Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy > Physiology 1 Final > Flashcards

Physiology 1 Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue

A

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Functions of muscle

A

Movement, Stabilization, Thermogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General Characteristics of muscle

A

Irritability, Contractility, Extensibility, and Elasticity. Composed of elongated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Voluntary or Striated muscle is aka

A

Skeletal M.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is skeletal m. located

A

Somatic/skeletal m., upper esophagus, diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Origin of the skeletal m. cells

A

Long, multinucleated, and come from the fusion of numerous myoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dense connective tissue surrounding m.

A

Epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bundles of m. cells

A

Fascicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What dense connective tissue covers fasicles

A

Perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What make up fascicles

A

M. cells/”fibers”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What covers the m. cells/”fibers”

A

Endomysium (made of basal lamina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs at the myotendinous junction

A

Endo, peri, and epimysium become continuous with m. tendon which attaches the m. to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a sarcolemma

A

Cell membrane of a m. fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Location of Transverse (T) Tubules

A

Continuous with sarcolemma, and extend to interior of fiber surrounding myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

A

Specialized ER that forms a tubular network around the myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are Cisternae

A

Large Chamers of SR around myofibril on either side of T tubule. STORES CA++ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Triad

A

Unit of T Tubule and flanking cisternae encircling a myofibril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Myofibril

A

Micro(Myo)filaments arranged into sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What makes up thin filaments

A

Contractile protein Actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Regulatory proteins found with thin filaments

A

Troponin and Tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What structural protein attaches the thin filament to the Z disc

A

Nebulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What primarily makes up thick filaments

A

The protein Myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What structural protein attaches thick filaments to Z disc and M line

A

Titin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What structural protein makes up the M line

A

Myomesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Dystrophin, and what does it do

A

Structural protein that connects thin filaments to the sarcolemma to transmit m. tension to m. tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the sarcomere

A

Functional unit of a m. contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What makes up the A band

A

Dark band, primarily thick filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the M line located

A

Center of the A band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is the H zone

A

Lighter zone on either side of M line. ONLY HAS THICK FILAMENTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the zone of overlap

A

Overlapping zone of thin and thick filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What makes up the I band

A

Light band, ENTIRELY THIN FILAMENTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Z disc/line

A

Boundary between 2 sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What makes up the Z disc/line

A

Structural protein Alpha-Actinin which holds thick and thin filaments in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When the sarcolemma is stimulated by signals from the nervous system, what happens

A

Generates an AP (electrical impulse) which travels down the sarcolemma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the AP get to the myofibrils

A

Through the T tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does an AP trigger

A

The release of Ca++ ions from the cisternae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do the Ca++ ions cause

A

Exposure of binding sites on the Actin molecules of thin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does Ca++ bind to

A

Troponin. Causes Tropomyosin to move away and uncover binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Myosin binding to Actin and causes what to happen

A

Thin filaments to slide past thick filaments toward M line. ie: Contraction of m. fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Before contraction of sarcomere begins, adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binds to the myosin head and immediately hydrolyzes into what

A

ADP, phosphate group (Pi), and stored energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes the release of the Pi

A

Mysoin heads binding to an actin molecule on thin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the release of Pi initiate

A

The “Power Stroke”. Pulls thin filament toward center of sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens at the end of the power stroke

A

ADP molecule is released from the myosin head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What causes the myosin head to detach from the Actin molecule post contraction

A

Another ATP molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How often do the steps of a m. traction occur

A

Until there is either no more Ca++, ATP, or sarcomere is maximally shortened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What causes Rigor Mortis

A

Permanent cross-bridging between actin and myosin because there is no ATP available to break the bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the energy sources for skeletal m. contraction

A

Creatine phosphate stored in m. (anaerobic), Glycolysis of glycogen stored within the muscle and in the liver (anaerobic), and Oxidativemetabolism of lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins(aerobic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Phase 1 of Energy Utilization

A

Creatine Phosphate and glycogen (Anaerobic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Phase 2 of Energy Utilization

A

Breakdown of FAs, Carbs, and proteins (Aerobic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phase 3 of Energy Utilization

A

Return to glycolysis of remaining glycogen (Anaerobic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Muscle Spindles

A

In m. belly, monitors changes in m. length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Structure of M. Spindles

A

Intrafusal fibers enclosed in a connective tissue capsule. Contains Nuclear bag and chain fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ratio of Nuclear Bag to Nuclear Chain fibers

A

2:1 ratio of Chain to Bag fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sensory N. fibers have what 2 types of endings

A

Primary and Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are Primary sensory n. endings

A

Type Ia and wrapped around center of both bag and chain fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are Secondary sensory n. endings

A

Type II and wrapped around ONLY CHAIN fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What do Gamma-Dynamic motor nerves innervate

A

Primarily Bag intrafusal fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What do Gamma-Static motor nerves innervate

A

Primarily Chain intrafusal fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Slow prolonged stretch “Static” response

A

Primary and Secondary sensory endings fire continuously and in proportion to degree of stretch. Gamma-static motor fire proportionate to inc or dec in stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Sudden stretch “Dynamic” response

A

Primary fire only while length is changing. Gamma-dynamic fire maintaining spindle fiber length proportions, and thereby maintaining receptor sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the Tendon organ (GTO)

A

Stretch receptor located at the myotendinous junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do GTOs work

A

Small bundle of tendon collagen fibers surrounded by a connective tissue sheath, one end connected to muscle fibers, the other end merging into the tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What kind of fiber wraps around the collagen fibers of the GTO

A

A single type Ib sensory fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When/Why does the GTO fire

A

In response to tension on the organ. Can be either contraction or stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

T/F: The Tendon organ/GTO has both dynamic and static response levels

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What kind of reflex is the muscle stretch reflex

A

Mono-synaptic, 2 neuron pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

First half of Reflex Cycle (M. Stretch)

A

Stretch leads to primary sensory activated “dynamic response”. AP to spinal cord direct synapse with alpha motor neurons associated with homonymous m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Second Half of Reflex Cycle (M. Stretch)

A

Alpha motor neurons of homonymous m. cause m. to contract decreasing the stretch on the m. returning the m. spindles to original length and returns firing rate of primary sensory fibers to baseline “static” levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

During the reflex cycle, what motor commands are sent from the spinal cord

A

Contract synergistic m. AND relax antagonistic m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does the stretch reflex also allow

A

During voluntary m. contraction, prevents antagonistic m. from contracting. Stabilize posture, and make m. action smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What kind of reflex it the Golgi Tendon reflex

A

Di-synaptic, 3 neuron pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

First half of Reflex Cycle (Golgi Tendon)

A

M. contracts, shorten extrafusal fibers and inc tension on GTOs, activating type Ib sensory afferent fibers;action potentials to spinal cord, synapse directly with inhibitory interneurons; they synapse with alpha motor neurons of the homonymous muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Second half of Reflex Cycle (Golgi Tendon)

A

Alpha motor neurons of homonymous m. inhibited from firing. leads to relaxing of homonymous m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the GTO reflex also allow

A

Relax synergistic m. and contract antagonistic m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Functions of GTO

A

Prevent too much tension in m. protecting it from damage. also equalizes contraction strength of m. fibers w/in a m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the flexor-withdrawal reflex

A

Stimulation of a body part causes contraction of flexor m. Withdrawing body part away from stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What spreads the flexor-withdrawal reflex to other associated m.

A

Diverging Neural Circuits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What inhibits contraction of associated antagonist m.

A

Reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Diverging Neural Circuits produce an after discharge which does what

A

Prolongs the contraction of the flexor m. after the stimulus has stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the Crossed-extensor reflex

A

Ext. of contralateral limb .2-.5 sec after start of flexor-withdrawal reflex. Initial stimulus is moderate or strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What do the cells in Cardiac m. tissue look like

A

Short and branched with a single nucleus. Striated with actin and myosin arranged into sarcomeres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is larger and more plentiful in cardiac m. than it is in skeletal m.

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are larger (in diameter) and more numerous in cardiac m. than they are in skeletal m.

A

Transverse Tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is less well developed in cardiac m. than it is in skeletal m.

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the sources of Ca++ during cell contraction

A

Extracellular Fluid (via T tubules and diffuse across cell membrane to interior) and Released from Cisternae of the SR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What do cardiac cells originate from

A

A Single myoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How are cells interconnected to each other

A

Intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What do Intercalated discs consist of

A

Numerous adherent and gap junctions

89
Q

What do Desmosomes do

A

Keep the cells from pulling apart as they contract

90
Q

What do Gap junctions act as

A

Electrical Synapses passing the contraction signal directly from one cell to all the others within the interconnected network

91
Q

How are the cells in the L/R atria and L/R ventricles connected

A

Atria are interconnected into single network and Ventricles are interconnected into a single network

92
Q

What is Functional Syncytium

A

All the cells within each network contract simultaneously as if they were a single cell

93
Q

What is the structure of smooth m.

A

Short and fusiform (spindle) with a single centrally located nucleus

94
Q

What is different about smooth m. cells compared to skeletal and cardiac cells

A

Cells are not striated and actin and myosin are arranged differently

95
Q

Membrane Dense Bodies

A

Some bonded to membrane dense bodies of adjacent cells

96
Q

What are attached to dense bodies in smooth m.

A

Actin/thin filaments

97
Q

What is different about actin and Ca++ binding in smooth m.

A

Actin lacks troponin, Ca++ binds to regulatory protein Calmodulin of myosin filaments

98
Q

What are intermediate filaments in smooth m.

A

Structural proteins forming a framework for the actin and myosin filaments

99
Q

What is different about Sidepolar cross-bridges in smooth m.

A

Myosin heads on one side bend in one direction, while heads on opp. side hinge/bend in the opp. direction

100
Q

What kind of contraction occurs due to Sidepolar cross-bridges

A

Spiral, Corkscrew-like contraction

101
Q

What is different about the SR in smooth m.

A

Sparse and no T Tubules

102
Q

Where does the Ca++ come from in smooth m.

A

Little in SR, Most from extracellular fluid, and enters via calcium channels in sarcolemma

103
Q

Other names for Visceral smooth m.

A

Unitary, Syncytial, Single-unit

104
Q

How are cells arranged in Visceral smooth m.

A

Single sheet interconnected via gap junctions which all contract simultaneously. Can transmit APs

105
Q

Where is Visceral smooth m. typically found

A

Hollow organs. (stomach, intestines, uterus, bile duct, bladder, blood vessels)

106
Q

Most organs have 2 layers of m. running in what 2 directions

A

Longitudinally and transversely

107
Q

The stomach has a 3rd layer that runs in what direction

A

Obliquely

108
Q

How is multi-unit smooth m. composed

A

Individual smooth m. cells unconnected to nearby cells

109
Q

Characteristics of multi-unit smooth m. cells

A

Thin collagen & glycoprotein membrane for insulation, own innervation, and found in iris constrictors/dialtors, arrector pili, pulmonary air passages, and walls of largest arteries

110
Q

Smooth m. cell contraction process

A

Ca++ enters and binds to calmdulin, this binds to MLCK which phosphorylates one of light chains within a mysoin head allowing it to bind to actin.

111
Q

T/F: Myosin-actin cross-bridge cycle in smooth m. cell contractoin is slower that in skeletal m.

A

True

112
Q

MLCK is de-phosphorylated by what

A

Action of Myosin phosphatase

113
Q

Why is the cycle slower in smooth m.

A

Ca++ channels open slower, and stay open longer. slow removal of Ca++ by Ca++ pumps

114
Q

Because the cycle is slower in smooth m. what does it allow for

A

Prolonged m. tone w/o excessive energy expenditure

115
Q

What regulates smooth m. contraction

A

Nervous, Hormonal, M. cell stretch, and Nearby chemical environment of m. cell

116
Q

The skin is aka

A

The integument, an organ within the integumentary system

117
Q

What makes up the integumentary system

A

Skin and accessory organs (nails, hair, glands, sensory receptors)

118
Q

Functions of the integumentary system

A

Protection, Regulates body temp, Houses sensory receptors, Vit D synthesis, and Excrete waste materials via perspiration

119
Q

How does the integumentary system regulate body temps

A

Retains via subcutaneous layer, and eliminates via radiation (dilate blood vessels), convection and conduction, and evaporation of perspiration`

120
Q

What is the most superficial layer of the skin

A

Epidermis

121
Q

What makes up the Epidermis

A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

122
Q

What 4 types of cells make up the Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A

Keratinocytes, Melanocytes, Dendritic cells, and Merkel cells

123
Q

What are keratinocytes

A

Predominate cell type of Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Manufacture keratin

124
Q

What is Keratin

A

Structural protein which toughens and waterproofs the surface of the epidermis

125
Q

What do melanocytes do

A

Manufacture melanin, a brown-pigment

126
Q

What are Dendritic cells (Langerhans, histocytes) do

A

Immune cells

127
Q

What are Merkel cells (aka discs)

A

Type I tactile mechanoreceptors

128
Q

Histologically, how many layers make up the Epidermis

A

Thin skin (4) vs. Thick skin (5)

129
Q

What is the deepest layer of the Epidermis, and is highly mitotic

A

Stratum Basale

130
Q

What layer of the Epidermis is mitotic only in its deeper layers and begins the synthesis of keratin

A

Stratum spinosum

131
Q

What is the Stratum Germinativum and Function

A

The Stratum basale + Stratum Spinosum. Primary site of cholecalciferol manufacture

132
Q

What layer of the Epidermis is composed of flattened cells, filled up with keratin

A

Stratum Granulosum

133
Q

What layer of the Epidermis is present only in thick skin (palms and soles)

A

Stratum Lucidum

134
Q

What layer of the Epidermis is 20-30 layers of flattened keratinized dead cells

A

Stratum Corneum

135
Q

Characteristics of the Dermis

A

Connective tissue housing m. fibers, blood vessels, hair follicles, exocrine glands, and nerve fibers

136
Q

What are the 2 layers of the Dermis

A

Papillary layer and Reticular layer

137
Q

Where is the Papillary layer located and what is it made of

A

Loose connective tissue directly underlying the epidermis.

138
Q

What causes dermal ridges

A

(Finger and toe prints) Pulling of elastic fibers in the papillary layer

139
Q

Where is the Reticular layer located, and what is it made of

A

Dense irregular connective tissue underlying the papillary layer

140
Q

What is significant about the reticular layer

A

Quite distensible and resilient. When over-stretched it tears producing striae distensae “stretch marks”

141
Q

What is the Subcutaneous layer aka

A

Hypodermis or superficial fascia

142
Q

Although not officially part of the skin, what is the Subcutaneous layer made up of

A

Adipose, loose connective tissue, and blood vessels

143
Q

Function of Adipose tissue in Subcutaneous layer

A

Heat insulator and energy resevoir. Conserves internal body hear or impedes entrance of external heat. Also binds skin to underlying structures

144
Q

How much thicker generally is body fat in women than in men

A

8% thicker

145
Q

Thickness of the subcutaneous layer can be indicative of what

A

Nutritional Status

146
Q

Cause of Pink skin color

A

Blood flow in dermis and subcutaneous layers

147
Q

Cause of Yellow skin color

A

Carotene and having a thicker stratum corneum with increased amounts of structural protein keratin. East Asia

148
Q

What is Carotene

A

Yellowish pigment acquired through diet

149
Q

Cause of Brown Skin color

A

Due to melanin, a brown-black pigment produced by melanocytes in stratum basale

150
Q

What are human skin color differences primarily due to

A

Amount of melanin produced and its distribution. Everybody has approx. same number of melanocytes

151
Q

What are freckles

A

Small, isolated patches of highly concentrated melanin secretion

152
Q

Geographical distribution of skin colors

A

Darkest in areas with greatest amount of sunlight. Lightest in areas with least amount of sunlight

153
Q

How does dark skin help

A

They protect against cell damage due to excessive UV radiation

154
Q

How does melanin help with UV light

A

It absorbs UV radiation and prevents excessive amounts from reaching the mitotic cells of stratum germinativum and dermis

155
Q

What else can help prevent excessive UVR from reaching the lower mitotic cell layers

A

Thicker stratum corneum

156
Q

How does tanning work

A

Melanocytes respond to increased amounts of UVR by producing more melanin

157
Q

Light skin tones and Vit. D

A

Allow for the synthesis of Vit. D

158
Q

What will happen to darker skin tones in areas of lower UVR exposure

A

Decreased production of Vit. D

159
Q

What is Vit. D needed for

A

Proper bone growth and maintenance. Rickets in kids and Osteomalacia in adults

160
Q

T/F: Lighter skin is more susceptible to damage by extreme cold than dark skin

A

FALSE Dark skin is more susceptible

161
Q

These structures reside in the dermis and subcutaneous layer, but originate from epidermal tissue

A

Hair and the hair follicle

162
Q

What is a follicle

A

Tube-like structure which protrudes down into the dermis, houses an individual hair

163
Q

3 Parts of the hair

A

Bulb, Root, and Shaft

164
Q

What is the bulb

A

Zone of actively dividing cells at the base of the hair

165
Q

What is the root

A

Column of flattened, dead keratinized cells within the follicle

166
Q

What is the shaft

A

Column of flattened, dead keratinized cells external to the skin’s surface

167
Q

What makes up the root and shaft of hair

A

Medulla, cortex, and outer cuticle

168
Q

Goosebumps are caused by these smooth m.

A

Arrector pili m.

169
Q

What does the arrector pili m. attach to

A

Hair follicle surface and the dermis

170
Q

High concentration of melanin in hair

A

Dark hair

171
Q

Moderate concentration of melanin in hair

A

Light brown

172
Q

Little concentration of melanin in hair

A

Blonde hair

173
Q

No melanin concentration of melanin in hair

A

White hair

174
Q

Mix of pigmented and unpigmented hairs

A

Gray hair

175
Q

Red coloration of hair

A

Pigment contains iron

176
Q

How is texture of hair determined

A

Shape and size of hair follicle

177
Q

What is the function of hair

A

Protection and identification

178
Q

Most human hair is…

A

Short, fine, and faintly pigmented. Dense is scalp, face, axilla and pubic areas

179
Q

In adults, men are more likely than women to have noticeable hair on…

A

Back, abdomen, chest, limbs, and face

180
Q

Those of European descent are the hairiest aka

A

Hirsute

181
Q

Thos of East Asian and Amerinidians are the least hairy aka

A

Glabrous

182
Q

What makes up the Nail plate

A

Modified hardened stratum corneum, divisible into nail root, nail body, and free edge

183
Q

What makes up the Nail bed

A

Underlying nail plate. Continuous with stratum basale and stratum spinosum of surrounding epidermis

184
Q

What makes up the Lunula

A

Part of nail plate, light half-moon region at the proximal end of the nail plate, coloration due to extreme thickness of underlying nail bed

185
Q

Function of nails

A

Protection and facilitation of digital dexterity

186
Q

Glands of the integumentary of what kind of glands in function and structure

A

Exocrine

187
Q

Sebaceous Gland

A

Branched and acinar/alveolar in shape. connected to hair follicle. Holocrine secretion (sebum), which lubricates and waterproofs hair and stratum corneum

188
Q

Overproduction of sebum may lead to what

A

Clogged sebaceous ducts, leading to acne

189
Q

Apocrine gland

A

Tubular in shape and connected to hair follicle. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands concentrated in axillary and pubic regions

190
Q

What does the Apocrine gland produce

A

An odoriferous merocrine secretion in response to emotonial stress.

191
Q

Eccrine gland

A

Sudoriferous (sweat) gland found all over body esp. in forehead, back, palms, and soles. Tubular and exit directly onto the surface of the skin

192
Q

What does the Eccrine gland produce

A

A thin merocrine secretion

193
Q

The thin merocrine secretion functions

A

Evaporative cooling of the body and elimination of some chemical wastes (lactic and uric acid)

194
Q

Corpuscle of touch aka

A

Meissner’s corpuscle, tactile corpuscle. located in dermal papillae, discriminate touch

195
Q

Hair root plexus

A

Sensory nerve endings wrapped around the base of the hair follicle, discriminate touch

196
Q

Merkel cell/disc

A

Type 1 mechanoreceptor located in the stratum basale. discriminate touch

197
Q

Ruffini’s endings/corpuscles

A

Type II mechanoreceptor located deep in the dermis. NON-discriminate touch (crude touch)

198
Q

Pacinian Corpuscles

A

Pressure: lamellated, responds to sustained pressure. deep in dermis and subcutaneous layer

199
Q

Thermal receptors

A

Free nerve endings responding to hot or cold. located in epidermis

200
Q

Nociceptors

A

Pain receptors. free nerve endings, responding to tissue trauma or extreme tissue deformation. located in epidermis

201
Q

Healing of wounds involving just the epidermis

A

Greater mitotic activity in the stratum basale and stratum spinosum

202
Q

Deep wounds causing rupture of blood vessels within the dermis and subcutaneous layer

A

Will result in bleeding. blood platelets and fibrinogen protein form a clot which stops bleeding. scab forms

203
Q

What may be seen as a sign of damaged cells and foreign microorganisms are destroyed by immune cells

A

Inflammation

204
Q

What binds wound edges together within the dermis

A

Fibroblasts form collagen fibers

205
Q

When does the scab slough off

A

When healing is nearly complete

206
Q

First degree burn

A

Superficial partial-thickness. only epidermis. warm and reddened. possible peeling

207
Q

Second degree burn

A

Deep partial-thickness. epidermis and dermis. skin blisters and healing process will involve epithelial cells from the accessory organs within the damaged area

208
Q

Third degree burn

A

Destroys epidermis, dermis, and accessory organs. epithelial healing can occur only at margins of injury

209
Q

Fourth degree burn

A

Destruction of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer. epithelial healing only at margins

210
Q

Benign neoplasm

A

Non life threatening

211
Q

Mole aka nevus

A

Benign abnormal growth of melanocytes

212
Q

Wart aka verruca

A

abnormal growth of skin tissue caused by viral infection

213
Q

Malignant

A

Life threatening

214
Q

Cutaneous carcinoma

A

Long-term exposure to UVR. Malignant. can be divisible into basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma

215
Q

Cutaneous melanoma

A

Due to short but intense exposure to UVR. HIGHLY Malignant.

216
Q

ABCD rule

A

Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution

217
Q

What can the integumentary system indicate clinically

A

Dietary deficiencies, Heavy metal exposure, Allergic rxns, and specific diseases

218
Q

Results of aging on the Integumentary system

A

Loss of elasticity in the dermis

Decrease in amount of adipose tissue in subcutaneous layer

Decreased activity of hair follicles and exocrine glands (especially, eccrine and sebaceous glands)

Changesin pigmentation (of skin andhair)

Increase in number of moles

Anatomy (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions