Physiology Flashcards
Severe vomitting causes:
Metabolic alkalosis (Vomitting = Loss of HCL)
Which hormone increases during the first trimester of pregnancy?
HCG
Which law keeps the lungs from overinflating?
Hering Breuer
Inspiration leads to a ________ in alveolar pressure
Decrease
The epididymus is located _____ the testes and is where the ______ is stored
Above; Sperm
Aerobic glycolysis _______ skeletal muscle blood flow
Increases
Interleukin I is responsible for _______ ; Interleukin II is responsible for ______
Macrophages/monocytes; Lymphocytes
What is the function of gap junctions?
Direct diffusion of ions and small molecules to maintain heart rhythm
A decrease in blood protein leads to _______ and a _______ of oncotic pressure
Edema; decrease
What happens during rigor mortis, in terms of ATP production?
ATP decreases in skeletal muscle
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is important for:
Muscle contraction
Ketosis triggers: Metabolic _______ and Respiratory ________
Acidosis; Alkalosis
Large vessel that has valves
Vein
ADH has it’s greatest effect on the ______________
Collecting duct
Which of the following is produced in the zona glomeulosa of the adrenal cortex?
A. Aldosterone
B. Epinephrine
C. Cortisol
D. Serotonin
A. Aldosterone (Absorbs Sodium/excretes potassium)
Damage to the liver can lead to:
A. Decreased lipid and protein metabolism
B. Decreased lipid digestion
B. Decreased lipid metabolism
D. Decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulatoin
D. Decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulatoin
Which of the following are the quickest adaptors
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s Corpuscles
D. Hair Follicles
A. Pacinian corpuscles
Which of the following is inhibitory?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Glutamate
C. Nitric Oxide
D. Dopamine
D. Dopamine
Decreased interpleural pressure causes;
A. Expiration
B. Inspiration
C. Hypoventilation
D. Hyperventilation
B. Inspiration
What controls the pace of the heart?
A. Atrioventricular node
B. Sinoatrial node
C. Pukinje Fibers
D. Myocardium
B. Sinoatrial node
What produces the first beat of the heart?
A. Semilunar valve closing
B. Atrioventricular valves opening
C. Atrioventricular valves closing
D. Semilunar valve opening
C. Atrioventricular valves closing
What is the function of surfactant?
A. Increase surface tension
B. Decrease surface tension
C. Reduce intradural pressure
D. Increase tidal volume
B. Decrease surface tension
Oxytocin stimulates:
A. Milk let down and growth of the corpus luteum
B. Milk let down and breast development in pregnancy
C. Milk let down and secondary sexual characteristic development
D. Milk let down and uterine contraction
D. Milk let down and uterine contraction
According to the Frank-Starling law, the critical factor controlling stroke volume is:
A. Degree of stretch the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
B. Heart rate
C. Stroke volume amplitude
D. Autonomic nervous system regulation
A. Degree of stretch the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
What point of the myosin protein does ATPase attach?
A. Tail
B. Head
C. Body
D. Hillock
B. Head
Vital Capacity includes
A. Functional Respiratory Capacity + Tidal Volume
B. Respiratory Capacity + Residual Volume
C. Inspiratory Reserve + Residual Volume
D. Inspiratory Reserve + Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve
D. Inspiratory Reserve + Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve
Which of the following characteristics are similar for smooth muscle and skeletal muscle?
A. Length of actin filaments
B. Contracts in response to action potentials, which begin following the stimulation by motor neurons
C. Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
D. Strength of contraction per cross sectional area of muscle
C. Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
The myocardium plateau is due mainly to the:
A. Delayed influx of calcium
B. Calmodulin present in myocardium
C. Sodium-calcium exchange channels
D. Summation of repetitive action potentials from the Sinoatrial node
C. Sodium-calcium exchange channels
In which portion of the renal tubules does the majority of absorption take place?
A. Collecting duct
B. Loop of Henle
C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
D. Distal Convoluted Tubule
C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
An influx of sodium causes:
A. Repolarization
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Depolarization
D. No polarization
C. Depolarization
What blood test finding best describes respiratory acidosis?
A. Increased pH
B. No change in pH
C. Decreased pH
D. Very little change in the pH
C. Decreased pH
Post synaptic contraction of skeletal muscle is due to:
A. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Ca2+ influx into the cell at the myo-synaptic junction
C. Influx of Sodium
D. Efflux of Potassium
A. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin in response to:
A. Decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
B. Constriction of efferent arteriole
C. Decreased sodium in the proximal convoluted tubules
D. Decreased potassium in the proximal convoluted tubules
A. Decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
Chromaffin cells are developed from ______; & are associated with the _____ part of the autonomic nervous system:
A. Neural crest; parasympathetic
B. Neural crest; sympathetic
C. Mesoderm; sympathetic
D. Mesoderm; parasympathetic
B. Neural crest; sympathetic
Hyperventilation will cause;
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
A. Respiratory alkalosis
The peptide believed to be an important CNS neurotransmitter in pain sensation pathways is:
A. Bradykinin
B. Enkephalin
C. Substance P
D. Dopamine
C. Substance P
Stenosis of the mitral valve can result in hypertrophy of the _____, due to increased mechanical resistance during contraction
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
A. Left atrium
All of the following are regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system EXCEPT:
A. Sudoriferous glands
B. Exocrine glands
C. Mucosal glands
D. Sublingual glands
A. Sudoriferous glands (sweat glands)
Depolarization is associated with the ________ phase:
Ascending
Repolarization is associated with the _______ phase:
Descending phase
In moving an action potential, Calcium releases ________
Neurotransmitter
The resting state of an action potential is said to be ______
Polarized
Which is the MC synapse point?
Axodendritic
An efflux of Potassium is associated with:
Repolarization
MS, Posterolateral sclerosis and ALS are _______ diseases
Demyelinating
Sclerosis means that _____ is gone & replaced by _____
Myelin; Scar tissue
Myelin is made of _____
Fat
Which vitamin is important for myelination
Vitamin B12
Pressure, encapsulated mechanoreceptor
End bulbs of Krause; Pacinian
Mechanoreceptor associated with temperature perception, pressure, encapsulated & multi branched, 2-5 degrees perception
Ruffini Corpuscles
Only Receptors that are not encapsulated
Merkel discs
Receptor associated with pressure, vibration, encapsulated
(“Phasic receptor”/“Quick Adaptor”)
Pacinian Corpuscles
Which ANS system is associated with CN III, VII, IX, X & Sacral plexus S2, S3, S4?
Parasympathetics
Sympathetics are associated with _______
Chain ganglion
-Sympathetics have a: _____ Pre/_____ Post
Short/Long
-Parasympathetics have a: ____ Pre/_____ Post
Long/Short
Sympathetics Post ggl release:
Epinephrine/Norepinephrine
Influx of Sodium
Depolarization
Efflux of Potassium
Repolarization
No A-P possible
Absolute refractory
A-P available with increase potential
Relative refractory
Many synapses in a single cell
Spatial summation
Rapid succession of A-P, few synapses
Temporal
________ Cells release glycine, prevent excessive muscular
Renshaw
Heschl’s gyrus is associated with which sensory area?
Auditory
Sensory area associated with “Receptive” portion of language
Wernicke’s
Motor area associated with “expressive” portion of language
Brocha’s
Coordination of muscle contractions
Cerebellum
Superior colliculi is responsible for:
Vision
Inferior colliculi is responsible for:
Auditory
The inferior colliculi originates from which CNs
III, IV
Area of the brain concerned with breathing
Pons
The pons is originates from which CNs
V, VI, VII, VIII
The medulla originates from which CNs
VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
Dark spots->Aging->Product oxidation
Lipofuscin
Sinus node “dies” and AV node takes over
Ectopic focus
Arteries have ____; Veins have _____
Muscles; Valves
The pulomnary vein has _____ blood
Oxygenated
The QRS complex leads to ventricular _________ and atrial _________
Contraction; relaxation
Na/K+ pump functions by:
Maintaining resting state of heart
Match these ECG components with their function: P wave , S-T interval, QRS complex , T wave
- Ventricular repolarization
- Ventricular depolarization & atrial repolarization
- 0.04 to 0.06s
- Atrial depolarization
- T wave
- QRS Complex
- S-T Interval
- P Wave
Depolarization is concerned with _____; Repolarization is concerned with ______
Work; Rest
Closing of mitral/tricuspid valve (A-V valves) creates:
S1 sound
Closing of aortic & pulmonic (semilunars) creates:
S2 sound
______ murmurs are the most clinically significant
Diastolic
Aortic Regurgitation = Mitral _______
ARMS
Stenosis
Pulmonic_________ = Tricuspid Stenosis
Regurgitation
PRTS
Force exerted by fluid against a wall
Hydrostatic Pressure
Created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane
Osmotic pressure
Match these laws with their descriptions: Frank-Starling’s Law, Davis’ Law, Boyle’s Law
- Muscle will increase in size when used
- Stroke volume increases in response to volume of blood filling the heart
- Inversely proportional relationship between pressure & volume of a gas, if temp kept constant within a closed sys.
- Davis’ Law
- Frank-Starling
- Boyle’s
Proteins in blood
Albumin & globulin
Precursor platelets are ______
Megakaryocytes
Which WBC is in the highest quantity?
Neutrophils (60%)
“Never Let My Engine Blow, 60-30-8-3-0”
Neutrophils->Lymphocytes->Monocytes->Eosinophils->Basophils
Granulocytes
Basophils, Eosinophils, Neutrophils
“BEN; Uncle Ben’s Rice”
Agranulocytes
Lymphocytes, monocytes
Kupffer Cells are macrophages that are found in the:
Liver
Stores Ca++ to be released to skeletal muscle
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Thick, H zone, Crosses bridges
Myosin
ATPase will attach to the myosin _____
Head
Thin, F-actin filament + tropomyosin + troponin
Actin
Covers F actin’s binding sites
Tropomyosin
“MOM”
Binds calcium and moves tropomyosin off binding sites
Troponin
“DAD”
Troponin is found in:
Skeletal & Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle consists of:
Actin, myosin and sarcoplasmic reticulum
______ is needed for smooth muscle contraction
Calmodulin
What components make up the I-Band
F-actin filament, Tropomyosin, Troponin
Z line approximates to Z line
Sarcomere
Contains both actin and myosin
A-Band
Myosin only
H-Band
Actin only
I-Band
In a contracted muscle, the I band ________ and the A band ___________
Become smaller; Doesn’t change
High CPK, ATPase activity is increased
White (fast)
Low CPK, low ATPasse activity
Red (slow twitch)
Ascites
Abdominal swelling
Alpha motor neurons are:
Extrafusal
Gamma motor neurons are:
Intrafusal
Anasarca
Edema of the whole body
Bowman’s Capsule plays a major role in:
Filtration (contains fenestrations)
Mechanoreceptors for blood pressure entrance afferent arteriole
Juxtaglomerular Cells
Made in the kidney, stimulates RBC production
Erythropoetin
Protein made by the Liver
Angiotensinogen
Enzyme made by the Juxtaglomerular Cells
Renin
Enzyme made in the lungs
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
Angiotensin II ________ blood vessels; Stimulates release of _________
Constricts; Aldosterone
Respiratory acidosis is commonly caused d/t:
Hypoventilation
Respiratory alkalosis is commonly caused by:
Hyperventilation
Metabolic acidosis is commonly caused by:
Diarrhea, ketosis, renal dysfunction
Metabolic alkalosis is commonly caused by:
Drugs, vomitting, diuretics
Surfactant is made by:
Type II alveolar cells (pneumocytes)
Lipoproteins ______ surface tension
Decrease
CO2 enters the blood stream, causes O2 to dissociate from hemoglobin
Bohr effect
CO2 combines with hemoglobin= more bicarbonate ions
Haldane effect
Anterior portion of the pituitary
Adenohypophysis
Adenohypophysis contains ______
Rathke’s Pouch
Posterior part of the pituitary
Neurohypophysis
Location of pituitary that contains ADH & Oxytocin
Neurohypophysis
Which peripheral organ regulates blood sugar
Pancreas
What peripheral organ regulates blood calcium
Thyroid/Parathyroid
Match the Adrenal Cortex layers with their function: Zona Glomerulosa, Zona Fasciculata, Zona Reticularis
- 2nd sexual characteristics
- Regulates salt balance
- Regulates blood sugar
- Zona Reticularis
- Zona Glomerulosa
- Zona Fasciculata
“GFR Salty Sweet Sex”
______ escorts calcium into bone
Calcitonin
“Bone In”
Which hormone Increases blood calcium/decreases phosphorus?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
“Bone Out”
Which hormone decreases blood Ca+/increases phosphorus?
Calcitonin
Calcitonin is secreted by:
Parafollicular T3 & T4 (from follicular cells)
The Adrenal Medulla secretes which hormones?
Epinephrine & Norepinephrine
“MEN-Medulla, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine”
Which vitamin moves calcium from the stomach into blood
Vitamin D
What makes norepinephrine/epinephrine?
Chromaffin Cells
Which enzyme is produced in the mouth?
Salivary amylase (Ptyalin)
Chief Cells secrete
Pepsinogen
Releases bicarbonate juice
Secretin
A Fibers
Fast
C Fibers
Slow
If there is a murmur is diastole, what is it?
Pulmonic regurgitation
Vomitting of blood is associated with
Mallory Weiss syndrome
Bohr Effect shift to the left moves into the:
Lung
Bohr effect shift to the right moves into the:
Tissue
When there is decreased protein in the blood, this can lead to decreased _________ pressure, leading to Edema.
Oncotic/Osmotic
The most powerful vasocontricter known to humankind
Angiotensin II
The Actin binding site is hidden by the ________ portion of the Troponin-Tropomyosin complex
Tropomyosin
_____ is bound to myosin
ATP
Contraction w/ no joint movement
Isometric
Which pathology affects the eye first and is more associated with females
Myasthenia gravis
Muscle spindles are a sensory organ that monitors ______ of a muscle and _______ of a muscle contraction
Stretch; Speed
Inhibitory transmitters of the CNS
Glycine (spine)/ GABA (brain)
Terminal bulbs where the neurotransmitter is stored
Telodendria
Tunnels (connexons) to connect the cytosol of two cells
Gap Junctions
Common Gap Junctions
Visceral (single-unit), smooth & cardiac mm, embryo & CNS
Only ____ end-bulbs of ______ neurons release neurotransmitter
Synaptic; pre-synaptic
Excitatory Transmitters
Norepinephrine, Glutamate, Nitric Oxide
Inhibitory Transmitters
Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Glycine, GABA, Serotonin
Process where 1,000-10,000 synapses are recieved in the CNS
Summation
Build-up of NT released by several presynaptic bulbs
Spatial summation
NT released by single presynaptic bulb that fires more than once
Temporal Summation
What vitamin is important for myelination?
Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)
The urinary system begins with:
The kidneys
The renal pyramids are located in the:
Medulla
Which hormone controls spermatogenesis?
Follicle Stumulating Hormone (FSH)
The right kidney is ____ than the left kidney
Lower
The ovarian ligament anchors the ovaries ______ to the uterus
Medially
The suspensory ligament is _________ to the pelvic wall
Laterally
Which ligament supports the uterine tubes, uterus & vagina
Broad ligament
What is secreted by the corpus luterum in the 1st 1/2 of the cycle
Estrogen
What hormone increases in pregnancy?
Progesterone
What hormone is responsible for ovulation
Lutenizing hormone
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?
Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
Which of these is regulated by the kidneys?
A. Concentration of protein
B. amino acid concentration
C. Total Blood Volume
D. Extracellular fluid volume
C. Total Blood Volume
Bacterial action in the intestines does not lead to the formation of _______
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B6
C. Riboflavin
D. Carotene
D. Carotene
The Uncus is correlated to what sense?
Olfaction
The Retina develops from the
Ectoderm
The sclera is derived from the
Dura
Middle ear to nasopharyngeal area
Auditory Tube
EKG + ECG is designed for:
Heart
EMG is designed for:
Muscle
EEG is designed for the:
Brain
Erection is considered to be ______ action
Parasympathetic
Ejactulation is considered to be a _______ action
Sympathetic
Components of the Renal Cortex
PCT, DCT, glomerulus, nephron
Components of the Renal Medulla
Loop of Henle, Collecting Ducts
What triggers the release of aldosterone?
Angiotensin II
What triggers the release of ADH
Increased Na+ osmolarity
Hormones included in the adenohypophysis
FSH, MSH, LH, Prolactin, ACTH, TSH, GH
Hormones included in the neuohypophysis
ADH & Oxytocin
The Pulmonary artery carries:
Deoxygenated Blood
The P-Wave is responsible for:
Atrial depolarization/contraction
The QRS complex is responsible for:
-Ventricular depolarization/contraction
-Atrial repolarization (hidden)
The T-Wave is responsible:
Ventricular repolarization
Tetralogy of Fallot
-Detroxposition of the Aorta
-Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
-Interventricular septal defect
-Pulmonary stenosis
Which blood vessel is the largest?
Tunica muscularis
Mitral Stenosis means:
Aortic Regurgitation
Pulmonic Regurgitation means:
Tricuspid Stenosis
Causes of Congestive Heart Failure
- Essential Hypertension (35-55 yo)-Most Common
- Aortic Stenosis (2nd most common)
Anterior spinal roots are _____ and Posterior spinal roots are ______; This follows what Law of Physiology
Motor; Sensory; Bell Magende
Which law limits respiratory excursion via the vagus nerve
Hering Breuer
Which lung capacity signifies normal breathing
Tidal Volume
Tidal volume is controlled by:
Pneumotaxic center: Fire’s off Hering Breuer Reflex
IRV is controlled by:
Apneustic center: Shuts off Hering Breuer reflex
ERV is controlled by:
Rectus Abdominis
What epithelium is the entire lung made up of? (What is the exception)
-Entire Lung: Pseudostratified Cilliated Columnar
-Exception: Alveolar Sac (Simple Squamous)
Responsibilities of Type I/II pneumocytes
Type I: Gas exchange
Type II: Surfactant (decrease surface tension)
Which syndrome can be caused by not enough surfactant at birth?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (AKA Neonatal Hyaline Membrane Dx)
Macrophages of the Lungs
Dust Cells
What is a reversible enzyme that converts H2O + CO2 to H+ + HCO3?
Carbonic Anhydrase (Balances pH by breathing off CO2)
Examples of Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis
-Respiratory Acidosis: Holding breathing, consolidation (pneumonia)
-Respiratory Alkalosis: Hyperventilation (too much O2)
Examples of Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis
-Metabolic Acidosis: Diarrhea, Diabetes Mellitus, Ketoacidosis
-Metabolic Alkalosis: Bulimia (Vomitting), Diuretics, Drugs
What is the most powerful vasoconstrictor known to humankind
Angiotensin II
Urine Pathway from Collecting duct on:
Renal papillae—minor calyx—major calyx—renal pelvis—ureter—bladder—urethra
What starts the breakdown of fat in the mouth
Sublingual Lipase
Gastric glands give rise to:
Parietal & chief cells
Chief/peptic cells produce:
Pepsinogen
Pepsinogen is later converted by _____ into pepsin
HCL
Parietal Cells Make:
- HCL (to convert pepsinogen to pepsin)
- Intrinsic factor (for B12 absorption in the terminal ileum)
Pyloric glands give rise to:
Gastric Cells (Gastrin)
What produces most of the pancreatic enzymes in response to polypeptides in the stomach
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
CCK causes the production of what three enzymes in the small intestine?
- Pancreatic amylase (breakdown of starch)
- Pancreatic lipase (breakdown of lipids)
- Trypsinogen (breakdown of proteins)
CCK also closes the ______ in response to fats; What else helps do this?
Pyloric sphincter; Enterogasterone
CCK also inhibits the action of ______ in the stomach
Gastrin
What converts trypsinogen to trypsin
Enterokinase
What breaks down polysaccharides into disaccharides
Pancreatic amylase
Lactose breaks down into: _________
-What enzyme allows this to occur?
Glucose + galactose
-Lactase
Sucrose breaks down into:
-What enzyme allows for this?
Glucose + fructose
-Sucrase
What effect does CCK have on the gall bladder
Causes it to release bile
What can be caused with decreased intrinsic factor?
Pernicious anemia
If B12 deficiency is left untreated it can lead to:
Posterolateral sclerosis of the spinal cord (Comined systems disease)
Alpha cells
Glucagon
Beta Cells
Insulin
Delta cells
Somatostatin
What influence can protein have on edema?
Decreased protein in the blood = decreased oncotic/osmotic pressure
-Albumin pulls water out of ICF/ECF (Decreased protein = decreased water pull)
Which band is Anionotrophic?
A Band
Which band is isotrophic?
I-Band
Covering a muscle fiber
Endomysium
Covering a muscle fascicle
Peripmysium
Covering an entire muscle
Epimysium
In a skeletal muscle contraction, ATP is bound to:
Myosin
The actin binding site is hidden by:
Tropomyosin
What is a contraction with no joint movement
Isometric
What is an autoimmune disorder that leads to muscle weakness and affects females more prominently
Myasthenia graavis
In a smooth muscle contraction, calcium binds to:
Calmodulin
Which muscle fibers have more mitochondria?
Slow twitch
Gamma motor neurons bind to _____ fibers
Intrafusal
-Cerebellum
-Set tone of muscle
Alpha motor neurons bind to _____ fibers
Extrafusal
-Cortex
-Voluntary movement
What is the role of muscle spindles?
Monitor stretch of muscle & speed of muscle contraction
Inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS
-Glycine (Spine) & GABA (Brain)
Nicotinic receptors are responsible for:
Skeletal muscle fibres, pre-ganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic
Muscarinic receptors are effector cells of ________
Parasympathetics
