Microbiology Flashcards
Influenza A is most commonly spread by:
Respiratory droplets
Most common cause of diarrhea in children
Rotavirus
Rubella is also known as:
German Measles
Papillomavirus is associated with:
HPV
The varicella-zoster virus is associated with:
Chicken Pox
The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with:
Mono
The measles virus is also called:
Rubeola
The mumps virus is associated with
Parotitis
Swine Flu (H1N1) is part of the _________ group
Influenza A
Ebola and Marburg virus are associated with:
Hemorrhagic Fever
Hantavirus spreads through which vector:
Rodents (Mouse)
Reovirus and Rotavirus affect which part of the body?
GI Tract (Stomach flu)
Norwalk virus causes ________
Gastroenteritis
An antitoxin is associated with ____________ Immunity
Artificial Passive
Examples of Endotoxins
Influenza, E Coli, Salmonella
A toxin that affects the intestines
Enterotoxin
Cholera is an example of an ________
Enterotoxin
A toxin outside the cell is a _______
Exotoxin
Strep, botulism & pertussis are all examples of a:
Exotoxin
What is the most common type of fomite (inanimate object)?
Stethoscope
A partial or half antigen is known as a _____
Hapten
A toxin that affects the nervous system
Neurotoxin
Botulism and Tetanus are examples of:
A neurotoxin
Which toxin “enhances phagocytosis”?
Opsonin
Which toxin cannot be autoclaved?
Prion
Toxin that utilizes “Active Artificial Immunity”
Toxoid
Autoclave means to
Use steam under pressure
Which Antibody is associated with breast milk and the gut?
IgA
What antibody functions in parasitic infections and allergic reactions?
IgE
Which antibody increases in Hodgkin’s disease (Reed Sternberg cells)?
IgE
Which antibody is the first to increase with SECOND exposure?
IgG
Which antibody crosses the placenta?
IgG
“G thanks mom”
Which antibody is the first to increase with FIRST exposure?
IgM
The role of Interleukin I is:
Alerting (via Lymphocyte activating factor)
Interleukin I is made by:
Macrophages (monocytes)
The role of Interleukin II is:
Organizes (directs immune response)
Interleukin II is made by:
CD4 Cells
The role of Interleukin III is to:
Send to fight (to affected areas)
Interleukin III is made by:
Bone marrow
CD8 cells are _______ cells
Killer
CD4 Cells are ______ cells
Helper
CD4 cells activate what two types of cells?
-Memory B cells and Cytotoxic T Cells
MHC are ______ molecules
Protein
T-Cells recognize:
MHC I
B-Cells recognize:
MHC I & II
Enhances phagocytosis or cellular lysis
Complement
Membrane attack complex
C5b-C9; Part of the complement system
Active immunity
Actively making antibodies
Passive Immunity
Given antibodies
Natural Active Immunity
Exposed to the Disease
Artificial Active Disease
Injection of attenuated organism
Natural Passive Immunity
Given in utero or breastfeeding
In utero is associate with which antibody
IgG
Breastfeeding is associated with which antibody
IgA
Artificial passive immunity
Injection of a performed antibody (Ie. Tetanus)
Type I Hypersensitivity is called:
Anaphylactic
Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity is closely associated with which condition?
Asthma
The defenses needed for a Type I sensitivity include:
IgE, mast cell, Basophils
A Type II Hypersensitivity is called ___________
Cytotoxic
Good Pasteurs, Erythoblastosis Fetalis (coombs anemia) & blood transfusions are all associated with:
Type II (Cytotoxic) Sensitivity
Which antibody is involved in a Type II hypersensitivity
IgG
What is required for a Type II hypersensitivity?
Antigen & Antibody
A type III hypersensitivity is called:
Immune complex-mediated
Glomerularnephritis, lupus and R.A are all associated with which hypersensitivity
Type III
What antibodies are needed for a type IIII (immune-mediated) hypersensitivity?
IgG & Complex
-Antigen, Antibody & complement
A type IV hypersensitivity is called:
Delayed Hyper-Sensitivity
Tuberculosis & contact dermatitis are both associated with which hypersensitivity?
Type IV (Delated-Hypersensitivity)
Which defenses are required with a Type IV hypersensitivity?
T-cell & Lymphocytes
Which condition has no vaccine available?
Herpes simplex Type II
Match these vaccines & examples
-Vaccinations: Inactivated, Toxoid, Live Attenuated
- Mumps, measles, rubella, Sabin, Tuberculosis
- Tetanus, Botulism, Diptheria
- Salk, Rabies influenza
- Live attenuated
- Toxoid
- Inactivated
Ascending myelination of PNS; Can be acquired after vaccination or infection
Guillain Barre (“Post-infectious polyradiculopathy”)
Match these lab tests with their purpose: ASO titer, Catalase, Coagulase, Coliform, Coombs
- Staph (cat +) vs. Strep (cat -)
- RBC antigens
- E. Coli
- Staph aureus (coag +) vs. Other staph (Coag -)
- Strep pyogenes
- Catalase
- Coombs
- Coliform
- Coagulase
- ASO titer
Match these lab tests with their purposes: HLA B27, HLA DR5/CD4, Paul Bunnel, Sabouraud Agar, Shick Test
- PEAR: Psoriatic, Enteropathic Arthropathy, AS, Reactive Arthritis
- AIDS: ELISA, Western Blot Tests
- Diptheria
- Fungi
- Mono
- HLA B27
- HLA DR5/CD4
- Shick
- Saboraud Agar
- Paul Bunnel
Syphilis tests for which pathogen and shape?
Treponema pallidum; Spirochete
Tuberculosis Tests
PPD (purified protein derivative), Acid fast (All mycobacterium are acid fast), X-Ray
What are we looking for in X-Ray, when testing for tuberculosis?
Gohn complex in lung
What type of cell would be atypical in a mononucleosis patient?
Downey cell
What test would you use for someone that you suspect has HIV/Lyme Disease?
Western Blot
Which test would you use for someone with suspected tuberculosis?
PPD/Skin prick test
Match the stains with what they’re testing for: Chocolate agar, Hektoen, Mannitol salt
1. Staph
2. Neisseria Gonorrhea
3. Shigella vs. Salmonella
- Mannitol Salt
- Chocolate agar
- Hektoen
Match the inclusion bodies to their associated disease: Aschoff, Downey Cells, Gohn Complex, Guaneri bodies, Gumma
- Small Pox
- Tuberculosis
- Rheumatic Fever
- Mononucelosis
- Tertiary Syphillis
- Guarneri bodies
- Gohn Complex
- Aschoff
- Downey Cells
- Gumma
Match the inclusion bodies with their associated disease: Koplik Spots, Lewy bodies, Mallory bodies
- Alcohol Induced Hepatitis
- Measles
- Parkinson’s
- Mallory bodies
- Koplik Spots
- Lewy bodies
Match the inclusion bodies with their associated disease: Negri bodies, Reed Sternberg, Russell Bodies
- Rabies
- Multiple Myeloma
- Hodgkin’s
- Negri Bodies
- Russell Bodies
- Reed Sternberg
Match the disease with the color of pus: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia Marcescens, Chlamydia, Staph Aureus, Gonorrhea
- Yellow
- Yellow/Green
- White
- Blue/Green
- Red
- Staph Aureus
- Gonorrhea
- Chlamydia
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Serratia Marcesens
What pathogen is associated with Thrush?
Candida albicans
Which disease is associated with a white purulent discharge?
Chlamydia
Emerging Disease
New or rapid increase in disease in a specified geographic region
Endemic
Disease that is present all the time, but in small quantities
Epidemic
Rapidly affects a population in a certain area for a few days to weeks
Etiology
Study of the causes of disease
Disease: Incidence vs. Prevalence
Incidence: NEW cases in a given period
Prevalence: TOTAL number of cases at a particular point in time
Pandemic
More than the expected number of cases at a particular point in time
The majority of pandemic disease originate from __________
Animals
Match the government agency with their responsibilities: CDC, EPA, FDA, NIH, OSHA, USDA
- Disease Statistics
- Milk and Milk Products
- Research
- Health products (makeup/tobacco)
- Soil, air & water quality
- Hazardous materials
- CDC
- USDA
- NIH
- FDA
- EPA
- OSHA
Which governing body deals with chicken farmers?
FDA
Control group vs. Testing group
Case Study/Control
Studies groups of people over a period of time
Cohorts
Drug that treats MRSA
Vancomycin
Drug that treats gram negative/positive as a broad spectrum antibiotic
Tetracycline
Classify these as either DNA or RNA Viruses:
1. Adenovirus
2. Papillomavirus
3. Rabies Virus
4. Hepatitis B Virus
5. Hepatatis C Virus
- DNA
- DNA
- RNA
- DNA
- RNA
List the microbial lifestyle with the description: Autotroph, Heterotroph, Saprophyte, Parasite
- Eats off living organisms
- Eats organic material
- Eats inorganic material (Ie. Plant eating sun)
- Eats dead/decaying material (Ie. Maggot)
- Parasite
- Heterotroph
- Autotroph
- Saprophyte
Match these microbial lifestyles with their descriptions: Facultative, Obligate, Microaerophilic
1. Presence or absence of O2 (preference)
2. Can only survive in a reduced O2 (high altitude plants, Candle jaw culture)
3. Only in one environment, not the other
- Facultative
- Microaerophilic
- Obligate
Match the microbial lifestyle with their description: Symbiosis, mutualism, synergism, commensalism
1. One benefits, the other is unaffected
2. Both benefit
3. One or both benefit
4. Both benefit and accomplish what neither can do alone
- Commensalism
- Mutualism
- Symbiosis
- Synergism
Name the 6 gram positive organisms (Rest are gram -)
“BLCCSS”
-Bacillus (anthrax)
-Listeria (deli meats, soft cheeses)
-Clostridium
-Corynebacterium diptheria
-Staph
-Strep
5 diseases caused by staph aureus
“STOIC”
-Scalded Skin Syndrome (exfoliative toxin)
-Toxic Shock
-Osteomyelitis
-Impetigo (honey crusted lesions/gold colored flakes)
-Carbuncles
6 Diseases caused by Strep pyogenes
“SERGIS”
-Strep Throat
-Erysipelas
-Rheumatic Fever
-Glomeulonephritis
-Impetigo (#2 cause)
-Scarlet Fever
Loss of red blood cells and SMALL amounts of protein in urine
Glomeurnephritis
An innate immune system contains:
T-Cells & Natural Killer Cells
T-Cells are made in the ______; Function by ______
Thymus; Killing pathogens
Natural Killer cells function by:
Inactivating the pathogen
Adaptive Immune System includes:
Killer T Cells, Helper T Cells, Regulatory T Cells
Match these T-Cells with their function: Killer T Cells, Helper T Cells, Regulatory T Cells
- Helps keep T-Cells under control
- Antigen Recognition/Activates T-Cells
- Kills virus with or without antibody (cell suicide)
- Regulatory T-Cells
- Helper T-Cells
- Killer T-Cells
Inform killer T-Cells what is going on INSIDE other cells
Class I (Histocompatability Complex)
Informs helper T-Cells what is going on OUTSIDE of cells
Class II (Histocompatability Complex)
Doesn’t kill anything but tags the invader (“Kiss of death”)
Antibody
Target of antibody & T cells
Antigen
______ pathway depends on antibodies for activation
Classical
Match these hypersensitivity reactions with their definitions: Type I, II, III, IV
- Immediate Hypersensitivity
- T-Cell mediated (Delayed)
- Immune complex mediated
- Antibody mediated
- Type I
- Type IV
- Type III
- Type II
_____ is a associated with swollen lymph nodes
Canale-Smith Syndrome
______ is associated with self-reactive antibodies attaching to Ach/attack myo-neuro junction
Myasthenia gravis
Which autoimmune disease is associated with a red facial rash (Malar) or Butterfly rash
Systemic Lupus Erythmatosis
Which immunodeficiency has thymic tissue missing
DiGeorge syndrome
Which diseases are associated with AIDS patients
Pneumocystitis carinii & Karposi sarcoma
Attenuated viruses are:
Weakened form of the microbe
Active immunity vs. Passive Immunity
-Active: Live or killed viruses
-Passive: Occurs naturally
Infections, dermatits, graft rejections are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV
SLE & RA are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction
Type III
Gram + is associated with which color?
Purple
Gram - is associated with which color?
Red
Presents antigen to T cell
Macrophages
Part of antigen recognized by immune system
Epitope
Where is the CDC office located?
Atlanta, GA
Which department is associated with chiropractic licensure?
Department of Health (DOH)
______ treated polio virus with formaldehyde to kill the virus
______ used live & attenuated virus for his vaccine
Salk; Sabin
Match these food-borne disease with their description: Staph, botulism, listeria, E. coli, Salmonella
- Undercooked meat/veg/fruit exposed to fecal (2d)
- Custard filled pastry, egg, fish, salad (2-4 hours)
- Unpastuerized milk products, hot dogs (2 weeks)
- Home canned products/honey (18-26 hours)
- Poultry, meat, eggs (12-48 hours)
- E. Coli
- Staph
- Listeria
- Botulism
- Salmonella
Match these food borne diseases with their definitions: Shigella, Cholera, Francisella tularensis, mycobacterium bovis
- Seafood & water (1-5 days)
- Foods & water (1-2 days)
- Raw milk, can get TB (months to years)
- Undercooked meat (a few hours to 3 weeks)
- Cholera
- Shigella
- Mycobacterium bovis
- Francisella tularensis
Which food borne disease is associated with 0157:H7?
E. Coli
H5N1, bird flu, flu-like symptoms
Avian influenza
Rheumatic Fever Jones Criteria
“SPECS”
-Syndenhams Chorea, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Carditis, Subcutaneous nodules
Which gram + disease is associated with a gray pseudomembrane?
Corynebacterium diptheria
Which disease is second only to HIV?
Community associated MRSA
Step. Agalactiae (group B) is associated with:
Babies
Trismus is also known as
Lock jaw
Gram + bacteria usually end in:
“Us” and “Um (Except for haemophilus)
Cestodes are also known as:
Tapeworms
The tapeworm head is called _______; Body is called _______
Scolex; Proglottids
Match these tapeworms with their organism name: Dwarf, beef, pork, fish, dog
- Taenia solium
- Taenia saginata
- Echinococcus granulosis
- Hymenolepsis nana
- Diphyllobothrium latum
- Pork
- Beef
- Dog
- Dwarf
- Fish
Which type of cestode can cause megaloblastic anemia
Fish
Name the two types of Trematodes (flukes)
Schisosoma japonicum (blood) & Paragoniimus Westermani (Pulmonary/Lung)
Match these types of round worms with their organism name: Filariasis, Hookworm, pinworm, trichinosis, whipworm
- Wuchereria bancrofti
- Enterobius vermicularis
- Necator americanus
- Trichuris trichura
- Trichenella spiralis
- Filariasis
- Pinworm
- Hookworm
- Whipworm
- Trichinosis
What is the vector os the river eye worm & river blindness roundworm?
Flies
Which roundworm can lead to Elephantitis & lymphatic blockage?
Filariasis
Which roundworm lives in striated muscles?
Trichinosis (Trichinella spiralis)
Tinea Uguium
Ringworm of the nail
Subunit of a protein coat
Capsomere
Trilaminar lipid membrane surrounding capsid
Viral envelope
Transmission of polio
Oral/fecal
Route of transmission for arbovirus
Mosquitoes
Which arbovirus develop breakbone fever or bone crusher disease
Dengue fever
