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PEARLS PEARLS PEARLS 📌📌 > Physio > Flashcards

Physio Flashcards

0
Q

Powerhouse of the cell

A

Mitochondria

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1
Q

Contains DNA, histones & chromosomes

Has nucleolus

A

NUCLEUS

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2
Q

Involve in detoxification,lipid synthesis, lipid-soluble substances —> water-soluble substances

A

SER or Agranular

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3
Q

For synthesis of proteins bound for the cell membrane, lysosomes, outside of the cell

A

RER

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4
Q

For synthesis of proteins bound for the cytoplasm and mitochondria

A

Free-floating ribosomes

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5
Q

For packaging, molecular tagging and synthesis of hyaluronic acid & chondroitin sulfate

A

Golgi Apparatus

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6
Q

Replenishes the cell membrane

May contain proenzymes, NTs

A

Secretory vesicles

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7
Q

For regression of tissues and AUTOLYSIS

suicide bags of the cells

Destroys FBs

A

Lysosomes

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8
Q

Degrades membrane-associated proteins

Not membrane bound

A

Proteosome

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9
Q

Contains oxidases, catalases

For detoxification

A

Peroxisome

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10
Q

SER & RER is abundant

A

Liver

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11
Q

Specialized SER in the skeletal muscles

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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12
Q

Specialized RER in the neuron

A

Nissl substance

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13
Q

Only substance modified in the RER, not in Golgi

A

Collagen

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14
Q

Found in lysosome-bound proteins

A

Mannose 6-phosphate

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15
Q

Lipofuscin accumulates in this organelle

A

Lysosomes

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16
Q

Lysosomes &

Peroxisome origins

A

Golgi apparatus

SER

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17
Q

Motor protein causing transport from the cell body to the neural fibril

A

Kinesin

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18
Q

“Whip-like” movement on the cell surface found in the respiratory airways and Fallopian tubes

A

Ciliary movement

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19
Q

What is the common component of the protoplasm

A

Water

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20
Q

What is the common component of the cell membrane

A

Protein

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21
Q

The cell membrane is permeable to NON-POLAR molecules

A

True

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22
Q

Disk-shaped

For firm intercellular adhesion (eg epithelium)

A

Macula adherens

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23
Q 
For communication (eg cardiac and smooth muscle cells)
Unitary smooth muscle
A

Gap junctions

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24
Q

Ring-shaped

Increases surface area contact

A

Zonula adherens

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25
Q

Reticular

Either “tight” (BBB, CD, terminal colon) or “leaky” (PCT, jejunum); divides cell into apical and basolateral borders

A

Zonula occludens

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26
Q

Functional unit of a gap junction

A

Connexon

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27
Q

Movement of substances in both apical side and basolateral side

A

Transcellular transport

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28
Q

Movement of substances through tight junctions

A

Paracellular transport

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29
Q

Clathrin

SNARE proteins

A

Endocytosis

Exocytosis

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30
Q

What’s the most common compound on your body?

A

Water

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31
Q

What’s the most common protein in your body?

A

Collagen

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32
Q

What’s the most common amino acid in your body?

A

Glycine

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33
Q

Which of the following has a reflection coefficient closer to one?

A

Albumin

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34
Q

Passive, downhill, non-carrier-mediated

Gases, alcohol, steroid hormones

A

Simple diffusion

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35
Q

Passive, downhill, carrier-mediated

Glut-1,2,3,4,5

A

Facilitated diffusion

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36
Q

Active, uphill, carrier-mediated, uses ATP

Na-K-ATPase pump, proton pump

A

Primary active transport

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37
Q

Active, uphill, carrier-mediated, uses Na gradient

SGLT-1, SGLT-2, Na-K-2Cl

A

Secondary active transport

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38
Q

Example of IMPERMEANT solute

A

Glucose

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39
Q

Example of PERMEANT solute

A

UREA

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40
Q

Effective osmole used in the treatment of brain edema

A

Mannitol

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41
Q

Osmotic pressure from large molecules (protein)

A

Oncotic pressure

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42
Q

Weight of the volume of a solution divided by weight of equal volume of distilled (pure) water

A

Specific gravity

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43
Q

Stereospecificity, Saturation and Competition are hallmarks of carrier- or non-carrier mediated transport?

A

Carrier-Mediated Transport

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44
Q

Ca-ATPase pump in the cell membrane: PMCA Ca-ATPase in the SR & ER: SERCA. TRUE OR FALSE?

A

True

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45
Q

Osmoles per Liter of Water: osmolaRITY or osmolaLITY?

A

osmolaRITY

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46
Q

Normal osmolarity of both ECF & ICF (including CSF)?

A

300 mOsm/L

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47
Q

A RBC has an osmolarity of 300 mOsm/L. What will happen to the RBC if it’s places in a solution of:

  1. 300 mOsm/L Sucrose
  2. 300 mOsm/L Urea
A

No change swell

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48
Q

Activates G-proteins: Guanine Nucleotide Exchange (GEFs), GTPase-accelerating proteins (GAPS), regulation of protein signaling (RGS protein)

A

GEFs

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49
Q

EEG wave: relaxed

A

Alpha wave

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50
Q

EEG wave: alert ; REM sleep

A

Beta wave

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51
Q

EEG wave: deep sleep

A

Delta wave

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52
Q

Substance suspected to induce sleep

A

Muramyl peptide

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53
Q

Percentage of REM sleep in newborns

A

50%

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54
Q

Master clock

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

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55
Q

Regulates master clock

A

Pineal gland

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56
Q

Detects movement of objects name low-frequency vibration; found in glabrous skin

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

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57
Q

For continuous touch; grouped into Iggo Dome Receptors

A

Merkel’s disks

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58
Q

Detects movement of objects in skin

A

Hair-end organ

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59
Q

For pressure; for heavy and prolonged touch; found in deep skin, internal tissues and joint capsules

A

Ruffini’s end organ

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60
Q

For high-frequency vibration; onion-like in structure

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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61
Q

Retinal glial cells that maintain internal geometry

A

Mueller cells

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62
Q

Retinal output cells whose axons from the optic nerve

A

Ganglion cells

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63
Q

Interneurons that connect rods & cones;

Contrast detectors

A

Bipolar cells

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64
Q

Absorbs stray light and prevent them from scattering

Site of macular degeneration & retinal detachment

A

Pigment epithelium

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65
Q

The first and most powerful structure of the optical system

A

Cornea

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66
Q

Center of our central vision

A

Fovea

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67
Q

Enable the lens to change its shape

A

Zonula

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68
Q

Middle vascular layer of the eye

A

Uvea

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69
Q

Film of the eye

A

Retina

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70
Q

Area of the eyes with no sensory cells

A

Optic disk

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71
Q

First part of brain to receive visual input

A

Optic chiasm

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72
Q

Relay station of the virtual cortex

A

Lateral geniculate body

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73
Q

Keep images focused in the retina

A

Lens

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74
Q

Layer of blood vessel that supplies blood to the retina

A

Choroid

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75
Q

Where aqueous humor is produced

A

Ciliary body

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76
Q

In glaucoma, these structures are blocked

A

Canal of SCHLEMM

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77
Q

Voluntary

Most number of SR

No surface calcium channels

A

Skeletal muscle

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78
Q

Contains gap junctions

Contains surface Ca-ATPase and Na-Ca exchanger

A

Cardiac muscle

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79
Q

Uses MLCK, Calmodulim, Caldesmon

Contains surface Ca-ATPase and Na-Ca exchanger

No Sarcomeres, striations, troponin

Myosin-based regulation

Contains dense bodies, caveoli, rudimentary SR

A

Smooth muscle

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80
Q

Peak or tall T waves

A

Hyperkalemia

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81
Q

Prolonged QT interval

A

Hypocalcemia

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82
Q

Prolonged PR interval

A

Heart blocks

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83
Q

ST segment elevation

A

Q wave MI or STEMI

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84
Q

An increase venous return will increase the HEART RATE

A

Bainbridge reflex

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85
Q

An increase in venous return will increase the STROKE VOLUME

A

Frank-Starling mechanism

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86
Q

AV block that cause fainting in patients due to the initially suppressed state of the Purkinje fibers

A

Strokes-Adams Syndrome

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87
Q

Powerful systemic vasoconstriction that starts at a BP<60 and optimal at BP=15

A

CNS Ischemic Response

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88
Q

Hypertension

Irregular respiration and bradycardia due to activation of the CNS ischemic response and baroreceptor reflex

A

Cushion reaction/reflex

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89
Q

Atrial contraction (distal 3rd of diastole)

Contraction of ventricles (isovolumic contraction)

Venous blood going to the atrium (isovolumic relaxation)

A

A wave, C wave, V wave

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90
Q

Caused by attempted backflow of blood during isovolumic relaxation

A

Incisura/Dicrotic notch

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91
Q

Increased ventricular pressure but same ventricular volume

A

Isovolumic contraction

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92
Q

Decreases ventricular pressure but same ventricular volume

A

Isovolumic relaxation

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93
Q

Closure of AV valves

A

S1

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94
Q

Closure of semilunar valves

A

S2

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95
Q

Rapid ventricular filling (flow of blood from atrium to ventricles)

A

S3

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96
Q

Atrial contraction/atrial systole

A

S4

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97
Q

Control conduits

May rapidly dilate and constrict

A1-vasoconstricts

B2-vasodilates

A

Arterioles

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98
Q

Stressed volume

Highest pressure

A

Arteries

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99
Q

Large cross-sectional area

Endothelial cells only

A

Capillaries

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100
Q

Capacitance vessels, 64% of blood found here! with one-way valves

A

Veins

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101
Q

Drains proteins and fluids from the interstitium, carries chylomicrons and involved in immunity and cancer

A

Lymphatic vessels

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102
Q

Forced exerted by blood against the blood vessel wall

A

Blood pressure

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103
Q

Amount of blood pumped by the heart per unit of time

A

Cardiac output

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104
Q

Amount of blood pumped per heart beat

A

Systolic volume

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105
Q

Pressure at the level of arteries and arterioles that opposes blood coming out of the heart

A

TPR/SVR

Total peripheral resistance/systemic vascular resistance

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106
Q

Number of heartbeats per minute

A

Heart rate

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107
Q

Amount of blood in the ventricle immediately before systole

A

End diastolic volume

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108
Q

Amount of blood in the ventricle immediately before diastole

A

End systolic volume

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109
Q

Ventricular contraction

A

Systole

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110
Q

Ventricular relaxation

A

Diastole

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111
Q

Low volume end diastolic volume

A

Preload

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112
Q

Aortic pressure

A

Afterload

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113
Q

Systole-Diastole

A

Pulse pressure

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114
Q

Right atrial pressure = 0mmHg

A

CVP

Central venous pressure

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115
Q

2/3 diastole + 1/3 systole

A

MAP

Mean arterial pressure

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116
Q

Used to estimate L arterial pressure

A

PCWP

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

117
Q

Changes in HR

A

Chronotrope

118
Q

Changes in cardiac contractility

A

Into rope

119
Q

Changes in conduction velocity

A

Dromotrope

120
Q

Changes in rate of relaxation

A

Lusitrope

121
Q

Workhouse of the nephron

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

122
Q

Impermeable to water

A

Ascending limb

123
Q

Impermeable to solutes

A

Descending limb

124
Q

Site of aldosterone action

A

Distal tubule

125
Q

Site of ADH action

A

Collecting duct

126
Q

Countercurrent multiplier

Creates the gradient

A

Loop of Henle

127
Q

Countercurrent exchanger

Preserves the gradient

A

Vasa recta

128
Q

What are the 3 urinary buffers?

A

NaHCO3
NaHPO4
NH4

129
Q

Insulin, aldosterone, B-adrenergic stimulation, alkalosis

A

Potassium influx

130
Q

Insulin deficiency, Addison’s disease, B-adrenergic blockage, acidosis, cell lysis, strenuous exercise, increase ECF osmolarity

A

Potassium efflux

131
Q

Effect on GFR in afferent vasodilation

A

Increases

132
Q

Effect on GFR in moderate efferent vasoconstriction

A

Increases

133
Q

Effect on GFR in afferent vasoconstriction, efferent vasodilation, severe efferent vasoconstriction

A

Decreases

134
Q

What is the formula for Reynold’s Number?

A

RN= (diameter) (velocity) (density) / (viscosity)

135
Q

What is the significance of a high Reynold’s number?

A

Higher possibility of turbulence

136
Q

What would happen to the Reynold’s number if there is decreased blood viscosity or increased blood velocity?

A

Increase

137
Q

What coronary artery is most susceptible to atherosclerosis?

A

LAD

138
Q

Vif that occurs after blunt trauma to the heart immediately before the peak of the T wave

A

Commotio Cordis

139
Q

What is the effect of endurance training and strength exercises on LV volume and LV wall thickness?

A

Endurance training: increase LV volume alone

Strength exercises: increase LV wall thickness alone

140
Q

Reservoir of blood in the circulatory system

Has greater capacitance/compliance

A

Veins

141
Q

What is the hormone that counteracts the effect of aldosterone and ADH?

A

ANP

Atrial natriuretic peptide

142
Q

The plateau in cardiac action potential is found in what phase?

A

Phase 2

143
Q

Most potent vasoconstrictor

A

ADH

144
Q

Substance involved in vasodilator theory (Metabolic theory)

A

Adenosine

145
Q

Vasoconstrictor, involved in migraine

A

Serotonin

146
Q

Responsible for angiogenesis

A

VEGF

147
Q

Vasoconstrictor; released by damaged endothelium

A

Endothelin

148
Q

Arteriolar dilation, venous constriction

A

Bradykinin, Histamine

149
Q

Counteracts TXA2

A

PGI2

150
Q

What causes phase 2 in cardiac action potential?

What causes depolarization in SA node action potential?

A

Calcium influx

151
Q

Which Na+ channel accounts for SA node automaticity?

A

If channels (slow “funny” Na channels)

152
Q

Fastest conduction velocity

A

Bundle of His

153
Q

Conduction velocity is dependent on

A

Size of inward current

154
Q

What is the normal Ejection fraction?

A

55% (EF=SV/EDV)

155
Q

Local control of blood flow

A

Metabolic hypothesis

156
Q

First two events in hemostasis

A

Vasoconstriction

Formation of platelet plug

157
Q

Last two events in hemostasis

A

Blood coagulation

Resolution

158
Q

Lyses Fibrin

A

Plasmin

159
Q

Vit K dependent clotting factors

A

Factor X, IX, VII, II, Protein C and S

160
Q

Responsible for platelet ADHESION

A

vWF, Gp 1b

161
Q

Responsible for AGGREGATION

A

Fibrinogen, Gp IIb-IIIa

162
Q

Initiates EXTRINSIC pathway

A

Tissue factor (Factor III)

163
Q

Initiates INTRINSIC pathway

A

Hagemann Factor (Factor XII)

164
Q

Which substance is released due to shear stress on endothelial cells and dilates upstream blood vessels?

A

EDRF/NO

Endothelium-derived relaxing factor/ nitric oxide

165
Q

Which prostaglandins act as vasoconstrictors?

A

PGF, TXA2/PGA2

166
Q

Which prostaglandins act as vasodilators?

A

PGE, PGI

167
Q

4 causes of high-output cardiac failure

A

Beri-beri
AV fistula
Hyperthyroidism
Anemia

168
Q

BP from sitting to standing position

TPR during exercise

Venous blood volume during hemorrhage

A

Decrease

169
Q

HR from sitting to standing position

A

Increase

170
Q

Sites of production of RBCs in order

A

Yolk sac/AGM (3rd week)
Liver (3 mos)
Spleen
Bone marrow

171
Q

Substrates for heme synthesis

A

TCA intermediate succinyl CoA and amino acid glycine

172
Q

“Constant load delivered to distal tubule”

A

Tubuloglomerular feedback

173
Q

“Percentage of solute reabsorbed is held constant”

A

Glomerulotubular balance

174
Q

In tubuloglomerular feedback, the substrate that VASOCONSTRICTS afferent arterioles

A

Adenosine

175
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose

A

200mg/dL

176
Q

Which substances do not have transport maximum and renal threshold?

A

Sodium, and all passively transported solutes

Chloride and urea

177
Q

Absorb Na and H2O and secrete K

A

Principal cells

178
Q

Absorb K and secrete H

A

Intercalated cells (interstitial cells)

179
Q

Secrete EPO

A

Peritubular capillaries

180
Q

Detects changes in sodium concentration in the distal tubule

A

Macula Densa

181
Q

Triggers for aldosterone secretion

A

Decreased ECF volume

Hyperkalemia

182
Q

Increases gluconeogenesis, insulin sensitivity, lipolysis, blood amino acids

Also has anti-inflammatory effects and upregulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

A

Cortisol

183
Q

What is the specific site of production of cortisol

Has the largest area of the adrenal cortex

A

Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

184
Q

Chronic high cortisol levels may cause diabetes and HPN

A

True

185
Q

Addison’s disease is due to high levels of aldosterone

A

False

186
Q

21B hydroxylase deficiency causes virilization

A

True

187
Q

Which substance is released due to shear stress on endothelial cells and dilates upstream blood vessels?

A

EDRF/NO

Endothelium-derived relaxing factor/ nitric oxide

188
Q

Which prostaglandins act as vasoconstrictors?

A

PGF, TXA2/PGA2

189
Q

Which prostaglandins act as vasodilators?

A

PGE, PGI

190
Q

4 causes of high-output cardiac failure

A

Beri-beri
AV fistula
Hyperthyroidism
Anemia

191
Q

BP from sitting to standing position

TPR during exercise

Venous blood volume during hemorrhage

A

Decrease

192
Q

HR from sitting to standing position

A

Increase

193
Q

Sites of production of RBCs in order

A

Yolk sac/AGM (3rd week)
Liver (3 mos)
Spleen
Bone marrow

194
Q

Substrates for heme synthesis

A

TCA intermediate succinyl CoA and amino acid glycine

195
Q

“Constant load delivered to distal tubule”

A

Tubuloglomerular feedback

196
Q

“Percentage of solute reabsorbed is held constant”

A

Glomerulotubular balance

197
Q

In tubuloglomerular feedback, the substrate that VASOCONSTRICTS afferent arterioles

A

Adenosine

198
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose

A

200mg/dL

199
Q

Which substances do not have transport maximum and renal threshold?

A

Sodium, and all passively transported solutes

Chloride and urea

200
Q

Absorb Na and H2O and secrete K

A

Principal cells

201
Q

Absorb K and secrete H

A

Intercalated cells (interstitial cells)

202
Q

Secrete EPO

A

Peritubular capillaries

203
Q

Detects changes in sodium concentration in the distal tubule

A

Macula Densa

204
Q

Triggers for aldosterone secretion

A

Decreased ECF volume

Hyperkalemia

205
Q

Increases gluconeogenesis, insulin sensitivity, lipolysis, blood amino acids

Also has anti-inflammatory effects and upregulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

A

Cortisol

206
Q

What is the specific site of production of cortisol

Has the largest area of the adrenal cortex

A

Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

207
Q

Chronic high cortisol levels may cause diabetes and HPN

A

True

208
Q

Addison’s disease is due to high levels of aldosterone

A

False

209
Q

21B hydroxylase deficiency causes virilization

A

True

210
Q

Which substance is released due to shear stress on endothelial cells and dilates upstream blood vessels?

A

EDRF/NO

Endothelium-derived relaxing factor/ nitric oxide

211
Q

Which prostaglandins act as vasoconstrictors?

A

PGF, TXA2/PGA2

212
Q

Which prostaglandins act as vasodilators?

A

PGE, PGI

213
Q

4 causes of high-output cardiac failure

A

Beri-beri
AV fistula
Hyperthyroidism
Anemia

214
Q

BP from sitting to standing position

TPR during exercise

Venous blood volume during hemorrhage

A

Decrease

215
Q

HR from sitting to standing position

A

Increase

216
Q

Sites of production of RBCs in order

A

Yolk sac/AGM (3rd week)
Liver (3 mos)
Spleen
Bone marrow

217
Q

Substrates for heme synthesis

A

TCA intermediate succinyl CoA and amino acid glycine

218
Q

“Constant load delivered to distal tubule”

A

Tubuloglomerular feedback

219
Q

“Percentage of solute reabsorbed is held constant”

A

Glomerulotubular balance

220
Q

In tubuloglomerular feedback, the substrate that VASOCONSTRICTS afferent arterioles

A

Adenosine

221
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose

A

200mg/dL

222
Q

Which substances do not have transport maximum and renal threshold?

A

Sodium, and all passively transported solutes

Chloride and urea

223
Q

Absorb Na and H2O and secrete K

A

Principal cells

224
Q

Absorb K and secrete H

A

Intercalated cells (interstitial cells)

225
Q

Secrete EPO

A

Peritubular capillaries

226
Q

Detects changes in sodium concentration in the distal tubule

A

Macula Densa

227
Q

Triggers for aldosterone secretion

A

Decreased ECF volume

Hyperkalemia

228
Q

Increases gluconeogenesis, insulin sensitivity, lipolysis, blood amino acids

Also has anti-inflammatory effects and upregulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

A

Cortisol

229
Q

What is the specific site of production of cortisol

Has the largest area of the adrenal cortex

A

Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

230
Q

Chronic high cortisol levels may cause diabetes and HPN

A

True

231
Q

Addison’s disease is due to high levels of aldosterone

A

False

232
Q

21B hydroxylase deficiency causes virilization

A

True

233
Q

Which hormone is responsible for milk production

A

Prolactin

234
Q

Which hormone is responsible for milk secretion

A

Oxytocin

235
Q

Where is ADH synthesized, stored and secreted?

A

Synthesized in hypothalamus, stored and secreted in posterior pituitary

236
Q

Where will you find your thyroglobulin?

A

Thyroid gland

237
Q

Thyroid hormone predominant in the plasma

A

T4

238
Q

93% TH

Half-life: more (6 days)

More affinity for binding plasma protein

Less to bind to nuclear receptor (10%)

4x slower (2 days)

A

T4

239
Q

7% TH

Half-life: less (1 day)

Less affinity for binding plasma protein

More binding to nuclear receptor (90%)

4x faster (12hours)

A

T3

240
Q

Skin ulcer, depressed immune response and hypo gonadal dwarfism

A

Zinc deficiency

241
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder causing zinc deficiency leading to with dermatitis, diarrhea, alopecia

A

Acrodermatitis Enteropathica

242
Q

Proximal half of the colon

A

Absorption

243
Q

Location of the chemoreceptors trigger zone

A

Area postrema

244
Q

Slow waves are generated by what type of pacemaker cells

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

245
Q

Enzyme converts pancreatic trypsinogen to trypsin

A

Enterokinase

246
Q

Part of liver stores vitamins

A

Ito cells

247
Q

Functional unit of the liver

A

Liver acinus model

248
Q

4 basic layers of the GI tract

A

Mucosa

Submucosa

Muscularis

Serosa

249
Q

Layer NOT seen in the esophagus

A

Serosa

250
Q

Stronger layer of the esophagus

A

Submucosa

251
Q

3 layers of the stomach

A

Inner oblique

Middle circular

Outer longitudinal

252
Q

Contraction of inner circular, outer longitudinal muscle layer

A

Auerbach’s plexus

253
Q

Contraction of muscularis mucosa

A

Meissner’s plexus

254
Q

Absent in Hirchsprung’s disease

A

Both Auerbach’s and Meissner’s plexus

255
Q

Most common symptom of decompression sickness

A

“Bends”

256
Q

First symptom at 120 feet below sea level

A

Joviality

257
Q

Effect of weightlessness on the bones

A

Loss of calcium and phosphate

258
Q

Maximum positive at force before you lose consciousness

A

+6G

259
Q

5 mechanisms for acclimatization too low PO2

A

Inc RR, polycythemia, inc diffusing capacity of O2, inc vascularity, inc ability of cell to use O2

260
Q

Naturally acclimatized people have _ hearts, _ chest, _ body mass

A

Larger, larger, smaller

261
Q

Promotes front of fetus, maternal insulin resistance, maternal lipolysis and is an index of placental well being

A

Human Chorionic Somatomammotropin (HCS)

262
Q

What is the strength per square centimeter of x-sec area for both men and women?

A

3-4 kg/cm2

263
Q

During exercise, when is power maximal?

A

During the first 8-10 seconds

264
Q

Energy system used in the first 10 seconds of an athletic event

A

Phosphagn energy system

265
Q

Anaerobic energy system utilized for 1.3 - 1.6 mins in sports like tennis and soccer

A

Glycogen-lactic acid system

266
Q

Energy system used in marathon and long distance swimming

A

Aerobic system

267
Q

Cardiac reserve

A

400-600%

268
Q

Acute effects of hypoxia begin at _ feet

A

12,000 feet

269
Q

Seizures begin at _ feet

A

18,000 feet

270
Q

Most powerful

A

Estradiol

271
Q

Main hormone involved in the follicular phase

A

Estrogen

272
Q

Initiates spermatogenesis

A

FSH

273
Q

Absence of this hormone is responsive for the development of female external genitalia

A

Testosterone

274
Q

How many degree Celsius cooler os the testes compared to the abdominal cavity

A

2 degrees Celsius cooler

275
Q

Sperm formation

A

Seminiferous tubules

276
Q

Sperm motility

A

Epididymis

277
Q

Sperm storage

A

Vas deferens

278
Q

Production of fructose, prostaglandin

A

Seminal vesicle

279
Q

Contributes to semen alkalinity

A

Prostate gland

280
Q

Supplies mucus

A

Bulbourethral

Urethral glands

281
Q

Responsible for bone deposition

A

Osteoblast

282
Q

Responsible for bone resorption; secretes lysosomal enzymes (for organic matrix), citric acid, lactic acid (both for calcium salts)

A

Osteoclast

283
Q

Who among the ff is in negative calcium balance-pregnant women, children or post-op patients

A

Post-op patients

284
Q

Hormone suspected to initiate puberty

A

Melatonin

285
Q

First event in puberty

A

Testicular enlargement

Breast enlargement

286
Q

Active form of vitamin D

A

1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol

287
Q

What is the effect of testosterone on athletic performance?

A

Increases muscle size, muscle strength and aggression

288
Q

Increases intestinal calcium absorption

Decreases calcium and phosphate excretion but increases urinary calcium

Calcium deposition at RDA levels

Calcium resorption if >RDA levels

Calcium and phosphate reabsorption (kidneys)

A

VITAMIN D

289
Q

Decreases calcium excretion

Increase phosphate excretion

Calcium and phosphate resorption (BONES)

A

PTH

PEARLS PEARLS PEARLS 📌📌 (12 decks)

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