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Anatomy > Embryo Final > Flashcards

Embryo Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dividing somite made up of

A

Mesodermal cells

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2
Q

What do mesodermal cells give rise to

A

Mesenchyme

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3
Q

What are the types of cartilage bone development

A

Inter-Cartilagenous or Endochondral ossification

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4
Q

What precedes Inter-Cartilagenous or Endochondral ossification

A

A temporary cartilage template of the same shape

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5
Q

What is special about the cartilage stage of bone growth

A

Bones can grow rapidly to match the growth of the fetus

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6
Q

How does intramembranous ossification happen

A

Condensation of mesenchyme becomes vascularized

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7
Q

At vascularization points what happens

A

Cells differentiate into Osteoblasts

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8
Q

When they begin to deposit osteoid tissue what do the vascularization points become

A

Ossification centers

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9
Q

How is bone matrix deposited

A

In the form of needles or spicules which become lamellae

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10
Q

These lamellae develop around blood vessels to form

A

Osteons

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11
Q

The spicules grow and thicken to become

A

Trabecullae

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12
Q

What are the two types of development for the skull

A

Neurocranium and Splanchnocranium

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13
Q

What does the neurocranium develop from

A

Mesenchyme surrounding the brain

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14
Q

What are the two types of neurocranium development

A

Neurochondrocranium and Neuromembranocranium

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15
Q

How does development of the Neurochondrocranium work

A

Cartilaginous base of the neurocranium and the skull and later endochondral ossification begins around 8 weeks

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16
Q

How does neuromembranocranium development work

A

Intramembranous ossification and forms the sides and the roof of the neurocranium

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17
Q

During fetal life, bones are separated by connective tissue membranes known as

A

Sutures

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18
Q

At the angle of bones large fibrous areas are formed.

What is the membrane covering these spaces called

A

Fontanelles

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19
Q

The anterior fontanelle is the largest and closes when

A

By the end of the second year

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20
Q

When do the posterior and anterolateral fontanelles form

A

2-3 months

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21
Q

When do the posterolateral fontanelles close

A

End of the first year

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22
Q

How many arches do humans have

A
  1. we start with 6, but the 5th disappears in 1.5 days
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23
Q

What is the first arch aka

A

Mandibular arch

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24
Q

What is the second arch aka

A

Reichert’s cartilage

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25
Q

What is the beginning of the vertebral column

A

The notochord

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26
Q

What does the notochord/vertebral column do

A

Gives axial support of vertebrates (chordates)

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27
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus

A

Modified tissue in the intervertebral disc

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28
Q

What does the vertebral column develop from, and what is the difference between the cranial and caudal portions

A

Forms from somite mesenchyme sclerotomes and the caudal portion is densely packed while the cranial is loosely packed

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29
Q

When do vertebral arches unite to form spinous processes

A

The third month after birth

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30
Q

If a disease or disorder is autosomal, what does that mean

A

Of the 22 chromosomes same in male and female

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31
Q

If a disease or disorder is sex-linked, what does that mean

A

Specific to male or female

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32
Q

What are chondrodystrophies

A

Abnormal development of cartilage or disproportionate growth patterns

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33
Q

Gene wise, how are most chondrodystrophies

A

Most autosomal dominant, some autosomal recessive and others are sex linked

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34
Q

What is Achondroplasia syndrome*not starred

A

Autosomal dominant. Slow cartilage growth and bone ossification. small stature and craniofacial megalocphaly. Lumbar lordosis and thoracolumbar kyphosis. mild hypotonia

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35
Q

What is Hypochondroplasia*not starred

A

Mild form of Achondroplasia. Small stature and short bowed lower limbs with lumbar lordosis

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36
Q

What is mucopolysaccaridosis

A

Storage of lipids and mucopolysaccharides in the the nervous system and mucopolysaccharides in the mesenchyme

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37
Q

What is Hulers

A

Mucopolysaccaridosis type 1. build up of glycosaminoglycans and deficiency of Alpha-L iduronidase which breaks down mucopolysaccharides

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38
Q

What is Cleidocranial Dysostosis

A

Clavivle agenesis. can lead to skull and jaw disorders

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39
Q

What is Occulta Spina Bifida

A

Limited to skeletal components and cannot see w/o and image taken

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40
Q

What is Cystica Spina Bifida

A

Meninges only (Meningocoele) or Meninges and Spinal cord (Meningomyelocoele)

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41
Q

What is Scoliosis

A

Abnormal Curvature of the spine

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42
Q

Where is the notochord supposed to be retained

A

In the disc nucleus pulposus

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43
Q

What is a Chordoma

A

When the notochord is retained in vertebral bodies, leading to slow growing tumors

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44
Q

What is Cranial Dysostosis

A

Lack of ossification of the skull at the time of birth

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45
Q

What is Craniostenosis

A

Premature closure of the sutures of the skull. Leads to brain and eye deformities

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46
Q

What is Oxycephaly

A

All sutures close prematurely, but it is symmetrical closure

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47
Q

What is Trigonocephaly

A

Premature fusion of the two frontal bones metatopic suture located in the forehead. (look like the cone heads)

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48
Q

What is Plagiocephaly

A

When the sutures close asymmetrically

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49
Q

What is Scaphocephaly

A

When the sagittal sutures close prematurely

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50
Q

What is Acrocephaly (brachycephaly)

A

When the Coronal sutures are involved

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51
Q

What is Aperts

A

Aperts is the combination of Acrocephaly and Syndactyly

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52
Q

What is Syndactyly

A

Fusion of the digits

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53
Q

What is Crouson’s

A

Scaphocephly with NO syndactyly

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54
Q

What is considered normal for skull size and brain weight

A

Skull-56 cm and brain weight 1300 grams

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55
Q

What is significant about Thalidomide babies

A

The were born with Amelia or Meromelia

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56
Q

What is Amelia

A

Complete absence of limb(s) can be caused by environmental factors

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57
Q

What is Phocomelia

A

Absence or reduction of the proximal part of the limb(s) can be caused by environmental factors

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58
Q

What is Meromelia

A

Absence or reduction of the distal part of the limb(s) can be caused by environmental factors

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59
Q

What is Sympodia

A

Hypoplasia and fusion of the lower limbs. Etiology-Spontaneous

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60
Q

What is Dichiria

A

Duplication of the distal parts of limbs. Etiology-Autosomal dominant

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61
Q

What is Polydactyly

A

Presence of extra digits. Etiology-Autosomal dominant

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62
Q

What is Syndactyly

A

Fusion of the digits. Etiology-Autosomal Dominant

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63
Q

What is Brachydactyly

A

Shortness of the digits. Etiology-Autosomal Dominant

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64
Q

What is Hyperphalangism or polyphalangism

A

Long digits with extra phalanges. Etiology-Autosomal Dominant

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65
Q

What do somites divide into

A

Dermamyotomes and Sclerotomes

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66
Q

What do Dermamyotomes divide into

A

Dermatomes for the skin and myotomes for the muscles

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67
Q

What do sclerotomes divide into

A

Skeleton

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68
Q

What is myogenesis

A

Muscle formation

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69
Q

What are portion of the somite are muscles developed from

A

The Myotome

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70
Q

What layer does the muscular system develop from

A

The mesoderm layer

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71
Q

What does the iris of the eye develop from

A

The neuroextoderm

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72
Q

What are the divisions of skeletal muscles

A

Epimere and hypomere

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73
Q

What is the small dorsal division called

A

Epimere or epiaxial

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74
Q

What is the large vental division called

A

Hypomere or hypaxial

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75
Q

What do epimeres form

A

The extensor muscles of the vertebral column and Dorsal primary rami

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76
Q

What do hypomeres form

A

Give rise to the muscles of the limbs and body wall and Ventral primary rami

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77
Q

What is the innervation of the first Branchial arch

A

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

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78
Q

What is the innervation of the second Branchial arch

A

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

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79
Q

What is the innervation of the third Branchial arch

A

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

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80
Q

What is the innervation of the fourth and sixth Branchial arches

A

Vagus (X) and Hypoglossal (XII)

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81
Q

What are limb buds made from

A

Muscular Mesenchyme

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82
Q

The mesenchyme develops into what groups

A

Extensors (dorsal group) and Flexors (ventral group)

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83
Q

Where does smooth m. derive from

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

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84
Q

Where does smooth m. of the iris derive from

A

Neuroectoderm

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85
Q

Where does cardiac m. derive from

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

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86
Q

T/F: Most muscle defects are bilateral

A

False, most are unilateral

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87
Q

What is the order of muscle defects frequency

A

Pectoralis, Trap and SCM, Deltoid and infraspinatus (rare), and Palmaris longus (~13%)

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88
Q

T/F: Abdominal defects are NEVER bilateral

A

False, They are ALWAYS bilateral

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89
Q

What is Prune belly

A

Distended abdomen from aplasia of the abdominal musculature

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90
Q

Order of frequency of bilateral absence of abdominal muscles

A

Transverse abdominus, Rectus abdominus (below umbilicus), Internal and external oblique and rectus abdominis (above umbilicus)

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91
Q

What is Torticollis

A

SCM is injured during development based on its position in the uterus and m. development. Different than injury during birth process

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92
Q

Where does the urinary and genital systems extend

A

They extend along the paraxial mesoderm from the 7th to 28th somite level

93
Q

What gives rise to the urinary system

A

Neurogenic cord

94
Q

What gives rise to the genital system

A

Genital ridge

95
Q

What are the 3 types of of kidneys

A

Pronephroi, Mesonephroi and Metanephroi

96
Q

Where are all three kidneys seen in humans

A

Human development starting out in the 3rd week

97
Q

What is the pronephroi kidney

A

Rudimentary and has very little function 7th-10th somite level (degenerates around 4th week)

98
Q

What is the Mesonephroi kidney

A

Well developed and function briefly located at the 10-26th somite levels

99
Q

What are the differences in mesonephric tubules in Males vs. Females

A

In males some are retained and form the genital duct system. In females, none are retained

100
Q

What are the Metanephroi kidneys

A

Permanent kidneys located lateral to the mesonephric duct 26-28th somite. (5th week)

101
Q

What develops from the flat end of bud of metanephroi

A

Renal Pelvis

102
Q

What develops from the renal pelvis

A

Major or minor calyces

103
Q

Branching of the minor calyces produce what

A

Collecting duct system of the kidneys

104
Q

What is the mesodermal mass that divides the cloacal

A

Cloacal Septum

105
Q

What is the Allantois continuous with

A

The Allantois and bladder are continuous. Eventually the allantois becomes vestigial

106
Q

What is the Allantois in the fetus

A

Urachus

107
Q

What is the Allantois called in the adult

A

Median umbilical ligament

108
Q

What is renal agenesis

A

Can be bi or unilateral. When the kidneys do not form

109
Q

What is renal hypoplasia

A

Incomplete development of the kidneys. Can be bi or unilateral

110
Q

When it comes to living, both bilateral renal hypoplasia and agenesis are…

A

Compatible with uterine life, but not with postnatal life

111
Q

What kind of kidneys are compatible with life

A

Unilateral Renal agenesis and Unilateral renal hypoplasia

112
Q

Congenital cystic kidney Type 1

A

Type 1 found in infants, early death unless dialysis or kidney transplants. Giant/Sponge kidneys. symmetrical

113
Q

Congenital Cystic Kidney Type 2

A

Variable in size and shape, Unilateral, and cysts grow larger with age

114
Q

Congenital Cystic Kidney Type 3

A

Normal and abnormal tissue. bilateral. small cysts at birth that grow. Found in trisomy 13-15, 18,21,22

115
Q

Congenital Cystic Kidney Type 4

A

Urethral obstruction. Cysts found in collecting tubules. If severe fetal/neonate death. If mild then surgical repair

116
Q

Congenital Cystic Kidney Type 5

A

Could see in clinic. Present before birth, but doesn’t manifest till adult. Onset 40s if not tx death in 50s. Low back pain from kidney infections

117
Q

When the kidneys are fused at both ends, what is it called

A

Donut kidney

118
Q

What is the tissue connecting two kidneys that form a horseshoe kidney called

A

Isthmus

119
Q

What is the problem with a horseshoe kidney, and what conditions is it seen in

A

Horseshoe kidney usually cannot ascend to the lower lumbar area. Trisomies 13-15, 18, 21, and Turner’s

120
Q

What are Wilm’s Tumors

A

Renal tumors in children, rapid growth and metastases. Mesodermal origins. Symptoms are Facial features, vision, urinary, and ambulation probs

121
Q

When does the reproductive system start developing

A

5-6th week

122
Q

When is sex identification possible

A

8th week, but is still hard to do

123
Q

What stage can the sex of embryo NOT be determined

A

Indifferent stage

124
Q

What are the areas of development of Gonads

A

Coelomic epithelium, Inner mesenchyme tissue, primordial germ cells, and reproductive system

125
Q

Where does the genital ridge form

A

A bulge into the coleum

126
Q

What makes up the genital ridge

A

A mesenchyme inner mass covered by coelum epithelium

127
Q

The genital ridge arrange themselves into what

A

Primary sex cords

128
Q

The indifferent Gonad has what 2 parts

A

Cortex and Medulla

129
Q

Cortex in Males vs. Females

A

Males cortex regresses and females cortex develops

130
Q

Medulla in Males vs. Females

A

Males medulla develops and females medulla regresses

131
Q

In testes cords epithelial cells develop into what

A

Sertoli cells

132
Q

Primordial germ cells develop into

A

Spermatoblasts

133
Q

T/F: Testes cords remain solid until puberty

A

True

134
Q

Mesonophric ducts (kidneys) play an important role in what

A

The male reproductive system

135
Q

Mesonephric ducts form what 4 structures

A

Epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and cranial part-efferent ducts

136
Q

Paramesonephric ducts develop on each side of the body in females to form what

A

The caudal ends fuse to form Y shape creating the uterus and vagina

137
Q

T/F: The genitalia pass through an indifferent stage

A

True

138
Q

Are accessory sex glands found in females

A

No.

139
Q

What are the accessory sex glands in males

A

Seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands

140
Q

What is Ovarian Hypoplasia and is aka

A

Turner’s Syndrome. Ovaries are small in size, poor breast development, small uterus, and only some ovarian function. can be uni or bi lateral

141
Q

Can somebody with Unilateral ovarian hypoplasia (Turner’s Syndrome) still give birth to a normal infant

A

Yes

142
Q

What is pure gonadal dysgenesis

A

Germ cells do not migrate from the yolk sack, but still have a normal karyotype 46, XX or XY

143
Q

Chromatin Positive vs Negative

A

Positive normal female (Barr bodies) and Negative normal male

144
Q

What is androgen insensitivity aka Testicular Feminization Syndrome

A

Appears as normal female despite presence of testes. Chromatin negative genetic male: 46,XY. Not noticed in childhood

145
Q

What is Adrenogenital syndrome

A

Excessive androgen production from the adrenals.

Genetic females 46XX. Masculinization result of high levels of androgens-adrenal cortex. chromatin positive

146
Q

True Hermaphroditism is aka

A

Complete androgen insensitive syndrome. When both ovaries and testes tissues are present. Very rare

147
Q

What is Mosaicism

A

Mix of cells with different karyotypes. Normal karyotype and trisomy 21 46, XX and 47, (21) XXY

148
Q

What is Hypospadias

A

Urethral opening on the ventral (under) side of the penis instead of the tip

149
Q

What is Epispadias

A

Urethral opening on the dorsal (top) side of the penis

150
Q

When is the cardiovascular system developed

A

End of the 3rd week

151
Q

Why is growth of the fetus so rapid

A

For nutrition requirements

152
Q

What are angioblasts

A

Stem cells that give rise to blood vessels

153
Q

What is angiogenesis

A

Development of new blood vessels

154
Q

Where do cells that form blood vessels come from

A

Blood Islands

155
Q

What arises from the 1st pair of longitudinal vessels

A

Dorsal Aorta

156
Q

What forms anteriorly from the longitudinal vessels

A

Aortic Arches

157
Q

What forms posteriorly from the longitudinal vessels

A

Heart Primordia

158
Q

What arises from the second set of longitudinal vessels

A

Vitelline and umbilical veins

159
Q

Function of vitelline veins

A

Returns blood from the yolk sac

160
Q

Function of umbilical veins

A

Brings blood from chorion (placenta)

161
Q

Function of cardinal veins

A

Returns blood from body

162
Q

Process of the development of the heart

A

Two thin walled enothelial tubes, continuation of the first aortic arches that eventually fuse to form a single tube from heart tubes

163
Q

What 2 structures of the heart grow faster than the rest

A

The bulbus and ventricle, giving the heart an S shape

164
Q

How does formation of the atrium take place

A

Atrium starts at the lower end, and the growth end is in the upper portion

165
Q

What two types of tissue formation take place to achieve the chambers

A

Tissue growth and overgrowth

166
Q

How does tissue formation of the heart work

A

Fuse together to make two chambers aka the septum

167
Q

How does overgrowth tissue formation of the heart work

A

In the developing ventricle, Tissue grows on either side of the narrow strip and the walls expand and form the septum

168
Q

What is the septum Primum

A

Sick shaped crest, roof of atrium

169
Q

What is the ostium primum

A

Opening between septum primum and endocardial cushion

170
Q

What is the ostium secundum

A

Opening in the septum primum

171
Q

What is the septum secundum

A

Right atrium incorporates part of the sinus a new septum appears

172
Q

What is the oval foramen

A

Opening in the septum secundum

173
Q

When do the septum primum and septum secundum fuse and the oval foramen close

A

After birth

174
Q

What happens if the septum primum and secundum fail to fuse

A

In 25% they do not fuse and Probe Patency of the Oval Foramen occurs

175
Q

The simple ebb and flow type of circulation the heart experiences begins on the 22 day and originates from what kind of muscle

A

Myogenic Muscle

176
Q

What happens to heart circulation by the end of 28-30 days

A

The heart has a unidirectional blood flow with contractions of the heart tube

177
Q

How does oxygenated blood enter the fetus from placenta

A

Via veins

178
Q

How does deoxygenated blood leave the fetal body

A

Via arteries

179
Q

What are ductus arteriosus

A

Shunts in the fetal pulmonary trunk that diverts blood back to the aorta. *Bypasses the lungs

180
Q

What are ductus venosus

A

Shunt in fetal heart that causes the oxygenated blood to bypass the fetus’ developing liver to reach the vena cava

181
Q

What do the septum of the truncus and bulbus fuse to form

A

The spiral septum-Aorticopulmonary Septum

182
Q

What do the Cavum Aorticum and the Cavum Pulmonare separate

A

The Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

183
Q

What is Acardia

A

Absence of the heart

184
Q

What is ectopic cordis

A

Heart is located through the sternal fissure. Limited life expectancy w/o surgery

185
Q

What is Dextra Cardia

A

The heart is located in the right hemithorax. Usually associated with other anomalies such as situs inversus (organs flipped)

186
Q

What is an Atrial Septal Defect

A

Small patent foramen ovale to complete absence of the interatrial septum. loud systolic murmur. may require surgery

187
Q

What is a Ventricular Septal Defect

A

Uncomplicated VSD is considered harmless. Harsh systolic murmur at Erb’s point. Can spontaneous closure

188
Q

Where is Erb’s point

A

In the 3 and 4 intercostal space near the sternal border

189
Q

What is the Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis, VSD, Overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy

190
Q

What is the life expectancy of Tetralogy Fallot and symptoms

A

12 years w/o surgery. Cyanosis and paroxysmal dsypnea with exertion

191
Q

What is the Triology of Fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis, ASD, and right ventricular hypertrophy

192
Q

Where does the nervous system originate from

A

The Ectoderm

193
Q

What happens to the position of the spinal cord during the third month of development

A

Cord extends entire length of embryo

194
Q

What happens to the position of the spinal cord during the sixth month of development

A

End of spinal cord level of 1st sacral vertebra

195
Q

What happens to the position of the spinal cord at birth of development

A

Level of the 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebra

196
Q

What happens to the position of the spinal cord during adulthood of development

A

Lower end of the first lumbar vertebra

197
Q

What are the primary brain vesicles

A

Forebrain (Prosencephalon), Midbrain (Mesencephalon), and Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon)

198
Q

What does the Forebrain divide into

A

Telencephalon and Diencephalon

199
Q

What does the Hindbrain divide into

A

Metencephalon (leads to Pons, Cerebellum, and Myelencephalon/Medulla

200
Q

What are the flexures of the brain

A

Cephalic, Cervical and Pontine flexures

201
Q

Where is the Cephalic Flexure

A

Midbrain and bends ventrally

202
Q

Where is the pontine flexure

A

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon

203
Q

What are Category A drugs

A

Drugs for which studies have not shown a risk to the fetus

204
Q

What are Category B drugs

A

Drugs with no human studies, but animal studies have shown an effect on the fetus

205
Q

What are Category C drugs

A

Drug studies are inadequate in both humans and animals to shown an effect on fetus

206
Q

What are Category D drugs

A

Drugs can definitely cause harm to fetus, but benefits mother

207
Q

What are Category X drugs

A

Drugs cause harm to fetus with no benefit to mother

208
Q

What is a Teratogen

A

Any agent that can produce a congenital malformation

209
Q

What is Teratology

A

The study of abnormal development

210
Q

What is a Sign

A

Objective evidence of a disease. SEE SIGNS

211
Q

What is a Symptom

A

Subjective evidence of a disease. They tell you

212
Q

What is a Syndrome

A

Collection of Signs and Symptoms that occur together

213
Q

What is etiology

A

Study of the cause of disease

214
Q

When do the nervous systems develop

A

3-7 weeks

215
Q

When does the cardiac system develop

A

4-6 weeks

216
Q

When do the ears and eyes develop

A

4-8 weeks

217
Q

When do the limbs develop

A

4-7 weeks

218
Q

What is nondisjunction

A

When the chromosomes fail to divide properly leading to an abnormal karyotype

219
Q

Karyotype of Trisomy 21

A

47 (21)XX or XY

220
Q

T/F: Klinefelter’s can be either XXY or XYY

A

True

221
Q

S/S of Klinefelter’s

A

Taller than average, Reduced facial hair, Normal IQ, gynaecomastia, feminine fat distribution, testicular atrophy or cryptorchism (undescended testes)

222
Q

T/F: Klinefelter’s and Turner’s syndrome are both chromatin negative

A

True

223
Q

What is Monosomy of sex chromosomes known as

A

Turner’s Syndrome

224
Q

What are some possible characteristics of Turner’s syndrome

A

Horseshoe kidney, Unilateral renal agenesis, lack of breast development and infantile external genitalia

225
Q

What are the mechanisms of damage in the body

A

Produced free radicals which break chemical bonds. This causes new chemical bonds and cross-linkage between macromolecules. Also cause damage to DNA, RNA, and Proteins that regulate vital cell processes

226
Q

When is is the fetus most sensitive

A

First trimester. can result in death

227
Q

What are the risks in the second trimester

A

Major organs most sensitive, malformations

228
Q

What can happen in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy posing a risk to the fetus

A

Cell population can become depleted leading to leukemia

Anatomy (6 decks)

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