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Part 1 Boards > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Severe vomitting causes:

A

Metabolic alkalosis (Vomitting = Loss of HCL)

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2
Q

Which hormone increases during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

HCG

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3
Q

Which law keeps the lungs from overinflating?

A

Hering Breuer

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4
Q

Inspiration leads to a ________ in alveolar pressure

A

Decrease

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5
Q

The epididymus is located _____ the testes and is where the ______ is stored

A

Above; Sperm

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6
Q

Aerobic glycolysis _______ skeletal muscle blood flow

A

Increases

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7
Q

Interleukin I is responsible for _______ ; Interleukin II is responsible for ______

A

Macrophages/monocytes; Lymphocytes

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8
Q

What is the function of gap junctions?

A

Direct diffusion of ions and small molecules to maintain heart rhythm

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9
Q

A decrease in blood protein leads to _______ and a _______ of oncotic pressure

A

Edema; decrease

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10
Q

What happens during rigor mortis, in terms of ATP production?

A

ATP decreases in skeletal muscle

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11
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is important for:

A

Muscle contraction

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12
Q

Ketosis triggers: Metabolic _______ and Respiratory ________

A

Acidosis; Alkalosis

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13
Q

Large vessel that has valves

A

Vein

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14
Q

ADH has it’s greatest effect on the ______________

A

Collecting duct

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15
Q

Which of the following is produced in the zona glomeulosa of the adrenal cortex?
A. Aldosterone
B. Epinephrine
C. Cortisol
D. Serotonin

A

A. Aldosterone (Absorbs Sodium/excretes potassium)

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16
Q

Damage to the liver can lead to:
A. Decreased lipid and protein metabolism
B. Decreased lipid digestion
B. Decreased lipid metabolism
D. Decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulatoin

A

D. Decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulatoin

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17
Q

Which of the following are the quickest adaptors
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s Corpuscles
D. Hair Follicles

A

A. Pacinian corpuscles

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18
Q

Which of the following is inhibitory?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Glutamate
C. Nitric Oxide
D. Dopamine

A

D. Dopamine

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19
Q

Decreased interpleural pressure causes;
A. Expiration
B. Inspiration
C. Hypoventilation
D. Hyperventilation

A

B. Inspiration

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20
Q

What controls the pace of the heart?
A. Atrioventricular node
B. Sinoatrial node
C. Pukinje Fibers
D. Myocardium

A

B. Sinoatrial node

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21
Q

What produces the first beat of the heart?
A. Semilunar valve closing
B. Atrioventricular valves opening
C. Atrioventricular valves closing
D. Semilunar valve opening

A

C. Atrioventricular valves closing

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22
Q

What is the function of surfactant?
A. Increase surface tension
B. Decrease surface tension
C. Reduce intradural pressure
D. Increase tidal volume

A

B. Decrease surface tension

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23
Q

Oxytocin stimulates:
A. Milk let down and growth of the corpus luteum
B. Milk let down and breast development in pregnancy
C. Milk let down and secondary sexual characteristic development
D. Milk let down and uterine contraction

A

D. Milk let down and uterine contraction

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24
Q

According to the Frank-Starling law, the critical factor controlling stroke volume is:
A. Degree of stretch the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
B. Heart rate
C. Stroke volume amplitude
D. Autonomic nervous system regulation

A

A. Degree of stretch the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract

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25
Q

What point of the myosin protein does ATPase attach?
A. Tail
B. Head
C. Body
D. Hillock

A

B. Head

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26
Q

Vital Capacity includes
A. Functional Respiratory Capacity + Tidal Volume
B. Respiratory Capacity + Residual Volume
C. Inspiratory Reserve + Residual Volume
D. Inspiratory Reserve + Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve

A

D. Inspiratory Reserve + Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve

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27
Q

Which of the following characteristics are similar for smooth muscle and skeletal muscle?
A. Length of actin filaments
B. Contracts in response to action potentials, which begin following the stimulation by motor neurons
C. Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
D. Strength of contraction per cross sectional area of muscle

A

C. Calcium ions are crucial to contraction

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28
Q

The myocardium plateau is due mainly to the:
A. Delayed influx of calcium
B. Calmodulin present in myocardium
C. Sodium-calcium exchange channels
D. Summation of repetitive action potentials from the Sinoatrial node

A

C. Sodium-calcium exchange channels

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29
Q

In which portion of the renal tubules does the majority of absorption take place?
A. Collecting duct
B. Loop of Henle
C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
D. Distal Convoluted Tubule

A

C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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30
Q

An influx of sodium causes:
A. Repolarization
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Depolarization
D. No polarization

A

C. Depolarization

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31
Q

What blood test finding best describes respiratory acidosis?
A. Increased pH
B. No change in pH
C. Decreased pH
D. Very little change in the pH

A

C. Decreased pH

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32
Q

Post synaptic contraction of skeletal muscle is due to:
A. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Ca2+ influx into the cell at the myo-synaptic junction
C. Influx of Sodium
D. Efflux of Potassium

A

A. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum

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33
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin in response to:
A. Decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
B. Constriction of efferent arteriole
C. Decreased sodium in the proximal convoluted tubules
D. Decreased potassium in the proximal convoluted tubules

A

A. Decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole

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34
Q

Chromaffin cells are developed from ______; & are associated with the _____ part of the autonomic nervous system:
A. Neural crest; parasympathetic
B. Neural crest; sympathetic
C. Mesoderm; sympathetic
D. Mesoderm; parasympathetic

A

B. Neural crest; sympathetic

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35
Q

Hyperventilation will cause;
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

A

A. Respiratory alkalosis

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36
Q

The peptide believed to be an important CNS neurotransmitter in pain sensation pathways is:
A. Bradykinin
B. Enkephalin
C. Substance P
D. Dopamine

A

C. Substance P

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37
Q

Stenosis of the mitral valve can result in hypertrophy of the _____, due to increased mechanical resistance during contraction
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle

A

A. Left atrium

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38
Q

All of the following are regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system EXCEPT:
A. Sudoriferous glands
B. Exocrine glands
C. Mucosal glands
D. Sublingual glands

A

A. Sudoriferous glands (sweat glands)

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39
Q

Depolarization is associated with the ________ phase:

A

Ascending

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40
Q

Repolarization is associated with the _______ phase:

A

Descending phase

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41
Q

In moving an action potential, Calcium releases ________

A

Neurotransmitter

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42
Q

The resting state of an action potential is said to be ______

A

Polarized

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43
Q

Which is the MC synapse point?

A

Axodendritic

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44
Q

An efflux of Potassium is associated with:

A

Repolarization

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45
Q

MS, Posterolateral sclerosis and ALS are _______ diseases

A

Demyelinating

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46
Q

Sclerosis means that _____ is gone & replaced by _____

A

Myelin; Scar tissue

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47
Q

Myelin is made of _____

A

Fat

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48
Q

Which vitamin is important for myelination

A

Vitamin B12

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49
Q

Pressure, encapsulated mechanoreceptor

A

End bulbs of Krause; Pacinian

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50
Q

Mechanoreceptor associated with temperature perception, pressure, encapsulated & multi branched, 2-5 degrees perception

A

Ruffini Corpuscles

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51
Q

Only Receptors that are not encapsulated

A

Merkel discs

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52
Q

Receptor associated with pressure, vibration, encapsulated
(“Phasic receptor”/“Quick Adaptor”)

A

Pacinian Corpuscles

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53
Q

Which ANS system is associated with CN III, VII, IX, X & Sacral plexus S2, S3, S4?

A

Parasympathetics

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54
Q

Sympathetics are associated with _______

A

Chain ganglion

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55
Q

-Sympathetics have a: _____ Pre/_____ Post

A

Short/Long

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56
Q

-Parasympathetics have a: ____ Pre/_____ Post

A

Long/Short

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57
Q

Sympathetics Post ggl release:

A

Epinephrine/Norepinephrine

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58
Q

Influx of Sodium

A

Depolarization

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59
Q

Efflux of Potassium

A

Repolarization

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60
Q

No A-P possible

A

Absolute refractory

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61
Q

A-P available with increase potential

A

Relative refractory

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62
Q

Many synapses in a single cell

A

Spatial summation

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63
Q

Rapid succession of A-P, few synapses

A

Temporal

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64
Q

________ Cells release glycine, prevent excessive muscular

A

Renshaw

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65
Q

Heschl’s gyrus is associated with which sensory area?

A

Auditory

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66
Q

Sensory area associated with “Receptive” portion of language

A

Wernicke’s

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67
Q

Motor area associated with “expressive” portion of language

A

Brocha’s

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68
Q

Coordination of muscle contractions

A

Cerebellum

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69
Q

Superior colliculi is responsible for:

A

Vision

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70
Q

Inferior colliculi is responsible for:

A

Auditory

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71
Q

The inferior colliculi originates from which CNs

A

III, IV

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72
Q

Area of the brain concerned with breathing

A

Pons

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73
Q

The pons is originates from which CNs

A

V, VI, VII, VIII

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74
Q

The medulla originates from which CNs

A

VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

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75
Q

Dark spots->Aging->Product oxidation

A

Lipofuscin

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76
Q

Sinus node “dies” and AV node takes over

A

Ectopic focus

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77
Q

Arteries have ____; Veins have _____

A

Muscles; Valves

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78
Q

The pulomnary vein has _____ blood

A

Oxygenated

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79
Q

The QRS complex leads to ventricular _________ and atrial _________

A

Contraction; relaxation

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80
Q

Na/K+ pump functions by:

A

Maintaining resting state of heart

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81
Q

Match these ECG components with their function: P wave , S-T interval, QRS complex , T wave

  1. Ventricular repolarization
  2. Ventricular depolarization & atrial repolarization
  3. 0.04 to 0.06s
  4. Atrial depolarization
A
  1. T wave
  2. QRS Complex
  3. S-T Interval
  4. P Wave
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82
Q

Depolarization is concerned with _____; Repolarization is concerned with ______

A

Work; Rest

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83
Q

Closing of mitral/tricuspid valve (A-V valves) creates:

A

S1 sound

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84
Q

Closing of aortic & pulmonic (semilunars) creates:

A

S2 sound

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85
Q

______ murmurs are the most clinically significant

A

Diastolic

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86
Q

Aortic Regurgitation = Mitral _______

A

ARMS
Stenosis

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87
Q

Pulmonic_________ = Tricuspid Stenosis

A

Regurgitation

PRTS

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88
Q

Force exerted by fluid against a wall

A

Hydrostatic Pressure

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89
Q

Created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane

A

Osmotic pressure

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90
Q

Match these laws with their descriptions: Frank-Starling’s Law, Davis’ Law, Boyle’s Law

  1. Muscle will increase in size when used
  2. Stroke volume increases in response to volume of blood filling the heart
  3. Inversely proportional relationship between pressure & volume of a gas, if temp kept constant within a closed sys.
A
  1. Davis’ Law
  2. Frank-Starling
  3. Boyle’s
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91
Q

Proteins in blood

A

Albumin & globulin

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92
Q

Precursor platelets are ______

A

Megakaryocytes

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93
Q

Which WBC is in the highest quantity?

A

Neutrophils (60%)

“Never Let My Engine Blow, 60-30-8-3-0”

Neutrophils->Lymphocytes->Monocytes->Eosinophils->Basophils

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94
Q

Granulocytes

A

Basophils, Eosinophils, Neutrophils

“BEN; Uncle Ben’s Rice”

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95
Q

Agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes, monocytes

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96
Q

Kupffer Cells are macrophages that are found in the:

A

Liver

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97
Q

Stores Ca++ to be released to skeletal muscle

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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98
Q

Thick, H zone, Crosses bridges

A

Myosin

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99
Q

ATPase will attach to the myosin _____

A

Head

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100
Q

Thin, F-actin filament + tropomyosin + troponin

A

Actin

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101
Q

Covers F actin’s binding sites

A

Tropomyosin

“MOM”

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102
Q

Binds calcium and moves tropomyosin off binding sites

A

Troponin

“DAD”

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103
Q

Troponin is found in:

A

Skeletal & Cardiac muscle

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104
Q

Smooth muscle consists of:

A

Actin, myosin and sarcoplasmic reticulum

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105
Q

______ is needed for smooth muscle contraction

A

Calmodulin

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106
Q

What components make up the I-Band

A

F-actin filament, Tropomyosin, Troponin

107
Q

Z line approximates to Z line

A

Sarcomere

108
Q

Contains both actin and myosin

A

A-Band

109
Q

Myosin only

A

H-Band

110
Q

Actin only

A

I-Band

111
Q

In a contracted muscle, the I band ________ and the A band ___________

A

Become smaller; Doesn’t change

112
Q

High CPK, ATPase activity is increased

A

White (fast)

113
Q

Low CPK, low ATPasse activity

A

Red (slow twitch)

114
Q

Ascites

A

Abdominal swelling

115
Q

Alpha motor neurons are:

A

Extrafusal

116
Q

Gamma motor neurons are:

A

Intrafusal

117
Q

Anasarca

A

Edema of the whole body

118
Q

Bowman’s Capsule plays a major role in:

A

Filtration (contains fenestrations)

119
Q

Mechanoreceptors for blood pressure entrance afferent arteriole

A

Juxtaglomerular Cells

120
Q

Made in the kidney, stimulates RBC production

A

Erythropoetin

121
Q

Protein made by the Liver

A

Angiotensinogen

122
Q

Enzyme made by the Juxtaglomerular Cells

A

Renin

123
Q

Enzyme made in the lungs

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

124
Q

Angiotensin II ________ blood vessels; Stimulates release of _________

A

Constricts; Aldosterone

125
Q

Respiratory acidosis is commonly caused d/t:

A

Hypoventilation

126
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is commonly caused by:

A

Hyperventilation

127
Q

Metabolic acidosis is commonly caused by:

A

Diarrhea, ketosis, renal dysfunction

128
Q

Metabolic alkalosis is commonly caused by:

A

Drugs, vomitting, diuretics

129
Q

Surfactant is made by:

A

Type II alveolar cells (pneumocytes)

130
Q

Lipoproteins ______ surface tension

A

Decrease

131
Q

CO2 enters the blood stream, causes O2 to dissociate from hemoglobin

A

Bohr effect

132
Q

CO2 combines with hemoglobin= more bicarbonate ions

A

Haldane effect

133
Q

Anterior portion of the pituitary

A

Adenohypophysis

134
Q

Adenohypophysis contains ______

A

Rathke’s Pouch

135
Q

Posterior part of the pituitary

A

Neurohypophysis

136
Q

Location of pituitary that contains ADH & Oxytocin

A

Neurohypophysis

137
Q

Which peripheral organ regulates blood sugar

A

Pancreas

138
Q

What peripheral organ regulates blood calcium

A

Thyroid/Parathyroid

139
Q

Match the Adrenal Cortex layers with their function: Zona Glomerulosa, Zona Fasciculata, Zona Reticularis

  1. 2nd sexual characteristics
  2. Regulates salt balance
  3. Regulates blood sugar
A
  1. Zona Reticularis
  2. Zona Glomerulosa
  3. Zona Fasciculata

“GFR Salty Sweet Sex”

140
Q

______ escorts calcium into bone

A

Calcitonin

“Bone In”

141
Q

Which hormone Increases blood calcium/decreases phosphorus?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

“Bone Out”

142
Q

Which hormone decreases blood Ca+/increases phosphorus?

A

Calcitonin

143
Q

Calcitonin is secreted by:

A

Parafollicular T3 & T4 (from follicular cells)

144
Q

The Adrenal Medulla secretes which hormones?

A

Epinephrine & Norepinephrine

“MEN-Medulla, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine”

145
Q

Which vitamin moves calcium from the stomach into blood

A

Vitamin D

146
Q

What makes norepinephrine/epinephrine?

A

Chromaffin Cells

147
Q

Which enzyme is produced in the mouth?

A

Salivary amylase (Ptyalin)

148
Q

Chief Cells secrete

A

Pepsinogen

149
Q

Releases bicarbonate juice

A

Secretin

150
Q

A Fibers

A

Fast

151
Q

C Fibers

A

Slow

152
Q

If there is a murmur is diastole, what is it?

A

Pulmonic regurgitation

153
Q

Vomitting of blood is associated with

A

Mallory Weiss syndrome

154
Q

Bohr Effect shift to the left moves into the:

A

Lung

155
Q

Bohr effect shift to the right moves into the:

A

Tissue

156
Q

When there is decreased protein in the blood, this can lead to decreased _________ pressure, leading to Edema.

A

Oncotic/Osmotic

157
Q

The most powerful vasocontricter known to humankind

A

Angiotensin II

158
Q

The Actin binding site is hidden by the ________ portion of the Troponin-Tropomyosin complex

A

Tropomyosin

159
Q

_____ is bound to myosin

A

ATP

160
Q

Contraction w/ no joint movement

A

Isometric

161
Q

Which pathology affects the eye first and is more associated with females

A

Myasthenia gravis

162
Q

Muscle spindles are a sensory organ that monitors ______ of a muscle and _______ of a muscle contraction

A

Stretch; Speed

163
Q

Inhibitory transmitters of the CNS

A

Glycine (spine)/ GABA (brain)

164
Q

Terminal bulbs where the neurotransmitter is stored

A

Telodendria

165
Q

Tunnels (connexons) to connect the cytosol of two cells

A

Gap Junctions

166
Q

Common Gap Junctions

A

Visceral (single-unit), smooth & cardiac mm, embryo & CNS

167
Q

Only ____ end-bulbs of ______ neurons release neurotransmitter

A

Synaptic; pre-synaptic

168
Q

Excitatory Transmitters

A

Norepinephrine, Glutamate, Nitric Oxide

169
Q

Inhibitory Transmitters

A

Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Glycine, GABA, Serotonin

170
Q

Process where 1,000-10,000 synapses are recieved in the CNS

A

Summation

171
Q

Build-up of NT released by several presynaptic bulbs

A

Spatial summation

172
Q

NT released by single presynaptic bulb that fires more than once

A

Temporal Summation

173
Q

What vitamin is important for myelination?

A

Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)

174
Q

The urinary system begins with:

A

The kidneys

175
Q

The renal pyramids are located in the:

A

Medulla

176
Q

Which hormone controls spermatogenesis?

A

Follicle Stumulating Hormone (FSH)

177
Q

The right kidney is ____ than the left kidney

A

Lower

178
Q

The ovarian ligament anchors the ovaries ______ to the uterus

A

Medially

179
Q

The suspensory ligament is _________ to the pelvic wall

A

Laterally

180
Q

Which ligament supports the uterine tubes, uterus & vagina

A

Broad ligament

181
Q

What is secreted by the corpus luterum in the 1st 1/2 of the cycle

A

Estrogen

182
Q

What hormone increases in pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

183
Q

What hormone is responsible for ovulation

A

Lutenizing hormone

184
Q

What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)

185
Q

Which of these is regulated by the kidneys?
A. Concentration of protein
B. amino acid concentration
C. Total Blood Volume
D. Extracellular fluid volume

A

C. Total Blood Volume

186
Q

Bacterial action in the intestines does not lead to the formation of _______
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B6
C. Riboflavin
D. Carotene

A

D. Carotene

187
Q

The Uncus is correlated to what sense?

A

Olfaction

188
Q

The Retina develops from the

A

Ectoderm

189
Q

The sclera is derived from the

A

Dura

190
Q

Middle ear to nasopharyngeal area

A

Auditory Tube

191
Q

EKG + ECG is designed for:

A

Heart

192
Q

EMG is designed for:

A

Muscle

193
Q

EEG is designed for the:

A

Brain

194
Q

Erection is considered to be ______ action

A

Parasympathetic

195
Q

Ejactulation is considered to be a _______ action

A

Sympathetic

196
Q

Components of the Renal Cortex

A

PCT, DCT, glomerulus, nephron

197
Q

Components of the Renal Medulla

A

Loop of Henle, Collecting Ducts

198
Q

What triggers the release of aldosterone?

A

Angiotensin II

199
Q

What triggers the release of ADH

A

Increased Na+ osmolarity

200
Q

Hormones included in the adenohypophysis

A

FSH, MSH, LH, Prolactin, ACTH, TSH, GH

201
Q

Hormones included in the neuohypophysis

A

ADH & Oxytocin

202
Q

The Pulmonary artery carries:

A

Deoxygenated Blood

203
Q

The P-Wave is responsible for:

A

Atrial depolarization/contraction

204
Q

The QRS complex is responsible for:

A

-Ventricular depolarization/contraction
-Atrial repolarization (hidden)

205
Q

The T-Wave is responsible:

A

Ventricular repolarization

206
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

-Detroxposition of the Aorta
-Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
-Interventricular septal defect
-Pulmonary stenosis

207
Q

Which blood vessel is the largest?

A

Tunica muscularis

208
Q

Mitral Stenosis means:

A

Aortic Regurgitation

209
Q

Pulmonic Regurgitation means:

A

Tricuspid Stenosis

210
Q

Causes of Congestive Heart Failure

A
  1. Essential Hypertension (35-55 yo)-Most Common
  2. Aortic Stenosis (2nd most common)
211
Q

Anterior spinal roots are _____ and Posterior spinal roots are ______; This follows what Law of Physiology

A

Motor; Sensory; Bell Magende

212
Q

Which law limits respiratory excursion via the vagus nerve

A

Hering Breuer

213
Q

Which lung capacity signifies normal breathing

A

Tidal Volume

214
Q

Tidal volume is controlled by:

A

Pneumotaxic center: Fire’s off Hering Breuer Reflex

215
Q

IRV is controlled by:

A

Apneustic center: Shuts off Hering Breuer reflex

216
Q

ERV is controlled by:

A

Rectus Abdominis

217
Q

What epithelium is the entire lung made up of? (What is the exception)

A

-Entire Lung: Pseudostratified Cilliated Columnar
-Exception: Alveolar Sac (Simple Squamous)

218
Q

Responsibilities of Type I/II pneumocytes

A

Type I: Gas exchange
Type II: Surfactant (decrease surface tension)

219
Q

Which syndrome can be caused by not enough surfactant at birth?

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (AKA Neonatal Hyaline Membrane Dx)

220
Q

Macrophages of the Lungs

A

Dust Cells

221
Q

What is a reversible enzyme that converts H2O + CO2 to H+ + HCO3?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase (Balances pH by breathing off CO2)

222
Q

Examples of Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis

A

-Respiratory Acidosis: Holding breathing, consolidation (pneumonia)
-Respiratory Alkalosis: Hyperventilation (too much O2)

223
Q

Examples of Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis

A

-Metabolic Acidosis: Diarrhea, Diabetes Mellitus, Ketoacidosis
-Metabolic Alkalosis: Bulimia (Vomitting), Diuretics, Drugs

224
Q

What is the most powerful vasoconstrictor known to humankind

A

Angiotensin II

225
Q

Urine Pathway from Collecting duct on:

A

Renal papillae—minor calyx—major calyx—renal pelvis—ureter—bladder—urethra

226
Q

What starts the breakdown of fat in the mouth

A

Sublingual Lipase

227
Q

Gastric glands give rise to:

A

Parietal & chief cells

228
Q

Chief/peptic cells produce:

A

Pepsinogen

229
Q

Pepsinogen is later converted by _____ into pepsin

A

HCL

230
Q

Parietal Cells Make:

A
  1. HCL (to convert pepsinogen to pepsin)
  2. Intrinsic factor (for B12 absorption in the terminal ileum)
231
Q

Pyloric glands give rise to:

A

Gastric Cells (Gastrin)

232
Q

What produces most of the pancreatic enzymes in response to polypeptides in the stomach

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

233
Q

CCK causes the production of what three enzymes in the small intestine?

A
  1. Pancreatic amylase (breakdown of starch)
  2. Pancreatic lipase (breakdown of lipids)
  3. Trypsinogen (breakdown of proteins)
234
Q

CCK also closes the ______ in response to fats; What else helps do this?

A

Pyloric sphincter; Enterogasterone

235
Q

CCK also inhibits the action of ______ in the stomach

A

Gastrin

236
Q

What converts trypsinogen to trypsin

A

Enterokinase

237
Q

What breaks down polysaccharides into disaccharides

A

Pancreatic amylase

238
Q

Lactose breaks down into: _________
-What enzyme allows this to occur?

A

Glucose + galactose
-Lactase

239
Q

Sucrose breaks down into:
-What enzyme allows for this?

A

Glucose + fructose
-Sucrase

240
Q

What effect does CCK have on the gall bladder

A

Causes it to release bile

241
Q

What can be caused with decreased intrinsic factor?

A

Pernicious anemia

242
Q

If B12 deficiency is left untreated it can lead to:

A

Posterolateral sclerosis of the spinal cord (Comined systems disease)

243
Q

Alpha cells

A

Glucagon

244
Q

Beta Cells

A

Insulin

245
Q

Delta cells

A

Somatostatin

246
Q

What influence can protein have on edema?

A

Decreased protein in the blood = decreased oncotic/osmotic pressure
-Albumin pulls water out of ICF/ECF (Decreased protein = decreased water pull)

247
Q

Which band is Anionotrophic?

A

A Band

248
Q

Which band is isotrophic?

A

I-Band

249
Q

Covering a muscle fiber

A

Endomysium

250
Q

Covering a muscle fascicle

A

Peripmysium

251
Q

Covering an entire muscle

A

Epimysium

252
Q

In a skeletal muscle contraction, ATP is bound to:

A

Myosin

253
Q

The actin binding site is hidden by:

A

Tropomyosin

254
Q

What is a contraction with no joint movement

A

Isometric

255
Q

What is an autoimmune disorder that leads to muscle weakness and affects females more prominently

A

Myasthenia graavis

256
Q

In a smooth muscle contraction, calcium binds to:

A

Calmodulin

257
Q

Which muscle fibers have more mitochondria?

A

Slow twitch

258
Q

Gamma motor neurons bind to _____ fibers

A

Intrafusal
-Cerebellum
-Set tone of muscle

259
Q

Alpha motor neurons bind to _____ fibers

A

Extrafusal
-Cortex
-Voluntary movement

260
Q

What is the role of muscle spindles?

A

Monitor stretch of muscle & speed of muscle contraction

261
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS

A

-Glycine (Spine) & GABA (Brain)

262
Q

Nicotinic receptors are responsible for:

A

Skeletal muscle fibres, pre-ganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic

263
Q

Muscarinic receptors are effector cells of ________

A

Parasympathetics

Part 1 Boards (6 decks)

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