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PMK EE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

36. Up to what amount of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6 who received an Early Promote promotion recommendation on their most recent observed periodic evaluation in their current paygrade can be waived by COs/OICS? (Page 2-20)

A

1 year

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2
Q
  1. For up to how many consecutive examination cycles covered by the most recent observed periodic evaluation report can CO’s authorize Early TIR waivers? (Page 2-20)
A

Two

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3
Q
  1. How long must personnel have served as an E6 prior to participation in the E7 examination for LDO purposes? (Page 2-21)
A

1 year

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4
Q
  1. Who is responsible for worksheet preparation for each candidate participating in the Navy-wide advancement cycle (E4 through E7) including LDO Program candidates? (Page 3-1)
A

Educational Service Office (ESO)

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5
Q
  1. At least how long prior to the scheduled examination should ESO’s prepare worksheets for eligible candidates? (Page 3-1)
A

1 month

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6
Q
  1. Approximately how many days prior to the scheduled examination date should the ESO review each advancement exam candidates worksheet? (Page 3-1)
A

10

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7
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of award points authorized for E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

12

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8
Q
  1. How many award points is a Medal of Honor worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

10

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9
Q
  1. How many award points is a Navy Cross worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

5

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10
Q
  1. How many award points is a Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3 6)
A

4

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11
Q
  1. How many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

4

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12
Q
  1. How many award points is a Legion of Merit worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

4

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13
Q
  1. How many award points is a Distinguished Flying Cross worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

4

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14
Q
  1. How many award points isa Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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15
Q
  1. How many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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16
Q
  1. How many award points is a Purple Heart worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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17
Q
  1. How many award points is a Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3 6)
A

3

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18
Q
  1. How many award points is a Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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19
Q
  1. How many award points is an Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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20
Q
  1. How many award points is a Joint Service Commendation Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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21
Q
  1. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

3

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22
Q
  1. How many award points is an Executive Letter of Commendation worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3 6)
A

2

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23
Q
  1. How many award points is a Joint Service Achievement Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

2

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24
Q
  1. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

2

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25
Q
  1. How many award points is a Combat Action Ribbon worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

2

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26
Q
  1. How many award points is a Gold Life Saving Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

2

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27
Q
  1. How many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

2

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28
Q
  1. How many award points is a Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

2

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29
Q
  1. How many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior Executive Service) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A

1

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30
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of points for letters of commendation signed by a flag, general or Senior Executive Service (SES) officer that will be credited towards the awards factor for E4, ES, and E6 candidates? (Page 3-7)
A

Two

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31
Q
  1. Which awards are considered Letters of Commendation that are signed by flag officers? (Page 3-7)
A

Gold and Silver Wreath

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32
Q
  1. PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7 PEP candidates who have already achieved an advancement examination standard score of what or greater and have been identified as Selection Board Eligible? (Page 3-8)
A

50

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33
Q
  1. What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
A

4.0

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34
Q
  1. What is an Must Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
A

3.8

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35
Q
  1. What is a Promotable evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
A

3.6

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36
Q
  1. What is a Progressing evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
A

3.4

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37
Q
  1. What is a Significant Problems evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
A

2.0

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38
Q
  1. What should requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the advancement exam be submitted to? (Page 3-11)
A

NETPDTC

Naval Education and Training Professional Development Technology Center

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39
Q
  1. The preferred method for ordering examinations is via verification of TIR eligibility listing on the internet at the which examination ordering web site? (Page 4-1)
A

Naval Education and Training Professional Development Technology Center
NETPDTC

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40
Q
  1. Which examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the examination on the regularly scheduled day? (Page 4-2)
A

Substitute

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41
Q
  1. The integrity of what is dependent on the security of the examinations and is of paramount importance to equitable advancement opportunity? (Page 5-1)
A

NEAS
Navy Enlisted Advancement System

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42
Q
  1. Which type of mail may be used to transfer an examination to another activity? (Page 5-2)
A

U.S. Registered Mail

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43
Q
  1. What should a detailed message or letter report be submitted to in the case of missing examinations, evidence of tampering, or any other discrepancies? (Page 5-3)
A

NAVPERSCOM

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44
Q
  1. When examinations are received from activities other than which command then a receipt must be sent to the forwarding command as the examinations remain charged to the original receiving activity? (Page 5- 3)
A

NETPDTC (N321)

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45
Q
  1. What must approval be obtained from prior to transferring examinations to non-Navy activities/other services? (Page 5-5)
A

NAVPERSCOM

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46
Q
  1. Which border color on examination covers identifies exams that are confidential in nature? (Page 5-8)
A

Blue

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47
Q
  1. What type of combination lock can be used to secure a space that will be used to stow examinations and completed answer sheets? (Page 5-8)
A

Three-tumbler

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48
Q
  1. Who reviews all the directives pertinent to the advancement system with all other designated personnel prior to examination administration? (Page 6-1)
A

ESO

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49
Q
  1. What type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil must exam candidates use? (Page 6-2)
A

2

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50
Q
  1. Which ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction, electrician, plumbing, or other calculators that are specifically designed for tradesman use? (Page 6-3)
A

Seabee

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51
Q
  1. What are not authorized to be worn during the examination? (Page6-3)
A

Wristwatches

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52
Q
  1. Which advancement exam candidates are authorized to use general scientific calculators that are not programmable? (Page 6-3)
A

Engineering Aid (EA)

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53
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of days that an operational commander may delay the administration of advancement examinations for seagoing or aviation units operating in company or based outside continental United States (OCONUS) provided that candidates have no means of communicating with personnel who are taking the examination in the interim? (Page 6-4)
A

10

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54
Q
  1. What is the maximum number days that ship CO’s/OIC’s that are proceeding independently can administer examinations past the regularly scheduled examination date? (Page 6-5)
A

10

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55
Q
  1. What must specifically authorize the administration of advancement exams prior to the scheduled administration date? (Page 6-5)
A

NAVPERSCOM

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56
Q
  1. Within how many working days of receipt, but not later than the date specified in the applicable NAVADMIN must all substitute examinations be administered and answer sheets forwarded to NETPDTC (N322)? (Page 6-5)
A

7

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57
Q
  1. Advancement examination shall not be used if they are missing more than how many questions? (Page 6-6)
A

10

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58
Q
  1. What is the required ratio of proctors to advancement exam candidates when administering advancement exams? (Page 6-6)
A

1:25

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59
Q
  1. Give completed answer sheets the same handling and stowage as afforded to what type of documents? (Page 6-7)
A

FOUO
For Official Use Only

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60
Q
  1. What must authority be requested from with justification from a medical officer for the oral administration of advancement examinations? (Page 6-7)
A

NAVPERSCOM

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61
Q
  1. How should advancement exam candidates names be grouped when personnel from more than one activity have been examined? (Page 6-9)
A

Activity

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62
Q
  1. What should examination returns for each paygrade be forwarded to by the close of business the day after administration of each advancement examination? (Page 6-9)
A

NETPDTC

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63
Q
  1. Which contract stipulates that CONUS Installations and Ships Inport CONUS will send answer sheets via overnight delivery? (Page 6-9)
A

GSA

Global Support Assignment

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64
Q
  1. Which USPS mail service will Overseas Shore Commands use to send in advancement exam answer sheets? (Page 6-9)
A

3-day express

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65
Q
  1. Who is solely responsible for ensuring that all examination booklets and related testing materials are accurately accounted for and destroyed? (Page 6-10)
A

CO/OIC

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66
Q
  1. Which manual contains the destruction procedures to be followed after administering the advancement examination for destroying all examination booklets, used and unused, and scratch paper? (Page 6-10)
A

SECNAV M-5510.36

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67
Q
  1. How long must copies of reports be maintained locally at the command for the destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations? (Page 6-11)
A

2 years

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68
Q
  1. Within how many days after the last drill weekend of the month that the advancement examination was administered must the unused inactive reserve examinations be destroyed? (Page 6-11)
A

5

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69
Q
  1. At least how many consecutive days in one of the eligible areas are Sailors required to serve to be considered an eligible assignment? (Page 6 11)
A

30

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70
Q
  1. Which day in January are Active Duty E7 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
A

3rd Thursday

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71
Q
  1. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E6 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
A

1st Thursday

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72
Q
  1. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E5 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
A

2nd Thursday

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73
Q
  1. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E4 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
A

3rd Thursday

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74
Q
  1. If Sailors are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq, Afghanistan, or the Horn of Africa and they are eligible in all other respects for participation in the E4 to E7 advancement examinations than they are authorized to take early examinations? (Page 6-14)
A

60

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75
Q
  1. No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the indoctrination and training pipeline but not including any personal leave) will commands submit early examination requests in the same format as a substitute examination request? (Page 6-15)
A

90

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76
Q
  1. The EMF along with what else are used by NETPDTC to automatically validate all personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9? (Page 6-19)
A

IMAPMIS

Inactive Manpower and Personnel Management Information System

EMF Enlisted Master File

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77
Q
  1. Approximately how many months prior to the convening date of E8/9 selection boards will NETPDTC forward an Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR) listing all E7/8 TIR eligible personnel? (Page 6-19)
A

3

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78
Q
  1. How many annual advancement cycles are there for E4 through E6 candidates? (Page 7-1)
A

Two

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79
Q
  1. Who has online access to E4-E9 advancement results? (Page 7-1)
A

ESO

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80
Q
  1. How many days after advancement exam results have been published will individual Sailors have the capability of downloading their individual Profile Sheets? (Page 7-1)
A

Five

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81
Q
  1. What does NETPDTC post online in addition to profile sheets to issue examination results? Page 7-1)
A

Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)

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82
Q
  1. What are advancements and striker designation authorities issued on in addition to the Profile Sheet? (Page 7-1)
A

Rating Change Authorization (RCA)

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83
Q
  1. What lists eligible candidates to be considered (SELBD ELIGIBLE) by a selection board that is convened by CHNAVPERS? (Page 7-2)
A

ESVR

Examination Status Verification Report

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84
Q
  1. How will the official list of personnel selected for advancement be disseminated by CHNAVPERS upon conclusion of the selection board? (Page 7-2)
A

NAVADMIN

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85
Q
  1. What will be forwarded by NETPDTC (N321) for all E4 through E7 candidates following each Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 7-15)
A

Examination Profile Information Sheet

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86
Q
  1. Which point factor is included in the FMS of E4 through E6 candidates who achieve a relatively high score on a Navy-wide advancement examination/have relatively high PMAS during an examination cycle in which the candidate competed for advancement but was not advanced because of quota limitations? (Page 7-15)
A

PNA

Pass Not Advanced

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87
Q
  1. PNA points are comprised of written examination SS (Standard Score) and what else? (Page 7-15)
A

PMA (Performance Mark Average)

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88
Q
  1. How many of the most recent exam cycles in that paygrade are PNA points creditable for? (Page 7-15)
A

Five

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89
Q
  1. A maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle may be received by a candidate? (Page 7-15)
A

Three

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90
Q
  1. What is the maximum cumulative PNA point total that may be credited to candidates? (Page 7-15)
A

15

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91
Q
  1. What are PNA points multiplied by to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of 30 points) for FMS calculations? (Page 7-16)
A

2

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92
Q
  1. How many PNA points towards future exams will advancement exam candidates be credited with when they score in the top 25 percentile but do not advance? (Page 7-16)
A

1.5

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93
Q
  1. What is the only thing used by NETPDTC (N321) to track PNA point credit? (Page 7-16)
A

Social security number

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94
Q
  1. What day of the month are E2/E3 advancements automatically posted on by NAVPERSCOM? (Page 7-16)
A

16th

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95
Q
  1. Which MILPERSMAN article governs striker identification? (Page 7-18)
A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

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96
Q
  1. If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to paygrade E2 or E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified, the advancement may be established “as of” the date the member would have been advanced had the error not occurred, provided the backdating does not under any circumstance exceed how long? (Page 7-18)
A

6 months

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97
Q
  1. Under no circumstances is an advancement effected after the limiting date without approval of what? Page 7-19)
A

NAVPERSCOM

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98
Q
  1. What form should be used to effect an advancement, change in rate, or striker identification? (Page 7-19)
A

NAVPERS 1070/604

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99
Q
  1. Which MILPERSMAN article grants COs/OICS the authority to frock enlisted personnel? (Page 7-21)
A

MILPERSMAN 1420-060

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100
Q
  1. How many years of active duty in grade unless such members are entitled by law to a higher retired grade upon retirement must non- disability (voluntary) retirement for members serving in grades E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 7-21)
A

2

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101
Q
  1. How many years of active service entitles members to retire at the higher paygrade without serving the minimum 2 year TIG? (Page 7-21)
A

30

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102
Q
  1. Withholding advancements because of Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) failure must be accomplished via compliance with which instruction? (Page 7-28)
A

OPNAVINST 6110.1H

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103
Q
  1. What is the sole means of withdrawing a member’s recommendation for advancement that must be completed prior to requesting invalidation of an authorized advancement? (Page 7-30)
A

EVAL/FITREP

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104
Q
  1. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides authority for the request of CO’s mast at which questions may be raised with the CO/OIC if a member believes that the withholding or withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate, unjust, or wrongly submitted? (Page 7-32)
A

Article 1151

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105
Q
  1. Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a NAVPERS 1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and what entry mailed for inclusion in the official officer record citing this instruction as authority for advancement? (Page 7-34)
A

NAVPERS 1070/613

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106
Q
  1. Which program was established to promote Sailors in pay grades El through ES in recognition of uncommon valor and extraordinary deeds demonstrated while engaged in, or in direct support of, combat operations? (Page &-1)
A

Combat Meritorious Advancement Program (CMAP)

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107
Q
  1. Executive Order along with what else designate combat and direct support combat zones? (Page 8-1)
A

Congressional Action

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108
Q
  1. A l-year TIR waiver is authorized for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancement to what paygrade? (Page &-2)
A

E6

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109
Q
  1. What has the overall authority for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page &-2)
A

CHNAVPERS

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110
Q
  1. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-2? (Page 8-2)
A

Unlimited

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111
Q
  1. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-3? (Page 8-2)
A

6

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112
Q
  1. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-4 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-2)
A

4

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113
Q
  1. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-5 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-2)
A

2

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114
Q
  1. How many quotas per quarter are authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-6 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-2)
A

1

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115
Q
  1. Within how many years of the meritorious action/performance in combat must nominations be submitted for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page &-3)
A

1

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116
Q
  1. Which instruction contains the guidelines for Combat Meritorious Advancement Program nominations that contain classified information? Page 8-3)
A

SECNAVM-5510.30

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117
Q
  1. How many years should copies of CMAP documents be retained? (Page 8-4)
A

2

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118
Q

1, How will Sailors who die while in a selectee or Passed Not Advanced (PNA) status be advanced? (Page 9-1)

A

Posthumously

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119
Q
  1. What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of a posthumous advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement? (Page 9-2)
A

DD 1300

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120
Q
  1. What is the highest paygrade that may be held by recruiters to be eligible for meritorious advancement under the recruiter meritorious advancement program? (Page 10-1)
A

E-6

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121
Q
  1. What has final EROY or ERROY approval after selection boards have reviewed all nominations? (Page 10-1)
A

COMNAVCRUITCOM

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122
Q
  1. What is the minimum TIR that must be met by the EROY and ERROY prior to effecting the meritorious advancement to the next paygrade? (Page 10-1)
A

1 year

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123
Q
  1. What will COMNAVCRUITCOM forward their EROY and ERROY selections to for issuance of advancement authorization? (Page 10-2)
A

NAVPERSCOM

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124
Q
  1. Which program allows CO0’s to advance eligible personnel in paygrades E3 through ES to the next higher paygrade without reference to higher authority? Page l1-1)
A

Command Advancement Program (CAP)

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125
Q
  1. What year was the Command Advancement Program (CAP) established? (Page 11-1)
A

1978

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126
Q
  1. Which MILPERSMAN article took away the COs authority to designate strikers? (Page 11-2)
A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

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127
Q
  1. What is the maximum percentage of CAP quotas that CO’s can use for CREO Group 3 ratings? (Page 11-2)
A

33%

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128
Q
  1. CAPS may be effected only by Commanding Officers of commands that are designated as which type of sea duty? (Page 11-2)
A

2 or 4

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129
Q
  1. Which individual manpower authorization form is used by Commanding Officers who are responsible for more than one UIC to base their CAP quotas on? (Page 11-3)
A

OPNAV 1000/2

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130
Q
  1. What are CAP quotas based on for each individual UIC? (Page 11-3)
A

Billets Authorized (BA)

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131
Q
  1. What is the latest date each year that each Type 2 or 4 command must submit an annual CAP Certification Report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS- 811/812) (copy to the Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC)? (Page 11-4)
A

January 15th

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132
Q
  1. What rank is the enlisted selection board president? (Page 12-1)
A

0-6

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133
Q
  1. Who establishes the maximum selection board quotas (Active and FTS) for each rating? (Page 12-1)
A

CNO (N13)

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134
Q
  1. What drives advancement opportunity in the Navy? (Page 12-1)
A

Vacancies

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135
Q
  1. What percent of the Navy’s total end-strength may be E&s and E9s? Page 12-2)
A

3.5%

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136
Q
  1. Which requirement has been established by the Department of Defense (DOD) that must be met prior toa member’s advancement to a given paygrade? (Page 12-2)
A

Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)

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137
Q
  1. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-7? (Page 12-2)
A

11

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138
Q
  1. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-8? (Page 12-2)
A

16

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139
Q
  1. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-9? (Page 12-2)
A

19

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140
Q
  1. What is the maximum percentage of the total number of Sailors in the E7/8/9 paygrades that may have less than the prescribed TAFMS?
A

10%

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141
Q
  1. What convenes the enlisted selection boards? (Page 12-3)
A

CHNAVPERS

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142
Q
  1. Where are the permanent records for each rating maintained? (Page 12-3)
A

Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)

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143
Q
  1. What is the electronic snapshot of the official record referred to as? (Page 12-3)
A

PSR

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144
Q
  1. Who is the only person that can submit unofficial correspondence to the President of the selection board? (Page 12-3)
A

Candidate

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145
Q
  1. What is the single most important factor that influences selection during the enlisted selection board? (Page l12-4)
A

Sustained superior performance

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146
Q
  1. How many different selection board panel members review each candidate’s record? (Page 12-4)
A

Two

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147
Q
  1. What is the process called when the enlisted selection board panel arranges all the candidates from top to bottom once the review of an entire rating is complete? (Page 124)
A

Slating

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148
Q
  1. What is the final approval authority for all enlisted selection board recommendations? (Page 12-5)
A

CHNAVPERS

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149
Q
  1. What is the official announcement made to individual Navy commands that must be in the command’s possession prior to frocking of selectees? (Page 12-5)
A

NAVADMIN

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150
Q
  1. Which command supplies application programs to support automated preparation and submission of FITREPS, CHIEFEVALS, and EVALS? (Page 1-11)
A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)

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151
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members name? (Page 1-1)
A

1

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152
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members grade/rate? (Page 1-2)
A

2

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153
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members designator? (Page 1-2)
A

3

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154
Q
  1. How many enlisted warfare/qualification designators can be entered in block 3 when preparing a performance report? (Page 1-2)
A

2

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155
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members social security number? (Page 1-2)
A

4

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156
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members duty/competitive status? (Page 1-2)
A

5

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157
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members UIC? (Page 1-2)
A

6

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158
Q
  1. Block 6 of the performance report should match the primary UIC of the reporting senior in which block? (Page 1-3)
A

26

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159
Q
  1. What should be entered for activities to which no UIC is assigned when preparing the performance report? (Page 1-3)
A

00000

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160
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members ship/station? Page 1-3)
A

7

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161
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members promotion status? (Page 1-4)
A

8

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162
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the date that the member reported? (Page 1-5)
A

9

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163
Q
  1. Which performance report blocks contain the occasion for report? (Page 1-5)
A

10-13

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164
Q
  1. Which performance report blocks contain the period of report? (Page 1-5)
A

14-15

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165
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the space used to put Not Observed Report if it is applicable? (Page 1-5)
A

16

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166
Q
  1. Which performance report blocks contain the type of report? (Page 1-6)
A

17-19

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167
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members physical readiness status? (Page 1-6)
A

20

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168
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members billet subcategory, if any? (Page 1-8)
A

21

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169
Q
  1. Which performance report block names the reporting senior? (Page 1-11)
A

22

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170
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s grade? (Page 1-11)
A

23

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171
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s four-digit officer designator? (Page 1-12)
A

24

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172
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s title? (Page 1-12)
A

25

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173
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s UIC? (Page 1-12)
A

26

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174
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s social security number? (Page 1-12)
A

27

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175
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains command employment and command achievements? (Page 1-13)
A

28

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176
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members Primary/Collateral/Watchstanding duties? (Page 1-13)
A

29

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177
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the date the member was counseled? (Page 1-14)
A

30

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178
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the name of the members counselor? (Page 1-14)
A

31

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179
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the signature of the individual counseled? (Page 1-15)
A

32

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180
Q
  1. Which performance report blocks contain the members performance traits? (Page 1-15)
A

33-39

181
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the individual trait average? (Page 1-16)
A

40

182
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the career recommendations for the member being counseled? (Page 1-17)
A

41

183
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the signature of the rater? (Page 1-17)
A

42

184
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains comments on performance? (Page 1-17)
A

43

185
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the members qualifications/achievements? (Page 1-17)
A

44

186
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the individuals promotion recommendation? (Page 1-18)
A

45

187
Q
  1. What is the highest promotion recommendation a member can receive who receives one or two 2.0 trait grades? (Page 1-18)
A

Promotable

188
Q
  1. What must Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity (FITREPEVAL), and Character (CHIEFEVAL) be evaluated as at a minimum to maintain eligibility for advancement and receive a recommendation of Promotable? (Page 1-18)
A

3.0

189
Q
  1. Enlisted members who receive any performance trait grade of what lose eligibility for the Navy Good Conduct Medal and must reestablish a new 3-year period following the end date of the report? (Page 1-18)
A

1.0

190
Q
  1. What is the maximum promotion recommendation that Ensign and lieutenant junior grade can receive on their FITREPS for designators other than LDO (6XXK)? (Page 1-19)
A

Promotable

191
Q
  1. What does Significant Problems equal on the scale for enlisted performance reports? (Page 1-19)
A

2.0

192
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote recommendations for all pay grades except non-Limited Duty Officer O1/02 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
A

20%

193
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for El-B4 for each summary group? Page (1-20)
A

No limit

194
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for ES-E6 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
A

60%

195
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for E7-E9 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
A

50%

196
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for LDO O1-02 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
A

No limit

197
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for W3-W5s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
A

50%

198
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for O-3s for each summary group? (Page 1- 20)
A

60%

199
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for O-4s for each summary group? (Page 1- 20)
A

50%

200
Q
  1. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for O-5 and 0-6s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
A

40%

201
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the summary? (Page 1-22)
A

46

202
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the retention recommendation? (Page 1-24)
A

47

203
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors address? (Page 1-25)
A

48

204
Q
  1. Which performance report block contains the signature of the senior rater? (Page 1-25)
A

49

205
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting senior signature? (Page 1-25)
A

50

206
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the signature of the individual being evaluated? (Page 1-25)
A

51

207
Q
  1. The reporting senior shall hand write in the signature block of the member certified, copy provided” if the report is not adverse and if the member is not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how many days (inactive duty)? (Page 1-26)
A

30

208
Q
  1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the regular reporting senior signature on concurrent reports? (Page 1-26)
A

52

209
Q
  1. Which manual should be used for instructions on mailing classified material? (Page 1-29)
A

SECNAV M-5510.36

210
Q
  1. Which type of reports are normally considered to be regular reports for both officers and enlisted? (Page 3-1)
A

Special

211
Q
  1. What is the only type of report that provides continuity? (Page 3-1)
A

Regular

212
Q
  1. No more than how many months may be covered by regular reports, including letter-extensions, without NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval? (Page 3-1)
A

15

213
Q
  1. Periodic reports may be omitted if the member received an Observed Regular report ending no more than how many months prior to the Periodic report date? (Page 3-2)
A

3

214
Q
  1. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are not required from an interim reporting senior who has been on board for how many months or less if the reporting senior’s permanent relief agrees to cover the period in the next Regular report? (Page 3-4)
A

3

215
Q
  1. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are optional for personnel in which paygrades? (Page 3-4)
A

E1-E9

216
Q
  1. Periodic reports may be omitted and added to the next period if Detachment of Reporting Senior reports were submitted for a particular paygrade, and, if the next report is the periodic report but is less than how many days from the previous Detachment of Reporting Senior report? (Page 3-5)
A

90

217
Q
  1. A Promotion/Frocking EVAL must always be submitted upon promotion or frocking to which paygrade? (Page 3-5)
A

E-7

218
Q
  1. Promotion/frocking reports for officers or enlisted members who have been promoted should not be submitted unless the change in Periodic report dates will result in more than how many months between Regular reports? (Page 3-5)
A

15

219
Q
  1. A new reporting senior who has not written an “Observed” report on a member may submit a Special report on an officer or CPO who is eligible before a promotion selection board if the individual has performed significant duties under that reporting senior for at least how many months? (Page 3-7)
A

3

220
Q
  1. An E-6 may receive a Special report for a promotion selection board who has performed duty at a new command for at least how many months who has not yet received an Observed report? (Page 3-7)
A

3

221
Q
  1. A Special report may not be submitted for the sole purpose of raising what? (Page 3-8)
A

Performance Mark Average (PMA)

222
Q
  1. Which type of reports are Detachment of Reporting Senior reports that are optional for E1-E6 submitted as? (Page 3-9)
A

Special

223
Q
  1. Special FITREPS for superior performance or recommendations are specifically prohibited for which personnel? (Page 3-9)
A

Officers

224
Q
  1. For up to how many months can a Special report be extended for unless it was submitted for the reduction-in-rate of an enlisted member? (Page 3-9)
A

3 months

225
Q
  1. How many recommendations for advancement are there?
A

3

226
Q
  1. What is a recommendation against advancement that withdraws any previous advancement recommendation in the current grade? (Page l6- 1)
A

Significant Problems

227
Q
  1. What is the Performance grade for Early Promote (EP) promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
A

4.0

228
Q
  1. What is the Performance grade for Must Promote (MP) promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
A

3.8

229
Q
  1. What is the Performance grade for Promotable (P) promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
A

3.6

230
Q
  1. What is the Performance grade for Progressing promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
A

3.4

231
Q
  1. What is the Performance grade for Significant Problems (SP)? (Page 16-2)
A

2.0

232
Q
  1. What would the Performance Mark Average (PMA) be for three EVALS received within the minimum time-in-rate period with performance marks of 3.8, 3.8, and 4.0? (Page l6-2)
A

3.87

233
Q
  1. Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines? (Page 1-1)
A

Policy

234
Q
  1. What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal? (Page 1-1)
A

Program

235
Q
  1. What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called? (Page 1-1)
A

Environmental pollution

236
Q
  1. Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion? (Page 1-1)
A

Agricultural

237
Q
  1. Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores? (Page 1-1)
A

Industrial

238
Q
  1. Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts used on streets in wintertime? (Page 1-1)
A

Municipal

239
Q
  1. Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars and trucks? (Page 1-1)
A

Transportation

240
Q
  1. What are the unburned fuel vapors called that motor vehicles release into the air? (Page l-1)
A

Hydrocarbons

241
Q
  1. Vessels may not discharge pulped trash within how many nautical miles of the U.S. coastline? (Page 1-3)
A

12

242
Q
  1. How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged? (Page 1-3)
A

1000

243
Q
  1. How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be before discharging any trash? (Page 1-3)
A

25

244
Q
  1. Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to environmental noise reduction? (Page 1-3)
A

Noise Prevention

245
Q
  1. What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use? (Page 1-4)
A

Petroleum

246
Q
  1. Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to case the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders? (Page 1-5)
A

CNO

247
Q
  1. Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor? (Page 1-5)
A

NAVPERS 1330/2

248
Q
  1. What program provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands? (Page 1-5)
A

Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)

249
Q
  1. What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be visiting? (Page 1-7)
A

SITES

250
Q
  1. Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the Department of the Navy? (Page 1-7)
A

Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)

251
Q
  1. What is the maximum MILCAP award? (Page l-7)
A

$25,000

252
Q
  1. Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy? (Page 1-9)
A

28th

253
Q
  1. How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit? (Page 1-9)
A

4

254
Q
  1. Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship? Page 1-9)
A

6

255
Q
  1. How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby? (Page 1-9)
A

42

256
Q
  1. Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan? (Page 1-10)
A

19

257
Q
  1. Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement? (Page 1-11)
A

Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)

258
Q
  1. What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights? (Page 1-11)
A

Fraud

259
Q
  1. What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as? (Page 1-11)
A

Waste

260
Q
  1. What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as? (Page 1-11)
A

Abuse

261
Q
  1. What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN? (Page 1-12)
A

Inspector General (1G)

262
Q
  1. What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records are maintained by agencies of the federal government? (Page 1- 13)
A

Privacy Act

263
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations Article defines Equal Opportunity? (Page 1-14)
A

Article 1164

264
Q
  1. What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment? (Page 1-14)
A

CMEO

265
Q
  1. What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin? (Page 1-15)
A

Insensitive practice

266
Q
  1. What provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing? (Page 1-16)
A

HRO

267
Q
  1. Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly? (Page 1-16)
A

First Amendment

268
Q
  1. What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful? (Page 1-17)
A

Hazing

269
Q
  1. What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called? (Page 1- 19)
A

Sexual harassment

270
Q
  1. Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criteria for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment? (Page 1-19)
A

Unwelcome

271
Q
  1. Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 1-20)
A

Quid pro quo

272
Q
  1. Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment? (Page 1-21)
A

Red zone

273
Q
  1. What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be considered to be sexual harassment? (Page 1-21)
A

Yellow zone

274
Q
  1. Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states No person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”? (Page 1-22)
A

Article 1165

275
Q
  1. What volunteer liaises between command and families? (Page 1-23)
A

Command ombudsman

276
Q
  1. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for preferred reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
A

RE-R1

277
Q
  1. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
A

RE-1

278
Q
  1. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
A

RE-R3

279
Q
  1. Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
A

RE-4

280
Q
  1. Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program? (Page 1-24)
A

Chief of Naval Personnel

281
Q
  1. In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces? (Page 2-2)
A

1955

282
Q
  1. How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain? (Page 2-2)
A

Six

283
Q
  1. Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service number and date of birth”? (Page 2-2)
A

V

284
Q
  1. What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties? (Page 2-3)
A

Shore Patrol (SP)

285
Q
  1. Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA? (Page 2-4)
A

Executive Officer

286
Q
  1. What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and efficiency? (Page 2-4)
A

Discipline

287
Q
  1. Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses must not be repeated? (Page 2-5)
A

Deterrent

288
Q
  1. The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy? (Page 2-6)
A

SORN

289
Q
  1. What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities? (Page 2-6)
A

U.S. Navy Regulations

290
Q
  1. Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy? (Page 2-6)
A

Chief of Naval Operations

291
Q
  1. Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the President? (Page 2-6)
A

Secretary of the Navy

292
Q
  1. Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations? (Page 2-7)
A

Article 92

293
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence? (Page 2-7)
A

Article 1002

294
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing officers orally and in writing? (Page 2-8)
A

Article 1010

295
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties? (Page 2-8)
A

Article 1021

296
Q
  1. Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates? (Page 2-8)
A

Abusive language

297
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat? (Page 2-8)
A

Article 1033

298
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority ? (Page 2-8)
A

Article 1038

299
Q
  1. Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of whom? (Page 2-8)
A

Chief of Naval Personnel

300
Q
  1. What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for? (Page 2-9)
A

4

301
Q
  1. What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans to other armed service members? (Page 2-9)
A

18

302
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges? (Page 2- 10)
A

Article 1134

303
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty? (Page 2-12)
A

Article 1157

304
Q
  1. Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all Navy members? (Page 2-12)
A

OPNAVINST 3120.32

305
Q
  1. Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under different military codes? (Page 2-15)
A

1951

306
Q
  1. What year did the UCMJ become effective? (Page 2-15)
A

1951

307
Q
  1. Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person? (Page 2- 15)
A

Article 137

308
Q
  1. What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits? (Page 2-17)
A

Arrest

309
Q
  1. What is the physical restraint of a person called? (Page 2-17)
A

Confinement

310
Q
  1. Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial punishment? (Page 2-18)
A

Article 15

311
Q
  1. In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing military requirements? (Page 2-19)
A

Article 27

312
Q
  1. Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self-incrimination)? (Page 2-19)
A

Article 31

313
Q
  1. Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members, and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal? (Page 2-19)
A

Article 37

314
Q
  1. Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment? (Page 2-20)
A

Article 55

315
Q
  1. What are the UCMJ punitive articles? (Page 2-20)
A

77-134

316
Q
  1. What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime? (Page 2-21)
A

Conspiracy

317
Q
  1. What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of? (Page 2-22)
A

Desertion

318
Q
  1. How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter? (Page 2 22)
A

30

319
Q
  1. Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement? (Page 2-23)
A

Article 87

320
Q
  1. What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines? (Page 2-26)
A

Countersign

321
Q
  1. What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards? (Page 2-26)
A

Parole

322
Q
  1. What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state of conflict? (Page 2-26)
A

Safeguard

323
Q
  1. What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property? (Page 2-28)
A

Neglect

324
Q

44, Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty? (Page 2-28)

A

Article 112

325
Q
  1. What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war? (Page 2-29)
A

Death

326
Q
  1. What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled? (Page 2-29)
A

Malingering

327
Q
  1. How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may oppose them to be classified as a riot? (Page 2-30)
A

Three

328
Q
  1. What is the unlawful killing of another called? (Page 2-30)
A

Manslaughter

329
Q
  1. What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm? Page 2-30)
A

Involuntary manslaughter

330
Q
  1. What is any person guilty of who engages in unnatural carnal copulation with another person of the same or opposite sex or with an animal? (Page 2-32)
A

Sodomy

331
Q
  1. Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles? (Page 2-34)
A

Article 134

332
Q
  1. What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as? (Page 2-36)
A

Captain’s mast

333
Q
  1. What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship, station, etc.)? (Page 2-36)
A

Restriction

334
Q
  1. What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or nonduty hours, or both called? (Page 2-36)
A

Correctional custody

335
Q
  1. Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay-grade and below aboard ship? (Page 2-36)
A

E-3

336
Q
  1. What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned? (Page 2-36)
A

2 hours

337
Q
  1. How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the next superior in the chain of command? (Page 2-37)
A

5

338
Q
  1. Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination? (Page 2-37)
A

Article 31

339
Q
  1. Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to communicate with the commanding officer? (Page 2-37)
A

Article 1107

340
Q
  1. Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ? (Page 2-37)
A

General

341
Q
  1. What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of? (Page 2-37)
A

Three

342
Q
  1. A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members? (Page 2-37)
A

Five

343
Q
  1. What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships? (Page 3-1)
A

Deck log

344
Q
  1. Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea? (Page 3-1)
A

Quartermaster Of the Watch (Q00W)

345
Q
  1. Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times? (Page 3-2)
A

Battle

346
Q
  1. Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and watch condition? Page 3-2)
A

WQS

347
Q
  1. Which condition sets general quarters? (Page 3-3)
A

Condition I

348
Q
  1. What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as extended periods of shore bombardment? (Page 3-3)
A

Condition II

349
Q
  1. What is the normal wartime cruising watch? (Page 3-3)
A

Condition II

350
Q
  1. What provides the capability for reacting to emergency security situations aboard ship and at pierside to protect the ship, its sensitive equipment, and its personnel? (Page 3-3)
A

Self-defense force

351
Q
  1. How many hours in duration are most Navy watches? (Page 3-3)
A

4

352
Q
  1. How many minutes prior to the start of watches should personnel arrive on station to receive any pertinent information from the person you are relieving? (Page 3-3)
A

15

353
Q
  1. What is the 0000 to 0400 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

Midwatch

354
Q
  1. What is the 0400 to 0800 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

Morning watch

355
Q
  1. What is the 0800 to 1200 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

Forenoon watch

356
Q
  1. What is the 1200 to 1600 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

Afternoon watch

357
Q
  1. What is the 1600 to 1800 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

First dog watch

358
Q
  1. What is the 1800 to 2000 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

Second dog watch

359
Q
  1. What is the 2000 to 2400 watch named? (Page 3-4)
A

Evening watch

360
Q
  1. How long past reveille are late sleepers normally permitted to sleep? (Page 3-4)
A

1 hour

361
Q
  1. Which type of watches are stood to prevent sabotage, protect property from damage or theft, prevent access to restricted areas by unauthorized persons, or protect personnel? (Page 3-4)
A

Security

362
Q
  1. Who is eligible for command at sea and is designated and empowered by the captain to advise, supervise, and direct the officer of the deck (00D) in matters concerning the general operation and safety of the ship or station? (Page 3-4)
A

CDO

363
Q
  1. Who is responsible to the commanding officer (CO) for the safe and proper operation of the ship or station? (Page 3-5)
A

Officer Of the Deck (OOD)

364
Q
  1. Who maintains the ship’s deck log and assists the 00D in navigational matters while underway? (Page 3-5)
A

QMOW

365
Q
  1. Who ensures all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers in previous watch sections are relieved? (Page 3-5)
A

BMOW

366
Q
  1. At least how often should lookouts be rotated? (Page 3-5)
A

Hourly

367
Q
  1. Who steers the courses prescribed by the conning officer? (Page 3-6)
A

Helmsman

368
Q
  1. Who stands watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge ringing up the conning officer’s orders to the engine room ensuring all bells are correctly answered? (Page 3-6)
A

Lee helmsman

369
Q
  1. What are the two types of orders that govern sentries? (Page 3-7)
A

General and special

370
Q
  1. How many general orders are there that sentries must follow? (Page 3-8)
A

11

371
Q
  1. How many methods are used for relieving armed sentries? (Page 3- 10)
A

Two

372
Q
  1. Deadly force may only be authorized by whom? (Page 3-11)
A

CO

373
Q
  1. How many degrees above the horizon is monitored by low sky lookouts? (Page 3-11)
A

5

374
Q
  1. What is the direction of an object relative to the ship referred to as? (Page 3-13)
A

Bearing

375
Q
  1. How many types of bearings are there? (Page 3-13)
A

Three

376
Q
  1. Which bearing type uses the ship’s bow as a reference point? (Page 3-13)
A

Relative

377
Q
  1. What is the relative bearing of your ship from another ship referred to as? (Page 3-14)
A

Target angle

378
Q
  1. What metric are ranges always reported in? (Page 3-15)
A

Yards

379
Q
  1. How many minutes does it take personnel to reach their best night vision called dark adaptation? (Page 3-17)
A

30

380
Q
  1. How many miles away in good weather can lookouts easily spot planes with the naked eye? (Page 3-17)
A

15

381
Q
  1. What step-by-step eye search technique do lookouts use? (Page 3- 17)
A

Scanning

382
Q
  1. What are the two basic categories of communications? (Page 4-1)
A

Interior and exterior

383
Q
  1. What was adopted by NATO nations armed forces to overcome language barriers? (Page 4-1)
A

Phonetic alphabet

384
Q
  1. Which type of phones require no batteries or external electrical power source as they operate on the power of your voice? (Page 4-2)
A

Sound powered

385
Q
  1. How far should the sound-powered phone transmitter be held from the mouth when speaking into it? (Page 4-3)
A

.5” to 1”

386
Q
  1. Primary, Auxiliary, along with what else are the three sound powered telephone circuit categories aboard ships? (Page 4-5)
A

Supplementary

387
Q
  1. What word is used to identify your station and acknowledge messages? (Page 4-6)
A

Aye

388
Q
  1. How are sound-powered phone system communications phrased? (Page 4-7)
A

Declarative (statement)

389
Q
  1. What combines into one system the features of sound-powered telephones, dial telephones, and intercommunications units? (Page 4-11)
A

IVCS

390
Q
  1. What are the two types of terminal devices used with the IVCS? (Page 4-11)
A

Network and dial

391
Q
  1. What is the heart of the IVCS? (Page 4-12)
A

ICSC

392
Q
  1. What is defined as the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications of the United States government that are related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of each telecommunication? (Page 4-13)
A

Communications security

393
Q
  1. What general announcing system can pass word to every space on the ship? (Page 4-14)
A

IMC

394
Q
  1. Who is in charge of the IMC? (Page 4-14)
A

OOD

395
Q
  1. What is the primary means of DCC within the repair locker area? Page 4-16)
A

DC WIFCOM

396
Q
  1. Which international flag means “I have a diver(s) down; keep well clear at slow speed.”? (Page 4-20)
A

ALFA

397
Q
  1. Which international flag means I am taking in, discharging, or carrying dangerous materials.”? (Page 4-20)
A

BRAVO

398
Q
  1. Which international flag means Personnel working aloft.”? (Page 4- 20)
A

KILO

399
Q
  1. Which international flag means Man Overboard.”? (Page 4-20)
A

OSCAR

400
Q
  1. Which international flag means Preparing to come alongside in-port or at anchor.”? (Page 4-20)
A

INDIA

401
Q
  1. Which international flag means “I have a semaphore message to transmit.”? (Page 4-20)
A

JULIETT

402
Q
  1. Which international flag means “General recall; all personnel return to the ship.”? (Page 4-20)
A

PAPA

403
Q
  1. Which international flag means “Boat recall; all boats return to the ship.”? (Page 4-20)
A

QUEBEC

404
Q
  1. What time is colors held in the morning while not underway? (Page 4-21)
A

0800

405
Q
  1. What is the Ensign normally flown from while underway? (Page 4- 21)
A

Gaff

406
Q
  1. What is the national ensign along with the union jack referred to as? (Page 4-21)
A

Colors

407
Q
  1. How is the ensign flown for the internationally recognized symbol of mourning? (Page 4-22)
A

Half mast

408
Q
  1. What is the rectangular blue part of the United States flag containing the stars called? (Page 4-22)
A

Union jack

409
Q
  1. What year did the President, on the recommendation of the Secretary of the Navy, establish an official flag for the United States Navy? (Page 4-23)
A

1959

410
Q
  1. Which flag is regarded as an international guarantee of amnesty from attack? (Page 4-23)
A

Red Cross

411
Q
  1. Substitute pennants are flown when certain officers are absent while in port for a period of up to how many hours? Page 4-24)
A

72

412
Q
  1. Which flag is hoisted whenever the ship is taking aboard, transferring, or handling dangerous commodities, such as ammunition and fuel? (Page 4-25)
A

Bravo

413
Q
  1. What special device will boat flagstaff’s be marked with for any civilian official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 or more guns? (Page 4-26)
A

Spread eagle

414
Q
  1. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for a flag or general officer whose official salute is less than l9 guns or for a civil official whose salute is 11 or more guns but less than 19? (Page 4-26)
A

Halbert

415
Q
  1. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Captain in the Navy, or for certain diplomatic officials? (Page 4-26)
A

Ball

416
Q
  1. What special device will boat flagstaff be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Commander? (Page 4-26)
A

Star

417
Q
  1. What are informal courtesy visits that require no special ceremonies known as? (Page 4-28)
A

Call

418
Q
  1. What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels? (Page 5-1)
A

October 13, 1775

419
Q
  1. Ships-of-the-line, Frigates, along with what else were the three major classes of vessels during the Revolutionary war and into the 19 century? (Page 5-2)
A

Sloops-of-War

420
Q
  1. Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over 100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
A

Ships-of-the-line

421
Q
  1. How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
A

28 to 44

422
Q
  1. Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons? Page 5-2)
A

Schooner

423
Q
  1. What was the name of the first warfare submarine? (Page 5-2)
A

Turtle

424
Q
  1. What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval vessel where the Flag of Freedom” was hoisted by John Paul Jones? (Page 5-2)
A

USS Alfred

425
Q
  1. What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek Hopkins? (Page 5-3)
A

1776

426
Q
  1. Who is the father of our highest naval traditions? (Page 5-3)
A

John Paul Jones

427
Q
  1. What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling government of the American Colonies? (Page 5-4)
A

France

428
Q
  1. At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year? (Page 5-5)
A

1785

429
Q
  1. What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams? (Page 5-5)
A

1798

430
Q
  1. What war was the origin of the famous expression “Millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute”? (Page 5-6)
A

Quasi War

431
Q
  1. What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812? (Page 5-6)
A

Old Ironsides

432
Q
  1. Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and wrote his dispatch “We have met the enemy and they are ours.”? (Page 5-6)
A

Captain Oliver Hazard Perry

433
Q
  1. Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with steam? (Page 5-7)
A

Robert Fulton

434
Q
  1. What was the first Navy warship to use steam? (Page 5-7)
A

USS Demologos

435
Q
  1. What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest of ship-of-the-line vessel? (Page 5-7)
A

1837

436
Q

19, What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships? (Page 5-7)

A

1841

437
Q
  1. What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-hulled warship? (Page 5-7)
A

1843

438
Q
  1. Who is referred to as the “Father of the Steam Navy”? (Page 5-7)
A

Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry

439
Q
  1. What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy’s first successful steamship launched? (Page 5-7)
A

1843

440
Q
  1. What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive S0 hits in one battle, launched by the Union? (Page 5-8)
A

1862

441
Q
  1. Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than during any period since the Navy originated in 1775? (Page 5-8)
A

Civil War

442
Q

25, Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy? (Page S-8)

A

CSS Hunley

443
Q
  1. What gave the famous order “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” on August 5, 1864? (Page S-9)
A

David Farragut

444
Q
  1. Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an overwhelming force to defeat the enemy’s Navy? (Page 5-10)
A

Alfred T. Mahan

445
Q
  1. How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the Civil War? (Page 5-10)
A

56

446
Q
  1. Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet? (Page 5-10)
A

USS Newark

447
Q
  1. What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy’s first torpedo boats join the fleet? (Page 5-10)
A

1890

448
Q
  1. What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine’s basic visual aid? (Page 5-11)
A

1958

IT ALL Knowledge (14 decks)

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