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Part 1 Boards > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Influenza A is most commonly spread by:

A

Respiratory droplets

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2
Q

Most common cause of diarrhea in children

A

Rotavirus

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3
Q

Rubella is also known as:

A

German Measles

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4
Q

Papillomavirus is associated with:

A

HPV

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5
Q

The varicella-zoster virus is associated with:

A

Chicken Pox

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6
Q

The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with:

A

Mono

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7
Q

The measles virus is also called:

A

Rubeola

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8
Q

The mumps virus is associated with

A

Parotitis

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9
Q

Swine Flu (H1N1) is part of the _________ group

A

Influenza A

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10
Q

Ebola and Marburg virus are associated with:

A

Hemorrhagic Fever

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11
Q

Hantavirus spreads through which vector:

A

Rodents (Mouse)

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12
Q

Reovirus and Rotavirus affect which part of the body?

A

GI Tract (Stomach flu)

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13
Q

Norwalk virus causes ________

A

Gastroenteritis

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14
Q

An antitoxin is associated with ____________ Immunity

A

Artificial Passive

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15
Q

Examples of Endotoxins

A

Influenza, E Coli, Salmonella

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16
Q

A toxin that affects the intestines

A

Enterotoxin

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17
Q

Cholera is an example of an ________

A

Enterotoxin

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18
Q

A toxin outside the cell is a _______

A

Exotoxin

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19
Q

Strep, botulism & pertussis are all examples of a:

A

Exotoxin

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20
Q

What is the most common type of fomite (inanimate object)?

A

Stethoscope

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21
Q

A partial or half antigen is known as a _____

A

Hapten

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22
Q

A toxin that affects the nervous system

A

Neurotoxin

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23
Q

Botulism and Tetanus are examples of:

A

A neurotoxin

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24
Q

Which toxin “enhances phagocytosis”?

A

Opsonin

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25
Q

Which toxin cannot be autoclaved?

A

Prion

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26
Q

Toxin that utilizes “Active Artificial Immunity”

A

Toxoid

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27
Q

Autoclave means to

A

Use steam under pressure

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28
Q

Which Antibody is associated with breast milk and the gut?

A

IgA

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29
Q

What antibody functions in parasitic infections and allergic reactions?

A

IgE

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30
Q

Which antibody increases in Hodgkin’s disease (Reed Sternberg cells)?

A

IgE

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31
Q

Which antibody is the first to increase with SECOND exposure?

A

IgG

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32
Q

Which antibody crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

“G thanks mom”

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33
Q

Which antibody is the first to increase with FIRST exposure?

A

IgM

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34
Q

The role of Interleukin I is:

A

Alerting (via Lymphocyte activating factor)

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35
Q

Interleukin I is made by:

A

Macrophages (monocytes)

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36
Q

The role of Interleukin II is:

A

Organizes (directs immune response)

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37
Q

Interleukin II is made by:

A

CD4 Cells

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38
Q

The role of Interleukin III is to:

A

Send to fight (to affected areas)

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39
Q

Interleukin III is made by:

A

Bone marrow

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40
Q

CD8 cells are _______ cells

A

Killer

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41
Q

CD4 Cells are ______ cells

A

Helper

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42
Q

CD4 cells activate what two types of cells?

A

-Memory B cells and Cytotoxic T Cells

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43
Q

MHC are ______ molecules

A

Protein

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44
Q

T-Cells recognize:

A

MHC I

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45
Q

B-Cells recognize:

A

MHC I & II

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46
Q

Enhances phagocytosis or cellular lysis

A

Complement

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47
Q

Membrane attack complex

A

C5b-C9; Part of the complement system

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48
Q

Active immunity

A

Actively making antibodies

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49
Q

Passive Immunity

A

Given antibodies

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50
Q

Natural Active Immunity

A

Exposed to the Disease

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51
Q

Artificial Active Disease

A

Injection of attenuated organism

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52
Q

Natural Passive Immunity

A

Given in utero or breastfeeding

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53
Q

In utero is associate with which antibody

A

IgG

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54
Q

Breastfeeding is associated with which antibody

A

IgA

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55
Q

Artificial passive immunity

A

Injection of a performed antibody (Ie. Tetanus)

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56
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity is called:

A

Anaphylactic

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57
Q

Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity is closely associated with which condition?

A

Asthma

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58
Q

The defenses needed for a Type I sensitivity include:

A

IgE, mast cell, Basophils

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59
Q

A Type II Hypersensitivity is called ___________

A

Cytotoxic

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60
Q

Good Pasteurs, Erythoblastosis Fetalis (coombs anemia) & blood transfusions are all associated with:

A

Type II (Cytotoxic) Sensitivity

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61
Q

Which antibody is involved in a Type II hypersensitivity

A

IgG

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62
Q

What is required for a Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Antigen & Antibody

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63
Q

A type III hypersensitivity is called:

A

Immune complex-mediated

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64
Q

Glomerularnephritis, lupus and R.A are all associated with which hypersensitivity

A

Type III

65
Q

What antibodies are needed for a type IIII (immune-mediated) hypersensitivity?

A

IgG & Complex
-Antigen, Antibody & complement

66
Q

A type IV hypersensitivity is called:

A

Delayed Hyper-Sensitivity

67
Q

Tuberculosis & contact dermatitis are both associated with which hypersensitivity?

A

Type IV (Delated-Hypersensitivity)

68
Q

Which defenses are required with a Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

T-cell & Lymphocytes

69
Q

Which condition has no vaccine available?

A

Herpes simplex Type II

70
Q

Match these vaccines & examples
-Vaccinations: Inactivated, Toxoid, Live Attenuated

  1. Mumps, measles, rubella, Sabin, Tuberculosis
  2. Tetanus, Botulism, Diptheria
  3. Salk, Rabies influenza
A
  1. Live attenuated
  2. Toxoid
  3. Inactivated
71
Q

Ascending myelination of PNS; Can be acquired after vaccination or infection

A

Guillain Barre (“Post-infectious polyradiculopathy”)

72
Q

Match these lab tests with their purpose: ASO titer, Catalase, Coagulase, Coliform, Coombs

  1. Staph (cat +) vs. Strep (cat -)
  2. RBC antigens
  3. E. Coli
  4. Staph aureus (coag +) vs. Other staph (Coag -)
  5. Strep pyogenes
A
  1. Catalase
  2. Coombs
  3. Coliform
  4. Coagulase
  5. ASO titer
73
Q

Match these lab tests with their purposes: HLA B27, HLA DR5/CD4, Paul Bunnel, Sabouraud Agar, Shick Test

  1. PEAR: Psoriatic, Enteropathic Arthropathy, AS, Reactive Arthritis
  2. AIDS: ELISA, Western Blot Tests
  3. Diptheria
  4. Fungi
  5. Mono
A
  1. HLA B27
  2. HLA DR5/CD4
  3. Shick
  4. Saboraud Agar
  5. Paul Bunnel
74
Q

Syphilis tests for which pathogen and shape?

A

Treponema pallidum; Spirochete

75
Q

Tuberculosis Tests

A

PPD (purified protein derivative), Acid fast (All mycobacterium are acid fast), X-Ray

76
Q

What are we looking for in X-Ray, when testing for tuberculosis?

A

Gohn complex in lung

77
Q

What type of cell would be atypical in a mononucleosis patient?

A

Downey cell

78
Q

What test would you use for someone that you suspect has HIV/Lyme Disease?

A

Western Blot

79
Q

Which test would you use for someone with suspected tuberculosis?

A

PPD/Skin prick test

80
Q

Match the stains with what they’re testing for: Chocolate agar, Hektoen, Mannitol salt
1. Staph
2. Neisseria Gonorrhea
3. Shigella vs. Salmonella

A
  1. Mannitol Salt
  2. Chocolate agar
  3. Hektoen
81
Q

Match the inclusion bodies to their associated disease: Aschoff, Downey Cells, Gohn Complex, Guaneri bodies, Gumma

  1. Small Pox
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Rheumatic Fever
  4. Mononucelosis
  5. Tertiary Syphillis
A
  1. Guarneri bodies
  2. Gohn Complex
  3. Aschoff
  4. Downey Cells
  5. Gumma
82
Q

Match the inclusion bodies with their associated disease: Koplik Spots, Lewy bodies, Mallory bodies

  1. Alcohol Induced Hepatitis
  2. Measles
  3. Parkinson’s
A
  1. Mallory bodies
  2. Koplik Spots
  3. Lewy bodies
83
Q

Match the inclusion bodies with their associated disease: Negri bodies, Reed Sternberg, Russell Bodies

  1. Rabies
  2. Multiple Myeloma
  3. Hodgkin’s
A
  1. Negri Bodies
  2. Russell Bodies
  3. Reed Sternberg
84
Q

Match the disease with the color of pus: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia Marcescens, Chlamydia, Staph Aureus, Gonorrhea

  1. Yellow
  2. Yellow/Green
  3. White
  4. Blue/Green
  5. Red
A
  1. Staph Aureus
  2. Gonorrhea
  3. Chlamydia
  4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  5. Serratia Marcesens
85
Q

What pathogen is associated with Thrush?

A

Candida albicans

86
Q

Which disease is associated with a white purulent discharge?

A

Chlamydia

87
Q

Emerging Disease

A

New or rapid increase in disease in a specified geographic region

88
Q

Endemic

A

Disease that is present all the time, but in small quantities

89
Q

Epidemic

A

Rapidly affects a population in a certain area for a few days to weeks

90
Q

Etiology

A

Study of the causes of disease

91
Q

Disease: Incidence vs. Prevalence

A

Incidence: NEW cases in a given period
Prevalence: TOTAL number of cases at a particular point in time

92
Q

Pandemic

A

More than the expected number of cases at a particular point in time

93
Q

The majority of pandemic disease originate from __________

A

Animals

94
Q

Match the government agency with their responsibilities: CDC, EPA, FDA, NIH, OSHA, USDA

  1. Disease Statistics
  2. Milk and Milk Products
  3. Research
  4. Health products (makeup/tobacco)
  5. Soil, air & water quality
  6. Hazardous materials
A
  1. CDC
  2. USDA
  3. NIH
  4. FDA
  5. EPA
  6. OSHA
95
Q

Which governing body deals with chicken farmers?

A

FDA

96
Q

Control group vs. Testing group

A

Case Study/Control

97
Q

Studies groups of people over a period of time

A

Cohorts

98
Q

Drug that treats MRSA

A

Vancomycin

99
Q

Drug that treats gram negative/positive as a broad spectrum antibiotic

A

Tetracycline

100
Q

Classify these as either DNA or RNA Viruses:
1. Adenovirus
2. Papillomavirus
3. Rabies Virus
4. Hepatitis B Virus
5. Hepatatis C Virus

A
  1. DNA
  2. DNA
  3. RNA
  4. DNA
  5. RNA
101
Q

List the microbial lifestyle with the description: Autotroph, Heterotroph, Saprophyte, Parasite

  1. Eats off living organisms
  2. Eats organic material
  3. Eats inorganic material (Ie. Plant eating sun)
  4. Eats dead/decaying material (Ie. Maggot)
A
  1. Parasite
  2. Heterotroph
  3. Autotroph
  4. Saprophyte
102
Q

Match these microbial lifestyles with their descriptions: Facultative, Obligate, Microaerophilic
1. Presence or absence of O2 (preference)
2. Can only survive in a reduced O2 (high altitude plants, Candle jaw culture)
3. Only in one environment, not the other

A
  1. Facultative
  2. Microaerophilic
  3. Obligate
103
Q

Match the microbial lifestyle with their description: Symbiosis, mutualism, synergism, commensalism
1. One benefits, the other is unaffected
2. Both benefit
3. One or both benefit
4. Both benefit and accomplish what neither can do alone

A
  1. Commensalism
  2. Mutualism
  3. Symbiosis
  4. Synergism
104
Q

Name the 6 gram positive organisms (Rest are gram -)

A

“BLCCSS”
-Bacillus (anthrax)
-Listeria (deli meats, soft cheeses)
-Clostridium
-Corynebacterium diptheria
-Staph
-Strep

105
Q

5 diseases caused by staph aureus

A

“STOIC”
-Scalded Skin Syndrome (exfoliative toxin)
-Toxic Shock
-Osteomyelitis
-Impetigo (honey crusted lesions/gold colored flakes)
-Carbuncles

106
Q

6 Diseases caused by Strep pyogenes

A

“SERGIS”
-Strep Throat
-Erysipelas
-Rheumatic Fever
-Glomeulonephritis
-Impetigo (#2 cause)
-Scarlet Fever

107
Q

Loss of red blood cells and SMALL amounts of protein in urine

A

Glomeurnephritis

108
Q

An innate immune system contains:

A

T-Cells & Natural Killer Cells

109
Q

T-Cells are made in the ______; Function by ______

A

Thymus; Killing pathogens

110
Q

Natural Killer cells function by:

A

Inactivating the pathogen

111
Q

Adaptive Immune System includes:

A

Killer T Cells, Helper T Cells, Regulatory T Cells

112
Q

Match these T-Cells with their function: Killer T Cells, Helper T Cells, Regulatory T Cells

  1. Helps keep T-Cells under control
  2. Antigen Recognition/Activates T-Cells
  3. Kills virus with or without antibody (cell suicide)
A
  1. Regulatory T-Cells
  2. Helper T-Cells
  3. Killer T-Cells
113
Q

Inform killer T-Cells what is going on INSIDE other cells

A

Class I (Histocompatability Complex)

114
Q

Informs helper T-Cells what is going on OUTSIDE of cells

A

Class II (Histocompatability Complex)

115
Q

Doesn’t kill anything but tags the invader (“Kiss of death”)

A

Antibody

116
Q

Target of antibody & T cells

A

Antigen

117
Q

______ pathway depends on antibodies for activation

A

Classical

118
Q

Match these hypersensitivity reactions with their definitions: Type I, II, III, IV

  1. Immediate Hypersensitivity
  2. T-Cell mediated (Delayed)
  3. Immune complex mediated
  4. Antibody mediated
A
  1. Type I
  2. Type IV
  3. Type III
  4. Type II
119
Q

_____ is a associated with swollen lymph nodes

A

Canale-Smith Syndrome

120
Q

______ is associated with self-reactive antibodies attaching to Ach/attack myo-neuro junction

A

Myasthenia gravis

121
Q

Which autoimmune disease is associated with a red facial rash (Malar) or Butterfly rash

A

Systemic Lupus Erythmatosis

122
Q

Which immunodeficiency has thymic tissue missing

A

DiGeorge syndrome

123
Q

Which diseases are associated with AIDS patients

A

Pneumocystitis carinii & Karposi sarcoma

124
Q

Attenuated viruses are:

A

Weakened form of the microbe

125
Q

Active immunity vs. Passive Immunity

A

-Active: Live or killed viruses
-Passive: Occurs naturally

126
Q

Infections, dermatits, graft rejections are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV

127
Q

SLE & RA are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type III

128
Q

Gram + is associated with which color?

A

Purple

129
Q

Gram - is associated with which color?

A

Red

130
Q

Presents antigen to T cell

A

Macrophages

131
Q

Part of antigen recognized by immune system

A

Epitope

132
Q

Where is the CDC office located?

A

Atlanta, GA

133
Q

Which department is associated with chiropractic licensure?

A

Department of Health (DOH)

134
Q

______ treated polio virus with formaldehyde to kill the virus
______ used live & attenuated virus for his vaccine

A

Salk; Sabin

135
Q

Match these food-borne disease with their description: Staph, botulism, listeria, E. coli, Salmonella

  1. Undercooked meat/veg/fruit exposed to fecal (2d)
  2. Custard filled pastry, egg, fish, salad (2-4 hours)
  3. Unpastuerized milk products, hot dogs (2 weeks)
  4. Home canned products/honey (18-26 hours)
  5. Poultry, meat, eggs (12-48 hours)
A
  1. E. Coli
  2. Staph
  3. Listeria
  4. Botulism
  5. Salmonella
136
Q

Match these food borne diseases with their definitions: Shigella, Cholera, Francisella tularensis, mycobacterium bovis

  1. Seafood & water (1-5 days)
  2. Foods & water (1-2 days)
  3. Raw milk, can get TB (months to years)
  4. Undercooked meat (a few hours to 3 weeks)
A
  1. Cholera
  2. Shigella
  3. Mycobacterium bovis
  4. Francisella tularensis
137
Q

Which food borne disease is associated with 0157:H7?

A

E. Coli

138
Q

H5N1, bird flu, flu-like symptoms

A

Avian influenza

139
Q

Rheumatic Fever Jones Criteria

A

“SPECS”
-Syndenhams Chorea, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Carditis, Subcutaneous nodules

140
Q

Which gram + disease is associated with a gray pseudomembrane?

A

Corynebacterium diptheria

141
Q

Which disease is second only to HIV?

A

Community associated MRSA

142
Q

Step. Agalactiae (group B) is associated with:

A

Babies

143
Q

Trismus is also known as

A

Lock jaw

144
Q

Gram + bacteria usually end in:

A

“Us” and “Um (Except for haemophilus)

145
Q

Cestodes are also known as:

A

Tapeworms

146
Q

The tapeworm head is called _______; Body is called _______

A

Scolex; Proglottids

147
Q

Match these tapeworms with their organism name: Dwarf, beef, pork, fish, dog

  1. Taenia solium
  2. Taenia saginata
  3. Echinococcus granulosis
  4. Hymenolepsis nana
  5. Diphyllobothrium latum
A
  1. Pork
  2. Beef
  3. Dog
  4. Dwarf
  5. Fish
148
Q

Which type of cestode can cause megaloblastic anemia

A

Fish

149
Q

Name the two types of Trematodes (flukes)

A

Schisosoma japonicum (blood) & Paragoniimus Westermani (Pulmonary/Lung)

150
Q

Match these types of round worms with their organism name: Filariasis, Hookworm, pinworm, trichinosis, whipworm

  1. Wuchereria bancrofti
  2. Enterobius vermicularis
  3. Necator americanus
  4. Trichuris trichura
  5. Trichenella spiralis
A
  1. Filariasis
  2. Pinworm
  3. Hookworm
  4. Whipworm
  5. Trichinosis
151
Q

What is the vector os the river eye worm & river blindness roundworm?

A

Flies

152
Q

Which roundworm can lead to Elephantitis & lymphatic blockage?

A

Filariasis

153
Q

Which roundworm lives in striated muscles?

A

Trichinosis (Trichinella spiralis)

154
Q

Tinea Uguium

A

Ringworm of the nail

155
Q

Subunit of a protein coat

A

Capsomere

156
Q

Trilaminar lipid membrane surrounding capsid

A

Viral envelope

157
Q

Transmission of polio

A

Oral/fecal

158
Q

Route of transmission for arbovirus

A

Mosquitoes

159
Q

Which arbovirus develop breakbone fever or bone crusher disease

A

Dengue fever

Part 1 Boards (6 decks)

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