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PEARLS PEARLS PEARLS 📌📌 > 📌PHARMA PEARLS COMPLETE > Flashcards

📌PHARMA PEARLS COMPLETE Flashcards

0
Q

Pica, ingestion if flakes of paint, abdominal colic, acute encephalopathy, wrist drop, mental retardation

A

Lead

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1
Q

Acute arsenic poisoning
Acute mercury poisoning
Chronic severe lead poisoning

SE: hypertension

A

Dimercaprol

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2
Q

Chronic lead poisoning (oral treatment)

A

Succimer

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3
Q

Chronic severe lead poisoning

SE: hypocalcemia

A

EDTA (Edetate Calcium Disodium)

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4
Q

Rice-water stools, garlicky breath, Mee’s lines, raindrop pigmentation, milk and roses complexion

A

Arsenic

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5
Q

Hemorrhagic, gastroenteritis, renal failure, loosening of gums and teeth, erethism

A

Inorganic mercury

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6
Q

Minamata disease (cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, mental retardation)

A

Organic mercury

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7
Q

Severe GI necrosis, hemosiderosis, restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Iron

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8
Q

Acute iron poisoning, hemochromatosis

A

Deferoxamine

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9
Q

Hepatotoxicity, Kayser-Fleisher rings, sunflower cataracts

A

Copper

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10
Q

Copper poisoning, Wilson’s disease

SE: drug-induced lupus

A

Penicillamine

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11
Q

Treatment of lymphomas

SE: hemorrhagic cystitis

Rescue agent: Mesna

A

Cyclophosphamide

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12
Q

Treatment of colon cancer

SE: ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

Rescue agent: Amifostine

A

Cisplatin

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13
Q

SE: marked vesicant actions (skin blistering)

A

Mechlorethamine

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14
Q

SE: Disulfiram reaction, Leukemogenesis

A

Procarbazine

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15
Q

Testicular and ovarian tumor

SE: Pulmonary fibrosis, bone marrow-sparing

A

Bleomycin

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16
Q

Treatment of brain tumors

SE: CNS toxicity

A

Carmustine

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17
Q

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

Treatment of CML

SE: fluid retention, multiple drug interations

A

Imatinib

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18
Q

Treatment of metastatic breast cancer, active against cells expressing HER-2/neu

A

Trastuzumab

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19
Q

Inhibits VEGF, treatment of metastatic cancers

A

Bevacizumab

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20
Q

Differentiation therapy, treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia, only vitamin that can cure cancer

A

All trans retinoic acid (ATRA)

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21
Q

Drugs that cause PULMONARY FIBROSIS

A 
BBBAN ME
Bleomycin
Busulfan
Bromocriptine
Amiodarone
Nitrofurantoin
Methotrexate
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22
Q

Treatment of lymphomas and GTN

Myelosuppression, pulmonary fibrosis

Rescue agent: Leucovorin (folinic acid)

A

Methotrexate

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23
Q

Treatment of acute leukemias

Myelosuppression, hepatotoxicity, metabolism inhibited by allopurinol

A

6-Mercaptopurine

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24
Q

Treatment of colorectal and skin cancer, causes thymine-less death of cells

Myelosuppression

A

5-Flurouracil

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25
Q

Treatment of CML in blast crisis, most specific for the S phase of the cell cycle

A

Cytarabine

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26
Q

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, treatment of pancreatic cancer

A

Gemcitabine

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27
Q

Vinca alkaloid, prevents microtubule assembly

Peripheral neuropathy

A

Vincristine

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28
Q

Podophyllotoxin, inhibits DNA topoisomerase II, treatment of lung cancer, non Hodgkin’s lymphoma and GTN

A

Etoposide

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29
Q

Camptothecin, inhibits DNA topoisomerase I, treatment of small cell lung cancer

A

Topotecan

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30
Q

Taxane, prevents microtubule disassembly, advanced breast and ovarian cancers

A

Paclitaxel

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31
Q

Intercalating agent

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Rescue agent: Dexrazoxane

A

Doxorubicin

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32
Q

Treatment of testicular cancer

Pulmonary fibrosis, most specific for the G2 phase of the cell cycle

A

Bleomycin

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33
Q

Treatment of melanoma, Wilm’s tumor and GTN

A

Actinomycin D

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34
Q

Opioid antispasmodic, DOC for noninfectious diarrhea

SE: paralytic ileus (in children)

A

Loperamide

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35
Q

Stimulant laxative

SE: Melanosis coli

A

Senna

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36
Q

Osmotic laxative

Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

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37
Q

Prokinetic agent, antiemetic, DOC for diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopromide

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38
Q

Irreversible blockage of H+/K+ ATPase, DOC for peptic ulcer disease and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Omeprazole

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39
Q

Neutralizes stomach acids

SE: diarrhea-constipation (cancels each other)

A

Maalox

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40
Q

Greatly suppresses nocturnal acid secretion, H2 blocker

SE: gynecomastia

A

Cimetidine

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41
Q

Describe the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

osteoBlast = Builds Bone

osteoClast = Cleaves/resorbs bone

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42
Q

Function of PTH

A 
ParaThyroid Hormone
PTH
Phosphate 
Thrashing 
Hormone
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43
Q

Signs and symptoms of excess PTH

A 
HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
Painful bones 
Renal stones
Abdominal groans
Psychiatric overtones
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44
Q

What is the function of calcitonin?

A

CalciTONin = TONes down
Calcium
(Reduces blood Ca, decreases bone resorption)

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45
Q

Phosphate-binding resin

A

Sevelamer

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46
Q

Suppresses osteoclast activity, treatment of Paget’s disease of bone and osteoporosis

SE: esophagitis

A

Alendronate

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47
Q

Treatment of Paget’s disease of bone, Hypercalcemia, tumor marker for medullary thyroid CA

A

Calcitonin

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48
Q

Active vitamin D, treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Calcitriol

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49
Q

Inactive Vitamin D, treatment of rickets and osteomalacia

A

Ergocalciferol

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50
Q

Why is there paradoxical improvement of diabetes in patients with end-stage renal disease?

A

Insulin has prolonged half life due to decreased clearance

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51
Q

Which patient are more prone to developing hypoglycemia with insulin use?

A

PRONE TO HYPOGLYCEMIA

  1. Advanced renal disease
  2. Elderly
  3. Children younger than 7 years
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52
Q

a-glucosidase inhibitor

Flatulence

A

Acarbose

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53
Q

TZD, acts on PPAR-y, insulin sensitizer

CHF

A

Pioglitazone

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54
Q

First line anti diabetic drug, decreases gluconeogenesis

SE: lactic acidosis, weight loss (DOC for obese diabetics)

GI upset

A

Metformin

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55
Q

Newer insulin secretagogue, NO hypoglycemia

A

Repaglinide

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56
Q

2nd generation SU

Hypoglycemia, weight gain, disulfiram reaction

A

Glipizide

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57
Q

1st generation SU

Hypoglycemia, weight gain, disulfiram reaction

A

Chlorpropamide

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58
Q

Most efficacious anti diabetic drug, activates tyrosine kinase

Hypoglycemia, lipodystrophy

A

Insulin

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59
Q

Treatment of male hypogonadism

SE: virilization, paradoxical feminization

A

Testosterone

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60
Q

Anabolic steroids, illegal performance enhancers

A

Oxandrolone

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61
Q

Treatment of prostate cancer, coadministered to prevent acute flare-ups of tumor

A

Flutamide + Leuprolide

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62
Q

5-a-reductase inhibitor, treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride

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63
Q

Most frequently used synthetic estrogen in OCPs

SE: hypertension, DVT/PE, endometrial CA, contraindicated in women (age >35) who are heavy smokers

A

Ethinyl estradiol

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64
Q

SE: clear cell vaginal adenoCA in daughter

A

Diethylstilbestrol

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65
Q

Prevents estrogen-induced endometrial CA

A

Norgestrel

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66
Q

OCP of choice in lactating women

A

DMPA

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67
Q

Emergency contraception, Yuzpe regimen

A

Levonorgestrel

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68
Q

Hormone-responsive breast CA

SE: endometrial CA

A

TAMOxifen

TAnggal Mammary Mo

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69
Q

Ovulation induction

SE: multiple pregnancies

A

Clomiphene

Clone Me Phlease

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70
Q

Treatment of endometriosis

A

Danazol

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71
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

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72
Q

NORgestimate, NORethindrone and NORgestrel are NOT ESTROGENS!

A

They are PROGESTINS!

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73
Q

Treatment of genetic short stature, failure to thrive

A

Somatotropin

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74
Q

Treatment of acromegaly, variceal bleeding

A

Ocreotide

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75
Q

Treatment of hyperprolactinemia, prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine

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76
Q

Labor induction/augmentation, control of postpartum hemorrhage

SE: fluid retention

A

Oxytocin

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77
Q

Treatment of central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin

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78
Q

Treatment of hypothyroidism, myxedema coma

A

Levothyroxine

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79
Q

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase, blocks peripheral conversion to T4 to T3

SE: agranulocytosis, DOC in pregnant hyperthyroid patients

A

PTU

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80
Q

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

SE: agranulocytosis, teratogen (aplasia cutis)

A

Methimazole

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81
Q

Preferred treatment for hyperthyroidism

SE: permanent hypothyroidism

A

Radioactive Iodine

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82
Q

Reduces size and vascularity of thyroid gland

A

SSKI

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83
Q

Sympathetic treatment of hyperthyroidism, decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

Propanolol

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84
Q

Differentiate Wolf-Chaikoff effect from Jod-Basedow phenomenon

A

Wolf-Chaikoff effect ingestion of iodine causes hypothyroidism

Jod-Basedow phenomenon ingestion of iodine causes hyperthyroidism

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85
Q

Which antithyroid drug inhibit peripheral conversation to T4 to T3?

A

PTU, propanolol, hydrocortisone

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86
Q

What drugs can cause drug-induced hyperthyroidism?

A

Clofibrate

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87
Q

Acute adrenal insufficiency, status asthmaticus, thyroid storm

A

Hydrocortisone

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88
Q

Prototype oral glucocorticoid

SE: adrenal suppression, Cushing syndrome

A

Prednisone

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89
Q

Hastens fetal lung maturation

A

Betamethasone

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90
Q

Mineralocorticoid replacement for chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)

A

Fludrocortisone

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91
Q

Why are statins used in the management of coronary artery disease?

A

Stabilizes atherosclerotic plaque

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92
Q

What are the drugs that cause flushing?

A

Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin
Calcium channel blockers

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93
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, lowers LDL

Hepatotoxicity, rhabdomyolysis, myopathy

A

Simvastatin

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94
Q

Bile acid binding resin, lowers LDL

Constipation, steatorrhea

A

Cholestyramine

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95
Q

Reduces all building blocks for hyperlipidemia, increases HDL, lowers LDL and TG

Flushing, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

A

Niacin

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96
Q

PPAR-a activator, upregulates lipoprotein lipase, lowers TG

Gallstones, addictive myopathy

A

Gemfibrozil

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97
Q

Dream-like state, red conjunctiva, tachycardia, dry mouth

A

Marijuana

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98
Q

Psychedelic effects (out of body experience), mind raveling effects, bad trips

A

LSD

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99
Q

Most dangerous hallucinogen, psychotomimetic effects, nystagmus

A

Phencyclidine

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100
Q

Mydriasis, crack lung, teratogen (cystic cortical lesions)

A

Cocaine

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101
Q

Sexual enhancement, hyponatremia

A

MDMA (ecstasy)

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102
Q

Euphoria, sleeplessness, self-confidence

A

Amphetamine

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103
Q

Triad of opioid overdose

A 
OPIOID OVERDOSE
P-C-R
Pupillary constriction 
Comatose state
Respiratory depression
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104
Q

Which opioids have the shortest and longest half-lives?

A

REMIFENTANIL = shortest half-life (3-4mins)

BUPRENORPHINE = longest half-life (4-8 hrs)

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105
Q

Prototype opioid (full agonist)

Miosis, respiratory depression, constipation

A

Morphine

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106
Q

Severe pain, breakthrough cancer pain, available in lollipop form or transdermal patch

A

Fentanyl

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107
Q

Opioid of choice for acute pancreatitis, does NOT cause miosis

Seizures (normeperidine)

A

Meperidine

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108
Q

Replacement therapy for opioid dependence

A

Methadone

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109
Q

Cough suppression

A

Dextromethorphan

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110
Q

Balanced anesthesia, frequently abused by healthcare professionals

A

Nalbuphine

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111
Q

Antidote to opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

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112
Q

Treatment of opioid dependence

A

Naltrexone

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113
Q

Symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A 
FAT CHD
Fever
Agitation
Tremor
Clonus
Hyperreflexia
Diaphoresis
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114
Q

Drugs that can cause priapism

A 
Tigas PeniS Qu AyaW Bumaba!
Trazodone
Papaverine
Sildenafil
Quetiapine
Alprostadil
Warfarin
Bupropion
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115
Q

Drugs that can cause erectile dysfunction

A 
A SORE PEniS can't Fuck Hard!
SSRIs
Opiates
Risperidone
Ethanol
Propranolol
Estrogens
Spironolactone
Finasteride
Hydrochlorothiazide
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116
Q

What are the features of tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

3 Cs TCA Overdose
Coma
Convulsions
Cardiotoxicity

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117
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

Hypertensive crisis when taken with tyramine (in cheese), serotonin syndrome

A

Phenelzine

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118
Q

Tetracyclic antidepressant, smoking cessation

Weight loss, priapism, seizures

A

Bupropion

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119
Q

Serotonin antagonist

Priapism

A

Trazodone

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120
Q

Serotonin-Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)

Hypertension

A

Venlafaxine

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121
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), first line drug for major depressive disorder

Erectile dysfunction, serotonin syndrome

A

Fluoxetin

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122
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant, treatment of enuresis

Atropine-like effects, cardiotoxicity

A

Imipramine

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123
Q

What are the features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A 
Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable
Elevated CPK
Rigidity
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124
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, teratogen (Ebstein’s anomaly)

Mania

A

Lithium

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125
Q

Marked hyperprolactinemia

For schizophrenia in the youth

A

Risperidone

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126
Q

Priapism, hypnagogic hallucinations

2nd generation

A

Quetiapine

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127
Q

Marked weight gain, hyperglycemia

2nd generation

A

Olanzapine

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128
Q

DOC for suicidal and refractory schizophrenics

Agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

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129
Q

Treatment of floridly psychotic patients

Major EPS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

A

Haloperidole

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130
Q

Prototype typical antipsychotic

Corneal/lens deposits, failure of ejaculation

A

Chlorpromazine

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131
Q

Drugs that cause livedo reticularis

A 
A man reads FHM and GQ
Amantadine
Hydroxyurea
Minocycline
Gemcitabine
Quinidine
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132
Q

Primary signs of Parkinson’s Disease

A 
It's a TRAP!
Tremor
Rigidity
Akinesia
Postural instability
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133
Q

Improves tremor and rigidity but has no effect of bradykinesia, atropine-like effects

A

Benztropine

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134
Q

Antiparkinsonism drug with antiviral properties

SE: livedo reticularis, cerebellar ataxia

A

Amantadine

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135
Q

Drug of choice for Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa + Carbidopa

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136
Q

Treatment of hyperprolactinemia

SE: erythromelalgia, pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bromocriptine

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137
Q

Adjunctive drug for wearing-off phenomena

A

Entacapone

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138
Q

Prototype nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Tubocurarine

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139
Q

Undergoes human elimination

Bronchospasm, most frequently used nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Atracurium

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140
Q

Lethal injection

Strychnine poisoning

A

Pancuronium

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141
Q

Reversal agent for nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade

A

Neostigmine

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142
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Malignant hyperthermia, affected by pseudocholinesterase activity

A

Succinylcholine

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143
Q

What is the toxic dose if LIDOCAINE?

A

Toxic dose = 5 mg/kg for any drug or solution

1% = 10 mg/mL

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144
Q

Why should we not inject LIDOCAINE into abscesses?

A

DONT INJECT LIDOCAINE INTO ABSCESS

Won’t work due to acidic environment (below pKa = protonated form predominates, so it can’t penetrate tissues)

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145
Q

Which local a esthetics have the shortest and longest half-lives?

A

PROCAINE = shortest half-life (1-2 mins)

A PRO finishes the race fastest.

ROPIVACAINCE = longest half-life (4.2 hrs)

At the end of the long ROPe.

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146
Q

How will you distinguish whether local anesthetics are esters or amides?

A

ESTERS have only 1i in their names.
Tetracaine, Procaine, Benzocaine

AMIDES have 2i in their names.
Bupivacaine, Ropivacaine, Lidocaine

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147
Q

Prolonged sedation, “milk of amnesia”

Hypotension

Rate of onset similar to THIOPENTAL but better recovery

Pain at site of injection: mc side effect

A

Propofol

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148
Q

Anesthesia for patients with limited cardiopulmonary reserve

Adrenal suppression

A

Etomidate

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149
Q

Dissociative anesthesia, NMDA receptor blocker

Emergence delirium

Used in trauma cases where cardiovascular support is necessary

Catatonia, amnesia, analgesia without LOC

A

Ketamine

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150
Q

Lowest MAC (highest potency), slowest induction and recovery

A

Methoxyflurane

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151
Q

Postoperative hepatitis, malignant hyperthermia

A

Halothane

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152
Q

Pulmonary irritant

A

Desfurane

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153
Q

Highest MAC (lowest potency)

Euphoria

A

Nitrous Oxide

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154
Q

Generalized Tonic-Clonic seizures

A

DOC: Valproic acid, phenytoin, carbamazepine

Alternative: Phenobarbital, lamotrigine, topiramate

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155
Q

Partial seizures

A

DOC: carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin

Alternative: felbamate, phenobarbital, topiramate, Valproic acid

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156
Q

Absence seizures

A

DOC: ethosuximide, valproic acid

Alternative: lamotrigine, levetiracetam, zonisamides, clonazepam

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157
Q

Myoclonic and Atypical absence syndromes

A

DOC: Valproic acid

Alternative: clonazepam, levetiracetam, topiramate, zonisamide, felbamate

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158
Q

Status epilepticus

A

DOC: lorazepam, diazepam, phenytoin, phenobarbital

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159
Q

Potent CYP450 inducer

SE: gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, fetal hydantoin syndrome

A

PHENYTOIN

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160
Q

Potent CYP450 inducer

DOC for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia

SE: blood dyscrasias

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

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161
Q

Potent CYP450 inhibitor

DOC for GTC and myoclonic seizures

SE: teratogen (spina bifida)

A

VALPROIC ACID

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162
Q

Potent CYP450 inducer

DOC for seizures in children and pregnant women

SE: porphyria

A

PHENOBARBITAL

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163
Q

DOC for absence seizures

A

ETHOSUXIMIDE

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164
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

A

DIAZEPAM

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165
Q

Treatment of neuropathic pain

A

GABAPENTIN

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166
Q

SE: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

LAMOTRIGINE

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167
Q

Most frequently abused drug, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in overdose, delirium tremens in withdrawal

A

ETHANOL

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168
Q

Prevention of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

THIAMINE

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169
Q

Treatment of alcohol withdrawal

A

DIAZEPAM

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170
Q

Wood alcohol

SE: visual dysfunction due to formaldehyde accumulation

A

METHANOL

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171
Q

Antifreeze

SE: nephrotoxicity due to oxalic acid accumulation

A

ETHYLENE GLYCOL

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172
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor

A

FOMEPIZOLE

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173
Q

Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor

A

DISULFERAM

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174
Q

SEDATIVE HYPNOTIC POISONING

A 
(Hot Hot Hot DeCisioN)
Hypothermia
Hypotension
Hypoactive BS
Disinhibition
Coma
Nystagmus
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175
Q

What is the most catastrophic symptom of sedative-hypnotic withdrawal?

A

Rebound suicide

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176
Q

Shortest acting

A

THIOPENTAL

TAYO agad!!!

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177
Q

Which drugs are considered date-rape drugs?

A

DATE-RAPE DRUGS:
Alcohol (most common)
Flunitrazepam (rohypnol)
Gamma-hydroxybutyrate

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178
Q

Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life?

A

CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE

longest half-life (36-200 hours)
Longest spelling (many letters)
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179
Q

What abnormal sleep pattern results from the use of benzodiazepines?

A

Decreased REM SLEEP

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180
Q

Seizure disorders in children

SE: precipitates porphyria, potent inducer of CYP450

A

PHENOBARBITAL

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181
Q

Anesthesia induction, lethal injection, truth serum

A

THIOPENTAL

182
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose

A

FLUMAZENIL

183
Q

Date-rape drug

A

FLUNITRAZEPAM

184
Q

Seizure disorders (status epilepticus)
Alcohol withdrawal
Tranquilizer

A

DIAZEPAM

185
Q

Acute anxiety attacks
Anesthesia induction
Preoperative sedation

A

MIDAZOLAM

186
Q

Inhibits helminthology microtubules

Ovicidal

A

Mebendazole

187
Q

Inhibits helminthic microtubules
Ovicidal and larvicidal
DOC for hydatid disease (echinococcosis)

A

Albendazole

188
Q

DOC for Filaria and Loa loa

SE: filarial fever

A

DEC (Diethylcarbamazine)

189
Q

DOC for Strongyloides and Onchocerca

SE: Mazzotti reaction

A

Ivermectin

190
Q

DOC for Enterobius

A

Pyrantel Pamoate

191
Q

DOC for Trichinosis

A

Thiabendazole

192
Q

DOC for trematodes and cestodes EXCEPT echinococcosis (ALBENDAZOLE)

A

PRAZIQUANTEL

193
Q

Back-up drug to PRAZIQUANTEL

A

NICLOSAMIDE

194
Q

Pneumocystis jerovocii

A

TMZ-SMX

195
Q

Chaga’s disease

A

NIFURTRIMOX

196
Q

African sleeping sickness

A

Suramin + Melarsoprol

197
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine-Sulfadiazine

198
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum infection

A

Nitazoxanide

199
Q

Amebic dysentery
Trichomoniasis
Bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

200
Q

Asymptomatic cyst carriers of E. Histolytica

A

Diloximife furoate

201
Q

DOC for malaria in the Philippines (P. Falciparum)

A

Co-artem

202
Q

Chemoprophylaxis (multi-drug resistant areas)

A

Doxycycline

203
Q

Chemoprophylaxis (chloroquine-resistant areas)

A

Mefloquine Malaxone

204
Q

Eradication of hypnozoites of P. Vivax and ovale

A

Primaquine

205
Q

Chloroquine-resistance
Severe malaria
DOC for pregnant patients with malaria

SE: hypoglycemia, Blackwater fever, cinchonism

A

Quinine

206
Q

Primary drug for malaria
Prevents heme polymerization into hemozoin

SE: retinal damage, hearing loss

A

Chloroquine

207
Q

Binding inhibitor, CCR5 antagonist

A

Maraviroc

208
Q

Fusion inhibitor, binds gp41 subunit

A

Enfuvirtide

209
Q

Protease inhibitor

SE: fat redistribution syndrome, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance

A

Indinavir

210
Q

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
No phosphorylation required

SE: hepatotoxicity

A

Delavirdine

211
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
Requires phosphorylation
Primary drug for HIV
Prevents vertical transmission of HIV

SE: Lactic acidosis

A

Zidovudine (AZT)

212
Q

Treatment of hepatitis C and RSV infection

A

Ribavirin

213
Q

Treatment of Hepatitis B infection

A

Lamivudine

214
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor

DOC for influenza

A

Oseltamivir

215
Q

Prevents viral uncoating
Influenza A coverage

SE: cerebellar dysfunction, livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

216
Q

Treatment of HSV, VZV and CMV

Does NOT require viral thymidine kinase activation

A

Foscarnet

217
Q

Treatment of CMV

Requires activation by viral thymidine kinase (neutropenia)

A

Ganciclovir

218
Q

Treatment of HSV and VZV
Requires activation by viral thymidine kinase

SE: cystalluria

A

Acyclovir

219
Q

Treatment of candidiasis (oropharnygeal, esophageal, vaginal)
Swish and swallow or suppository preparations

A

Nystatin

220
Q

Interferes with fungal microtubules

SE: potent CYP450 inducer

A

Griseofulvin

221
Q

Prophylaxis and treatment of candidiasis and cryptococcosis

A

Fluconazole

222
Q

Topical treatment of dermatophytosis and candidiasis

SE: gynecomastia, CYP450 inducer

A

Ketoconazole

223
Q

Most efficacious antifungal drug
Forms artificial pores

SE: nephrotoxicity (RTA, ATN)

A

Amphotericin B

224
Q

Which antibiotics are considered drugs of last resort?

A 
I AM your Last Shot at Victory
IMIPENEM
AMIKACIN
MEROPENEM
LINEZOLID
STREPTOGRAMINS
VANCOMYCIN
225
Q

Silver bullet against gram negative bacteria

No gram positive activity with PSEUDO COVERSGE

A

Aztreonam

226
Q

Beta-lactamase inhibitor

A

Clavulanic acid (Tazobactam)

227
Q

Treatment for MRSA

SE: Red Man Syndrome

A

Vancomycin

228
Q

Drug of last resort
Broad spectrum of activity

SE: toxicity

A

Meropenem

229
Q

Anaerobic and antiprotozoal coverage
Treatment of pseudomembranous colitis

SE: disulfiram reaction, metallic taste, neurotoxicity

A

Metronidazole

230
Q

Treatment of urinary tract infections

SE: pulmonary fibrosis

A

Nitrofurantoin

231
Q

Most active drug against M. Leprae
Inhibits folate synthesis

SE: methomoglobinemia (chocolate blood color)

Tx: methylene blue

A

Dapsone (hemolysis in G6PD)

232
Q

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

SE: red-orange urine, delays onset of dapsone resistance

A

Rifampicin

233
Q

Phenazine dye
Binds to guanine bases

SE: skin discoloration

A

Clofazimine

234
Q

Which anti-TB drugs are hepatotoxic?

A

ISO a Red PYRe! (I saw a red fire)

Isoniazid < Rifampicin < Pyrazinamide

235
Q

Cidal
Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

SE: neurotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, sideroblastic anemia, drug-induced lupus, potent CYP450 inhibitor

A

Isoniazid

236
Q

Static
Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

SE: red orange urine, hepatotoxicity

A

Rifampicin

237
Q

Static
Inhibits arabinoglactan synthesis

SE: visual dysfunction (retrobulbar neuritis, color blindness)

A

Ethambutol

238
Q

Static but cidal on actively dividing MTB

SE: hyperuricemia, hepatotoxicity (most)

A

Pyrazinamide

239
Q

Cidal
Binds to 30S

SE: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

A

Streptomycin

240
Q

4th generation quinolone

SE: diabetes mellitus

A

Gatifloxacin

241
Q

4the generation quinolone
Broad spectrum of activity
Anaerobic coverage
Treatment of ocular infections

A

Moxifloxacin

242
Q

3rd generation quinolone

Treatment of pulmonary infections

A

Levofloxacin

243
Q

2nd generation quinolone
Treatment of urinary tract infections and GIT infections

TX: tendinitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

244
Q

Treatment of burn infections

A

Sulfadiazine

245
Q

Sequential blockage in folate synthesis
Urinary tract infections

SE: hypersensitivity (SJS, TEN), kernicterus hemolysis in patients with G6PD

A

TMP-SMX (pneumocystis, pneumonia)

246
Q

Blocks dihydrofolate reductase

A

Trimethoprim

247
Q

Blocks dihydropteroate synthase

A

Sulfamethoxazole

248
Q

Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Neomycin

249
Q

Widest spectrum of activity
Pseudomonas coverage
Narrow therapeutic window

A

Amikacin

250
Q

Treatment of drug-resistant gonorrhea

A

Spectinomycin

251
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Streptomycin

252
Q

Treatment of ocular infections

A

Tobramycin

253
Q

Prototype aminoglycoside, bactericidal
Binds to 30S subunit

SE: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

A

Gentamicin

254
Q

Binds to 50S subunit

Vancomycin-resistance

A

Linezolid

255
Q

Binds to 50S subunit
Anaerobic coverage

SE: pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

256
Q

Binds to 50S subunit
Highest volume of distribution
Single dose administration

A

Azithromycin

257
Q

Binds to 50S subunit subunit
DOC for penicillin-allergic patients

SE: diarrhea, choke static jaundice

A

Erythromycin

258
Q

Binds to 30S subunit

SE: tooth enamel discoloration, photosensitivity

A

Tetracycline

259
Q

Binds to 50S subunit subunit

SE: aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

260
Q

Anti-pseudomonal cephalosporins

A

Ceftazidine
Cefepime
Cefoperazone

261
Q

Third generation cephalosporins

A 
Ceftamet
Cefpodoxin
Cefoperazone
Cefixime
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidine
Cefotaxime
Ceftrizoxime
Ceftibuten
262
Q

Cephalosporins causing disulfiram reaction

A

Cefamandole
Cefmetazole
Cefotetan
Cefoperazone

263
Q

Which cephalosporin has the best penetrance to the BBB?

A

Ceftriaxone

264
Q

4th generation cephalosporins

Broad spectrum activity (gram positive and gram negative)

A

Cefepime

265
Q

Most efficacious cephalosporin for Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Ceftazidime

266
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins
Pseudomonas coverage

SE: Disulfiram reaction

A

Cefoperazone

267
Q

2nd generation cephalosporins
Added gram negative coverage

SE: Disulfiram reaction

A

Cefamandole

268
Q

1st generation cephalosporin
High bone penetration
Surgical prophylaxis
Greatest gram positive coverage

SE: hypersensitivity reaction

A

Cefazolin

269
Q

Narrow spectrum penicillins

SE: hypersensitivity

A

Penicillin G

270
Q

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins

Interstitial nephritis

A

Methecillin

271
Q

Extended-spectrum penicillins

Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Ampicillin

272
Q

Antipseudomonal penicillins

SE: hypertension, hypovolemia, bleeding

A

Ticarcillin

273
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics

A 
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Sulfamethoxazole 
Trimethoprim
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
274
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics

A 
Vancomycin
Fluoroquinolones
Penicillins
Aminoglycosides
Metronidazole
275
Q

Drug of choice for acute asthma attacks

A

Albuterol/Salbutamol

276
Q

Adjunct for asthma maintenance

A

Salmeterol

277
Q

Prophylaxis for nocturnal asthma

SE: seizures, antidote: Propanol

A

Theophylline

278
Q

Bronchodilator of choice in COPD

A

Ipratropine

279
Q

Stabilizes mast cells

No bronchodilator effects

A

Cromolyn

280
Q

Drug of choice for asthma maintenance

SE: oral candidiasis, growth stunting

A

Fluticasone

281
Q

Lipooxygenase inhibitor

SE: increased AST/ALT

A

Zileuton

282
Q

Blocks slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis (Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4

A

Montelukast

283
Q

Prostaglandin E1

PDA, erectile dysfunction

A

Alprostadil

284
Q

Prostaglandin E1

Peptic ulcer disease
Abortifacient prevention of NSAIDs-induced gastric mucosal injury

A

Misoprostol

285
Q

Prostaglandin F2alpha

Glaucoma

A

Latanoprost

286
Q

Prostaglandin E2

Induction of labor
Abortifacient

A

Dinoprost

287
Q

Prostaglandin F2alpha

Control of postpartum hemorrhage
Abortifacient

A

Carboprost

288
Q

Prostaglandin I2

Pulmonary HPN
Reduces PLT aggregation in dialysis machines

A

Epoprostenol

289
Q

SE: retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Ergotamine

290
Q

Treatment of postpartum bleeding

A

Ergonovine

291
Q

Adjunct for migraine and cluster headache

A

Ergotamine

292
Q

Treatment for postop and postchemo vomiting

A

Ondansetron

293
Q

Drug of choice for migraine and cluster headache

A

Sumatriptan

294
Q

Treatment of peptic ulcers

SE: gynecomastia

A

Cimetidine

295
Q

Treatment of hypersensitivity, non-sedating

A

Cetirizine

296
Q

Adjunct for motion sickness, vertigo

A

Meclizine

297
Q

Treatment of hypersensitivity (food allergy, rhinitis, hay fever, angioedema)

SE: sedation

A

Diphenhydramine

298
Q

Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase 1 and 2

Antipyretic of choice in pediatric population

A

Paracetamol

299
Q

Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase 2

A

Celecoxib

300
Q

Reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase 1and 2

A

Ibuprofen

301
Q

Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase 1and 2

A

Aspirin

302
Q

What are the drugs that cause flushing?

A

Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin (ASA prophylaxis)
Calcium channel blockers

303
Q

Why are statins used in the management of coronary artery disease?

A

For stabilization of atherosclerotic plaque

304
Q

PPAR-a activator
Upregulates lipoprotein lipase
Lowers TG

SE: gallstones, additive myopathy

A

Gemfibrozil

305
Q

Reduces all building blocks for hyperlipidemia
Increases HDL
Lowers LDL and TG

SE: flushing, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

A

Niacin

306
Q

Cholesterol absorption blocker

Lowers LDL

A

Ezetimibe

307
Q

Bile acid binding resin
Lowers LDL

SE: constipation, steatorrhea

A

Cholestyramine

308
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Lowers LDL

SE: hepatotoxicity, rhabdomyolysis, myopathy

A

Simvastatin

309
Q

What is the difference between an inhibitor and an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

INHIBITORS: completely hat ETC

UNCOUPLERS: dissipate proton gradient without interrupting ETC

310
Q

What is the difference between in presentation of aspirin intoxication in children and adults?

A

ADULTS: mixed acid-base disorder, respiratory alkalosis with HAGMA

CHILDREN: pure acid-base disorder, HAGMA

311
Q

What is the expected acid-base abnormality in salicylate poisoning?

A

Respiratory Alkalosis with HAGMA

312
Q

What are the signs of ASA poisoning?

A 
ASPIRIN POISONING:
C-H-A-F-S
Coma 
Hyperventilation
Acidosis (HAGMA)
Fever
Seizure
313
Q

What is the triad of aspirin hypersensitivity?

A

SAMTER’s triad:
Asthma
Nasal polyp
NSAIDs sensitivity

314
Q

How many 500mg Aspirin tablets must be ingested to produce toxicity? Death?

A

Toxic dose: 150mg/kg
150mg/kg x 70kg/500mg/tab = 21 tabs

Lethal dose: 500mg/kg
500mg/kg x 70kg/500mg/tab = 70 tabs

315
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Cardiac stress testing

A

Dipyridamole

316
Q

Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa inhibitor

A

Abciximab

317
Q

ADP inhibitor

Addictive effects with Aspirin

A

Clopidogrel

318
Q

Irreversible COX inhibitor
Instant prevention of arterial thrombosis

SE: tinnitus, hypersensitivity, Reye syndrome

A

Aspirin

319
Q

Antidote to thrombolytic overdose

A

Aminocaproic acid

Tranexamic acid

320
Q

Bacteria-derived thrombolytic

Decreased effect on subsequent uses due to antibody formation

A

Streptokinase

321
Q

Thrombolysis in AMI
Ischemic CVD and PE

SE: bleeding

A

Alteplase R-TPA

322
Q

In patients requiring anticoagulation, why is an overlap between heparin and warfarin usually done?

A
  1. Warfarin’s effect requires elimination of preformed clotting factors (8-60h)
  2. To bypass the initial prothrombotic effect of warfarin (skin necrosis)
323
Q

What laboratory tests will you request to assess the extrinsic and intrinsic coagulation pathways?

A

PiTT
PTT for intrinsic pathway
PeT
PT for extrinsic pathway

324
Q

Antidote to warfarin (immediate reversal)

A

FFP (fast)

325
Q

Chronic anticoagulation

SE: bleeding, skin necrosis, many drug interactions

A

Warfarin

326
Q

Antidote to heparin-induced bleeding

A

Protamine sulfate

327
Q

Treatment of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Lepirudin

328
Q

Low molecular weight heparin
Less risk of thrombocytopenia
Does not need monitoring

A

Enoxaparin

329
Q

Acute treatment of DVT, PE and AMI

A

SE: bleeding, thrombocytopenia, monitor with PPT

330
Q

Treatment of chemotherapy induced thrombocytopenia

A

Oprelvekin

331
Q

Treatment of neutropenia and agranulocytosis

A

Filgrastim

332
Q

Anemia in chronic kidney disease

A

Epoetin Alfa

333
Q

Treatment of Megaloblastic anemia

Prevention of neural tube defects (spina bifida)

A

Folic acid

334
Q

Treatment of Megaloblastic anemia

vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Cyanocobalamin

335
Q

Treatment of iron deficiency anemia

A

Ferrous sulfate

336
Q

What drugs can cause gynecomastia?

A 
Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers!
Spironolactone
Digoxin
Cimetidine
Alcohol
Ketoconazole
337
Q

Adverse effects of Thiazide Diuretics

A 
THIAZIDE TOXICITIES
HYPER GLUC
Glycemia
Lipidemia
Uricemia
Calcemia
338
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with loop diuretics?

A 
OH DANG!
Ototoxicity 
Hypokalemia 
Dehydration 
Allergy to sulfa
Nephritis
Gout
339
Q

NAGMA

A 
Non Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis 
Hyperalimentation
Acetazolamide
RTA
Diarrhea
Ureteral diversion
Pancreatic fistula
340
Q

HAGMA

A 
High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis 
Methanol
Uremia
Diabetic Ketoacidosis 
Paraldehyde
Isoniazid
Lactic acid
Ethanol
Salicylates
341
Q

Acts on PCT, DCT and CCD
Treatment of rhabdomyolysis and increased ICP
Contraindicated in heart failure

A

Mannitol

342
Q

Acts on CCD

SE: Gynecomastia, Hyperkalemia

A

Spironolactone

343
Q

Acts on DCT

SE: hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hypercalcemia

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

344
Q

Acts on TAL
Treatment of pulmonary edema
Most efficacious diuretics

SE: ototoxicity, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia

A

Furosemide

345
Q

Acts on PCT
Treatment of glaucoma and mountain sickness

SE: NAGMA, hepatic encephalopathy

A

Acetazolamide

346
Q

Why are dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers not useful as antiarrhythmics?

A

Dihydropyridine CCBs evoke compensatory sympathetic discharge which facilitates arrhythmics rather than terminating them

347
Q

AMIODARONE TOXICITY

A 
Pulmonary fibrosis
Parethesias
Tremors 
Thyroid dysfunction
Corneal deposits
Skin deposits
348
Q

What are the effects of class1 antiarrhythmics on action potential?

A

Class I: prolongs AP duration
Class IB: shortens AP duration
Class IC: no effect on AP duration

349
Q

Outpatient management of SVT

SE: gingival hyperplasia

A

Verapamil

350
Q

Most efficacious antiarrhythmic

SE: skin deposits, pulmonary fibrosis, hyper/hypothyroidism

A

Amiodarone

351
Q

SE: dose-dependent torsades de pointes

A

Sotalol

352
Q

Perioperative and thyrotoxic arrhythmias

SVT

A

Esmolol

353
Q

Contraindicated post-MI

Refractory arrhythmias

A

Flecainide

354
Q

Post-MI arrhythmias
Digitalis arrhythmias

SE: seizures

A

Lidocaine

355
Q

SE: cinchonism (headache, tinnitus, vertigo)

A

Quinidine

356
Q

Treatment of all types of arrhythmias
WPW syndrome

SE: drug-induced lupus

A

Procainamide

357
Q

What drugs have been shown to improve survival in cases of heart failure?

A

ABA! Bahay ka pa!
ACE inhibitors
Beta-blockers
Aldosterone Antagonists

358
Q

Improves survival in CHF patients of African-American descent

A

Hydralazine & ISDN

359
Q

Decreases hospitalization in CHF

A

Digoxin

360
Q

Improves survival (decreases mortality) in CHF

A

ACE-I / ARBS
Beta blockers
Spironolactone

361
Q

First line drug for chronic CHF

Cardioprotective

A

ACE-I

ARBS

362
Q

Treatment of pulmonary edema in CHF

A

Furosemide

363
Q

Positive inotrope for heart failure

SE: arrhythmias (PVC, AVB), RG color blindness, yellow visual halos

A

Digoxin

364
Q

What drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

Nifedipine

Cyclosporine
Phenytoin
Verapamil

365
Q

Why do patients taking nitrate usually experience throbbing headaches?

A

Due to meningeal artery dilatation

366
Q

Why is calcium-dependent neurotransmission or hormone release not affected by CCBs?

A

CCBs block L-type calcium channels other functions use N-, P-, and R-types

367
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia
Cardiac > Vascular effect

SE: gingival hyperplasia

A

Verapamil

368
Q 
Angina maintenance
Vascular < Cardiac effect
Vasospastic angina
Raynaud's phenomenon 
Does not cause gingival hyperplasia
A

Diltiazem

369
Q

Angina maintenance
Vascular > Cardiac effect

SE: flushing, edema, gingival hyperplasia

A

Nifedipine

370
Q

Relief of acute anginal attacks

SE: headache

A

Nitroglycerin + ISDN

371
Q

What is the antidote for cyanide poisoning?

A

Inhaled amyl + nitrate + IV sodium nitrate + IV sodium thiosulfate

372
Q

Which portion of the electron transport chain is affected by cyanide?

A

IV cytochrome oxidase

373
Q

Treatment of cyanide poisoning

A

Amyl nitrite

374
Q

Hypertensive emergency

SE: cyanide poisoning

A

Nitroprusside

375
Q

Hypertensive emergency

SE: hypertrichosis

A

Minoxidil

376
Q

Pre-eclampsia (acute BP lowering)

SE: reflex tachycardia, drug-induced lupus

A

Hydralazine

377
Q

Pre-eclampsia (maintenance medication)

SE: hemolytic anemia (positive Coombs test)

A

Methyldopa

378
Q

Hypertension with comorbid BPH

A

Prazosin

379
Q

ACE-inhibitor intolerance

A

Losartan

380
Q

Hypertension with comorbid CHF/DM

SE: cough, angioedema, contraindicated in bilateral RAS

A

Captopril

381
Q

First-line drug for essential hypertension

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

382
Q

What is the expanded formula for your blood pressure?

A

BP = hr x sv x svr

383
Q

What is the formula for blood pressure?

A

BP = co x svr

384
Q

What is the pharmacologic advantage of a1 selectivity?

A

Reflex tachycardia is less common and less severe

385
Q

What drugs are used to control blood pressure in pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Labetalol

386
Q

Combined alpha and beta blockade

A

Labetalol

387
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

A

Timolol

388
Q

Beta-1 selectivity

A

Atenolol / Metoprolol

389
Q

Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

Pindolol

390
Q

Angina prophylaxis
Hyperthyroidism
Masks hypoglycemia in diabetes

SE : Bronchospasm, erectile dysfunction

A

Propranolol

391
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

SE: first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin

392
Q

Treatment of rebound hypertension

A

Phentolamine

393
Q

Pre-operative treatment of pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

394
Q

Tocolysis for preterm labor

A

Terbutaline

395
Q

Bronchial asthma, COPD

A

Salbutamol

396
Q

SE: Hemolytic anemia (positive Coombs test)

A

Methyldopa

397
Q

SE: Rebound hypertension on discontinuation

A

Clonidine

398
Q

Nasal congestion

Mydriasis without cycloplegia

A

Phenylephrine

399
Q

Drug of last resort for shock

A

Norepinephrine

400
Q

Acute CHF, shock (cardiogenic, septic)

A

Dopamine

401
Q

DOC for anaphylactic shock
Adjunct to local anesthesia
Cardiac arrest
Croup

A

Epinephrine

402
Q

What are the signs of atropine toxicity?

A 
HOT as a hare
DRY as a bone
RED as a beet
BLIND as a bat
MAD as a hatter
403
Q

Why is ipratropium the preferred bronchodilator in patients with comorbid COPD and heart disease?

A

IPRATROPIUM

less likely to cause tachycardia and cardiac arrhythmias

404
Q

Muscarinic Antagonists for Parkinson’s Disease

A

TRIhexyphenidyl
BENZtropine
BIPeriden

405
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning / nerve gas poisoning

A

Atropine + Pralidoxine

406
Q

Motion sickness

Sea sickness

A

Scopolamine

407
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

Ipratropium

408
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Benztropine

409
Q

Sinus Bradycardia

A

Atropine

410
Q

Induction of mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Tropicamide

411
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning?
(MALATHIONE PESTICIDE)

A 
DUMBBELSS
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm 
Bradycardia 
Excitation (skeletal muscle and CNS)
Lacrimation
Sweating
Salivation
412
Q

Small cell cancer may present with a myasthenia-like paraneoplastic syndrome. What is this condition called?

A

LAMBERT-EATON SYNDROME

413
Q

How does EDROPHONIUM differentiate myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis?

A

EDROPHONIUM

Improves muscle strength in myasthenic crisis

Weakens muscle strength in cholinergic crisis

414
Q

Excessive activation of cholinoceptors (skeletal muscle weakness and parasympathetic signs) due to OVERmedication

A

Cholinergic Crisis

415
Q

Acute worsening of symptoms due to infection, stress or UNDERmedication

A

Myasthenic Crisis

416
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of nicotonic ACH receptors, characterized by fluctuating muscle weakness

  1. Ocular symptoms
  2. Bulbar symptoms
  3. Proximal muscle weakness
417
Q

What is Sjogren syndrome?

A

Autoimmune disorder characterized by triad of

  1. Xerostomia (dry mouth)
  2. Xerophthalmia (dry eyes)
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
418
Q

Bowel and bladder atony

A

Betanechol

419
Q

Sjogren syndrome (Xerostomia, Xerophthalmia, & rheumatoid arthritis)

A

Pilocarpine

420
Q

Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Differentiation of myasthenia and cholinergic crisis

A

Edrophonium

421
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

Reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular block

A

Neostigmine

422
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

A

Physostigmine

423
Q

Diagnosis of bronchial hyperreactivity

A

Methacoline

424
Q

Treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

A

Donepezil

425
Q

Peripheral neuropathy

A

Vincristine

426
Q

Bone marrow suppression

A

Vinblastine

427
Q

For Hodgkins lymphoma, leukemias, Wilms tumor, Ewings sarcoma

A

Vincristine

428
Q

For Hodgkins disease, testicular CA

A

Vinblastine

429
Q

Inhibits topoisomerase 1

A

Camptothecins

430
Q

Pyrimidine analog

A

5-Fluorouracil

Cytarabine

431
Q

Inhibits thymidilate synthetase

A

5-Fluorouracil

432
Q

For breast CA and GI carcinoma, colorectal CA, pancreatic CA, ovarian CA

A

5-Fluorouracil

433
Q

Prevents elongation of DNA

A

Cytarabine

434
Q

For AML ONLY

A

Cytarabine

435
Q

For ALL and AML

A

6-Mercaptopurine

436
Q

Pyrimidine analogs

A

Capecitabine, Cytarabine, Fluourouracil, Gemcitabine

437
Q

Inhibits toposiomerase II

A

Etoposide, Teniposide, Poside

Podophyllotoxins

438
Q

Promote microtubule assembly and stabilizatiom thus inhibiting cell division

A

Taxanes

439
Q

Taxanes drugs

A

Docetaxel, Paclitaxel, Taxel

440
Q

Promotes microtubule formation but prevents disassembly that malformed microtubules

A

Paclitaxel

441
Q

For ovarian and breast ca

A

Paclitaxel

442
Q

Estrogen antagonist

A

Tamoxifen

443
Q

Treatment of ER + breast ca

A

Tamoxifen

444
Q

Competitive inhibitor of estradiol

A

Tamoxifen

445
Q

DOC for estrogen-receptor positive breast ca

A

Tamoxifen

446
Q

Adverse effects of Tamoxifen

A

Hor flushes
Nausea, vomiting
Menstrual bleeding
Thromboembolic disease

447
Q

Endometrial CA

A

Tamoxifen

448
Q

Inhibits translocation of androgen receptor to the nucleus

A

Flutamide

449
Q

For prostate CA

A

Flutamide

450
Q

Side effects of Flutamide

A

Diarrhea, hot flushes, impotence, gynecomastia, reversible hepatotoxicity

451
Q

Inhibits release of FSH and LH

A

Leuprolide

452
Q

For prostate and endometriosis

A

Leuprolide

PEARLS PEARLS PEARLS 📌📌 (12 decks)

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