Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Part 1 Boards > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

___________ can be due to a congenital megacolon

A

Hirchsprung’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brutons Agammaglobulinnemia leads to decreased ___________ and _________

A

B-Cells; IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blurred vision/headache are symptoms of _________

A

Temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___________ lacks enzyme (glucose-6-phosphotase) in liver

A

Von Gierke’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ghon lesions are associate with _________

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_________ is RA with black lung

A

Caplan’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

________ patients are more likely to have Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Diabetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_________ includes laceration of the esophagus and is alcohol-related

A

Mallory-Weiss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Barrett’s Esophagus is caused by :

A

GERD (Acid Reflux)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Myasthenia Gravis forms antibodies that block ________ receptors

A

Ach (Acetylcholine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A vitamin B12 deficiency affects which structure?

A

Spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tetraology of Fallot: Components

A

“DRIP”
-Dextrorotation of aorta
-Right ventricular hypertrophy
-Interventricular septal defect
-Pulmonic Stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The breakdown of uric acid forms _______

A

Urates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Benign bone tumor of hand, foot, tubular bone

A

Endochondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which disorder is associated with large calves in Males (X-Lined)?

A

Duchene’s Muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which disorder is associated with decreased osteoclast activity?

A

Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which disorder is associated with a worm infestation?

A

Filariasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which disease is caused by autoimmune gastritis and decreased intrinsic factor

A

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which disease causes cavitation within the spinal cord

A

Syringomelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Older patients don’t get migraines

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disease associated with a deficiency in complement

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Disease associated with excessive thirst

A

Diabetes inspidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients

A

Pneumocytis cormii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Myxedema is associate with ______

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alcaptonuria deposits are most prominent in ______

A

Joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

______________ is commonly seen in Atherosclerosis where calcium is found in damaged tissue.

A

Dystrophic Calcifcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Casious necrosis of the lungs is associated with _____________.

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which type of necrosis is seen in a patient with Tuberculosis?

A

Caseous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Liquifaction degeneration occurs in which area of the body?

A. Brain
B. Spinal Cord
C. Skin
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of degeneration occurs if the patient has athersclerosis?

A

Dystrophic calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Match the following:

Metaplasia Squamous cell carcinoma

Dysplaisa Psuedostratified ciliated colunar (PCCE)

Anaplasia Stratified Squamous

A

Metaplasia —> PCCE

Dysplasia —> Stratified Squamous

Anaplasia —> Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dysplasia is caused by which of the following?

A. Complete disorganization
B. Increase in cell disorganization
C. Increase in number of cells
D. Changing from one type of cell to another

A

B. Increase in cell cell disorganization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is a tumor graded at the biopsy?

A

Degree of anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which type of collagen requires vitamin C?

A.Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

C. Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which Syndrome is a congenital defect in collagen synthesis?

A

Ehler’s Danlos Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A patient visited the southwest desert of Arizona and returned sick. What condition should be considered?

A

Coccidiomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An accumulation of carbon found in the lungs, often associated with coal miners is?

A. Asbestosis
B. Blastomysosis
C. Anthracosis
D. Rhumatoid Arthritis

A

C. Anthracosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If a patient has Rhumatoid Arthritis and presents with anthracosis, what condition do they have?

A

Caplan’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would a patient be presented with if a patient is suffering from mesothelioma?

A. Anthracosis
B. Asbetstosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Siderosis

A

B. Asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following Pneumoconiosis is found in the soil on the eastern seaboard?

A. Coccidiomycosis
B. Histoplamosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Siderosis

A

C. Blastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Farmers who have an accumulation of cotton particles in their lungs would suffer from what pneumoconiosis?

A. Asbestosis
B. Byssinosis
C. HIstoplasmosis
D. Silicosis

A

B. Byssynosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A side of Iron and Silly Sand refers to what?

A

Siderosis = Iron

Silicosis = Sand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the three geographic oriented Pneumoconisosis?

A

Coccidiomycosis = Southwest deserts (Arizona)
Histoplasmoisis = Mississippi or Ohio Valley
Blastomycosis = Eastern Seaboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Asthma is associated with which type of hypersensity reaction?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

A

A. Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The presence of Curschmann’s sprials and charcot leyden crystals is an indication of which of the following?

A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Emphysema
D. Asthma

A

D. Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What disease is associated with an alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary Fibrosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema

A

D. Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A patient presenting with a barrel chest deformity would suffer from __________?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the medical term for Kidney Stones?

A

Nephrolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Nephrotic syndrome typically presents with which of the following?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Massive protien urea
C. Nephroblastoma
D. Radiating back pain

A

B. Massive protien urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which is not associated with Nephrotic Syndrome?

A. Hypertension
B. Edema
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Massive protien urea

A

C. Calcium oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What renal disease is genetic?

A

Polycyctic Kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of cushing’s disease?

A. Moon face
B. Buffalo Hump
C. Purple Striae
D. Decreased cortisol

A

D. Decreased cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A Pheochromacytoma is found in the _____________.

A

Adrenal Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What hormone suppresses the immune system?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hypotension is commonly found in what condition?

A

Addison’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What adrenal disease is a disorder of the thyroid gland causing an increase in metabolism?

A. Grave’s disease
B. Conn’s diesease
C. Myxedema
D. Hashimoto

A

A. Grave’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is considered the “stress hormone” that suppresses one’s immune system?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The most common cause of cervical cancer is ________________.

A

Human papilloma virus (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A benign tumor of smooth muscle more common in females is ______________.

A

Leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following is associated with anovulation, obesity, and hirsutism?

A. PCOS
B. Leiomyoma
C. Seminoma
D. Endometriosis

A

A. PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the organism that causes syphilis?

A

Treponema palladium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following is a gram (-) diplococci?

A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomonas
D. hemochromatosis

A

B. Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Diabetes Insipidus causes ___________ ADH and ______________.

A

Decreased, dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Peripheral neuropathy in the lower extremeties is an indication of ________________.

A

Diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which lung conditioin is associated with clubbing of the fingers?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What metabolic disorder is associated with copper and the build up of Kayser Fleisher rings?

A

Wilson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What metabolic disorders is caused by protien malnutrition?

A

Kwashiorkor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What GI disorder is assocated with gluten intolerance, decreased villi, and malabsorption?

A

Celiac Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What disease will destroy the villi due to the consumption of gluten?

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The most common cause of projectile vommiting in a new born is ______________.

A

Pyloric stenosis

71
Q

Which GI disorder is caused by the absence of the myenteric plexus?

A

Hirschsprung’s

72
Q

A 24 year old female complains about left sided abdominal pain and lead pipe regidity. What would be the best diagnnosis?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

73
Q

What GI disorder causes a laceration of the esophagus?

A

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

74
Q

What GI disorder results in no paralstalsis in the intestines?

A

Hirschsprung’s

75
Q

Hematamesis is associated with what GI condition?

A

Mallory -Weiss Syndrome

76
Q

Telescoping of the intestine onto itself is referred to as ____________

A

Intussusception

77
Q

Which disease causes the cerebllum to drop below the foramen magnum?

A

Arnold Chiari

78
Q

What is decreased with individuals suffering from alzheimers?

A

Acetylcholine

79
Q

What brain tumer is the most common cerebellum tumor found in children?

A

Medulloblastoma

80
Q

What causes degeneration of motor neurons throughout the spine and effects the anterior horn and corticospinal tracts?

A

ALS (Amyotrophic lateral Sclerosis)

81
Q

What disease causes peripheral demyelination with ascending paralysis and is most commonly found after a flue vaccine?

A

Guillain-Barre

82
Q

PAM is horny…

A

Ptosis, Anhydrosis, Mitosis = Horner’s syndrome

83
Q

Patient presents with stiff neck, headache, and photophobia, what do they have?

A

Meningitis

84
Q

This autoimmune disease forms antibodies that block acetylcholine receptors and first presents in the eye.

A

Myasthenia Gravis

85
Q

A 34 year old female complains about a weird sensation in her hands that comes and goes. She woke up three weeks ago with blindness in one eye that went away within 2 weeks. A valuation indicates central demyelination. What condition is described?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

86
Q

After a bout of the flu, a patient is experiencing ascending paralysis beginning in the lower extremeties. What condition is this?

A

Guillian-Barre

87
Q

What is decreased in an individual with parkinson’s disease? (3)

A

Acetylcholine
Dopamine
GABA

88
Q

Which condition produces a cyst in the spinal cord?

A

Syringomyelia

89
Q

A deficiency of vitamin B1 from an exessive consumption of alcohol is termed what?

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff

90
Q

Decreased dopamine and a shuffling gait are characteristically seen in which condition?

A

Paralysis agitans (Parkinson’s)

91
Q

Which disease present with a cape-like distribution of sympoms bilaterally accross the shoulders?

A

Syringomyelia

92
Q

The movement of WBC along a concentration gradient is termed ______________?

A

Chemotaxis

93
Q

Fluid that has a low protein content is termed _________?

A

Transudate

94
Q

What is responsible for a fatty embolus?

A

Fracture of a long bone

95
Q

Which of the following are granulocytes?

A. Basophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

96
Q

What makes the thymus a gland for immunity?

A

Where T-Lymphocytes mature

97
Q

Which WBC increases in parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophils

98
Q

Which cells make antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

99
Q

Which WBC’s produce histomine?

A

Basophils

100
Q

What WBC is also a macrophage?

A

Monocyte

101
Q

Which of the WBC’s is elevated in an acute infection?

A

Neutrophils

102
Q

Which of the following causes strong vasodialation during inflammation?

A. Bradykinin
B. Leuikotrienes
C. Prostaglandins
D. Substance P

A

A. Bradykinin

103
Q

What primary immunodificiency disease is X-linked?

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

104
Q

Which causes a deficiency in T-Cells and affects the thymus?

A

DiGeorge’s

105
Q

Which dieses is x-linked and associated with decreased B-Cells?

A

Bruton’s Ag.

106
Q

Which pathology is associated with an immature thymus?

A

DiGeorge’s

107
Q

Severe combined immune deficiency disease is due to a loss of ____________?

A. B cells
B. T cells
C. B & T cells

A

C. B & T cells

108
Q

A lack of or loss of red blood cells is called what?

A

Anemia

109
Q

Loss of blood where the mother is Rh- and the father and baby are Rh+

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

110
Q

Which nutritional anemia is associated with decreased intrinisic factor?

A

Pernicious anemia

111
Q

A decrease in intrinsic factor producing gastritis can result in ______________?

A

Perniticious Anemia

112
Q

What is deposition of a fatty plaque?

A

Atherosclerosis

113
Q

What is the initial location of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Deep vein in the lower leg

114
Q

Coarctation of the aorta produces results in which of the following? (Select two)

A. Hypotension in the lower extremities
B. Hypotension in the upper extremities
C. Hypertenision in the upper extremities
D. Hypertension in the lower extremities

A

A. Hypotension in the lower extremeties
C. Hypertension in the upper extremities

115
Q

Deposition of a fatty plaque and decreased compliance of arteries is an indication of _______________?

A

Atherosclerosis

116
Q

Which of these causes subarachnoid hemorrhage within the cericle of willis?

A. Dissecting aneurysm
B. Berry anneurysm
C. Beurger’s
D. Thromboagitis obliterans

A

B. Berry anneurysm

117
Q

Another name for Temporal Arteritis?

A

Giant cell arteritis

118
Q

Which of the following is not a finding of the tetralogy of fallot?

A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Dextroposition of Aorta
C. Pulmonary Regurge
D. Pulmonic stenosis

A

C. Pulmonary Regurge

119
Q

What organism is responsible for rheumatic fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

120
Q

What condition is most apt to occur in a female smoker?

A

Raynaud’s

121
Q

Which of the following is the most common leukemia in children?

A. Acute myelobalstic leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic myeloctytic leukemia

A

B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

122
Q

The most common form of achondroplasia is ______________?

A

Dwarfism

123
Q

Alkaptonuria deposits are first seen in the ____________?

A

Urine

124
Q

What is the most common pseudohypertrophy found in young males?

A

Duchene’s muscular dystrophy

125
Q

Which of the following conditions is more common in males?

A. Duchene’s
B. Lupis
C. Myesthenia gravis

A

A. Duchene’s

126
Q

Marfan’s destroys which valve?

A

Mitral valve

127
Q

Reduced osteoclast activity is a result of _____________?

A

Osteopetrosis

128
Q

What disease is associated with arachnodactyly and tall stature?

A

Marfans

129
Q

What disease is known to present with blue sclera?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

130
Q

What connective tissue disorder is strongly associated with mitral valve prolapse?

A

Marfans

131
Q

The failure for enzymes to breakdown glucose 6 phosphotase in the liver is due to _____________ disease?

A

Von Gierke’s

132
Q

Which sex linked diseases is only present in males?

A

Kleinfelder’s

133
Q

Which sex-linked disease is associated with a short stature and amenorrhea?

A

Turners

134
Q

Which of the following is most commonly seen in a patient with Kleinfelder’s syndrome?

A. Webbed neck
B. Testicular atrophy
C. Lacking height
D. High IQ

A

B. Testicular atrophy

135
Q

An adenoma is a tumor of what type of tissue?

A

Glandular

136
Q

What is the most common form of cancer in bone?

A

Metastasis

137
Q

Which of the following causes parallasys between metatarsal heads?

A

Morton’s Neuroma

138
Q

Which of the following is associated with Reed Sternberg Cells?

A. Leukoplakia
B. Krukenberg’s
C. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
D. Squamous cell tumor

A

C. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

139
Q

What condition is a benign tumor of skeletal muscle?

A

Rhabdomyoma

140
Q

Which of the following tumors is derived from three germinal layers?

A. Myxoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Teratoma
D. Rhabdomyoma

A

C. Teratoma

141
Q

Which of the following is a benign tumor found in the heart?

A. Brown’s
B. Sarcoma
C. Teratoma
D. Rhabdomyoma

A

D. Rhabdomyoma

142
Q

Which of the following bone tumors is located in the epiphysis?

A. Unicameral
B. Chondroblastoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)

A

B. Chondroblastoma

143
Q

The most common benign bone tumor of the hand is ____________?

A

Enchondroma

144
Q

The most common benign tumor of the spine with a coordoray cloth appearance is ____________?

A

Hernangioma

145
Q

The most common location for an osteochondroma is _______________?

A

Pelvis

146
Q

Which term is generally used to describe a hemangioma in the spine?

A

Coordoroy cloth appearance

147
Q

Which of the following pathologies cause an ivory white vertebra?

A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Blastic Metastasis
C. Padgets disease
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

148
Q

What is the most common site of metastisis from prostate cancer?

A

the spine

149
Q

Which of the following is associated with Rhumatoid arthritis?

A. Mouse ear deformity
B. Swan neck deformity
C. Photosensitiviey
D. Iritis

A

B. Swan Neck deformity

150
Q

What condition presents with dry eyes, dry mouth, and Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Sjogren’s

151
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of Rheumatoide arthritis?

A. Haygarth’s nodes
B. Boutonniere deformity
C. Lanois deformity
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

152
Q

What condition is most common in females and presents with a butterfly rash?

A

Lupus Erthematosus

153
Q

A 20 year old female present with a skin rash that intensifies when exposed to the sun, this finding indicates _____________.

A

lupus erthematosus

154
Q

Which of the following organs of the GI Tract is most effected by systemic sclerosis?

A. Liver
B. Esophogus
C. Spleen
D. Stomach

A

B. Esophogus

(Systemic sclerosis = Scleroderma)

155
Q

Which of the following is not associated with ankelyosing spondylitis?

A. SI joint ossification
B. Spinal fusion
C. Purulent absess
D. Ghost Sign

A

C Purulent absess

156
Q

Which of the following is a seronegative condition commonly associated with psoriasis?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

157
Q

Which of the following is not a condition of reactive arthritis?

A. Urethritis
B. Conjuctivitis
C. Arthritis
D. Pitted nails

A

D. Pitted nails

158
Q

What arthritic condition is caused by chlaymydia?

A

Reactive Arthritis

159
Q

What is referred to as degenerative disc disease?

A

Osteoarthritis

160
Q

Which of the following are charateristics of osteoarthritis?

A. Unilateral distribusion
B. Heberden’s Noded (DIP)
C. Bouchard’s nodes (PIP)
D. Overuse/Trauma
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

161
Q

Excess of which of the following causes gout?

A. Urates
B. Rat bite erosions
C. Dislocation
D. Destruction of Bone

A

A. Urates

162
Q

What is a lesion traditionally found in a patient with Gouty arthritis?

A

Tophi Crystals

163
Q

What has high quantities in a person with gout?

A

Uric acid

164
Q

A Bone infection is called what?

A

Osteomyelitis

165
Q

A 13 year old boy presents with rounding of the shoulders, increased kyphosis, and complains of pain in back. What condition is this?

A

Scheuermann’s disease

166
Q

Tibial apophysitis is a condition commonly known as _____________?

A

Osgood Schlatter’s

167
Q

Central vascular disorder that includes emphysema

A

Cor Pulomnale

168
Q

Which valves are affected with Rheumatic Fever?

A

Mitral & Aortic Valves (Usually Mitral First)

169
Q

Type of anemia in which the circulating RBCs are smaller than the usual size of RBCs and have decreased red color

A

Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia

170
Q

What test is used to find a chronic hemorrhage/bleeding?

A

Guiac Test

171
Q

Macrocytic normochromic anemia can be due to deficiencies in what vitamins?

A

B9 and B12

172
Q

What type of angina occurs at rest as a coronary artery spasm

A

Prinzmetal

173
Q

If Osteomyelitis is chronic, what is it called?

A

Brodie’s abscess

174
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

Part 1 Boards (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions