Physical Examination: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Systems Flashcards

1
Q

List 3 possible signs of decreased cardiac output and low oxygen saturation.

A
  1. Cyanosis: bluish color of the skin, nail beds, lips and tongue
  2. Pallor: washed out, absence of pink, rosy color
  3. Diaphoresis: excess sweating and cool, clammy skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is an apical pulse assessed?

A

Patient is placed in supine, palpate at 5th intercostal space and midclavicular line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the best site to monitor pulse in an infant?

A

Brachial artery (medial aspect of the antecubital fossa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain the grading scale for peripheral pulses.

A
Grade 0 = absent pulse, not palpable 
Grade 1 = pulse diminished, barely perceptible 
Grade 2 = Easily palpable, normal 
Grade 3 = full pulse, increased strength
Grade 4 = bounding pulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal heart rate for adults, children and newborns?

A
  1. Adults and teenagers: 60-100 bmp (40-60 in aerobically trained)
  2. Children = 60-140 bpm
  3. Newborn = average is 127 bpm; normal range 90-164 bpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A heart rate of ____ is considered tachycardia, and a heart rate of ____ is considered bradycardia.

A
Tachycardia = > 100 bpm
Bradycardia = < 60 bpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is postural tachycardia syndrome?

A

Sustained heart rate increase greater than or equal to 30 bpm within 10 minutes of standing (> 40 bpm on teenagers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the difference between S1 and S2 sounds during auscultation.

A

S1 sound (lub): normal closure of mitral and tricuspid valves; marks the end of systole; decreased in first degree heart block

S2 sound (dub): normal closure of aortic and pulmonary valves; marks end of systole; Decreased in aortic stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the S3 heart sound. Is this normal?

A

Vibrations of the distended ventricle walls due to passive flow of blood from the atria during the rapid filling phase of diastole

Normal in healthy young children
Abnormal in adults (ventricular gallop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the S4 heart sound. What 3 conditions is this sound associated with?

A

Pathological sound of vibration of the ventricular wall with ventricular filling and atrial contraction

Associated with hypertension, stenosis and MI (atrial gallop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a thrill?

A

An abnormal tremor accompanying a vascular or cardiac murmur; felt on palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a bruit? What is this indicative of?

A

An adventitious sound or murmur (blowing sound) of arterial or venous origin

Indicative of atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is blood pressure typically taken?

A

At the brachial artery of the right arm using a sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What values are considered to be normal, prehypertension, stage 1, stage 2 hypertension, and hypertensive crisis?

A

Normal BP: 120/80
Prehypertension: Systolic 120-129 or diastolic 80-89 mmHg
Stage 1 Hypertension: > 130/80
Stage 2 Hypertension: > or equal to 140/90
Hypertensive crisis: > 180/120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension? How is it assessed?

A

Drop in BP that accompanies change from supine to standing position

  1. Initial BP and HR assessment when patient supine, at rest for > 5 minutes
  2. Patient moves directly to standing position and repeat BP and HR assessment immediately and again at 3 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient is considered orthostatic if systolic BP drops ____ or if the diastolic BP drops _____.

A

Systolic drops > 20 mmHg

Diastolic drops > 10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)? Normal values? How is it calculated?

A

The arterial pressure within the large arteries over time; dependent on mean blood flow and arterial compliance

Normal values: 70-110 mmHg
MAP = [SBP + 2(DBP)] / 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult, newborn, and child?

A
Adult = 12-20 bpm 
Newborn = 30-40 bpm
Child = 20-30 bpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the difference between tachypnea, bradypnea and hyperpnea?

A
Tachypnea = an increase in RR > 22 breaths per minute 
Bradypnea = a decrease of RR < 10 breaths per minute 
Hyperpnea = an increase in depth and rate of breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between dyspnea, dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A

Dyspnea = shortness of breath
Dyspnea on exertion = shortness of breath brought on by exercise or activity
Orthopnea = inability to breath when in a reclining or supine position
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea = sudden inability to breath occurring during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe normal tracheal and bronchial sounds.

A

Loud tubular sounds normally heard over the trachea

Inspiratory phase is shorter than the expiratory phase and there is a slight pause between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bronchial sounds heard over the _____ are abnormal and indicate _____ or ____ of lung tissue that facilitates transmission of sound.

A

Distal airways
Consolidation
Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe vesicular sounds.

A

High pitched, breezy sounds normally heard over the distal airways in healthy lung tissue

Inspiratory phase is longer than expiratory phase and there is no pause between them.

24
Q

_____ and _____ are considered adventitious (abnormal) breath sounds.

A

Crackles (rales/crepitation)

Wheezes

25
Q

Describe crackles. List 3 conditions where crackles may be heard during auscultation.

A

An abnormal, discontinuous, high pitched popping sound heard more often during inspiration

Atelectasis, fibrosis, pulmonary lung disease

26
Q

What is a pleural friction rub?

A

Dry, crackling sound heard during both inspiration and expiration.

Occurs when inflamed visceral and parietal pleurae rub together

Heard over the spot where the patient feels pleuritic pain

27
Q

What is the difference between hypoxemia, hypoxia and anoxia?

A
Hypoxemia = abnormally low amount of oxygen in the blood 
Hypoxia = low oxygen levels in the tissue 
Anoxia = complete lack of oxygen
28
Q

List 5 areas where cardiac pain can refer.

A
Shoulders
Back 
Arms
Neck
Jaw
29
Q

Pain referred to the back can occur from ______.

A

Dissecting aortic aneurysm

30
Q

Explain the angina pain scale.

A
1 = mild, barely noticeable 
2 = moderate, bothersome 
3 = moderately severe, very uncomfortable 
4 = most severe or intense pain ever experienced
31
Q

What is diaphoresis? What can it be associated with?

A

Excess sweating that can be associated with decreased cardiac output

32
Q

What is clubbing? What is it associated with?

A

Curvature of the fingernails with soft tissue enlargement at base of nail

Associated with chronic oxygen deficiency, chronic pulmonary disease and heart failure

33
Q

What trophic changes are associated with peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?

A

Pale, shiny, dry skin, with loss of hair

34
Q

What is Stemmer’s sign? What is it indicative of?

A

Dorsal skin folds of the toes or fingers are resistant to lifting

Indicative of fibrotic changes and lymphedema

35
Q

Peripheral edema is associated with ____ and ____. Bilateral edema is associated with _____.

A

Peripheral = chronic venous insufficiency and lymphedema

Bilateral = congestive heart failure

36
Q

Describe the grading scale for edema.

A

1+ Mild, barely perceptible indentation; <1/4 inch pitting
2+ Moderate, easily identifiable depression; returns to normal within 15 seconds; 1/4-1/2 inch pitting
3+ Severe, depression takes 15-30 seconds to rebound; 1/2-1 inch pitting
4+ Very severe, depression lasts for > 30 seconds or more; > 1 inch pitting

37
Q

What is intermittent claudication?

A

Pain, cramping and LE fatigue occurring during exercise and relieved by rest

38
Q

Explain the treadmill test for intermittent claudication.

A

Have the patient walk on a treadmill at 1mph and note the level of claudication pain and time of test pain was experienced

39
Q

Describe the grading scale of intermittent claudication.

A

Grade 1 = minimal discomfort or pain
Grade 2 = moderate discomfort or pain; patient’s attention can be diverted
Grade 3 = Intense pain; patient’s attention cannot be diverted
Grade 4 = excruciating and unbearable pain

40
Q

Describe the different sites of pain with intermittent claudication and their associated sites of stenosis.

A

Pain in the buttock, hip or thigh = obstruction of aorta and iliac arteries
Pain in the calf = stenosis of femoral and popliteal arteries
Pain in the ankle or foot = disease of the tibial or peroneal arteries

41
Q

What is the ankle brachial index? How is it assessed? How is calculated?

A

ABI compares systolic blood pressure at the ankle and arm to check for peripheral artery disease.

Measure UE systolic BP at the brachial artery and LE systolic BP at posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis arteries

ABI is calculated by dividing the higher of the two BP measurements in the ankles by the higher of the two systolic BP measurements at the arms

42
Q

Describe the significance of ankle brachial index values.

A

> 1.4 = indicates non-compliant, rigid arteries
1-1.4 = normal
0.91-0.99 = mild blockage, beginning of PAD
< 0.9 = moderate blockage; maybe associated with intermittent claudication
< 0.5 = severe blockage and arterial disease; may have claudication pain at rest

43
Q

What is capillary refill time? How is it tested? Normal values?

A

The time it takes the capillary bed to refill after it is occluded by pressure is an indicator of impaired perfusion to the extremities

  1. Apply firm pressure over a nail bed or bony prominence until the nail or skin blanches.
  2. Release the pressure
  3. Observe the time for the nail or skin to regain its full color
Normal = full color returns in < 2 seconds
Abnormal = refill time > 2 seconds
44
Q

What is body mass index? How is calculated?

A

Describes relative weight for height to determine risk for obesity

BMI = weight (kg) / height (m^2)

45
Q

Describe the normal versus abnormal BMI values.

A
< 18.5 = underweight 
18.5-24.9 = normal 
25-29.9 = overweight 
> 30 = obesity 
> 40 = morbid obesity
46
Q

What is the percussion test? How is it performed? Positive findings?

A

Determines competence of greater saphenous vein

IN standing, palpate one segment of the vein while percussing vein approximately 20 cm higher

Positive: if pulse wave is felt by lower hand, the intervening valves are incompetent

47
Q

What is the normal position of the trachea?

A

Positioned at midline, superior to the suprasternal notch

48
Q

What is the normal thoracic excursion in healthy adults from full inspiration to end tidal volume expiration?

A

Between 2-3 inches

49
Q

What is mediate percussion? How is it performed?

A

The act of tapping the surface of the body to identify areas of altered density

Place the palmar surface of the middle finger firmly against the chest wall in the intercostal space parallel to the ribs and strike this finger with a quick, sharp blow using the middle finger of the other hand.

50
Q

______ is the normal percussion sound of an air-filled lung. ______ is the sound that occurs almost exclusively with a large pneumothorax.

A

Resonance is normal

Tympany = pneumothorax (hollow drumbeat sound)

51
Q

What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing (PFT)? Describe the testing procedure.

A

Evaluate lung volumes, capacities and flow rates.

Subject exhales into spirometer as hard and as fast as possible for 6 seconds until no more air can be expelled

52
Q

Obstructive ventilatory impairment is characterized by decreased _____. What is the primary PFT indicator of an obstructive impairment.

A

Decreased EXPIRATORY FLOW

Primary indicator = FEV1/FVC < 70%

53
Q

List the classifications of obstructive lung disease based on FEV1/FVC ratios.

A

FEV1/FVC > 100% = normal variant
FEV1/FVC 70-100% = normal to mild obstruction
FEV1/FVC 60-70% = moderate obstruction
FEV1/FVC 50-60% moderate to severe obstruction
FEV1/FVC < 50% = severe obstruction

54
Q

_____ is often used to get an estimate of SpO2.

A

Pulse oximetry

55
Q

What is rate pressure product (RPP)? How is it calculated?

A

Index of myocardial oxygen consumption and coronary blood flow

RPP = HR x SBP
(Take HR and SBP during the same exercise workload)

56
Q

How should the rate pressure product (RPP) be used when developing an exercise program for patients with angina?

A

Keeping the intensity of exercise below the RPP value will reduce the risk of developing angina