Which heat transfer method transfers heat from a source across an intervening space? (Page 12-21)
A

Radiation

211
Q
  1. How many classifications are fires divided into? (Page 12-21)
A

Four

212
Q
  1. What protect firefighters from short duration flame (flash) exposure, heat, and falling debris? (Page 12-23)
A

Firefighter’s ensemble

213
Q
  1. What protect personnel from high temperatures resulting from the use of explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire? (Page 12-24)
A

Anti-flash clothing

214
Q
  1. What size are the fireplugs in fire hose stations aboard ships larger than frigates? (Page 12-24)
A

2 1/2-inch

215
Q
  1. What defensive measures are taken against chemical, biological, or nuclear weapons attack effects? (Page 13-1)
A

CBR-D

216
Q
  1. Which type of agents include microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins that cause diseases that kill or produce other types of casualties? (Page 13-2)
A

Biological warfare (BW)

217
Q
  1. Which type of agents cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritation effects? (Page 13-2)
A

CW

218
Q
  1. What are the two broad types of antipersonnel agents? (Page 13-2)
A

Casualty and Incapacitating

219
Q
  1. Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the rapid action of nerve agents? (Page 13-4)
A

2-PAM C1

220
Q
  1. Which type of agents effect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin? (Page 13-4)
A

Blister

221
Q
  1. Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body? (Page 13-4)
A

Blood

222
Q
  1. Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate supplies? (Page 13-6)
A

Biological warfare (BW)

223
Q
  1. What is the casualty rate of pulmonary anthrax? (Page 13-7)
A

90%

224
Q
  1. What can the mortality rate be reduced to if plague pneumonia victims are treated early? (Page 13-7)
A

5%

225
Q
  1. What is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness? (Page 13-7)
A

Malaise

226
Q
  1. What is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection? (Page 13-7)
A

Inflammation

227
Q
  1. How many feet above the surface does a nuclear blast have to detonate to be considered a high altitude blast? (Page 13-8)
A

100,000

228
Q
  1. What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout that’s equivalent (equal) to that caused by a lightning strike? (Page 13-8)
A

EMP

229
Q
  1. What are the two types of nuclear radiation? (Page 13-9)
A

Initial and residual

230
Q
  1. How many categories are Nuclear weapons effects divided into? (Page 13-10)
A

3

231
Q
  1. Second-degree burns may be received at over what distance from nuclear weapons? (Page 13-11)
A

25

232
Q
  1. How many minutes can it take to recover from flash blindness at night? (Page 13-11)
A

45

233
Q
  1. Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, along with what else are the different types of nuclear radiation hazards? (Page 13-11)
A

Neutrons

234
Q
  1. What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation hazards? (Page 13-11)
A

Neutrons

235
Q
  1. What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called? (Page 13-12)
A

Underwater shock

236
Q
  1. What occurs in electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation? (Page 13-12)
A

TREE

237
Q
  1. What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems? (Page 13-12)
A

Blueout

238
Q
  1. What is the interference of radio transmissions through ion fields formed in a detonation caused by an atmospheric nuclear explosion? (Page 13-12)
A

Blackout

239
Q
  1. What determines the effectiveness of decontamination measures? (Page 13-14)
A

Detailed survey

240
Q
  1. What are dose rates expressed in? (Page 13-14)
A

Roentgens

241
Q
  1. Which protective mask was designed to provide full protection against tactical concentrations of chemical and biological agents, toxins, and radiological fallout particles? (Page 13-19)
A

MCU-2/P

242
Q
  1. What is the shelf life of the unopened chemical-protective overgarment? (Page 13-20)
A

5 years

243
Q
  1. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment in nonchemical environments once it is removed from its protective envelope? (Page 13-20)
A

14

244
Q
  1. How many hours of continuous protection do chemical-protective overgarments provide after exposure to chemical contamination? (Page13-20)
A

6

245
Q
  1. What flexible system protects against chemical agents that is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission? (Page 13-22)
A

MOPP

246
Q
  1. How many MOPP levels are there? (Page 13-22)
A

Four

247
Q
  1. Which MOPP level offers the most protection? (Page 13-22)
A

Four

248
Q
  1. How many people do decontamination teams usually consist of? (Page 13-22)
A

Six

249
Q
  1. What protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants? (Page 13-26)
A

Collective Protection System (CPS)

250
Q
  1. What is the emergency care given to sick or injured persons until medical care is available? (Page 14-1)
A

First aid

251
Q
  1. Saving lives, preventing further injury, along with what else are the main first aid objectives? (Page 14-1)
A

Limiting infection

252
Q
  1. What state is a person in who’s stopped breathing but is still alive? (Page 14-3)
A

Respiratory failure

253
Q
  1. What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs during artificial ventilation? (Page 14-3)
A

Gastric distention

254
Q
  1. What is the complete stoppage of heart function referred to as? (Page 14-4)
A

Cardiac arrest

255
Q
  1. How many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest must CPR be started within to be effective? (Page 14-4)
A

4

256
Q
  1. Which condition occurs whenever there is a break in the wall of one or more blood vessels? (Page 14-9)
A

Hemorrhage

257
Q
  1. How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain? (Page 14-9)
A

5

258
Q
  1. How many pints of blood loss will usually cause shock? (Page 14-9)
A

2

259
Q
  1. Arterial blood is usually what color? (Page 14-9)
A

Bright red

260
Q
  1. What is a combination compress and bandage that a sterile gauze pad is fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage? (Page 14-9)
A

Battle dressing

261
Q
  1. What is a point on the body where an artery can be pressed against a bone to stop bleeding? (Page 14-10)
A

Pressure point

262
Q
  1. How many principal points are there on each side of the body where hand or finger pressure can be used to stop hemorrhage? (Page 14-10)
A

10

263
Q
  1. What type of band is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb? (Page 14-10)
A

Constricting

264
Q
  1. Which condition occurs when blood circulation is seriously disturbed? (Page 14-14)
A

Shock

265
Q
  1. Approximately what percent of the Navy’s non-hostile active-duty deaths are caused by suicide? (Page 14-16)
A

10%

266
Q
  1. How long does depression typically last? (Page 14-17)
A

2 weeks

267
Q
  1. Shock can be expected from burns involving at least what percent of the body? (Page 14-17)
A

15%

268
Q
  1. Life is endangered when at least what percent of the body is burned? Page 14-17)
A

20%

269
Q
  1. Burns covering what percent of the body are usually fatal without adequate treatment? (Page 14-17)
A

30%

270
Q
  1. What is the most mild type of burn? (Page 14-17)
A

First-degree

271
Q
  1. Which type of burn destroys the skin and possibly the tissue and muscle beneath it? (Page 14-18)
A

Third-degree

272
Q
  1. What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot spaces? (Page 14-20)
A

Heat exhaustion

273
Q
  1. Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are damaged that support joints? (Page 14-23)
A

Sprains

274
Q
  1. What type of injury is caused by the forcible over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon? (Page 14-23)
A

Strain

275
Q
  1. What is the most commonly used Navy service litter used for transporting sick or injured persons? (Page 14-28)
A

Stokes stretcher

276
Q
  1. Which type of stretcher was designed for removing an injured person from engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers? (Page 14- 28)
A

Neil Robertson

277
Q
  1. What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in theUnited States? (Page 14-30)
A

Syphilis and gonorrhea

278
Q
  1. What is the painless sore called that is the first sign of syphilis? Page 14-30)
A

Chancre

279
Q
  1. How many days after sexual contact with an infected partner do signs of gonorrhea in males usually appear? (Page 14-31)
A

3 to 5

280
Q
  1. Which increasingly common viral infection produces recurrent, painful genital sores similar to cold sores that occur around the mouth? (Page 14-31)
A

Genital herpes

281
Q
  1. What year was Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) first reported in the United States? (Page 14-31)
A

1981

282
Q
  1. How many yards should personnel abandoning ship be away from the ship before they rest? (Page 15-2)
A

150 to 200

283
Q
  1. How many days on regular rations can the survival kits in large life boats sustain 15 to 20 people? (Page 15-9)
A

5

284
Q
  1. How many days can personnel go without water before they die? (Page 15-11)
A

8 to 12

285
Q
  1. How many ounces of water per day can personnel survive on in a lifeboat? (Page 15-11)
A

6

286
Q
  1. How many weeks, or longer, can a person survive without food as long as they have water? (Page 15-12)
A

4

287
Q
  1. What water temperature, or lower, puts personnel at risk for hypothermia? (Page 15-12)
A

75° F

288
Q
  1. Which condition is characterized by swelling of the foot accompanied by numbness and pallor (lack of color) or discoloration? (Page 15-13)
A

Immersion foot

289
Q
  1. How many basic devices for recovering a person in the water do helicopters use? (Page 15-14)
A

Three

290
Q
  1. Which mnemonic device can aid personnel to reduce or even avoid the shock of being isolated behind the enemy lines, in a desolate area, or in enemy hands? (Page 15-15)
A

SURVIVAL Size up the situation Use all your senses Remember where you are Vanquish fear and panic Improvise and improve Value living Act like the natives Live by your wits, but for now, learn basic skills

291
Q
  1. How many varieties of plants are edible? (Page 15-19)
A

120,000

292
Q
  1. How long should scavenger birds be boiled before they are cooked in order to kill any parasites? (Page 15-22)
A

20 minutes

293
Q
  1. What is the process of traveling through enemy-held territory without being captured? (Page 15-23)
A

Evasion

294
Q
  1. What directs personnel to begin planning their escape the minute they are taken prisoner? (Page 15-27)
A

Code of Conduct

295
Q
  1. Which instruction contains Naval advancement system information? (Page 16-3)
A

BUPERSINST 1430.16

296
Q
  1. What are the two categories that ratings are divided into? (Page 16-3)
A

Service and General

297
Q
  1. What are the military requirements for a paygrade? (Page 16-5)
A

NAVSTDs

298
Q
  1. What contains the minimum occupational requirements of a particular rate? (Page l6-5)
A

OCCSTDS

299
Q
  1. Which skills and abilities can best be demonstrated (shown) by actual performance? (Page 16-6)
A

PARS

300
Q
  1. What are developed by exam writers to help Sailors study for advancement-in-rate exanimations? (Page 16-6)
A

BIB

301
Q
  1. How many years are performance marks averaged to arrive at the merit rating? (Page l6-7)
A

3

302
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of days that members serving on code 1 shore duty are required to be absent from the corporate limits of their duty stations? (Page 16-10)
A

99

303
Q
  1. Personnel serving at code 2 sea duty stations can expect to be away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year? (Page 16-10)
A

150

304
Q
  1. School assignments of less than how many months are classified as code 5 neutral duty? (Page 16-10)
A

18

305
Q
  1. Duty performed in commissioned vessels or activities in an active status that operate away from their home port/ home base in excess of how many days per year are credited as double sea credited because of the nature of the mission? (Page 16-10)
A

50

306
Q
  1. Who is the senior enlisted person who matches personnel within a particular rate or specialty with the available Navy wide billets? (Page 16-10)
A

Enlisted detailer

307
Q
  1. How long after being stationed at their first duty station should personnel submit a duty preference form? (Page 16-11)
A

6 months

308
Q
  1. What is the most significant personnel management tool in the service record? (Page 16-13)
A

Evaluation Report and Counseling Record

309
Q
  1. Which eval trait is not required unless abilities are clearly demonstrated for personnel in paygrades E-1 through E-3? (Page 16-14)
A

Leadership

310
Q
  1. How often is the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record for E-3 and below submitted? (Page 16-14)
A

Biannually

311
Q
  1. What form is used to document the official history of a person’s Naval career? (Page 16-15)
A

NAVPERS 1070/600

312
Q
  1. What form is used to document dependents and emergency data inthe service record? (Page 16-16)
A

NAVPERS 1070/602W

313
Q
  1. Which service record form documents the Enlisted Qualifications History? (Page 16-16)
A

NAVPERS 1070/604

314
Q
  1. What words are used to show that the CO has authorized a person to sign the document? (Page 16-22)
A

By direction

315
Q
  1. What systems are used to improve fleet material readiness? (Page 16-23)
A

3-M

316
Q
  1. Fundamentals, Systems, along with what else are the three sectionsthat PQS standards are divided into? (Page 16-24)
A

Watch Stations

317
Q
  1. Which PQS section deals with the major working parts of the installation, organization, or equipment that the PQS is concerned with?(Page 16-24)
A

Systems

318
Q
  1. What is it called when personnel are taught skills that are directed toward specific tasks? (Page 16-24)
A

Training

319
Q
  1. What is it called when personnel are taught broad, general, or specific knowledge? (Page 16-24)
A

Education

320
Q
  1. Who is the point of contact for all Navy training and education programs? (Page l6-25)
A

Educational Services Officer (ESO)

321
Q
  1. What type of training teaches personnel how to perform a duty or task by actually doing it? (Page 16-25)
A

OJT

322
Q
  1. What type of non-occupational training are all naval personnel required to take on a periodic basis? (Page 16-25)
A

General Military Training (GMT)

323
Q
  1. Which type of schools provide general indoctrination and teach basic military skills and knowledge? (Page 16-26)
A

Class “R”

324
Q
  1. Which type of schools provide the basic technical knowledge and skills required to prepare personnel for a Navy rating as well as further specialized training? (Pagel6-26)
A

Class “A”

325
Q
  1. Which type of schools provide personnel with the advanced knowledge, skills, and techniques required to perform a particular job in a billet? (Page 16-26)
A

Class “C”

326
Q
  1. Which type of schools provide team training to officer and enlisted fleet personnel who are normally ship company members? (Page 16-26)
A

Class “F”

327
Q
  1. Which type of schools provide training in the skills that lead to the designation of naval aviator or naval flight oficer? (Page 16-26)
A

Class “V”

328
Q
  1. Which command publishes TRAMANs (Training Manual)? (Page 16-26)
A

NETPDTC

329
Q
  1. What name is given to the in-service voluntary educational programs and the supporting services provided by the Navy to help you with your education? (Page 16-27)
A

Navy Campus

330
Q
  1. Which program provides undergraduate courses from accreditedcolleges or universities to shipboard personnel? (Page 16-27)
A

Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)

331
Q
  1. What provides a wide range of examination and certification programs, operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and developmental activities? (Page 16-27)
A

DANTES

332
Q
  1. Up to how many months does the Enlisted Education Advancement Program (EEAP) allow career-motivated individuals to earn an associate of arts/sciences degree? (Page l6-27)
A

24

333
Q
  1. How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy or Regular Marine Corps may be appointed by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval Academy at Annapolis, Maryland? (Page 16-28)
A

85

334
Q
  1. Which program is intended to help people who have been educationally deprived but have demonstrated they have the basic qualities and desires needed to earn a commission? (Page l6-29)
A

BOOST

335
Q
  1. How many years do personnel have to complete a baccalaureate degree when they are enrolled in the ECP? (Page 16-29)
A

2

336
Q
  1. How many programs are there for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher that lead to U.S. Naval Reserve commissions? (Page l6-29)
A

Si

337
Q
  1. Which commissioning program selects senior enlisted personnel to become commissioned officers without requiring degree? (Page 16-30)
A

LDOS

338
Q
  1. Who convenes the Seaman to Admiral board to select eligible applicants? (Page 16-30)
A

Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)

339
Q
  1. If personnel separate from the Navy at their EAOS but have not completed at least how many years of service they will not receive a discharge but will be “separated” from active naval service? (Page 16- 31
A

8

340
Q
  1. How many types of discharges from Naval Service are there? (Page 16-31)
A

Five

341
Q
  1. Which type of discharge indicates satisfactory service by personnel but not to the standards established by the Navy? (Page 16-31)
A

General

342
Q
  1. Commanding Officers can recommend personnel for a Navy Good Conduct Medal as a reward for how many years of good conduct? (Page 16-32)
A

3

343
Q
  1. What is the money paid to personnel for services they render? (Page 17-1)
A

Pay

344
Q
  1. Basic, Incentive, along with what else are the three types of Navy pay? (Page 17-1)
A

Special

345
Q
  1. Which type of pay is based upon the members paygrade and length of service? (Page 17-1)
A

Basic

346
Q
  1. How many years of service are E-3’s eligible to receive longevity raises? (Page 17-1)
A

4

347
Q
  1. What type of money is used to reimburse personnel for expenses necessary to perform their job? (Page 17-2)
A

Allowance

348
Q
  1. Which type of allowance is used to help personnel pay for suitable living quarters when government quarters are unavailable or not assigned? (Page 17-2)
A

BAQ

349
Q
  1. What is the single allowance called that incorporates both basic allowance for quarters and the variable housing allowance? (Page 17-3)
A

Basie Allowance for Housing (BAH)

350
Q
  1. What are designated amounts of money that are to be withheld from pay and paid directly to someone else? (Page 17-3)
A

Allotments

351
Q
  1. What is the computerized pay and leave accounting system located at the Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Cleveland, Ohio? (Page 17-3)
A

JUMPS

352
Q
  1. How many days of leave can personnel earn in each year of active duty? (Page 17-4)
A

30

353
Q
  1. What is an authorized absence from work or duty for a short period called? (Page 17-4)
A

Liberty

354
Q
  1. Which type of leave is not charged to your earned, advance, or excess leave account? (Page 17-4)
A

Convalescent

355
Q
  1. What booklet is used to record transactions involving checking accounts? (Page 17-7)
A

Check register

356
Q
  1. What is a plan to spend money or a plan of money management? Page 17-11)
A

Budget

357
Q
  1. What is the total amount of pay before any deductions are taken out called? (Page 17-12)
A

Gross income

358
Q
  1. What is the money paid after all deductions and allotments are paid called? (Page 17-12)
A

Net income

359
Q
  1. What is an casy method for estimating the number of years it will take for an investment’s value to double at a specific interest rate or rate of return? (Page 17-12)
A

Rule of 72

360
Q
  1. What is the rent paid for using borrowed money or credit known as? (Page 17-13)
A

Interest

361
Q
  1. How many days after personnel separate from the Navy does SGLI coverage continue for? (Page 17-15)
A

120

362
Q
  1. What is an individual who is abused or whose welfare is harmed or threatened by acts of omission or commission by another individual orindividuals known as? (Page 17-16)
A

Victim

363
Q
  1. What establishes the education, support, and awareness programs so that families and their command understand the risk factors of child and spouse abuse? (Page 17-17)
A

FAP

364
Q
  1. What occurs when there is an imbalance between the demands of our lives and the resources we have to deal with those demands? (Page 17-17)
A

Stress

365
Q
  1. What term generally applies to persons who are assigned to clean living or berthing compartments or spaces? (Page 18-1)
A

Compartment cleaner

366
Q
  1. Which type of materials have the ability to remove contamination andsoil? (Page 18-2)
A

Detergents

367
Q
  1. What are held to improve ship appearance and sanitary conditions, aid in ship preservation by extending paint life, and reduce the dirt intakecaused by operating equipment? (Page 18-2)
A

Field days

368
Q
  1. Which term means to exhaust the areas and provide fresh air in spaces which personnel are working with solvents? (Page 18-5)
A

Ventilation

369
Q
  1. When a spill involves more than how many gallons of solvent it must be immediately reported to supervisors, DCC, or the 00D? (Page 18-6)
A

5

370
Q
  1. Personnel should inspect the contents of any paint or solvent container that is older than how many years? (Page 18-7)
A

2

371
Q
  1. What lists solvent storage requirements? (Page 18-8)
A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSS)

372
Q
  1. How many minutes between air changes are recommended when working with chlorinated cleaning solvents in enclosed spaces? (Page18-9)
A

3

373
Q
  1. Inhaling vapors of how many ppm or greater will cause dizziness or narcosis? (Page 18-10)
A

4500

374
Q
  1. How many gallons of paint could be required for one coat on an aircraft carier? (Page 18-10)
A

950

375
Q
  1. What are the grade ranges of sandpaper? (Page 18-11)
A

12-600

376
Q
  1. How many ways are used by the Navy to apply paint? (Page l8-17)
A

Three

377
Q
  1. Which technical bulletins contain information about hazardousmaterial? (Page 19-2)
A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

378
Q
  1. What are the safety barriers called that are designed to preventpersonnel from falling or being washed over the side? (Page 19-6)
A

Lifelines

379
Q
  1. Lifelines and safety belts must be used when working on a boatswain’s chair or on unguarded scaffolds that are over how many feet above the deck? (Page 19-7)
A

10

380
Q
  1. Who must permission be obtained from prior to working aloft? (Page 19-7)
A

OOD

381
Q
  1. What type of fuel oil was developed by the Navy to reduce sulfur oxide problems on ships? (Page 19-9)
A

Navy distillate fuel

382
Q
  1. How often must spaces be recertified by Gas Free Engineers while personnel are working in a space that was previously ventilated for 24 hours and certified safe to work in? (Page 19-9)
A

Every 8 hours

383
Q
  1. How many minutes would it take for personnel to lose the ability to walk straight after breathing in air where the petroleum vapors have a concentration of only 0.1 percent by volume? (Page 19-10)
A

4

384
Q
  1. Which term identifies any and all forms of fuel or gas lanterns, lighted candles, matches, cigarette lighters, and so on? (Page 19-11)
A

Open flame

385
Q
  1. Which term identifies any unprotected electrical lighting device? (Page 19-11)
A

Naked lights

386
Q
  1. What are the specially constructed compartments aboard ships calledwhere ammunition is stowed? (Page 19-12)
A

Magazines

387
Q
  1. Projectiles greater than or equal to what size in diameter are color-coded to indicate the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge they contain? (Page 19-12)
A

3-inches

388
Q
  1. What level of voltage causes the most deaths? (Page 19-13)
A

115-volt

389
Q
  1. How many minutes before entry must compartments that contain compressed gases be ventilated for if the ventilation has been secured? (Page 19-15)
A

15

390
Q
  1. Up to how many years after exposure can it take for asbestos-related disease symptoms to manifest?
A

45

391
Q
  1. How many minutes after the job is completed must personnel assigned fire watch duties remain at the location to make sure that no fire hazards exist? (Page 19-17)
A

30

392
Q
  1. What is the mixture of all liquid domestic wastes, especially human body wastes (fecal matter and urine)? (Page 19-18)
A

Sewage

393
Q
  1. At what temperature does LOX boil into a gaseous oxygen that is capable of immediately freezing any object it contacts? (Page 19-22)
A

-297°F

394
Q
  1. How much pressure can LOX exert when it expands as a gas and is confined and allowed to warm? (Page 19-22)
A

12,000 psi

395
Q
  1. What is the combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, airflow, and workload called that places stress on the body? (Page 19-22)
A

Heat stress

396
Q
  1. Which condition results when body temperature reaches subnormal levels? (Page 19-23)
A

Hypothermia

397
Q
  1. Which instruction governs the Navy’s equipment tag-out bill? (Page 19-25)
A

OPNAVINST 3120.32

398
Q
  1. Who is responsible for knowing the material condition of a department and the state of readiness at all times? (Page 19-25)
A

DDO

399
Q
  1. Who monitors engineering plant statuses at all times and how tag-out bills will affect plant readiness? (Page 19-25)
A

EOOW

400
Q
  1. What is the process called of checking a tag or label? (Page 19-26)
A

Second-checking

401
Q
  1. Which tag color means that a certain DANGER exists if the valve or equipment lineup is changed? (Page 19-26)
A

Red

402
Q
  1. What color are CAUTION tags? (Page 19-26)
A

Yellow

403
Q
  1. What color are OUT-OF-CALIBRATION labels? (Page 19-27)
A

Orange

404
Q
  1. What are used to control the entire tag-out procedure? (Page 19-28)
A

Tag-out logs

405
Q
  1. Which instruction contains Navy safety information? (Page 19-29)
A

OPNAVINST 5100.19

406
Q
  1. What term describes a nation’s ability to protect its political, economic, and military interests through control of the sea? (Page 20-1)
A

Sea power

407
Q
  1. Who was the first person to use the term “sea power”? (Page 20-1)
A

Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN

408
Q
  1. Which publication defines Naval strategy? (Page 20-6)
A

Naval Warfare Publication 3 (NWP-3)

409
Q
  1. What broad course of action is designed to achieve national objectives in support of national interests? (Page 20-6)
A

National strategy

410
Q
  1. What are those conditions that are advantageous for our nation to pursue or protect? (Page 20-6)
A

National interests

411
Q
  1. What are the specific goals our nation seeks to advance, support, or protect? (Page 20-6)
A

National objectives

412
Q
  1. What is the U.S. Navy’s primary function? (Page 20-7)
A

Sea control

413
Q
  1. What is the ability to use sea power throughout the world in the timely and precise manner needed to accomplish a given goal? (Page 20-7)
A

Power projection

414
Q
  1. What year did Congress authorize the first six frigates of the Continental Navy? (Page 20-9)
A

1794

415
Q
  1. What year was the Coast Guard established as the United States Revenue Marine? (Page 20-10)
A

1790

416
Q
  1. What year was the Military Sealift Command (MSC) established? (Page 20-12)
A

1949

417
Q
  1. Nearly what percent of all military cargo on privately owned U.S. flagships and other merchant marine vessels are shipped by MSC? (Page 20-12)
A

25

418
Q
  1. What does the Navy define as the art of influencing people to progress towards the accomplishment of a specific goal? (Page 21-1)
A

Leadership

419
Q
  1. Moral principles, personal example, along with what else are the three elements that make an effective Navy leader? (Page 21-1)
A

Administrative ability

420
Q
  1. What is immediate obedience an automatic response to? Page 21-3)
A

Command

421
Q
  1. What is reasoned obedience the proper response to? (Page 21-3)
A

Order

422
Q
  1. What is the safeguarding of classified information in the interest of national security referred to as? Page 22-1)
A

Security

423
Q
  1. Top Secret, Secret, along with what else are the only security classification levels? (Page 22-2)
A

Confidential

424
Q
  1. Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security? (Page 22-2)
A

Top Secret

425
Q
  1. Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security? (Page 22-2)
A

Secret

426
Q
  1. Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national security? (Page 22-2)
A

Confidential

427
Q
  1. Who determines personnel security clearance needs? (Page 22-3)
A

Commanding Officer (CO)

428
Q
  1. What are security clearances and access to classified information based on? (Page 22-4)
A

Need to know

429
Q
  1. What has the SECNAV designated as the single Department of the Navy security clearance granting authority? (Page 22-4)
A

Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DONCAF)

430
Q
  1. Once issued, a security clearance remains valid provided the Sailor continues compliance with personnel security standards and has no subsequent break in service exceeding how many months? (Page 22-4)
A

24

431
Q
  1. Which instruction provides guidance for classified material protection? (Page 22-4)
A

SECNAVINST 5510.36

432
Q
  1. Which agency sets and publishes the minimum standards, specifications, and supply schedules for containers, vault doors, modular vaults, alarm systems, and associated security devices suitable for the storage and destruction of classified information? (Page 22-4)
A

General Service Agency (GSA)

433
Q
  1. Which instruction contains classified material destruction procedures? (Page 22-12)
A

SECNAVINST 5510.36

434
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the physical security of each computer workstation? (Page 22-12)
A

ADPSO

435
Q
  1. How many levels of security are there for electronically processed data? (Page 22-12)
A

Three

436
Q
  1. Which instruction contains electronic data security procedures? (Page 22-12)
A

OPNAVINST S239.1

437
Q
  1. How many days after creating a working copy should it be retained before destruction? (Page 22-12)
A

180

438
Q
  1. Which instruction contains a complete description of ADP security policies and procedures? (Page 22-13)
A

OPNAVINST 5239.1

439
Q
  1. What is an unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance referred to as? (Page 22-14)
A

Compromise

440
Q
  1. What is defined as any failure to comply with the regulations for the protection and security of classified material? (Page 22-14)
A

Security violation

441
Q
  1. What is the unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence against individuals or property referred to as? (Page 22-15)
A

Terrorism

442
Q
  1. Which type of bomb generates fire-producing heat without substantial explosion when ignited? (Page 22-15)
A

Incendiary

443
Q
  1. What is the detonation/ignition of a bomb, discovery of a bomb, or receipt of a bomb threat referred to as? (Page 22-15)
A

Bomb incident

444
Q
  1. What is used to clearly define the status of military personnel of one country stationed in the territory of another? (Page 22-19)
A

SOFA

445
Q
  1. What year were the Geneva Conventions established? (Page 22-19)
A

1949

IT ALL Knowledge (14 decks)

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