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Anatomy > Physiology Exam 2 > Flashcards

Physiology Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of bone is primary bone

A

Woven, immature, usually seen in fetal development

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2
Q

What kind of bone is secondary bone

A

Mature, compact, spongy, subchondral

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3
Q

What kinds of bone are abnormal bone

A

Accessory bone and heterotopic bone

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4
Q

What are osteons

A

“Cylinders” of bone tissue made up of layers of bone tissue called lamella(e)

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5
Q

What are lamella(e)

A

Layers of bone tissue that surround osteons

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6
Q

What are osteonic canals

A

hollow spaces in the center of osteons that house blood vessels

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7
Q

Where are osteocytes located

A

In the lacuna(e)

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8
Q

What are canaliculi

A

They house processes that allow osteocytes to communicate with other osteocytes

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9
Q

What structures connect osteonic canals

A

Perforating canals

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10
Q

What are circumfrential lamellae

A

They are found externally surrounding the outside of osteons and internally inside the osteons

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11
Q

What are trabeculae

A

Bony struts

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12
Q

Spongy bone is aka

A

Trabecular bone, no central canal but contain osteosytes

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13
Q

What surrounds/covers trabecular bone

A

Endosteum

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14
Q

What does the endosteum contain/made up of

A

osteoprogenitor cells an dosteoblasts

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15
Q

What is subchondral bone

A

At the joint, the epiphysis is covered with articular cartilage; below that covering is a zone similar to the epiphyseal plate, known as subchondral bone

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16
Q

What kind of bone makes up facet surfaces

A

Subchondral bone

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17
Q

What is accessory bone

A

Bone spur, bone that is not supposed to be there, but it is still normal tissue

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18
Q

What is heterotopic bone

A

(kidney and gallstones) surrounded by soft tissue immature looking. Bone forming in m.

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19
Q

What is the diaphysis

A

Primary ossification center. main portion of bone

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20
Q

What is the epiphysis

A

Secondary ossification center typically on the ends

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21
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate made of

A

Hyaline cartilage

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22
Q

What is the periosteum and what is it made up of

A

An outer fibrous layer covering the bone and inner cellular layer (osteoprogenitor and osteoblasts)

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23
Q

What is the Medullary cavity

A

Hollow cavity at the center of a long bone. in kids red bone marrow adults replace it with yellow adipose tissue

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24
Q

What is Articular cartilage

A

Hyaline cartilage covering the ends of bone

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25
Q

What is Wolff’s Law

A

Bone/Tissue will respond to the forces placed on it

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26
Q

What is intramembranous bone growth, and what is it aka

A

Membrane-like layers get replaced with bone tissue as it matures. AKA dermal bone growth

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27
Q

Where does intramembranous (dermal) bone growth take place

A

At the top of the skull and clavical

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28
Q

What is endochondral bone growth, and what is it aka

A

It gives rise to bones that have to resist gravity. AKA cartilaginous bone growth

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29
Q

What bones go through endochondral (cartilaginous) bone growth

A

Bones at the base of the skull and ALL of the post cranial skeleton (including clavical)

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30
Q

What is the medullary cavity

A

Opening in the center of long bones

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31
Q

What are the steps of endochondral bone growth

A

Hyaline cartilage “model” > Spongy bone in center > osteoprogenitors > osteoblasts > compact bone forms around spongy bone (diaphysis) > blood vessels invade epiphysis to being developing spongy bones (bone replaces cartilage)

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32
Q

What is interstitial growth, and how does it work

A

It takes place in the epiphyseal plate, and new bone is laid on the diaphysis side while hyaline cartilage remains on the epiphyseal side

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33
Q

What is appositional growth, and how does it work

A

New compact bone is deposited by osteoblasts just below the periosteum, and in long bones makes a medullary cavity. Leads to an overall increase in size

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34
Q

What is responsible for making the medullary cavity

A

Osteoclasts

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35
Q

What job can osteoclasts perform in long bones.

A

They are able to break down inner layers of compact bone in order to make more spongy bone so the bones are not too heavy`

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36
Q

Why is Vitamin C needed

A

It is needed for proper collagen formation, and a deficit can lead to scurvy.

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37
Q

What can scurvy do

A

It can thin bone tissue and increase the risk of a fx

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38
Q

Why is Vitamin D needed

A

It is needed for proper bone mineralization.

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39
Q

What can a Vitamin D deficit lead to

A

Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults

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40
Q

How can we obtain Vitamin D

A

We can synthesize it via our skin and/or get it in our diet

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41
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system

A

Structure, support, protection, locomotion/movement, Hematopoesis, inorganic mineral storage (Ca++), and indicator of sex/age/height etc.

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42
Q

How are bones classified

A

Either by shape or location

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43
Q

Characteristics of Long bones

A

Longer than wide, cylindrical with medullary cavity

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44
Q

Characteristics of short bones

A

Roughly cuboidal (carpals and tarsals). found where mobility is needed, but space is limited

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45
Q

Characteristics of Flat bones

A

Relatively thin. Provide broad surfaces for m. attachment and/or protection of underlying organs. (Frontal, parietal, innominate, ribs, scap)

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46
Q

Characteristics of Irregular bones

A

Irregular shape with numerous projections

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47
Q

Characteristics of pneumatic bones

A

Contain sizable air spaces to reduce the weight of the skull reducing the need for large neck m.

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48
Q

What kind of bones are the main site of blood cell formation in adults

A

Flat bones

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49
Q

What bones are pneumatic bones

A

Frontal, Maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid, temporal

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50
Q

Characteristics of sesamoid bones

A

Small round bones embedded w/in a tendon. Alter the angle of m. attachment to increase mechanical leverage

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51
Q

What makes up the Axial skeleton

A

Bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage

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52
Q

What makes up the appendicular skeleton

A

Bone of the limbs and their attachment onto the axial skeleton. (Pectoral and pelvic girdles (excluding sacrum))

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53
Q

What makes up the Cranial skeleton

A

Bones of the skull

54
Q

What makes up the post-cranial skeleton

A

Any bones that are below the skull

55
Q

What kind of fibers make up the bone tissue matrix

A

Type 1 collagen fibers which provide strength to resist tensile forces

56
Q

What makes up the organic component of the ground substance

A

Proteoglycans (chondroitan sulfate, keratan sulfate, and hyaluronic acid) and glycoproteins (osteonectin and osteocalcin)

57
Q

What makes up the inorganic component of the ground substance

A

Hydroxyapatite and a mineral composite which provides strength to resist compressive forces

58
Q

Function and location of osteoprogenitor cells

A

Give rise to osteoblasts and located in the central and perforating canals of osteons as well as w/in the periosteum and endosteum

59
Q

Function and location of osteoblasts

A

Lay down new bone tissue and located in the central and perforating canals of osteons as well as w/in the periosteum and endosteum

60
Q

Function and location of osteocytes

A

Former osteoblasts located within the lacunae of osteons of compact bone and the bony struts of spongy bone. They maintain surrounding bone tissue and regulate mineral content

61
Q

Function and location of osteoclasts

A

Bone destroying cells. Cells are large and multinucleated originating from the fusion of several monocytes

62
Q

What is the interstitial lamellae

A

Layers of mineralized matrix, lying between and around osteons; the remains of partially destroyed osteons

63
Q

Where is the site of blood cell manufacturing

A

The interior of spongy bone

64
Q

What are the characteristics of subchondral bone

A

Very thin layer of modified compact bone, but lacks extensive vascular channels. It is found underlying articular cartilage and makes up the articular surface

65
Q

Where does periosteum NOT cover the surface of bone

A

Articular surfaces and where tendons and ligaments attach

66
Q

What makes up the outer fibrous layer of the periosteum

A

Sheet of dense irregular connective tissue containing Type 1 collagen, fibroblasts, blood vessels, and n. fibers

67
Q

What makes up the inner cellular layer of the periosteum

A

Thin layer of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

68
Q

What makes up the endosteum

A

Thin layer of connective tissue covering the inner bone surfaces consisting of a single layer of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

69
Q

What is Wolff’s Law

A

A bone remodels its shape according to the way force is transmitted through it

70
Q

What kind of cells do osteoprogenitor cells come from

A

Mesenchymal cells

71
Q

Secondary centers of ossification are aka

A

Epiphyses

72
Q

What is the zone of cartilage between the primary and secondary ossification centers and a site of active growth called

A

The epiphyseal plate

73
Q

When does bone growth stop

A

When the epiphyseal plate ossifies

74
Q

What is the active form of Vitamin D

A

1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol

75
Q

How does vitamin D facilitate proper bone mineralization

A

It increases the absorption of Ca in the SI and reabsorption of Ca in the kidneys

76
Q

What increase the amount of CA in the blood by indirectly stimulating osteoclast activity

A

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

77
Q

How does PTH increase the amount of Ca in the blood

A

PTH binds to receptors on osteoblasts releasing osteoprotegrin ligand (OPGL). OPGL activates receptors on preosteoclasts which causes them to mature into osteoclasts, allowing them to start breaking down bone tissue

78
Q

What can happen if there is too much PTH

A

There can be bone thinning

79
Q

What can and excess of Pituitary growth hormone lead to

A

In children, gigantism and in adults, acromegaly

80
Q

What can a deficiency of pituitary growth hormone lead to

A

Dwarfism

81
Q

What is the healing process of a fracture

A

Fx hematoma formed from ruptured blood vessels, soft callus of spongy bone and fibrocartilage, hard callus forms by mineralization and remodeling of soft callus, and then remodeling of hard callus to mature (compact & spongy bone)

82
Q

What is the inflammation of bone tissue caused by inj. or infection

A

Osteitis

83
Q

What is the inflammation of periosteum caused by trauma or infection

A

Periostitis

84
Q

What is the inflammation of bone interior caused by bacteria, usually initially entering the bone via wound or bloodstream

A

Osteomyelitis

85
Q

What is Pott’s disease

A

Tuberculosis of the vertebral bodies which can lead to bone and joint destruction

86
Q

What neoplasms are benign

A

Osteochondromas and Osteomas

87
Q

What neoplasms are Malignant

A

Osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) and Multiple myeloma

88
Q

What is osteoporosis

A

A significant reduction in bone density, most prevalent in middle-aged and elderly women

89
Q

Degree of movement in a synarthotic joint

A

Immovable

90
Q

Degree of movement in an amphiarthotic joint

A

Slightly movable

91
Q

Degree of movement in a Diarthotic joint

A

Freely movable

92
Q

What is arthrology

A

The study of joints

93
Q

What are fibrous joints

A

joints where the bones fastened together by thin layers of fibrous/dense connective tissue

94
Q

What are the 3 types of fibrous joints

A

Sydesmosis, Suture, and Gomphosis

95
Q

What is a syndesmosis joint and what degree of movement does it have

A

Bones are joined by a fibrous band which forms an interosseous ligament. Amphiarthrosis

96
Q

What is a suture joint and what degree of movement does it have

A

Only between bones of the skull and they are joined by a very short fibrous “sutural ligament”.
Synarthrosis

97
Q

What is a gomphosis joint and what degree of movement does it have

A

Btwn. tooth root and alveolus (bony socket) very short fibrous periodontal ligament.
Synarthrosis

98
Q

What are cartilaginous joints

A

Joints where the connection consists of hyaline cartilage and/or fibrocartilage

99
Q

What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints

A

Synchondrosis and Symphysis

100
Q

What is a synchondrosis joint and what degree of movement does it have

A

Bones united by a plate of hyaline cartilage. Synarthrotic

101
Q

What is a symphysis joint and what degree of movement does it have

A

Articular surfaces covered by thin layer of hyaline cartilage which in turn is attached to a pad of fibrocartilage. Amphiarthrosis

102
Q

What is a synovial joint and what degree of movement do they have

A

Joint in which the space between articulating bones is filled with synovial fluid. Diarthrosis

103
Q

What are the articular surfaces covered with in a synovial joint

A

Hyaline cartilage (the articular cartilage)

104
Q

What is the articular capsule

A

It encapsulates the synovial joint

105
Q

What is the fibrous layer/membrane (capsular ligament) of a synovial joint made of

A

Thick fibrous outer layer continuous with periosteum of bones

106
Q

What is the synovial membrane of a synovial joint

A

Thin inner membrane covering all non-cartilaginous surfaces

107
Q

The fibrous layer next to the fibrous membrane is made up of what

A

Collagen fibers and fibroblasts

108
Q

The cellular layer next to the synovial cavity is made up of what

A

Synoviocytes, blood vessels, and a scattering of collagen fibers

109
Q

Function and location of macrophage-like cells

A

Immediately next to the synovial cavity and they are phagocytic

110
Q

Function and location of fibroblast-like cells

A

Next to fibrous layer of synovial membrane and they produce hyaluronic acid a component of synovial fluid

111
Q

What is the synovial cavity

A

The interior of the joint and it is filled with synovial fluid

112
Q

What is synovial fluid

A

Viscous, gel-like fluid composed of hyaluronic acid and blood plasma

113
Q

What are the functions of synovial fluid

A

Lubrication, cushioning/protection, and nourishment for articular cartilage

114
Q

What is an articular disc/meniscus

A

Fibrocartilage pad located between articular surfaces

115
Q

What is a bursa

A

Closed synovial fluid-filled sac

116
Q

What is a spheroidal joint

A

Ball and socket. Multiaxial

117
Q

What is an ellipsoidal joint

A

Condyloid (convex oval shaped surface articulates with concave elliptical surface). Biaxial

118
Q

What is a sellar joint

A

Saddle. Biaxial

119
Q

What is an arthrodial joint

A

Gliding (articulating surfaces are nearly flat). Nonaxial

120
Q

What is a ginglymoidal joint

A

Hinge (convex cylindrical surface articulates with concave cylindrical of another). Uniaxial

121
Q

What is a trochoidal joint

A

Pivot (cylindrical pin of one bone rotates w/in ring formed of bone and ligament). Uniaxial

122
Q

What movements occur in the saggital plane

A

Flex, ext, hyperext., Dorsi and plantar flexion

123
Q

What movements occur in the coronal plane

A

Abd. and Add

124
Q

What is rotation

A

Movement of body part around its own long axis

125
Q

What is circumduction

A

Movement in which the distal end moves in a circle while the proximal end remains relatively fixed

126
Q

What is a subluxation

A

Partial displacement of a bone within a joint

127
Q

What is a luxation

A

Total displacement of a bone within a joint

128
Q

What may happen in children and in elderly instead of dislocations

A

Children may rupture an epiphyseal plate and elderly may fx the bone

129
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

A

Autoimmune disease involving synovial joints causing inflam of the synovial membrane resulting in abnormal secretions and eventual joint fusion. typically bilat. affecting the small joints of the hands and feet. Genetic in nature (middle aged)

130
Q

What is Osteoarthritis (OA)

A

Progressive degeneration of synovial joints through wear and tear. Primarily large weight bearing joints, high use, or previously inj. Relatively late age onset. Often associated with development of accessory bone at periphery of joint surfaces

131
Q

What is gout a form of

A

Arthritis

Anatomy (6 decks)

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